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Food Safety Officer Exam MCQs Guide

The document is a food safety officer exam covering various sections including food safety laws, microbiology, preservation, additives, packaging, hygiene, and foodborne diseases. It contains multiple-choice questions with correct answers indicated, focusing on regulations, standards, and practices related to food safety in India. The exam assesses knowledge on topics such as the Food Safety and Standards Act, food contamination, and food storage protocols.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
7K views12 pages

Food Safety Officer Exam MCQs Guide

The document is a food safety officer exam covering various sections including food safety laws, microbiology, preservation, additives, packaging, hygiene, and foodborne diseases. It contains multiple-choice questions with correct answers indicated, focusing on regulations, standards, and practices related to food safety in India. The exam assesses knowledge on topics such as the Food Safety and Standards Act, food contamination, and food storage protocols.

Uploaded by

rickykharmalki19
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Food safety officer exam

Section 1: Food Safety & Standards Act, 2006

1. When was the Food Safety and Standards Act enacted in India?
a) 2005
b) 2006 
c) 2007
d) 2008

2. Which body replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration (PFA) Act?


a) AGMARK
b) FSSAI 
c) BIS
d) ISO

3. What is the full form of FSSAI?


a) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
b) Food Security and Standards Association of India
c) Food Science and Safety Authority of India
d) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India 

4. Which section of the FSS Act deals with the punishment for unsafe food?
a) Section 50
b) Section 59 
c) Section 65
d) Section 72

5. What is the penalty for selling substandard food under the FSS Act?
a) ₹1 lakh
b) ₹5 lakh 
c) ₹10 lakh
d) ₹25,000

Section 2: Food Microbiology & Contamination

6. Which bacteria cause food poisoning from undercooked poultry?


a) E. coli
b) Salmonella 
c) Lactobacillus
d) Streptococcus

7. Botulism is caused by:


a) Virus
b) Clostridium botulinum 
c) Fungus
d) Parasite

8. Aflatoxin is produced by:


a) Bacteria
b) Aspergillus flavus 
c) Yeast
d) Virus
9. Which microorganism is used in yogurt production?
a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus 
b) E. coli
c) Salmonella
d) Staphylococcus

10. The temperature danger zone for bacterial growth in food is:
a) 5°C - 60°C 
b) 0°C - 10°C
c) 70°C - 100°C
d) -18°C - 0°C

Section 3: Food Preservation & Processing

11. Pasteurization of milk is done at:


a) 50°C for 30 min
b) 63°C for 30 min (LTLT) 
c) 100°C for 15 sec
d) 121°C for 15 min

12. Which preservative is allowed in fruit juices as per FSSAI?


a) Formalin
b) Potassium metabisulfite 
c) Borax
d) Hydrogen peroxide

13. Cold storage temperature for perishable foods should be:


a) 10°C - 15°C
b) 0°C - 4°C 
c) 25°C - 30°C
d) -50°C to -30°C

14. Which method does NOT preserve food?


a) Canning
b) Freezing
c) Adding water 
d) Dehydration

15. HACCP stands for:


a) Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points 
b) Health and Consumer Control Program
c) Hygiene and Cooking Control Process
d) None of the above

