11-10-2025

ONTX09260003 TX

PHYSICS

1) What is the momentum of a body of mass 100 g moving with a velocity of 10 m/s. ?

(1) 1000 kg ms–1

(2) 100 kg ms–1
(3) 10 kg ms–1
(4) 1 kg ms–1

2) For the wave shapes shown in figures the wave of maximum frequency will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The radius of Earth is reduced by 25% by keeping its mass constant. What will be the effect on the
value of ‘g’?

(1) Increase by 78%

(2) Increase by 33%
(3) Increase by 50%
(4) Increase by 25%

4)

Which of the following occurs during lightning ?

(1) Nitrogen fixation

(2) Greenhouse effect
(3) Acid rain
(4) Electric discharge

5) Light is incident on a plane mirror at M1. What is the angle of reflection from M2.

(1) 60°
(2) will not get reflected
(3) 30°
(4) 45°

6) A Janshatabdi train starts from rest from Kota station with acceleration 0.25 m/s2 on a straight
track and after attaining maximum speed it comes to rest on Delhi station due to retardation of 0.5
m/s2. If total time spent is half an hour, then distance between these two stations is (Neglect length
of train) :

(1) 270 km
(2) 540 km
(3) 180 km
(4) 360 km

7) A bullet of mass 25 g is horizontally fired with a velocity of 200 ms–1 from a pistol of mass 2 kg.
Recoil velocity of pistol is

(1) –1.5 m/s

(2) –2.5 m/s
(3) – 4 m/s
(4) –1 m/s

8) If wavelength of a sound wave is 20 cm, what is the distance between two consecutive
rarefactions of that sound wave?

(1) 20 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 5 cm

9) Out of two bodies if the mass of one body is made 4 times and the distance between them is
doubled then the gravitational force between them becomes :

(1) 4 times

(2)
times
(3) 2 times
(4) Remains unchanged

10) A body is moving with uniform motion due to

(1) Summation of all the forces is zero

(2) Summation of all the forces in non-zero because body is moving
(3) Effect of force is zero
(4) Both (1) and (3)

11) Out of the following graphs, which graphs represents the plot for displacement vs time graph for
a uniform acceleration opposite to the motion of a body.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
12) A beam of light from a torch is aimed at an arrangement of four plane mirrors as shown in
figure. Which diagram correctly shows the path that the light beam follows?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A plastic scale is rubbed with a woolen cloth and then suspended freely using a silk thread.
When a glass rod rubbed with silk is brought near it, the scale moves towards the rod.
What can be concluded from this observation?

(1) Both the plastic scale and glass rod have the same type of charge.
(2) The plastic scale is heavier, so it is attracted by gravity.
(3) The plastic scale and the glass rod have opposite charges.
(4) The scale is attracted due to magnetic interaction.

14) A ball is thrown upwards with a speed of 20 m/s. How long will it take to return to the thrower’s
hand?
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 6 s
(4) 8 s

15) Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of acceleration due to gravity
(g) with distance (d) from the centre of the earth?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A man is standing on a weighing machine and it is placed in downward moving lift with
acceleration g/4. The weighing machine indicates the reading as 30 kg. If lifts moves upwards with
acceleration of g/4 then reading of the machine will be :

(1) 20 kg
(2) 50 kg
(3) 60 kg
(4) 70 kg

17) A balloon is rising up at a velocity of 7 m/s, at a height of 90m above the ground a coin is
dropped from the balloon. After how much time does it reach the ground? (g = 10m/s2)

(1) 8 sec
(2) 7 sec
(3) 5 sec
(4) 6 sec.

18) In a laser experiment, a beam of light strikes a horizontal plane mirror at an angle of 30° with
the mirror surface. At what angle second flat mirror is to be placed such that the ray, after reflecting
from the horizontal surface, hits the second mirror and is then reflected exactly along the
horizontal?

(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 75°
(4) 90°

19) A person stands 340 m away from a wall and claps. He hears the echo after 2 seconds. If the
speed of sound in air is 340 m/s.
a) What is the total distance travelled by the sound before the echo is heard?
b) If the temperature increases and the speed of sound becomes 360 m/s, how much time will it take
for the echo to be heard from the same wall?

(1) (a) 680 m, (b) 1.89 s

(2) (a) 340 m, (b) 2.12 s
(3) (a) 68 m, (b) 2.12 s
(4) (a) 340 m, (b) 1.89 s

CHEMISTRY

1) If fossil fuels are derived from carbon-based life forms, why can’t we just grow trees and turn
them into fossil fuels quickly?

