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Jee Main 08 04 2024 E - Q Test 8

The document outlines the structure and instructions for the JEE-Main 2024 exam scheduled for April 8, 2024, in the evening shift, covering Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry. It specifies the test duration of 3 hours, the total of 90 questions divided equally among the three subjects, and the marking scheme for multiple-choice and numerical questions. Additionally, it includes sample questions from the Mathematics section, demonstrating the types of problems candidates will encounter.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
14 views14 pages

Jee Main 08 04 2024 E - Q Test 8

The document outlines the structure and instructions for the JEE-Main 2024 exam scheduled for April 8, 2024, in the evening shift, covering Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry. It specifies the test duration of 3 hours, the total of 90 questions divided equally among the three subjects, and the marking scheme for multiple-choice and numerical questions. Additionally, it includes sample questions from the Mathematics section, demonstrating the types of problems candidates will encounter.

Uploaded by

paridhikumari04
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (08th April-Evening Shift)-PCM-1

FIITJEE
Solutions to JEE(Main) -2024
Test Date: 08th April 2024 (Evening Shift)
Test-8
MATHEMATICS, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
Paper-1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.

2. This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The
maximum marks are 300.

3. This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Mathematics, Part-B is Physics and
Part-C is Chemistry. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.

4. Section – A : Attempt all questions.

5. Section – B : Attempt all questions..


6. Section-A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

7. Section-B (21 – 30) contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question
is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

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JEE-MAIN-2024 (08th April-Evening Shift)-PCM-2

PART – A (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.


Q1. If the line segment joining the points (5, 2) and (2, a) subtends an angle at the origin,
4
then the absolute value of the product of all possible values of a is
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 2 (D) 4

loge 4
dx 
Q2. Let   . Then e and e– are the roots of the equation
 e 1 x 6
2 2
(A) x – 2x – 8 = 0 (B) 2x – 5x – 2 = 0
2 2
(C) 2x – 5x + 2 = 0 (D) x + 2x – 8 = 0

dy
Q3. Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the differential equation sec y  2x sin y  x3 cosy,
dx
y(1) = 0. Then y( 3) is equal to
 
(A) (B)
3 12
 
(C) (D)
4 6
   
Q4. ˆ b  11iˆ  ˆj  kˆ and c -be a vector such that (a  b)  c  c  ( 2a  3b) . If
Let a  4iˆ  ˆj  k,
   2
(2a  3b).c  1670 , then c is equal to
(A) 1600 (B) 1627
(C) 1618 (D) 1609

Q5. The number of ways five alphabets can be chosen from the alphabets of the word
MATHEMATICS, where the chosen alphabets are not necessarily distinct, is equal to
(A) 177 (B) 175
(C) 181 (D) 179

Q6. In an increasing geometric progression of positive terms, the sum of the second and sixth
70
terms is and the product of the third and fifth terms is 49. Then the sum of the 4th, 6th
3
th
and 8 terms is equal to
(A) 96 (B) 84
(C) 78 (D) 91

Q7. There are three bags X, Y and Z. Bag X contains 5 one-rupee coins and 4 five-rupee
coins; Bag Y contains 4 one-rupee coins and 5 five-rupee coins and Bag Z contains 3
one-rupee coins and 6 five-rupee coins. A bag is selected at random and a coin drawn
from it at random is found to be a one-rupee coin. Then the probability, that it came from
bag Y, is

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JEE-MAIN-2024 (08th April-Evening Shift)-PCM-3

1 5
(A) (B)
4 12
1 1
(C) (D)
2 3
2 2
Q8. The area of the region in the first quadrant inside the circle x + y = 8 and outside the
parabola y2 = 2x is equal to
 1 1
(A)  (B)  
2 3 3
2  2
(C)   (D) 
3 2 3

 b c
a b 
Q9. If   a,   b,   c and a  c  0, then   is equal to
 a b  c
a b 
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 1 (D) 0

Q10. If the system of equations x + 4y – z = , 7x +9y + z = –3, 5x + y + 2z = –1 has infinitely


many solutions, then (2 + 3) is equal to :
(A) –2 (B) 2
(C) –3 (D) 3
10
 1 
Q11. If the term independent of x in the expansion of  ax 2  3  is 105, then a2 is equal to
 2x 
(A) 2 (B) 9
(C) 4 (D) 6

 a if a  x  0
Q12. Let f(x)   where a > 0 g(x) = (f(|x|) – |f(x)|)/2
 x  a if 0  x  a
Then the function g : [–a, a]  [–a, a] is
(A) one-one (B) both one-one and onto
(C) onto (D) neither one-one nor onto

