Document PDF 548
Document PDF 548
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (MPC) has 30 questions. The
maximum marks are 300.
3. This question paper contains three parts. Part-A is Mathematics, Part-B is Physics and
Part-C is Chemistry. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
7. Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The
answer to each question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries
+4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Note: For the benefit of the students, specially the aspiring ones, the question of
JEE(Main), 2024 are also given in this booklet. Keeping the interest of students
studying in class XI, the questions based on topics from class XI have been
marked with ‘*’, which can be attempted as a test.
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-2
PART – A (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. Let P(x, y, z) be a point in the first octant, whose projection in the xy-plane is the point Q. Let OP
= ; the angle between OQ and the positive x-axis be ; and the angle between OP and the
positive z-axis be Where O is origin. Then the distance of P from the x-axis is
(A) 1 sin2 cos 2 (B) 1 sin2 sin2
(C) 1 cos 2 sin2 (D) 1 sin2 cos 2
Ans. D
Sol. z cos Z
OQ sin
P (x,y,z)
x ( sin )cos
y ( sin )sin
Y
distance from x-axis = y2 z2
X Q
m
is , where gcd(m, n) = 1, then the value of m + n equals
n
(A) 387 (B) 390
(C) 377 (D) 384
Ans. A
Sol. rewrite the lines
L1 : r (2iˆ ˆj 3k)
ˆ (iˆ 3 ˆj 4k)
ˆ
L 2 : r (2iˆ 3ˆj 5k)
ˆ (2iˆ 3ˆj 1k)
ˆ
(a2 a1 ).(b1 b2 )
Shortest distance =
| b1 b2 |
a2 b2 0, 2, 2
ˆi ˆj kˆ
a1 b2 1 3 4 15iˆ 7ˆj 9kˆ
2 3 1
0( 15) 2.7 2.9
shortest distance =
355
m 32
m + n = 387
n 355
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-3
Q3. Let f(x) 4 cos3 x 3 3 cos 2 x 10 . The number of points of local maxima of f in interval (0, 2)
is
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 3
Ans. A
Sol. f(x) = 4cos3x + 3 3 cos2 x 10
f'(x) = sin2x (6cosx – 3 3 )
11 3
critical pts in (0, 2) are , , ,
6 6 2 2
f"(x) = –6sinx.sin2x + cos2x (12cosx – 6 3 )
f " ve
2
3
f " ve
2
f " ve
6
11
f " ve
6
So two points of local maxima
6
Q4. Let I(x) sin 2 2
dx . If I(0) = 3, then I is equal to
x(1 cot x) 12
(A) 3 (B) 3 3
(C) 2 3 (D) 6 3
Ans. B
6dx
Sol. I( x)
sin2 x(1 cot x)2
1 – cot x = 5
diff. w.r.t. x
cosec2x dx = dt
dt
6 2
t
6
c
t
6 6 sin x
I(x) = c c
1 cot x sin x cos x
x = 0, I = 3 c = 3
x I3 3
12
1 n
1 x dx, n N , satisfies
k
Q5. The value of k N for which the integral In
0
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-4
1
= x(1 xk )n 0 nx(1 xk )n 1( kxk 1 )dx
1
= x(1 xk )n nk (1 xk )n 1( xk )dx
0
k n 1
In x(1 x ) nk (1 xk )n1 (1 xk 1)dx
0
1
In x(1 xk )n nk In nkIn 1
0
k n 1
x(1 x ) nk
In = In 1
1 nk 0
1 nk
nk
In = 0 + .In 1
1 nk
n = 21
21k
I21 = . I20
1 21k
147 21k
k 7
148 1 21k
Q6. The set of all , for which the vectors a t ˆi 6ˆj 3kˆ and b tiˆ 2ˆj 2tkˆ are inclined at an
obtuse angle for all t R , is
4 4
(A) ,1 (B) ,0
3 3
(C) [0, 1) (D) (–2, 0]
Ans. B
a.a
Sol. cos
| a ||b |
a . b Ve
2
a.b t 2 6.t 12 0
since t R, (assuming 0 )