(1) Modern plants do not store enough energy.

(2) Fossilization is a very slow process requiring large quantity of heat, pressure and time.
(3) Fossil fuels must come only from extinct species.
(4) Fossilization is very fast process but it requires large amount of heat and too much pressure.

2) Colloid consists of dispersed phase and dispersion medium. Sol is made up of which of the
following combination?
(I) Solid in liquid (II) Liquid in solid (III) Solid in gas (IV) Gas in solid

(1) IV only
(2) III only
(3) I only
(4) III and IV only

3)

Match the given substances in column-A with their direct uses given in column-B.
Which of the following is correct match?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) During a lab experiment, a student accidentally spills a liquid fuel, and it catches fire. The teacher
warns :- "Don't use water! that will make it worse!"
Later, in the flame test experiment, another student places a pin in part of a candle flame and says,
"it's not that hot here!".
Which of the following is correct?

(1) The fuel was petrol and the coolest part of the flame is the black inner most zone.
(2) The fuel was diesel and the coolest part is the luminous zone.
(3) The fuel was charcoal and the coolest part is the non luminous zone.
(4) The fuel was petrol and the hottest part is the luminous zone.

5) During summer, a forest guard notices that dry leaves and twigs catch fire very easily,
causing forest fires. What is the most accurate reason why fire spreads quickly in such dry forest
areas?

(1) Wet conditions and low temperature.

(2) Dry leaves and twigs have high ignition temperature.
(3) Dry leaves and twigs have low ignition temperature and catch fire easily.
(4) Fire spreads due to lack of oxygen.

6) Which of the following best describes the type of heating curve of ice from –10°C to 110°C ?
(1) Straight line with no bends
(2) Zig-zag curve with dips
(3) Curve with flat regions at 0°C & at 100°C
(4) Flat line at only 0°C following by rising curve

7) A sealed syringe containing air is pushed halfway without letting air escape.

Which of the following doesn’t actually happen inside? (A) Mass of the syringe
increases due to compression.
(B) Number of collisions between air molecules and the syringe walls increases.
(C) They change state from gas to solid under normal condition.
(D) The volume of the gas decreases, resulting in an increase in pressure of gas.

(1) Only A
(2) Only A and B
(3) Only C and D
(4) Only A and C

8) A solution is prepared by dissolving 10 g of sodium chloride (NaCl) in 90 g of water. The final

volume of the solution is 95 mL. Which of the following combinations of mass by mass percentage
and mass by volume percentage is correct for the given solution?

(1) Mass by mass % = 10%, Mass by volume % = 9.5%

(2) Mass by mass % = 11.1%, Mass by volume % = 10.0%
(3) Mass by mass % = 10%, Mass by volume % = 10.53%
(4) Mass by mass % = 9%, Mass by volume % = 10%

9) There are some characteristics given in column-I and different mixtures are given in column-II.

Match column-I with the appropriate examples given in column-II.

(1) A–ii, B–iii, C–i

(2) A–iii, B–i, C–ii
(3) A–i, B–ii, C–iii
(4) A–iii, B–ii, C–i

10) Assertion (A) : L.P.G. is an inflammable substance.

Reason (R) : The inflammable substance has very low ignition temperature and catch fire easily.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

11) How many of the following substances are compounds?

Stainless steel, Bronze, Glucose, Bromine, Graphite, Hydrogen sulphide, Copper sulphate.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

12) Riya and Aman were working on a school science project in the lab. They were using a liquid i.e.
nail polish remover (acetone) for their work. Their teacher advised them to keep the bottle in a cool
place after use. Both Riya and Aman wants to know "why should we keep it in a cool place?
Can you help them understand the reason?

(1) Rate of evaporation increase with decrease in temperature.

(2) Rate of evaporation increases with decrease in surface area.
(3) It is a volatile liquid with low boiling point.
(4) It has high boiling point.