Q13. If the function f(x) = 2x3 – 9ax2 + 12a2x + 1, a > 0 has a local maximum at x =  and a
2 2
local minimum at x =  , then  and  are the roots of the equation
2
(A) x + 6x + 8 = 0 (B) x2 – 6x + 8 = 0
2
(C) 8x – 6x + 1 = 0 (D) 8x2 + 6x – 1 = 0

Q14. If the image of the point (–4, 5) in the line x + 2y = 2 lies on the circle
(x + 4)2 + (y – 3)2 = r2, then r is equal to :
(A) 3 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4

3 cos36  5 sin18 a 5 b
Q15. If the value of is where a, b, c are natural numbers and
5cos36  3 sin18 c
gcd(a, c) = 1, then a + b + c is equal to
(A) 40 (B) 54
(C) 52 (D) 50

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Q16. Let A = {2, 3, 6, 8, 9, 11} and B = {1, 4, 5, 10, 15}. Let R be a relation on A × B defined by
(a, b) R (c, d) if and only if 3ad – 7bc is an even integer. Then the relation R is
(A) an equivalence relation
(B) reflexive but not symmetric
(C) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
(D) transitive but not symmetric
1  icos 
Q17. The sum of all possible values of   [ , 2] , for which is purely imaginary, is
1  2icos 
equal to :
(A) 5 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 3


 tan((a  1)x)  b tan x , x  0
 x

Q18. For a, b  0, let f(x)   3 x0
 2 2
 ax  b x  ax , x  0
 b ax x

b
be a continous function at x = 0. Then is equal to
a
(A) 8 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 5

x  y  4 z 3 x2 y4 z7


Q19. If the shortest distance between the lines   and  
2 3 4 4 6 8
13
is , then a value of  is :
29
13
(A) 1 (B) 
25
13
(C) (D) –1
25

Q20.
 ˆ b  2iˆ  3ˆj  5kˆ and c  3iˆ  ˆj  kˆ be three vectors. Let r be a unit
Let a  ˆi  2ˆj  3k,
   
vector along b  c . If r . a  3 , then 3 is equal to
(A) 30 (B) 25
(C) 21 (D) 27
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off
to the nearest integer value.
B
1  x  1 
Q21. If  5 (x  1)4 (x  3)6 dx  A  x  3   C , where C is the constant of integration, then
the value of     20 AB is_____.

x y 1 z  2
Q22. Let P(,,  ) be the image of the point Q(1, 6, 4) in the line   . Then
1 2 3
2     is equal to_____.

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Q23. Let  | x |  | y | e xy  , ,  N be the solution of the differential equation xdy – ydx + xy
(xdy + ydx) = 0, y(1) = 2. Then    is equal to_____.

Q24. Let a ray of light passing through the point (3, 10) reflects on the line 2x + y = 6 and the
reflected ray passes through the point (7, 2). If the equation of the incident ray is ax + by
2 2
+ 1 = 0, then a + b + 3ab is equal to_____.

Q25. Let a, b, c  N and a < b < c. Let the mean, the mean deviation about the mean and the
136
variance of the 5 observations 9, 25, a, b, c be 18, 4 and , respectively. Then 2a + b
5
– C is equal to_____.

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JEE-MAIN-2024 (08th April-Evening Shift)-PCM-6

PART – B (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1
Q26. Least count of a vernier caliper is cm . The value of one division on the main scale is
20N
1 mm. Then the number of divisions of main scale that coincide with N divisions of vernier
scale is:
 2N  1 
(A)  2N  1 (B)  
 2 
 2N  1   2N  1
(C)   (D)  
 2N   20N 

Q27. A thin circular disc of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis
passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane with angular velocity  . If
M
another disc of same dimensions but of mass is placed gently on the first disc co-
2
axially, then the new angular velocity of the system is:
2 3
(A)  (B) 
3 2
5 4
(C)  (D) 
4 5

Q28. A plane progressive wave is given by y  2cos2  330t  x  m . The frequency of the
wave is:
(A) 165 Hz (B) 660 Hz
(C) 330 Hz (D) 340 Hz

Q29. The position of the image formed by the combination of lenses is:
f1=10 cm f2=-10 cm f3=30 cm