So 0 & D 0
& 362 + 48 < 0
12(3 + 4) < 0
4
, 0
3
Check for = 0, a.b ve, So possible
4
so ,0
3
Q7. For the function f(x) = (cos x) – x + 1, x R , between the following two statements
(S1) f(x) = 0 for only one value of x in [0, ]
(S2) f(x) is decreasing in 0, and increasing in ,
2 2
(A) Both (S1) and (S2) are correct (B) Only (S1) is correct
(C) Both (S1) and (S2) are incorrect (D) Only (S2) is correct
Ans. B
Sol. f(x) = cos x – x + 1
f'(x) = –sin x – 1
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-5
Q8. Let f(x) be a positive function such that the area bounded by y = f(x), y = 0 from
x = 0 to x = a > 0 is e–a + 4a2 + a – 1. Then the differential equation, whose general solution is y =
c1f(x) + c2, where c1 and c2 are arbitrary constants, is
d2 y dy d2 y dy
(A) (8ex 1) 2 0 (B) (8ex 1) 2 0
dx dx dx dx
d2 y dy d2 y dy
(C) (8ex 1) 2 0 (D) (8ex 1) 2 0
dx dx dx dx
Ans. A
a
Sol. Given f(x) dx e a 4a2 a 1
0
apply Leibneitz - rule
f(a) = –e–a + 8a + 1
f(x) e x 8x 1
dy
f '(x) e x 8 c 1(e x 8)
dx
d2 y
f "(x) e x 2 c1e x
dx
option (A) satisfies
2
15
Q9. Let the circle C1 : (x )2 (y )2 r12 and C2 : (x 8)2 y 2
r2 touch each other
2
externally at the point (6, 6). If the point (6, 6) divides the line segment joining the centres of the
circles C1 and C2 internally in the ratio 2 : 1. then ( ) 4(r12 r22 ) equals
(A) 110 (B) 145
(C) 130 (D) 125
Ans. C
16 15 2 1
Sol. 6 &6
3 3
() (6, 6) 15
(, ) (2, 3) 8,
r1 = 5, r2 = 5/2 2
A/Q = () + 4 (r12 + r22)
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-6
Integrate
tan1(e tan x ) tan1 y c
x = 0, y = 1 c
2
x tan1(e) tan1 y
4 2
1
tan1 e cot 1 y tan1
y
1
y
e
Q11. The equations of two sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC are 4x + y = 14 and 3x – 2y = 5,
4
respectively. The point 2, divides the third side BC internally in the ratio 2 : 1, the equation
3
of the side BC is
(A) x + 6y + 6 = 0 (B) x + 3y + 2 = 0
(C) x – 6y – 10 = 0 (D) x – 3y – 6 = 0
Ans. B
2x 2 x1 A
Sol. 3,
3
2y 2 14 4x1 4
3 3
6 x1
x2 & y 2 2x1 9
2 2 1
now (x2, y2) lie on AC B 4 C (x2, y2)
3(6 x1 )
2(2x1 9) 5 (x 1 , 14 – 4x 1 ) 2,
3
2
x1 4 (x 2 , y 2 ) (1, 1)
4
1
y 1 3
Equation of BC
x 1 2 1
x + 3y + 2 = 0
x 2 y 2
Q12. Let H : 2 1 be the hyperbola, whose eccentricity is 3 and the length of the latus
a2 b
rectum is 4 3 . Suppose the point (, 6), 0 lies on H. If is the product of the focal distances
of the point (, 6) then 2 + is equal to
(A) 170 (B) 172
(C) 169 (D) 171
Ans. D
x2 y2
Sol. H : 2 2 1
a b
a2 a2 a2
e2 1 2 3 1 2 2 2
b b b
2a 2
Length of latus rectum 4 3
b
b 3
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-7
a 6
(, 6) lies on Hyperbola
2 36
1 2 66 66
6 3
Focus is (0, be) & (0, –be)
Focal distance,
d1 = distance b/w (0, 3) & ( 66, 6)
d1 66 32 75 5 3
d2 = 66 92 147 7 3
5 3.7 3 105
2
A/Q + = 66 + 105
= 171
Q13. The number of critical points of the function f(x) = (x – 2)2/3 (2x + 1) is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 1 (D) 0
Ans. A
Sol. f(x) = (x – 2)2/3 (2x + 1)
7x 10
f '(x)
3(x 2)1/3
Critical pt, at which f'(x) = 0 or does not defined in the domain of f(x).