Section 4: Food Additives & Adulteration

16. Which artificial sweetener is banned in India?


a) Aspartame
b) Sodium cyclamate 
c) Sucralose
d) Saccharin

17. Argemone oil adulteration causes:


a) Epidemic dropsy 
b) Lathyrism
c) Botulism
d) Aflatoxicosis

18. Which chemical is used for artificial ripening of bananas?


a) Calcium carbide 
b) Sodium benzoate
c) Potassium permanganate
d) Formalin

19. Met anil yellow is an adulterant in:


a) Milk
b) Turmeric powder 
c) Honey
d) Salt

20. The permissible limit of lead in food as per FSSAI is:


a) 10 ppm
b) 2.5 ppm 
c) 5 ppm
d) 1 ppm

Section 5: Food Packaging & Labelling

21. What does "Best Before" indicate on a food label?


a) Quality 
b) Safety
c) Expiry
d) Manufacturing date

22. Which symbol is mandatory for vegetarian food in India?


a) Red dot
b) Green dot 
c) Blue triangle
d) Black square

23. FSSAI's license number format is:


a) XXXXX-XXXX-XXXXX 
b) ABC12345
c) FSSAI-REG-2023
d) None of the above

24. Which packaging material is NOT eco-friendly?


a) Paper
b) PVC 
c) Glass
d) Aluminum

25. What must be declared on a food label as per FSSAI?


a) Ingredients, allergens, FSSAI logo 
b) Only price
c) Only manufacturing date
d) None of the above
Section 6: Foodborne Diseases & Hygiene

26. Typhoid is caused by:


a) Salmonella Typhi 
b) E. coli
c) Vibrio cholerae
d) Hepatitis A

27. Which disease is transmitted through contaminated water?


a) Cholera 
b) Tuberculosis
c) Malaria
d) Dengue

28. Personal hygiene for food handlers includes:


a) Washing hands, wearing gloves, no jewellery 
b) Using strong perfumes
c) Wearing open-toe shoes
d) None of the above

29. The ideal pH of drinking water should be:


a) 6.5 - 8.5 
b) 3 - 5
c) 9 - 11
d) 1 - 3

30. Which is NOT a foodborne pathogen?


a) Listeria
b) Plasmodium (malaria parasite) 
c) Norovirus
d) Campylobacter

Section 7: Milk & Dairy Products

31. The platform test for milk detects:


a) Adulteration with water 
b) Fat content
c) Protein content
d) Microbial count

32. Milk is a rich source of:


a) Calcium 
b) Iron
c) Vitamin C
d) Fiber

33. The process of breaking fat globules in milk is called:


a) Homogenization 
b) Pasteurization
c) Sterilization
d) Fermentation

34. Which test detects starch in milk?


a) Iodine test 
b) Benedict’s test
c) Litmus test
d) Biuret test

35. The permissible level of microbial count in pasteurized milk is:


a) ≤ 30,000 CFU/ml 
b) ≤ 1,00,000 CFU/ml
c) ≤ 10,000 CFU/ml
d) ≤ 5,000 CFU/ml

Section 8: Meat & Poultry Safety

36. Inspection of meat is done to detect:


a) Cysts, parasites, infections 
b) Only colour
c) Only smell
d) None of the above

37. The greenish discoloration in meat indicates:


a) Pseudomonas growth 
b) Freshness
c) High protein
d) None of the above

38. Which virus is associated with poultry contamination?


a) Avian influenza (H5N1) 
b) HIV
c) Hepatitis B
d) Dengue

39. The ideal temperature for frozen meat storage is:


a) -18°C or below 
b) 0°C
c) 4°C
d) 10°C

40. Rigor mortis in meat occurs due to:


a) Lactic acid accumulation 
b) Protein degradation
c) Fat oxidation
d) None of the above

Section 9: Food Laws & Regulations

41. Which act regulates food standards in India before FSSAI?


a) PFA Act (1954)
b) FDA Act
c) ISO Act
d) None

42. AGMARK certification is given for:


a) Agricultural products 
b) Packaged water
c) Medicines
d) Electronics
43. The Food Safety and Standards Rules were framed in:
a) 2011
b) 2006
c) 2015
d) 2020

44. Which license is required for large food businesses?


a) Central License
b) State License
c) Registration
d) None

45. The punishment for food adulteration causing death is:


a) Life imprisonment
b) 6 months jail
c) Fine only
d) Warning

Section 10: General Food Science

46. Maillard reaction occurs between:


a) Amino acids & reducing sugars
b) Fats & proteins
c) Vitamins & minerals
d) None

47. Water activity (aw) for microbial growth should be:


a) > 0.85
b) < 0.60
c) 1.0
d) 0.5

48. The main source of Vitamin C is:


a) Citrus fruits
b) Meat
c) Milk
d) Cereals

49. Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?