30 cm 5 cm 10 cm
(A) 30 cm (left of third lens) (B) 30 cm (right of third lens)
(C) 15 cm (right of second lens) (D) 15 cm (left of second lens)

Q30. If 0 is the permittivity of free space and E is the electric field, 0 E2 has the dimensions:
(A) M1 L3 T 4 A 2  (B) M0 L2 T A 
(C) M L2 T 2  (D) M L1 T 2 

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Q31. If M0 is the mass of isotope 125 B , MP and Mn are the masses of proton and neutron, then
nuclear binding energy of isotope is:

(A) 5Mp  7Mn  M0 C2  
(B) M0  5Mp C2 
(C) M 0  5Mp  7M  C
n
2
(D) M0  12Mn  C2

Q32. The angle of projection for a projectile to have same horizontal range and maximum
height is:
 1  1
(A) tan1   (B) tan1  
2
   4
(C) tan  2 
1
(D) tan  4 
1

Q33. A cube of ice floats party in water and partly in


kerosene oil. The ratio of volume of ice immersed in
water to that in kerosene oil (specific gravity of
Kerosene oil = 0.8, specific gravity of ice = 0.9). Kerosene
Oil
(A) 9 : 10 (B) 1 : 1
(C) 8 : 9 (D) 5 : 4

Water

Q34. A coil of negligible resistance is connected in series with 90 resistor across 120 V, 60
Hz supply. A voltmeter reads 36 V across resistance. Inductance of the coil is:
(A) 0.286 H (B) 2.86 H
(C) 0.91 H (D 0.76 H

Q35. Water boils in an electric kettle in 20 minutes after being switched on. Using the same
main supply, he length of the heating element should be……to……. times of its initial
length if the water is to be boiled in 15 minutes.
4 4
(A) increased, (B) decreased,
3 3
3 3
(C) decreased, (D) inreased ,
4 4

Q36. A proton and an electron have the same de Broglie wavelength. If K p and K e be the
kinetic energies of proton and electron respectively, then choose the correct relation:
(A) K p  K e (B) K p  K e2
(C) K p  K e (D) K p  K e

Q37. In a hypothetical fission reaction


236
92 X  56Y141  36 Z92  3R
The identity of emitted particles (R) is :
(A)   radiations (B) Electron
(C) Neutron (D) Proton

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Q38. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current 1. The current is uniformly
a
distributed across its cross section. The ratio of the magnetic field at and 2a from axis
2
of the wire is:
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 3 : 4
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
Q39. A capacitor has air as dielectric medium and two conducting plates of area 12 cm 2 and
they are 0.6 cm apart. When a slab of dielectric having area 12 cm 2 and 0.6 cm thickness
is inserted between the plates, one of the conducting plates has to be moved by 0.2 cm
to keep the capacitance same as in previous case. The dielectric constant of the slab is :
(Given 0  8.834  10 12 F / m )
(A) 1 (B) 0.66
(C) 1.50 (D) 1.33
Q40.
5 kg
k  100 N / m
0
10 m

300
2m   0.5
A block is simply released from the top of an inclined plane as shown in the figure above.
The maximum compression in the spring when the block hits the page is :
(A) 5m (B) 6m
(C) 1m (D) 2 m

Q41. A diatomic gas    1.4  does 100 J of work in an isobaric expansion. The heat given to
the gas is:
(A) 250 J (B) 490 J
(C) 350 J (D) 150 J

Q42. There are 100 divisions on the circular scale of a screw gauge of pitch 1 mm. With no
measuring quantity in between the jaws, the zero of the circular scale lies 5 divisions
below the reference line. The diameter of a wire is then measured using this screw
gauge. It is found that 4 linear scale divisions are clearly visible while 60 divisions on
circular scale coincide with the reference line. The diameter of the wire is :
(A) 3.35 mm (B) 4.60 mm
(C) 4.65 mm (D) 4.55 mm
Q43. Two satellite A and B go round a planet in circular orbits having radii 4R and R
respectively. If the speed of A is 3v, the speed of B will be:
(A) 3v (B) 12v
4
(C) 6v (D) v
3
VB  6V
0
Q44. A given object takes n times the time to slide down 45 rough inclined plane as it takes
0
the time to slide down an identical perfectly smooth 45 inclined plane. The coefficient of
kinetic friction between the object and the surface of inclined plane is :
1
(A) 1  2 (B) 1  n2
n

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JEE-MAIN-2024 (08th April-Evening Shift)-PCM-9

1
(C) 1 (D) 1  n2
n2
Q45. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : The mean free path of gas molecules is inversely proportional to
square of molecular diameter.
Statement (II) : Average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional
to absolute temperature of gas.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off
to the nearest integer value.
Q46. Two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is located 1 m away from the slits. A light of
wavelength 500 nm is used. The width of each slit to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit
pattern within the central maximum of the single slit pattern is……….x 104 m .