10
So, here x 2,
7
3 3
Q14. If sin x , where x , then 80 (tan2x – cos x) is equal to
5 2
(A) 18 (B) 108
(C) 109 (D) 19
Ans. C
3
Sol. Since x ,
2
3 4
sin x , cos x
5 5
A/Q 80 (tan2x – cosx) = 109
z 1 1
Q15. Let z be a complex number such that | z 2 | 1 and 1m . Then the value of
z 2 5
| Rc z 2 is
6 24
(A) (B)
5 5
2 6 1 6
(C) (D)
5 5
Ans. C
Sol. Given |z + 2| = 1
z 1 (z 1) (z 2)
(z 1) (z 2)
z 2 (z 2) (z 2)
= z z 2 2z z
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-8
let z = x + iy = x 2 + y2 + 2 + 3x + yi
z 1 1 1
A/Q Im y
z 2 5 5
| z 2 |2 (x 2)2 y 2 1
1 24
(x 2)2 1
25 25
24
x2
5
24
A/Q | Re(z 2) || x 2 |
5
m
n!
Q16. If the set R (a,b);a 5b 42,a,b N has m elements and (l i ) x iy , where i 1 ,
n 1
Q17. Let [t] be the greatest integer less than of equal to t. Let A be the set of all prime factors of 2310
x3
and f : AZ be the function f(x) log2 x 2 . The number of one-to-one functions from A
5
to the range of f is
(A) 120 (B) 25
(C) 24 (D) 20
Ans. A
Sol. 2310 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 11
So, A = {1, 3, 5, 7, 11}
x3
f(x) log2 x 2
3
So range {f(2), f(3), f(5), f(7), f(11)}
now total one-one f"s from set A to Range = 5!
2 a 0
Q18. Let A 1 3 1 . If A3 = 4A2 – A – 21I, where I is the identity matrix of order 3 × 3, then 2a + 3b
0 5 b
is equal to
(A) –9 (B) –13
(C) –10 (D) –12
Ans. B
Sol. use cayley Hamitton equation
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-9
|A – I| = 0
2 1 0
1 3 1 0
0 5 b
3 2
– (5 + b) + (11 + a + 5b) + ab + 10 – 6b = 0
It satisfies 'A' also
A3 = (5 + b) A2 – (11 + a + 5b) A – (ab + 10 – 6b) I
compare with A3 = 4A2 – A – 21I
b = –1, a = –5
2x x
Q19. The sum of all the solution of the equation (8) – 16(8) + 48 = 0
(A) log8(6) (B) log8(4)
(C) 1 + log8(6) (D) 1 + log6(8)
Ans. C
Sol. 82x – 16.8x + 48 = 0
x 2 x
(8 ) – 16.8 + 48 = 0
x -x
(8 – 4) (8 – 12) = 0
8x = 4, 12
x = log84 , log812
= log848 = log88 + log86
= 1+ log86
3
Q20. Let the sum of two positive integers be 24. If the probability, that their product is not less than
4
m
times their greatest possible product, is , where gcd(m, n) = 1, then n – m equals
n
(A) 9 (B) 11
(C) 10 (D) 8
Ans. C
Sol. AM GM
xy
xy
2
xy 122
3
Required is xy should be (144)
4
108
Total pairs where x + y = 24 are
{(1, 23), (2, 22),…..,(6, 18), (7, 17)….., (18, 6), (19, 8)…..(23, 1)}
So favourable cases = 13
Sample space = 23
13 m
Probability =
23 n
n – m = 10
repetition of digits is not allowed, and which are not divisible by 3, is equal to_____.
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-10
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q21. The number of 3-digit numbers formed using the digits 2, 3, 4, 5 and 7, when the repetition of
digits is not allowed, and which are not divisible by 3, is equal to_____.
Ans. 36
Sol. Required ways = total – numbers divisible by 3
total number † † † 5.4.3 60
5 4 3
divisible by 3
Drop Use ways
d
i
g
i
t
s
2, 4 3, 5, 7 3!
2, 7 3, 4, 5 3!
4, 5 2, 3, 7 3!
5, 7 2, 3, 4 3!
24
So required is = 60 – 24
= 36
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-11
n n n Cr 1 2
Q23. Let (4r 2 2r 1) n Cr and . If 140 281, then the value of n
r 0 r 0 r 1 n 1
is_____.
Ans. 5
n
C n
Sol. Use n 1 r
Cr 1 r
(4r + 2r + 1)nCr = 4r. (r. nCr) + [Link] + nCr
2
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-12
67
r bc a
593
593r 67a 593(b c)
| 593r 67a | 593 569
A/Q | 593r 67a |2 5932 (569)
sin4 3 cos 2
Q25. If the range of f() , R is [], then the sum of the infinite G.P., whose first
sin4 cos2
term is 64 and the common ratio is , is equal to_____.