a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin A

50. The energy value of carbohydrates is:


a) 4 kcal/g
b) 9 kcal/g
c) 7 kcal/g
d) 2 kcal/g

51. Section 11: Food Allergens & Labeling

52. Which of these is a major food allergen as per FSSAI?


a) Peanuts
b) Garlic
c) Onion
d) Sugar

53. Gluten-free labeling is mandatory for foods meant for:


a) Celiac disease patients
b) Diabetics
c) Lactose-intolerant individuals
d) None

54. Which food allergen is commonly found in soy sauce?


a) Wheat (gluten)
b) Milk
c) Eggs
d) Fish

55. The FSSAI requires allergen declarations to be:


a) Bold or highlighted on labels
b) Written in small print
c) Only on request
d) Not required

56. Anaphylaxis is a severe reaction caused by:


a) Food allergens (e.g., nuts, shellfish)
b) Food colors
c) Preservatives
d) Water contamination

Section 12: Food Sampling & Analysis

57. The correct method for collecting a food sample for legal action is:
a) Divided into 4 parts, sealed, and labeled
b) Stored in any plastic bag
c) Sent directly to the lab without sealing
d) Kept open for testing

58. As per FSSAI, how much sample quantity is required for liquid analysis?
a) 1 liter
b) 100 ml
c) 5 liters
d) 10 ml

59. Which test detects pesticide residues in food?


a) Gas Chromatography (GC)
b) Benedict’s test
c) Iodine test
d) Litmus test

60. The purpose of a "Control Sample" is to:


a) Compare with the adulterated sample
b) Increase shelf life
c) Reduce testing time
d) None

61. Who has the authority to lift food samples under the FSS Act?
a) Food Safety Officer (FSO)
b) Police officer
c) Municipal worker
d) Any citizen

Section 13: Food Storage & Transportation

62. FIFO in food storage stands for:


a) First In, First Out
b) Food In, Food Out
c) Fast Inventory for Orders
d) None

63. The temperature for frozen food transport should be:


a) -18°C or below
b) 0°C
c) 10°C
d) Room temperature

64. Which gas is used in Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP)?


a) Nitrogen (N₂)
b) Oxygen (O₂)
c) Carbon monoxide (CO)
d) Hydrogen (H₂)

65. Breakdown of the cold chain can lead to:


a) Microbial growth
b) Improved taste
c) Longer shelf life
d) None

66. AGMARK standards apply to:


a) Agricultural commodities (e.g., grains, spices)
b) Packaged water
c) Dairy products
d) Meat

Section 14: International Standards

67. Codex Alimentarius is managed by:


a) WHO & FAO
b) FSSAI
c) FDA
d) ISO

68. ISO 22000 refers to:


a) Food Safety Management System
b) Food labeling
c) Organic certification
d) None

69. Which organization sets global food safety standards?


a) Codex Alimentarius Commission
b) World Trade Organization (WTO)
c) UNICEF
d) WHO
70. HACCP was developed by:
a) NASA & Pillsbury (for astronauts)
b) FSSAI
c) FDA
d) WHO

71. Maximum Residue Limits (MRLs) for pesticides are set by:
a) Codex Alimentarius
b) AGMARK
c) BIS
d) FPO

72. Section 15: Recent FSSAI Updates

73. "Eat Right India" campaign focuses on:


a) Safe, healthy, and sustainable food
b) Junk food promotion
c) Imported foods
d) None

74. FSSAI’s "Heart Attack Rewind" campaign targets:


a) Reducing trans fats in foods
b) Sugar reduction
c) Milk adulteration
d) Organic farming

75. The limit for trans fats in foods as per FSSAI (2022) is:
a) ≤ 2%
b) ≤ 5%
c) ≤ 10%
d) No limit

76. "Food Safety Mitra" scheme aims to:


a) Support small businesses with compliance
b) Promote junk food
c) Ban Street food
d) None

