Food safety officer exam
Section 1: Food Safety & Standards Act, 2006
1. When was the Food Safety and Standards Act enacted in India?
a) 2005
b) 2006
c) 2007
d) 2008
2. Which body replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration (PFA) Act?
a) AGMARK
b) FSSAI
c) BIS
d) ISO
3. What is the full form of FSSAI?
a) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
b) Food Security and Standards Association of India
c) Food Science and Safety Authority of India
d) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
4. Which section of the FSS Act deals with the punishment for unsafe food?
a) Section 50
b) Section 59
c) Section 65
d) Section 72
5. What is the penalty for selling substandard food under the FSS Act?
a) ₹1 lakh
b) ₹5 lakh
c) ₹10 lakh
d) ₹25,000
Section 2: Food Microbiology & Contamination
6. Which bacteria cause food poisoning from undercooked poultry?
a) E. coli
b) Salmonella
c) Lactobacillus
d) Streptococcus
7. Botulism is caused by:
a) Virus
b) Clostridium botulinum
c) Fungus
d) Parasite
8. Aflatoxin is produced by:
a) Bacteria
b) Aspergillus flavus
c) Yeast
d) Virus
9. Which microorganism is used in yogurt production?
a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
b) E. coli
c) Salmonella
d) Staphylococcus
10. The temperature danger zone for bacterial growth in food is:
a) 5°C - 60°C
b) 0°C - 10°C
c) 70°C - 100°C
d) -18°C - 0°C
Section 3: Food Preservation & Processing
11. Pasteurization of milk is done at:
a) 50°C for 30 min
b) 63°C for 30 min (LTLT)
c) 100°C for 15 sec
d) 121°C for 15 min
12. Which preservative is allowed in fruit juices as per FSSAI?
a) Formalin
b) Potassium metabisulfite
c) Borax
d) Hydrogen peroxide
13. Cold storage temperature for perishable foods should be:
a) 10°C - 15°C
b) 0°C - 4°C
c) 25°C - 30°C
d) -50°C to -30°C
14. Which method does NOT preserve food?
a) Canning
b) Freezing
c) Adding water
d) Dehydration
15. HACCP stands for:
a) Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points
b) Health and Consumer Control Program
c) Hygiene and Cooking Control Process
d) None of the above
Section 4: Food Additives & Adulteration
16. Which artificial sweetener is banned in India?
a) Aspartame
b) Sodium cyclamate
c) Sucralose
d) Saccharin
17. Argemone oil adulteration causes:
a) Epidemic dropsy
b) Lathyrism
c) Botulism
d) Aflatoxicosis
18. Which chemical is used for artificial ripening of bananas?
a) Calcium carbide
b) Sodium benzoate
c) Potassium permanganate
d) Formalin
19. Met anil yellow is an adulterant in:
a) Milk
b) Turmeric powder
c) Honey
d) Salt
20. The permissible limit of lead in food as per FSSAI is:
a) 10 ppm
b) 2.5 ppm
c) 5 ppm
d) 1 ppm
Section 5: Food Packaging & Labelling
21. What does "Best Before" indicate on a food label?
a) Quality
b) Safety
c) Expiry
d) Manufacturing date
22. Which symbol is mandatory for vegetarian food in India?
a) Red dot
b) Green dot
c) Blue triangle
d) Black square
23. FSSAI's license number format is:
a) XXXXX-XXXX-XXXXX
b) ABC12345
c) FSSAI-REG-2023
d) None of the above
24. Which packaging material is NOT eco-friendly?
a) Paper
b) PVC
c) Glass
d) Aluminum
25. What must be declared on a food label as per FSSAI?
a) Ingredients, allergens, FSSAI logo
b) Only price
c) Only manufacturing date
d) None of the above
Section 6: Foodborne Diseases & Hygiene
26. Typhoid is caused by:
a) Salmonella Typhi
b) E. coli
c) Vibrio cholerae
d) Hepatitis A
27. Which disease is transmitted through contaminated water?
a) Cholera
b) Tuberculosis
c) Malaria
d) Dengue
28. Personal hygiene for food handlers includes:
a) Washing hands, wearing gloves, no jewellery
b) Using strong perfumes
c) Wearing open-toe shoes
d) None of the above
29. The ideal pH of drinking water should be:
a) 6.5 - 8.5
b) 3 - 5
c) 9 - 11
d) 1 - 3
30. Which is NOT a foodborne pathogen?
a) Listeria
b) Plasmodium (malaria parasite)