13) During a science lesson, the teacher explained the processing of coal to get some useful
products.
Student wrote some observations based on their learning.
(i) __(A)__ is used for making naphthalene balls which repel moths.
(ii) __(B)__ is used in the manufacturing of steel.
(iii) __(C)__ is used as a source of heat.
(iv) __(D)__ is a mixture of about 200 substances.
Identify the A, B, C & D from above given observations?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) The diagrams show the arrangement of particles of a substance X at temperature –50°C, 25°C
and 150°C. Which of the following are likely to be
melting and boiling points of the substance X ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15)

"Tincture of Iodine" is a common antiseptic. Identify the correct option which describes the
properties of this antiseptic.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16)
A student is observing changes in the state of matter by using above flow chart. Which of the
following options correctly explains, what happens at each stage when ice is heated at constant
pressure?
(1) During melting temperature decreases and in vaporisation energy is released.
In the liquid, particles can move, during vaporisation temperature will remain same, in
(2)
condensation energy is absorbed to break bonds.
During melting, latent heat is absorbed without a temperature change, in condensation heat is
(3)
released.
(4) In the gas phase, particles can move freely and always have definite volume.

17) Suppose latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/g and latent heat of vaporisation of water is 120
cal/g. A sample of 20 g ice at 0°C is completely melted using heat. Simultaneously, another sample
of 16 g of water is completely converted in vapours at 100°C. Which process requires more heat?

(1) Melting of ice

(2) Boiling of water
(3) Both the processes require equal heat.
(4) Cannot be compared without time taken

18) Consider light scattering in the following –

(I) When sunlight passes through the canopy of dense forest.
(II) When light passes through the barium chloride solution.
(III) When light passes through solution of potassium permanganate.
Tyndall Effect is not observed in –

(1) II only
(2) I, II and III
(3) III only
(4) II and III only

BIOLOGY

1) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.

(1) A - Q, B - S, C - R, D - P
(2) A - S, B - R, C - P, D - Q
(3) A - S, B - P, C - Q, D - R
(4) A - R, B - S, C - Q, D - P

2)

Assertion (A): Crop rotation helps in both pest control and maintaining soil fertility.
Reason (R): Different crops deplete or restore different soil nutrients and interrupt pest life cycle.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

3) Which of the following statement is correct regarding reproduction in frog?

(1) It is viviparous with internal fertilisation.

(2) It is oviparous with external fertilisation.
(3) It lay eggs with protective shells on land.
(4) It reproduces by budding.

4) Hormones from pituitary stimulates testes to release testosterone in males which in turn causes-

(1) Mammary glands to develop.

(2) Goitre leading to a swollen and bulging throat.
(3) Development of larger larynx resulting in a deeper voice.
(4) Ova to mature in testes.

5) 'X' is a simple permanent tissue. In aquatic plants, large air cavities are present in X to help them
float. Identify 'X'.

(1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Tracheids
(3) Parenchyma
(4) Xylem vessels

6) Assertion (A) : Excess irrigation can lead to waterlogging in fields.

Reason (R) : Waterlogging enhances oxygen availability to roots.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

7)

Match the column-A with column-B & select the correct option.
(1) i - a, ii - d, iii - b, iv - c
(2) i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d
(3) i - b, ii - a, iii - c, iv - d
(4) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c

8)

Refer to the given images and read the statements regarding them.

(i) P is a double membrane bound cell organelle.

(ii) P is also called the power house of cell because it utilizes ATP for food production.
(iii) Q is a single membrane bound cell organelle.
(iv) Q is also called semi autonomous cell organelle because it has its own DNA and ribosome and
can self replicate.
(v) Q is made up of cisternae, vesicles, tubules and vacuoles.
(vi) Convex side of Q is called trans face that lies towards the nucleus while the concave side is
called cis face that lies towards the plasma membrane.
(vii) The inner membrane of P is infolded into matrix as incomplete partition called cisternae which
increases the surface area.
(viii) Cisternae of P bear small tennis racket like particles called oxysomes.
(ix) Q is involved in cell secretion as well as, cell plate formation during plant cell division.
(x) Q was discovered by Camillo Golgi in muscle cell of owl and cat.
How many of the above statements are correct ?
(1) 10
(2) 4
(3) 9
(4) 7

9) Refer to the given cycle. Identify the

bacteria involved at the step 'A' and 'B' respectively.
(1) A - Rhizobium, B - Pseudomonas
(2) A - Mucor, B - Azotobacter
(3) A - Clostridium, B - Aspergillus niger
(4) A - Pseudomonas, B - Spirogyra

10)

Humans reproduce sexually that involves gamete formation. Gametes are the haploid cells formed as
a result of meiosis. If a human cell is undergoing meiosis then what will be the number of
chromosomes in the following stages.
(i) G2
(ii) Metaphase I
(iii) Anaphase I
(iv) Metaphase II
(v) In each daughter cell after meiosis I
(vi) In each daughter cell after meiosis II

(1) (i) - 96, (ii) - 92, (iii) - 46, (iv) - 23, (v) - 23, (vi) - 23
(2) (i) - 46, (ii) - 46, (iii) - 92, (iv) - 23, (v) - 23, (vi) - 23
(3) (i) - 46, (ii) - 46, (iii) - 46, (iv) - 23, (v) - 23, (vi) - 23
(4) (i) - 46, (ii) - 46, (iii) - 46, (iv) - 46, (v) - 23, (vi) - 46

11) Observe the image given below and identify the process occurring in it.