Ans. 96
sin4 3cos 2 2cos2
Sol. f() 1
sin4 cos2 cos2 sin4
2
2cos
= 1
(1 cos 2 )2 cos 2
2cos2
= 1
cos4 cos2 1
2
= 1 (Assuming cos 0 )
cos sec 2 1
2
By AM – GM cos2 sec 2 2
cos2 sec 2 1 1
1
0 1
cos sec 2 1
2
2
1 1 2 1
cos sec 2 1
2
f() (1, 3]
now check for cos 0
sin4 3 cos 2
so f() 1
sin4 cos2
So overall range f() [1, 3]
1, 3
a 64
Now infinite GP sum
1 r 1
1
3
= 96
2 1 13 n
Q26. Let A . If the sum of the diagonal elements of A is 3 , then n is equal to_____.
1 1
Ans. 7
2 1 2 1 3 3 1 1
Sol. A2 3
1 1 1 1 3 0 1 0
1 1 1 1 0 1
A4 9 9
1 0 1 0 1 1
0 1 0 1 1 0
A 8 81 81
1 1 1 1 1 0
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-13
0 1 1 1 1 0
A 12 36 36 6
3 I
1 1 1 0 0 1
A13 = 36 A
Sum of diagonal elements 36 (2 + 1)= 37
n =7
d
A/Q L dx 55
x
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-14
a 2 a 1 A (–1, 1)
B ,
3a 3a x + 2y – 1 = 0
(a 1) 3
Solpe of BH 2x + 3y – 1 = 0
a2 2
(0, 0)
a 8 H
A/Q |a – b| = |–8 –8|=16
B D C
ax + by – 1 = 0
Q29. Let the area of the region enclosed by the curve y = min{[Link]} and the x-axis between x = –
to x = be A. Then A2 is equal to _____.
Ans. 16
Sol. Observe that portion B & C will be x = –
x=
of same area.
So required area B
0 /2
sin x . dx 2 cos [Link]
0 0
0 /2 C
= cos x
2sin x 0
= 2 + 2,
Q30. Three balls are drawn at random from a bag containing 5 blue and 4 yellow balls. Let the random
variables X and Y respectively denote the number of blue and yellow balls. If x and y are the
means of X and Y respectively. Then 7X 4Y is equal to_____.
Ans. 17
Sol.
X P(X) X.P(X) Y P(Y) Y.P(Y)
4 5
C3 C3
0 9 0 0 9 0
C3 C3
5
C1.4 C2 30
5
C2 .4 C1 40
1 9 1 9
C3 84 C3 84
5
C2 .4 C1 80
5
C1.4 C2 60
2 9 2 9
C3 84 C3 84
5 4
C3 30 C3 12
3 9 3 9
C3 84 C3 84
E(X) X XiP(Xi )
140 5
=
84 3
E(Y) Y (y i ) . P(y i )
112 4
=
84 3
A/Q 7X 4Y 17
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-15
PART – B (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q31. Average force exerted on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence is 2.4 104 N . If 360
W/cm2 is the light energy flux during span of 1 hour 30 minutes. Then the area of the surface is :
2 2
(A) 20 m (B) 0.2 m
2 2
(C) 0.1 m (D) 0.02 m
Ans. D
Sol. WCA 0, WBC 10 20 20 Joule
4 4
WAB PdV RT V 3 dV
2 2
4
1 RT 1 1
RT 2
2V 2 2 16 4
RT 1 1 3RT 3 8
300
4 2 8 32 8 4
225 J
(A) 0 (B) A B
(C) A B (D) A B A B
Ans. A
Sol. By truth table
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-16
Q34. Two planets A and B having masses m1 and m2 move around the sun in circular orbits of r1 and r2
radii respectively. If angular momentum of A is L and that of B is 3L, the ratio of time period
TA
is :
TB
3 3
1 m2 r
(A) (B) 1
27 m1 r2
3
3
m r 2
(C) 27 1 (D) 2
m2 r1
Ans. A
Sol. L mvr
L
L m1v 1 r1 v 1
m1 r1
L
v2
m2 r2
3L
T1 2 v 2 r1 m2r2 r1
T2 1 v1 r2 L r2
m1r1
3m1r1 r1
m 2r2 r2
Q35. Two different adiabatic paths for the same gas intersect two isothermal
V
curves as shown in P-V diagram. The relation between the ratio a and P a
Vd b
V
the ratio b is : d
Vc c
1
Va Vb Va Vb
(A) (B) Va Vd Vb Vc
Vb Vc Vd Vc
2 V
V V V V
(C) a b (D) a b
Vd Vc Vd Vc
Ans. D
Sol. For adiabatic process
TV 1 constant
Ta Va 1 Td Vd 1
1
Va Td
Vd Ta
Tb Vb 1 TC VC 1
1
Vb Tc
V
c Tb
Va Vb
Vd Vc
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-17
Q36. A player caught a cricket hall of mass 150 g moving at a speed of 20 m/s. If the catching process
is completed in 0.1 s, the magnitude of force exerted by the ball on the hand of the player is:
(A) 3 N (B) 300 N