c) Norovirus
d) Campylobacter
Section 7: Milk & Dairy Products
31. The platform test for milk detects:
a) Adulteration with water
b) Fat content
c) Protein content
d) Microbial count
32. Milk is a rich source of:
a) Calcium
b) Iron
c) Vitamin C
d) Fiber
33. The process of breaking fat globules in milk is called:
a) Homogenization
b) Pasteurization
c) Sterilization
d) Fermentation
34. Which test detects starch in milk?
a) Iodine test
b) Benedict’s test
c) Litmus test
d) Biuret test
35. The permissible level of microbial count in pasteurized milk is:
a) ≤ 30,000 CFU/ml
b) ≤ 1,00,000 CFU/ml
c) ≤ 10,000 CFU/ml
d) ≤ 5,000 CFU/ml
Section 8: Meat & Poultry Safety
36. Inspection of meat is done to detect:
a) Cysts, parasites, infections
b) Only colour
c) Only smell
d) None of the above
37. The greenish discoloration in meat indicates:
a) Pseudomonas growth
b) Freshness
c) High protein
d) None of the above
38. Which virus is associated with poultry contamination?
a) Avian influenza (H5N1)
b) HIV
c) Hepatitis B
d) Dengue
39. The ideal temperature for frozen meat storage is:
a) -18°C or below
b) 0°C
c) 4°C
d) 10°C
40. Rigor mortis in meat occurs due to:
a) Lactic acid accumulation
b) Protein degradation
c) Fat oxidation
d) None of the above
Section 9: Food Laws & Regulations
41. Which act regulates food standards in India before FSSAI?
a) PFA Act (1954)
b) FDA Act
c) ISO Act
d) None
42. AGMARK certification is given for:
a) Agricultural products
b) Packaged water
c) Medicines
d) Electronics
43. The Food Safety and Standards Rules were framed in:
a) 2011
b) 2006
c) 2015
d) 2020
44. Which license is required for large food businesses?
a) Central License
b) State License
c) Registration
d) None
45. The punishment for food adulteration causing death is:
a) Life imprisonment
b) 6 months jail
c) Fine only
d) Warning
Section 10: General Food Science
46. Maillard reaction occurs between:
a) Amino acids & reducing sugars
b) Fats & proteins
c) Vitamins & minerals
d) None
47. Water activity (aw) for microbial growth should be:
a) > 0.85
b) < 0.60
c) 1.0
d) 0.5
48. The main source of Vitamin C is:
a) Citrus fruits
b) Meat
c) Milk
d) Cereals
49. Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin A
50. The energy value of carbohydrates is:
a) 4 kcal/g
b) 9 kcal/g
c) 7 kcal/g
d) 2 kcal/g
51. Section 11: Food Allergens & Labeling
52. Which of these is a major food allergen as per FSSAI?
a) Peanuts
b) Garlic
c) Onion
d) Sugar
53. Gluten-free labeling is mandatory for foods meant for:
a) Celiac disease patients
b) Diabetics
c) Lactose-intolerant individuals
d) None
54. Which food allergen is commonly found in soy sauce?
a) Wheat (gluten)
b) Milk
c) Eggs
d) Fish
55. The FSSAI requires allergen declarations to be:
a) Bold or highlighted on labels
b) Written in small print
c) Only on request
d) Not required
56. Anaphylaxis is a severe reaction caused by:
a) Food allergens (e.g., nuts, shellfish)
b) Food colors
c) Preservatives
d) Water contamination
Section 12: Food Sampling & Analysis
57. The correct method for collecting a food sample for legal action is:
a) Divided into 4 parts, sealed, and labeled
b) Stored in any plastic bag
c) Sent directly to the lab without sealing
d) Kept open for testing
58. As per FSSAI, how much sample quantity is required for liquid analysis?
a) 1 liter
b) 100 ml
c) 5 liters
d) 10 ml
59. Which test detects pesticide residues in food?
a) Gas Chromatography (GC)
b) Benedict’s test
c) Iodine test
d) Litmus test
60. The purpose of a "Control Sample" is to:
a) Compare with the adulterated sample
b) Increase shelf life
c) Reduce testing time
d) None
61. Who has the authority to lift food samples under the FSS Act?
a) Food Safety Officer (FSO)
b) Police officer
c) Municipal worker
d) Any citizen
Section 13: Food Storage & Transportation
62. FIFO in food storage stands for:
a) First In, First Out
b) Food In, Food Out
c) Fast Inventory for Orders
d) None
63. The temperature for frozen food transport should be:
a) -18°C or below
b) 0°C
c) 10°C
d) Room temperature
64. Which gas is used in Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP)?
a) Nitrogen (N₂)
b) Oxygen (O₂)
c) Carbon monoxide (CO)
d) Hydrogen (H₂)
65. Breakdown of the cold chain can lead to:
a) Microbial growth
b) Improved taste
c) Longer shelf life
d) None
66. AGMARK standards apply to:
a) Agricultural commodities (e.g., grains, spices)