(1) Metamorphosis
(2) Budding
(3) Fertilization
(4) Cloning

12) Which of the following is true when comparing prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

(1) Prokaryotes have a well defined nucleus while it is absent in eukaryotes.

(2) Membrane bound cell organelles are absent in prokaryotes while present in eukaryotes.
Prokaryotes have ribosomes for protein synthesis while eukaryotes have mitochondria for
(3)
protein synthesis.
(4) Prokaryotes have a rigid cell wall while it is absent in eukaryotes.

13) (A) In some desert plants, epidermis has a thick waxy coating of ___(i)___ on outer surface to
prevent water loss.
(B) The husk of coconut is made up of long, narrow dead cells, whose wall are thickened due to
deposition of ___(ii)___
Identify (i) and (ii) and select the correct option.

(1) (i) cutin, (ii) lignin

(2) (i) suberin, (ii) lignin
(3) (i) lignin, (ii) cutin
(4) (i) lignin, (ii) suberin

14)

Weeding is an important step of crop production. From the given options, select the correct
statement regarding weeding.

(1) Weeding is necessary as weeds compete with crop plants for nutrient, space and light.
(2) Weeding is necessary as weeds support the growth of crop plants, thus increases yield.
(3) The best time for weeding is before weed produces flower and seeds.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

15) Which of the following options correctly matches the neuron parts with their function ?

(A) Dendrites - Receive impulses and transmits it towards cell body.

(B) Cell body - Integrate incoming signals from dendrite.
(1) (C) Axon - Transmits impulses away from the cell body
(D) Axon terminals - Transmit signals from one neuron to another or to a target cell, such as a
muscle or gland.
(A) Dendrites - Store neurotransmitter
(B) Cell body - Receives impulses from axon.
(2)
(C) Axon - Transmits impulses towards the cell body.
(D) Axon terminals - Receive impulses from another neuron.
(A) Dendrites - Store neurotransmitters
(B) Cell body - Conducts impulse to brain
(3)
(C) Axon - Receives and transmits impulses towards cell body.
(D) Axon terminals - supply energy to axon
 (A) Dendrites - Receive impulses and transmit it towards cell body
(B) Cell body - Stores neurotransmitters
(4)
(C) Axon - Cell maintenance and growth
(D) Axon terminals - Receive impulses from another neuron or from a muscle or gland.

16) Which of the following statements about plastids are correct?

(A) Chloroplasts help in photosynthesis.
(B) Chromoplasts are colourless and store fats and oils.
(C) Leucoplasts are usually found in non-green parts and can store starch, protein and fat.
(D) Chloroplast is a double membrane bound cell organelle.

(1) B and D only

(2) A, B and C only
(3) A and D only.
(4) A, C and D only

17) Match the following hormones with their correct function.

(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

18)

A researcher studies the embryonic development of two animals.

Animal (A) - lay eggs externally and the embryo develops in a protective hard shell with a yolk sac.
Animal (B) - Give birth to young ones and the embryo is connected to a structure that facilitates
nutrients and gas exchange.
Which of the given animals from the options matches with the characteristics mentioned by the
researcher?

(1) Animal A - Lizard, Animal B - Catla

(2) Animal A - Hen, Animal B - Cow
(3) Animal A - Frog, Animal B - Dog
(4) Animal A - Cow, Animal B - Frog

19)

Refer to the given flow chart.