Q47. Small water droplets of radius 0.01 mm are formed in the upper atmosphere and falling
with a terminal velocity of 10 cm/s. Due to condensation. If 8 such droplets are coalesced
and formed a larger drop, the new terminal velocity will be………cm/s.

Q48. A body of mass M thrown horizontally with velocity v from the top of the tower of height H
touches the ground at a distance of 100 m from the foot of the tower. A body of mass 2M
v
thrown at a velocity from the top of the tower of height 4H will touch the ground at a
2
distance of…….m.

Q49. The coercivity of a magnet is 5  103 A / m . The amount of current required to be passed
in a solenoid of length 30 cm and the number of turns 150, so that the magnet getse
demagnetized when inside the solenoid is………A.

Q50. An object of mass 0.2 kg executes simple harmonic motion along x axis with frequency of
 25 
   Hz . At the position x = 0.04 m the object has kinetic energy 0.5 J and potential
 
energy 0.4 J. The amplitude of oscillation is……..cm.

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PART – C (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q51. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Kjeldahl method is applicable to estimate nitrogen in pyridine.
Statement II: The nitrogen present in pyridine can easily be converted into ammonium
sulphate in Kjeldahal method.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(B) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Q52. Identify the correct statements about p-block elements and their compounds.
(A) Non metals have higher electronegativity than metals.
(B) Non metals have lower ionisaiton enthalpy than metals.
(C) Compounds formed between highly reactive nonmetals and highly reactive metals are
generally ionic.
(D) The non-metal oxides are generally basic in nature.
(E) The metal oxides are generally acidic or neutral in nature.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (B) and (D) only (B) (A) and (C) only
(C) (B) and (E) only (D) (D) and (E) only

Q53. Which one the following compounds will readily react with dilute NaOH?
(A) C2H5OH (B) C6H 5OH
(C) C6H5CH2OH (D) (CH 3)3COH

Q54. Given below are two statements:


Statement I : SN2 reactions are stereospecific, indicating that they result in the formation
of only one stereo-isomer as the product.
1
Statement II: SN reactions generally result in formation of product as racemic mixture.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Q55. Identify the incorrect statements abut group 15 elements:


(A) Dinitrogen is a diatomic gas which acts like an inert gas at room teperature
(B) The common oxidation states of these elements are -3,+3 and +5
(C) Nitrogen has unique ability to form p- p multiple bonds.
(D) The stability of +5 oxidation states increases down the group.
(E) Nitrogen shows a maximum covalency of 6.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (D) and (E) only (B) (A), (C), (E) only
(C) (B), (D), (E) only (D) (A), (B), (D) only

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Q56. IUPAC name of following hydrocarbon (X) is:


CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH CH CH2 CH3
CH3 (X) CH3 CH3
(A) 2-Ethyl-3,6-dimethylheptane (B) 2,5,6-Trimethyloctane
(C) 2-Ethy-2,6-diethylheptane (D) 3,4,7-Trimethyloctane.

Q57. The emf of cell T | T   0.001M  || Cu2  0.01M | Cu is 0.83 V at 298 K. It could be
increased by:
+ 2+
(A) Decreasing concentration of both T and Cu ions
+
(B) Increasing concentration of T ions
2+
(C) Increasing concentration of Cu ions
(D) Increasing concentration of both T + and Cu2+ ions

Q58. In qualitative test for identification of presence of phosphorous, the compound is heated
with an oxidizing agent. Which is further treated with nitric acid and ammonium molybdate
respectively. The yellow coloured precipitate obtained is:
(A) NH4 3 PO 4  12MoO3 (B) MoPO4  21NH4NO3
(C) Na3PO4 .12MoO3 (D) NH4 3 PO 4 .12 NH4 2 MoO4