b) Packaged water
c) Dairy products
d) Meat
Section 14: International Standards
67. Codex Alimentarius is managed by:
a) WHO & FAO
b) FSSAI
c) FDA
d) ISO
68. ISO 22000 refers to:
a) Food Safety Management System
b) Food labeling
c) Organic certification
d) None
69. Which organization sets global food safety standards?
a) Codex Alimentarius Commission
b) World Trade Organization (WTO)
c) UNICEF
d) WHO
70. HACCP was developed by:
a) NASA & Pillsbury (for astronauts)
b) FSSAI
c) FDA
d) WHO
71. Maximum Residue Limits (MRLs) for pesticides are set by:
a) Codex Alimentarius
b) AGMARK
c) BIS
d) FPO
72. Section 15: Recent FSSAI Updates
73. "Eat Right India" campaign focuses on:
a) Safe, healthy, and sustainable food
b) Junk food promotion
c) Imported foods
d) None
74. FSSAI’s "Heart Attack Rewind" campaign targets:
a) Reducing trans fats in foods
b) Sugar reduction
c) Milk adulteration
d) Organic farming
75. The limit for trans fats in foods as per FSSAI (2022) is:
a) ≤ 2%
b) ≤ 5%
c) ≤ 10%
d) No limit
76. "Food Safety Mitra" scheme aims to:
a) Support small businesses with compliance
b) Promote junk food
c) Ban Street food
d) None
77. FSSAI’s "Project Dhoop" focuses on:
a) Fortification of milk with Vitamin D & A
b) Reducing salt
c) Organic certification
d) Food packaging
Section 16: Advanced Food Science
78. Water activity (aw) for most bacterial growth is:
a) > 0.85
b) < 0.60
c) 1.0
d) 0.3
79. The Maillard reaction occurs between:
a) Amino acids & reducing sugars
b) Fats & proteins
c) Vitamins & minerals
d) None
80. Mycotoxins are produced by:
a) Fungi (e.g., Aspergillus)
b) Bacteria
c) Viruses
d) Algae
81. The enzyme "rennet" is used in:
a) Cheese making
b) Bread fermentation
c) Yogurt production
d) Pickling
82. The TPC (Total Plate Count) test measures:
a) Total microbial load
b) Fat content
c) Protein quality
d) Acidity
83. Section 17: Food Fortification & Nutrition
84. "Double Fortified Salt" contains:
a) Iron & Iodine
b) Calcium & Vitamin D
c) Zinc & Magnesium
d) None
85. Vitamin D deficiency causes:
a) Rickets
b) Scurvy
c) Beriberi
d) Pellagra
86. Golden Rice is fortified with:
a) Beta-carotene (Vitamin A)
b) Iron
c) Vitamin C
d) Protein
87. The "+F" logo on food packages indicates:
a) Fortified food
b) Organic food
c) Preservative-free
d) None
88. Which vitamin is added to edible oil under FSSAI’s fortification program?
a) Vitamin A & D
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin K
89.
90. Section 18: Emerging Food Technologies
91. Cold plasma technology is used for:
a) Surface sterilization of food
b) Freezing
c) Fermentation
d) None
92. High-Pressure Processing (HPP) preserves food by:
a) Killing microbes without heat
b) Adding preservatives
c) Drying
d) Irradiation
93. Nanotechnology in food packaging helps in:
a) Extending shelf life
b) Increasing cost
c) Reducing nutrition
d) None
94. Blockchain technology in food safety is used for:
a) Traceability (farm to fork)
b) Adulteration
c) Color enhancement
d) None
95. 3D food printing is an example of:
a) Additive manufacturing
b) Traditional cooking
c) Fermentation
d) None
96. Section 19: Food Laws & Case Studies
97. The "Maggi Ban" in 2015 was due to excessive:
a) Lead & MSG
b) Sugar
c) Fat
d) Pesticides
98. Which state introduced the "Food Safety Train" for awareness?
a) Kerala
b) Punjab
c) Maharashtra
d) Gujarat
99. The "Jaggery Adulteration" scam involved adding:
a) Sodium bicarbonate
b) Sugar
c) Salt
d) Turmeric
100. FSSAI’s "Clean Street Food Hub" initiative was first launched in:
a) Delhi (Chandni Chowk)
b) Mumbai
c) Chennai
d) Kolkata
101. Which pesticide was banned in 2020 due to food safety concerns?
a) Monocrotophos
b) Glyphosate
c) DDT
d) Endosulfan
Section 20: Practical Food Safety
102. A "Swab Test" in food industries checks for:
a) Microbial contamination on surfaces
b) Fat content
c) Sugar levels
d) None
103. The "Danger Zone" for bacterial growth in cooked food is:
a) 5°C – 60°C
b) 0°C – 10°C
c) 70°C – 100°C
d) -18°C – 0°C
104. Which disinfectant is used in food processing areas?
a) Sodium hypochlorite
b) Bleach (undiluted)
c) Vinegar
d) Soap water
105. The "5S Methodology" in food safety stands for:
a) Sort, Set, Shine, Standardize, Sustain
b) Store, Seal, Sanitize, Serve, Sell
c) None
d) All
106. The first step in HACCP is:
a) Conduct a hazard analysis
b) Train employees
c) Buy equipment
d) None