 Identify P, Q, R, S,
T and U from the given options.
P - Penicillium chrysogenum
Q - Streptococcus pneumoniae
R - Spirogyra
(1)
S - Saccharomyces cerevisiae
T - Entamoeba histolytica
U - Apis cerana indica
P - Aspergillus niger
Q - Streptococcus pneumoniae
R - Chlamydomonas
(2)
S - Saccharomyces cerevisiae
T - Paramecium
U - Bos indicus
P - Penicillium notatum
Q - Diplococcus pneumoniae
R - Paramecium
(3)
S - Saccharomyces cerevisiae
T - Entamoeba histolytica
U - Apis dorsata
P - Penicillium notatum
Q - Diplococcus pneumoniae
R - Chlamydomonas
(4)
S - Saccharomyces cerevisiae
T - Entamoeba histolytica
U - Apis cerana indica
 MATHEMATICS

1) If xy = ab (a + b) and x2 + y2 = a3 + b3 + xy, then find the value of , where a ≠ 0,

b ≠ 0.

(1) –1
(2) ab
(3) 1
(4) 0

2) A quantity P is increased by x%. The resulting quantity is then increased by y%. Finally, the new
result is increased by z%, giving the final quantity Q. Find the value of P.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) If cube root of 571787 is 83, then find the value of .

(1) 92.13
(2) 0.219
(3) 9.213
(4) 9.113

4) Twenty five men can do a work in 80 working hours. They have worked for 10 hours. How many
more men should now be employed so as to complete the work in another 50 working hours?

(1) 35
(2) 25
(3) 20
(4) 10

5) If 555 + 555 + 555 + 555 + 555 = (625)x, then find the value of .

(1) 550
(2) 55
(3) 525
(4) 510
6) The sum of the radius of the base and height of a solid cylinder is 74 cm. If the total surface area

of the solid cylinder is 1628 cm2. Find the volume of the cylinder. (use )

(1) 4620 cm3

(2) 5428.5 cm3
(3) 2714.25 cm3
(4) 1357.125 cm3

7) Which of the following option is equivalent to 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + ….. + 99?

(1) 492 + 22
(2) 502 – 22
(3) 502 + 22
(4) 492 – 22

8) The sum of all interior angles of a regular polygon is 6120°. Find the number of sides in the
polygon.

(1) 34
(2) 36
(3) 38
(4) 40

9) If , then find the sum of the digits of (1 +

x)128.

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) 9

10) Which of the following options representing the points which are equidistant from y-axis ?

(1) (0, 1), (1, 0)

(2) (4, 1), (–4, 4)
(3) (4, 1), (–5, 1)
(4) (6, 2), (5, 1)

11) How many 3-digit numbers are possible which end in 7 and also divisible by 11?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

12) A cubic polynomial f(x) is such that f(1) = 1, f(2) = 2, f(3) = 3 and f(4) = 10, then find the value
of f(5).

(1) 12
(2) 5
(3) 29
(4) 15

13) A person saves ₹40 everyday. After a certain number of days, he spends ₹280 and he still has
₹520 left. For how many days did he save money?

(1) 15 days
(2) 18 days
(3) 20 days
(4) 25 days

14) In the given figure (not drawn to scale) A, B, C and D are points on a line and E is a point outside
this line. If AE = BE = AB = BC and CE = CD, then find the measure of ∠DEA.

(1) 90°
(2) 105°
(3) 120°
(4) 150°

15) If , then find the sum of the digits of the value of .

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 12

16) In the ΔABC (figure not drawn to scale), AB||DE, ∠ABC = ∠JKD. If ∠DCK = 40° and JC is the
bisector of ∠ACB, then find ∠BAC.

(1) 20°
(2) 40°
(3) 60°
(4) 80°

17) If and , then find the value of .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) If the remainder when x2025 is divided by (x2 – 1) is ax + b, find the value of a² + b².

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 0

19) If , then find the value of .

(1) –1
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2

MENTAL ABILITY (IQ)

1) A family consisting of D, P, W, Y and M is travelling to meet one another. W is travelling with his
daughters, D and P. M is travelling with his maternal grandmother Y. D is the mother of M. How is Y
related to P?
(1) Sister
(2) Grandmother
(3) Daughter
(4) Mother

2) Study the following information to answer the given question:

In a certain code language,
‘Media Letter Reply Profile’ is written as ‘18e 14r 20y 15a’
‘Simple Camp Views Much’ is written as ‘21e 24s 5p 15h’
‘Improve Tool Worker Draft’ is written as ‘6t 25r 11e 22ℓ’
‘Output Hundred List Greater’ is written as ‘10d 17t 9r 14t’
What is the code for ‘Best Teacher’?

(1) 7t 21r
(2) 4t 22r
(3) 5t 22r
(4) 6t 21r

3) In a certain code language, ‘DEPHYR’ is coded as ‘MIYLHV’ and ‘SCHIZM’ is coded as ‘BGQMIQ’.
What is the code for ‘RINCKY’ in the given code language?