(C) 150 N (D) 30 N
Ans. D
P 150 10 3 20
Sol. F 3000 102 30N
t 101
Q37. A mixture of one mole of monoatomic gas and one mole of a diatomic gas (rigid) are kept at room
temperature (270C). The ratio of specific heat of gases at constant volume respectively is:
3 3
(A) (B)
5 2
5 7
(C) (D)
3 5
Ans. A
3
C V1 3
Sol. 2
CV2 5 5
2
Q39. Binding energy of a certain nucleus is 18 108 J . How much is the difference between total mass
of all the nucleons and nuclear mass of the given nucleus:
(A) 0.2g (B) 20g
(C) 2g (D) 10g
Ans. B
Sol. E mc 2
18 108
m 2 108 kg 2 10 5 g
9 1016
= 20g
Q40. A clock has 75 cm, 60 cm long second hand and minute hand respectively. In 30 minutes
duration the tip of second hand will travel x distance more than the tip of minute hand. The value
of x in meter is nearly (Take 3.14 ) :
(A) 118.9 (B) 139.4
(C) 140.5 (D) 220.0
Ans. B
Sol. Distance travel by minute hand 60
Distance travel by second hand 2 75 60
x 2 75 60 60
= 139.4m
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-18
Q41. A stationary particle breaks into two parts of masses m A and mB which move with velocities v A
and v B respectively. The ratio of their kinetic energies (KB : KA) is:
(A) mB : mA (B) 1 : 1
(C) vB : vA (D) mB vB : mA vA
Ans. C
Sol. mA v A mB v B
2 2
k A mA v A K A VB VA
k B mB v B BB VA VB
V
A
VB
Q42. A proton and an electron are associated with same de-Broglie wavelength. The ratio of their
kinetic energies is:
(Assume h 6.63 1034 J s. me 9.0 10 31kg and mp 1836 times me)
(A) 1: 1836 (B) 1: 1836
1 1
(C) 1: (D) 1:
1836 1836
Ans. B
h
Sol2.
2km
2k1m1 2k 2m2
k 1 m 2 me 1
k 2 m1 mP 1836
Q43. Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are connected to each other by a conducting
wire. The ratio of charges of the two spheres respectively is:
b
(A) (B) ab
a
a
(C) ab (D)
b
Ans. D
Sol. v1 v 2
kq1 kq2 q a
1 a b
q2 b q2 b
Q44. Critical angle of incidence for a pair of optical media is 450. The refractive indices of first and
second media are in the ratio:
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1: 2 (D) 1: 2
Ans. A
Sol. 1 sin C 2 sin90
1 sin 45 2
1
2
2
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-19
Q45. In the given circuit, the terminal potential difference of the cell is:
3V
4 4
1
Q47. A LCR circuit is at resonance for a capacitor C, inductance L and resistance R. Now the value of
resistance is halved keeping all other parameters same. The current amplitude at resonance will
be now:
(A) halved (B) Zero
(C) same (D) double
Ans. D
V
Sol. i
R
V
i' 2i
R
2
Q48. Three bodies A, B, and C have equal kinetic energies and their masses are 400 g. 1.2 kg and 1.6
kg respectively. The ratio of their linear momenta is:
(A) 1: 3 : 2 (B) 3 : 2 : 1
(C) 1: 3 : 2 (D) 2 : 3 :1
Ans. C
Sol. P 2km
P1 : P2 : P3 20 : 20 3 : 40 1: 3 : 2
m dyne
Q49. Young’s modulus is determined by the equation given by Y 49000 where M is the mass
cm2
and is the extension of wire used in the experiment. Now error in Young modules(Y) is
estimated by taking data from M plot in graph paper. The smallest scale divisions are 5 g and
0.02 cm along load axis and extension axis respectively. If the value of M and are 500 g and 2
cm respectively then percentage error of Y is :
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Q50. The diameter of a sphere is measured using a vernier caliper whose 9 divisions of main scale are
equal to 10 divisions of vernier scale. The shortest division on the main scale is equal to 1mm.