77. FSSAI’s "Project Dhoop" focuses on:


a) Fortification of milk with Vitamin D & A
b) Reducing salt
c) Organic certification
d) Food packaging

Section 16: Advanced Food Science

78. Water activity (aw) for most bacterial growth is:


a) > 0.85
b) < 0.60
c) 1.0
d) 0.3

79. The Maillard reaction occurs between:


a) Amino acids & reducing sugars
b) Fats & proteins
c) Vitamins & minerals
d) None

80. Mycotoxins are produced by:


a) Fungi (e.g., Aspergillus)
b) Bacteria
c) Viruses
d) Algae

81. The enzyme "rennet" is used in:


a) Cheese making
b) Bread fermentation
c) Yogurt production
d) Pickling

82. The TPC (Total Plate Count) test measures:


a) Total microbial load
b) Fat content
c) Protein quality
d) Acidity

83. Section 17: Food Fortification & Nutrition

84. "Double Fortified Salt" contains:


a) Iron & Iodine
b) Calcium & Vitamin D
c) Zinc & Magnesium
d) None

85. Vitamin D deficiency causes:


a) Rickets
b) Scurvy
c) Beriberi
d) Pellagra

86. Golden Rice is fortified with:


a) Beta-carotene (Vitamin A)
b) Iron
c) Vitamin C
d) Protein

87. The "+F" logo on food packages indicates:


a) Fortified food
b) Organic food
c) Preservative-free
d) None

88. Which vitamin is added to edible oil under FSSAI’s fortification program?
a) Vitamin A & D
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin K

89.
90. Section 18: Emerging Food Technologies

91. Cold plasma technology is used for:


a) Surface sterilization of food
b) Freezing
c) Fermentation
d) None

92. High-Pressure Processing (HPP) preserves food by:


a) Killing microbes without heat
b) Adding preservatives
c) Drying
d) Irradiation

93. Nanotechnology in food packaging helps in:


a) Extending shelf life
b) Increasing cost
c) Reducing nutrition
d) None

94. Blockchain technology in food safety is used for:


a) Traceability (farm to fork)
b) Adulteration
c) Color enhancement
d) None

95. 3D food printing is an example of:


a) Additive manufacturing
b) Traditional cooking
c) Fermentation
d) None

96. Section 19: Food Laws & Case Studies

97. The "Maggi Ban" in 2015 was due to excessive:


a) Lead & MSG
b) Sugar
c) Fat
d) Pesticides

98. Which state introduced the "Food Safety Train" for awareness?
a) Kerala
b) Punjab
c) Maharashtra
d) Gujarat

99. The "Jaggery Adulteration" scam involved adding:


a) Sodium bicarbonate
b) Sugar
c) Salt
d) Turmeric

100. FSSAI’s "Clean Street Food Hub" initiative was first launched in:
a) Delhi (Chandni Chowk)
b) Mumbai
c) Chennai
d) Kolkata

101. Which pesticide was banned in 2020 due to food safety concerns?
a) Monocrotophos
b) Glyphosate
c) DDT
d) Endosulfan

Section 20: Practical Food Safety

102. A "Swab Test" in food industries checks for:


a) Microbial contamination on surfaces
b) Fat content
c) Sugar levels
d) None

103. The "Danger Zone" for bacterial growth in cooked food is:
a) 5°C – 60°C
b) 0°C – 10°C
c) 70°C – 100°C
d) -18°C – 0°C

104. Which disinfectant is used in food processing areas?


a) Sodium hypochlorite
b) Bleach (undiluted)
c) Vinegar
d) Soap water

105. The "5S Methodology" in food safety stands for:


a) Sort, Set, Shine, Standardize, Sustain
b) Store, Seal, Sanitize, Serve, Sell
c) None
d) All

106. The first step in HACCP is:


a) Conduct a hazard analysis
b) Train employees
c) Buy equipment
d) None

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