Q59. Match List – I with List – II


List –I List – II
(Test) (Identification)
(A) Bayer’s test (I) Phenol
(B) Ceric ammonium nitrate test (II) Aldehyde
(C) Phthalein dye test (III) Alcoholic-OH group
(D) Schiff’s test (IV) Unsaturation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) – (II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (B) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(C) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (D) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
K1 K2
Q60. For reaction A  B  C
If the rate of formation of B is set to be zero then the concentration of B is given by:
(A) K1  K 2   A  (B) K1K 2  A 
(C) K1 / K 2   A  (D)  K1  K 2   A 
K1
K2
 A   B

Q61. The equilibrium Cr2O72  2CrO 42 is shifted to the right in:
(A) a weakly acidic medium (B) a neutral medium
(C) an acidic medium (D) a basic medium

Q62. Given below are two statements:


Statement I : All the following compounds react with p-toluenesulfonyl chloride.
C6H5NH2 (C 6H5)2NH (C6H 5)3N
Statement II: Their products in the above reaction are soluble is aqueous NaOH.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

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(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q63. When  A and B are the wave functions of atomic orbitals then * is represented by:
(A)  A  2B (B)  A  B
(C)  A  B (D)  A  2B

Q64. The reaction;


1
H  AgCl s   Haq  Caq  Ag s
2 2 g
Occurs in which of the following galvanic cell:
(A) Ag AgCl(s) KCl(so ln.) AgNO3 aq Ag (B) Pt H2(g) HCl(so ln.) AgNO3 aq Ag

(C) Pt H2(g) KCl(so ln .) AgCl(s) Ag (D) Pt H2(g) HCl(soln.) AgNO s Ag

Q65. Given below are two statements:


Statement I : A Buffer solution is the mixture of a salt and an acid or a base mixed in any
particular quantities.
Statement II: Blood is naturally occurring buffer solution whose pH is maintained by
H2CO3 / HCO3 concentrations.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Q66. The correct sequence of acidic strength of the following aliphatic acids in their decreasing
order is:
CH3 CH2COOH,CH3 COOH,CH3CH2CH2COOH,HCOOH
(A) CH3COOH  CH3CH2COOH  CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH  HCOOH
(B) HCOOH  CH3COOH  CH3 CH2 COOH  CH3 CH2CH2COOH
(C) CH3CH2CH2COOH  CH3CH2COOH  CH3 COOH  HCOOH
(D) HCOOH  CH3CH2CH2COOH  CH3 CH2 COOH  CH3 COOH

Q67. The shape of carbocation is:


(A) Trigonal planar (B) Tetrahderal
(C) Diagonal (D) Diagonal pyramidal

Q68. Match List – I with List – II


List –I List – II
(Complex ion) (Spin only magnetic moment in B.M)
3+
(A) [Cr(NH3)6] (I) 4.90
(B) [NiCl4]2 (II) 3.87
(C) [CoF6]3 (III) 0.0
2
(D) [Ni(CN)4] (IV) 2.83
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (B) (A)-(II), B-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(C) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (D) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

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Q69. Match List – I with List – II


List –I List – II
(Reaction) (Products)
NH2 OH
CHO
(A) (i) NaNO2 + HCl (I)
(ii) H2O, warm

OH OH

(B) Na2Cr2O7 (I)


H2SO4

OH OH
COOH
(C) (i) CHCl3 + aq. NaOH
(I)
+
(ii) H
OH O

(D) (i) NaOH


(I)
(ii) CO2
+
(iii) H
O
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (B) (A)-(IV), B-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(C) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (D) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Q70. Given below are two statements:


Statement I : Fusion of MnO2 with KOH and an oxidizing agent gives dark green K2MnO4
Statement II: Manganate ion on electrolytic oxidation in alkaline medium gives
permanganate ion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off
to the nearest integer value.

o
Q71.  vapHo for water is +40.79 kJ mol1 at 1 bar and 100 C. Change in internal energy for this
vapourisation under same condition is ___________kJ mol1. (Integer answer)
(Given R = 8.3J K1mol1)

Q72. Number of molecules having bond order 2 from the following molecules is_________.
C2,O2,Be2,Li2,Ne2,N2,He2

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Q73. Total number of unpaired electrons in the complex ions [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [NiCl4]2- is_____

o
Q74. Wave number for a radiation having 5800 A wavelength is x  10cm1 . The value of x
is______________ . (Integer answer)

Q75. Total number of aromatic compounds among the following compounds is__________.

, , , , ,
N

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