The main scale reading is 2 cm and second division of vernier scale coincides with a division on
main scale. If mass of the sphere is 8.635 g, the density of the sphere is:
(A) 1.7 g/cm 3 (B) 2.0 g/cm 3
3
(C) 2.2 g/cm (D) 2.5 g/cm3
Ans. B
Sol. 9MSD 10VSD
9
1VSD MSD
10
9 1
LC 1MSD MSD MSD
10 10
1
1mm
10
= 0.1mm
R 20mm 2 0.1mm
20.2mm
= 2.02cm
8.635
S 2 g / cm3
4 3
1.01
3
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-21
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q51. A uniform thin metal plate of mass 10 kg with dimensions is shown. The ratio of x and y
n
coordinates of center of mass of plate in . The value of n is………
9
2,2
0,2 1,2 3,2
1,1 2,1
0,0 3,0
Ans. 15
Sol. Mass of whole plate = 6m
Mass of one plate with cavity = -m
3 3 15
6m m m
2 2 2 3
x cm
6m m 5m 2
3 9m
6m 1 m
y cm 2 2 9
6m 5m 10
3
xcm 15
2
ycm 9 9
10
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Q53. Resistance of a wire at 00C, 1000C and t0C is found to be 10, 10.2 and 10.95 respectively.
The temperature t in Kelvin scale is………..
Ans. 748
Sol. R R0 1 T
10.2 10 1 100
10.95 10 1 t
10.95 10.2 1
1 1 t
10 10 100
0.95 0.2 1
t
10 10 100
0.95 100 95 950
t 475
0.2 0.2 2
t 475 273 748k
Q54. In an alpha particle scattering experiment distance of closest approach for the particle is
4.5 1014 m . If target nucleus has atomic number 80, then maximum velocity of particle
is………. 105 m/s approximately.
1
( 9 109 SI unit, mass of particle = 6.72 10 27 kg )
4 0
Ans. 156
4KZe2
Sol. V
mrmin
4 9 109 80
27 14
1.6 19
6.72 10 4.5 10
156 105 m / s
Q55. An electron with kinetic energy 5 eV enters a region of uniform magnetic field of
3T perpendicular to its direction. An electric field E is applied perpendicular to the direction of
velocity and magnetic field. The value of E, so that electron moves along the same path,
is………. NC1 .
(Given, mass of electron = 9 10 31 kg, electric charge = 1.6 10 19 C )
Ans. 4
Sol. For given condition of undeflection net force =0
qE qVB
E VB
2 KE
B
m
2 5 1.6 1019
3 10 6
9 1031
4N/C
Q56. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm passes through single slit of 0.4
mm width. Angular divergence corresponding to second order minima would be…….. 10 3 rad.
Ans. 6
2
Sol. sin
b
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2 600 10 9
3 103 rad
4 10 4
Total divergence
3 3 10 3
6 10 3 rad
Q
Q57. Three vectors OP, OQ and OR each of magnitude A are acting as shown
in figure. The resultant of the three vectors is A x . The value of x
is………….. 90
0
O P
450
Ans. 3
Sol. R ' A 2 2A 2 A 3 R 2
X X X X
S R
X X X X
Ans. 3
Sol. A 36 10 4 m2
a 6 102 m
a 6 102
v 6 10 2 m / s
t 1
Bv
v BN iA BN ABN
R
0.5 6 10 2 6 10 2
3.6 10 3 0.5 10
100
18 104
1.8 10 3 10
100
182 1010 10
T 10 324 1010 10 3.24 106 J
Q59. A liquid column of height 0.04 cm balances excess pressure of a soap bubble of certain radius. If
density of liquid is 8 103 kg m 3 and surface tension of soap solution is 0.28 Nm 1 , then
diameter of the soap bubble is………cm.
(if g 10 m s2 )
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-24
Ans. 7
4T
Ans. P gh
r
4T 4 0.28
r
gh 8 103 10 4 16 4
4 28 10 2 7
10 2
32 2
8
D 7 10 2 m 7cm
Q60. A closed and an open organ pipe have same lengths. If the ratio of frequencies of their seventh
a 1
overtones is then the value of a is………….
a
Ans. 16
Sol. For close organ pipe
v 15v
fc 2 7 1 f2
4 4
For open organ pipe
v 8v
f0 n 1
2 2
fc 15 a 1
f0 16 a
a 16
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-25
PART – C (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q61. Which among the following compounds will undergo fastest SN2 reaction
Br Br
(A) (B)
(C) Br (D) Br
Ans. B
Sol. Fastest SN2 reaction will take place at least hindered carbon atom.
Br
is 1o alkyl halide and will give fastest SN2 reaction.
Q63. Identify the major products A and B respectively in the following set of reactions.
CH3 Conc. H2SO4
CH3 COCl A
B OH
Pyridine
CH2 CH3
(A) A= and B = COCH3
COCH3
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-26
CH2 CH3
(B) A= and B= OH
CH3 CH3
(C) A= and B= OH
CH3CO
CH3 CH3
(D) A= and B= OCOCH3
Ans. D
Sol. CH3 CH3
H2SO4(C)
OH
(A)
O
O CH3
CH3 O C CH3
CH 3 C Cl
OH
Pyridine
(B)
O 2N NO 2
Compound A
4- chloro-1,3-dinitrobenzene
NH2
CH3
C2H5
Compound B
4-ethyl-2-methylaniline.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Ans. B
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Sol. Cl
1 NO 2
6 2
3
5
4
NO 2
Correct name is 1-chloro-2,4-dinitro benzene statement I is incorrect
NH2
CH3
C2H5
4-Ethyl -2- methyl aniline
Statement II is correct.
Q66. Thiosulphate reacts differently with iodine and bromine in the reactions given below:
2s2o32 I2 S4 O62 2I
S2 O23 5Br2 5H2O 2SO42 4Br 10H
Which of the following statement justifies the above dual behaviour of thiosulphate?
(A) Bromine is a stronger oxidant than iodine
(B) Bromine undergoes oxidation and iodine undergoes reduction in these reactions
(C) Bromine is a weaker oxidant than iodine
(D) Thiosulphate undergoes oxidation by bromine and reduction by iodine in these reactions.
Ans. A
Sol. I2 oxidise S2O32 and oxidation state of sulphur changes +2 to 2.5, Br2 oxidise S2O32 and its
oxidation number changes from +2 to +6, so Br2 stronger oxidant than I2.
Q67. Combustion of glucose (C6H12O6) produces CO2 and water: The amount of oxygen (in g) required
for the complete combustion of 900 g of glucose is:
[Molar mass of glucose in g mol1=180]
(A) 800 (B) 32
(C) 960 (D) 480
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-28
Ans. C
Sol. C6H12O6 6O2 6CO2 6H2O
900
Moles of glucose 5
180
Moles of O 2 6 5 30
Moles O 2 30 32
960 gm
Q68. An octahedral complex with the formula CoCl3.nNH3 upon reaction with excess of AgNO3 solution
gives 2 moles of AgCl. Consider the oxidation state of Co in the complex is ‘x’. The value of “x+n”
is__________
(A) 3 (B) 8
(C) 5 (D) 6
Ans. B
Sol. Co NH3 Cl Cl2 AgNO3 2AgCl
5
x 0 1 2
x 3
n5
xn 35 8
Q70. Give below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as
Reason R:
Assertion A: The stability order of +1 oxidation state of Ga. In and Tl is Ga<In < Tl.
Reason R: The inert pair effect stabilizes the lower oxidation state down the group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Ans. B
Sol. Stability of +1 oxidation state progressively increases in group due to inert pair effect so stability
order is
A Ga In T
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-29
Ans. C
Sol. F
F F
N Br
H H F
H F
Trigonal pyramidal Square pyramidal
Cl H
Cl
C
P Cl
H H
Cl H
Cl
Trigonal bipyramidal Tetrahedral
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t 2g
even
eg
+2 +2 7
[Co(H2O)6] Co 3d
t 2g
odd
eg
6
[Co(H2O)6]+3 Co+2 3d6 3d
t 2g
even(6)
eg
+2 +2 9
[Cu(H2O)6] Cu 3d
t 2g
even
eg
t 2g
odd
3 complexes with even number of electrons in t2g
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Q76. For the given hpyothetical reactions, the equilibrium contants are as follows
X Y; K1 1.0
Y Z; K 2 2.0
Z W; K 3 4.0
The equilibrium constant for the reaction X W is
(A) 12.0 (B) 8.0
(C) 7.0 (D) 6.0
Ans. B
Sol. x y k1 1
y z k2 2
z w k3 4
xw
k k1 k 2 k 3
k 1 2 4
k8
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Ans. B
Sol.
Non aromatic
Aromatiac
Non aromatic
Aromatic
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-33
Ans. C
Sol. CHO COOH
H OH H OH
HO H Br2 / H2O HO H
H OH H OH
H OH H OH
CH2OH CH2OH
Compound has 4 asymmetirc carbon atom it is oxidized to mono carboxylic acid it does not give
schiff’s test
CHO
CH2OH H OH CH2OH
H O H H O OH
HO H
H H
OH H H OH OH H
OH OH OH H
H OH H OH
H OH
CH2OH
B D glu cos e
D glucos e
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q81. Number of molecules from the following which are exceptions to octet rule is______.
CO2, NO2, H2SO4, BF3, CH4, SiF4, ClO2,PCl5, BeF2,C2H6,CHCl3,CBr4
Given……
Ans. 6
Sol. O
N C
O C O O O HO OH
O
Complete Exception to
octate Exception to
octate rule octat rule
F H F
B C C
F F H H F F
H F
Exception to Complete Complete
octat rule octate octate
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Cl
Cl
F Be F
P Cl
Exception to
Cl Cl
octat rule
O O Cl
Exception to Exception to
octat rule octat rule
Cl Br
F H C C
H C C H Cl Cl Br Br
H Cl Br
Complete H Complete Complete
octate octate octate
Q82. The ‘spin only’ magnetic moment value of MO 24 is________ BM. (Where M is a metal having
least metallic radii, among Sc, Ti, V, Cr, Mn and Zn)
(Given atomic number : Sc =21, Ti =22, V=23, Cr=24, Mn=25 and Zn=30)
Ans. 0
Sol. Metal having least metallic raddi among
Si, Ti, V, Cr, Mn and Zn is Cr
Ion is CrO 42
Cr 6 3d0
Spin only magnetic moment 0
t
Order with respect to B = 0 order with respect to.
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (8th April-First Shift)-MPC-35
Ans. 5
Sol. O
C OH
H2C CH3 COOK
O
Total number of bonds 5
Q85. If 279 g of aniline is reacted with one equivalent of benzenediazonium chloride, the maximum
amount of aniline yellow formed will be____ g. (nearest integer)
(consider complete conversion)
Ans. 591
Sol.
N2Cl + NH2 N N NH2
279
Moles of aniline 3
93
Moles of aniline yellow 3
Mass of aniline yellow 3 197
591
Ans. 32
Sol. CH3
Br
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1.5 pm
The frequency of the wave is x 1019 Hz.
X = ______________(nearest integer)
Ans. 5
Sol. 1.5 4 6Pm
c 3 108
v
6 1012
0.5 1020
5 1019
Q88.
90 L
A
10 L
Q89. A solution containing 10 g of an electrolyte AB2 in 100 g of water boils at 100.52oC. The degree
of ionization of the electrolyte () is ____________ 101 (nearest integer)
[Given: Molar mass of AB2= 200 g mol1, Kb (molal boiling point elevation const. of water)
= 0.52 K kg mol1, boiling point of water = 100oC; AB2 ionises as AB2A2+ + 2B]
Ans. 5
Sol. AB 2 A 2 2B
1 0 0
1 2
i 1 2
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i 1 2
T ik bm
10
0.52 0.52 1 2 200
100
1000
10
1 1 2
20
2 1 2
0.5
5 101
Q90. Number of amine compounds from the following giving solids which are soluble in NaOH upon
reaction with Hinsberg’s reagent is__________.
O
O
NH2
NH CH3
NH2 H2NNH C NH2
, ,
O NH2
N NH2
NH2 , H 2N C NH2 , ,
H
OCH3
N N NH2
,
,
Ans. 5
Sol. Primary amine react with hinsburg reagent which is soluble in NaOH
NH2 NH2
N NH2
, , H
OCH3
NH2
NH2 ,
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