(1) ZMNGTC
(2) IMWGSC
(3) AMWGTC
(4) VMWFTC

4) How many triangles are there in given figure ?

(1) 24
(2) 22
(3) 16
(4) 25

5) Four different positions of a single dice are given below. Which number is opposite to 5?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) Can’t be determined

6) A cube have three red adjacent faces. It is then cut (once horizontally and once vertically) into
four cuboids of equal size. Each of these cuboids is coloured green on all the uncoloured faces and is
then cut (once horizontally and once vertically) into four cuboids of equal size. How many cuboids
have exactly two green faces each?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 9

7)

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A@B (6)- A is 10m in north of B
A$B (10)- A is 14m in south of B
A%B (12)- A is 10m in east of B
A&B (15)- A is 13m in west of B
P%Q (16), R&S (12), T&U (20), U$S (15), P@T (10), W$R (17)
What is the shortest distance between point P and point U?

(1) m
(2) 520 m
(3) 130 m
(4) 260 m

8) Which of the following option figures is embedded in the question figure ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) P, Q, R, S, T and U live on six different floors of the same building. The lower most floor is
numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6. The
product of floors on which T and U live is 15. R lives immediately above Q. The sum of floors on
which S and T live is 7. How many people live between Q and S?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Find the missing number in the figures given below.

(1) 16
(2) 32
(3) 62
(4) 84

11) Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as

established by the five problem figures.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

12) If the numbers ‘18’ and ‘30’ are interchanged, then which of the following equation can be
correctly balanced?

(1) 35 ÷ 5 × 5 + 30 – 18 = 23
(2) 14 × 5 – 18 ÷ 6 + 30 = 73
(3) 64 + 18 × 5 ÷ 3 – 30 = 98
(4) 12 – 30 × 18 ÷ 3 + 16 = 174

13) Find the correct mirror image of the given question figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Find the missing group of letters in the given series.

DnZ, gRE, KWk, ?, vJZ

(1) PCr
(2) pCR
(3) PcR
(4) PdR
15) In a row of girls facing North, Shruti is 10th to the left of Janhavi who is 21st from the right end.
If Monika who is 17th from the left end, is 4th to the right of Shruti, then how many girls are there
in the row?

(1) 40
(2) 44
(3) 37
(4) 43

16) If Raju is 34th rank from the top in a class of 240 students. Manoj is 79th rank from the bottom
in the same class. Rajesh is 19 ranks ahead of Raju. Find the number of persons between Rajesh and
Manoj in that class.

(1) 143
(2) 148
(3) 142
(4) 146

17) Find the next term in the following series.

2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 92, ?

(1) 142
(2) 100
(3) 141
(4) 145

18) In the following question, one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
1, 3, 10, 21, 64, 129, 356, 777

(1) 129
(2) 356
(3) 64
(4) 21

19) Here in the given diagram, Circle represents Women, Square represents Graduate people,

Triangle represents Employed people. What does ‘4’ represent ?

(1) Unemployed male who are not graduates

(2) Employed male who are graduates
(3) Employed male who are not graduates
(4) Employed female who are not graduates

20) Find the water image of the given figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) In a certain code language, 'FLOAT' is written as 'ROU', 'CLAIM' is written as 'OAV'. How will
'ARMED' be written in that language?

(1) RFC
(2) TFE
(3) DMK
(4) SMI

22) Amita is standing at Point A facing North direction. She walks for 5 kilometres in the North-East
direction. Then she turns at an angle of 90° at her right and once again travels the same distance.
She reaches at Point B. Now she takes a turn at 90° to her left and walks for 3 kilometres and once
again takes right turn at 90° and travels 3 kilometres and reaches at Point C. What is the direction
of Point B and C respectively with respect to Point A?

(1) East, East

(2) East, South-West
(3) North, West
(4) North, North-East

23) Find the most appropriate mirror image of the given word. (Assume that mirror is placed along

xy) x y

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24)

Five persons work at different departments of different companies in different cities. P works in
Mumbai but doesn’t work at HR department. Q works in Wipro but doesn’t work in Jaipur and
Kolkata. O works in Content department but doesn’t work in TCS and IBM. Person who works at
Production in Infosys doesn’t work in New Delhi and Mumbai. N works at Sales but doesn’t work in
Chennai. Person who works in Mahindra works in Chennai. M doesn’t work in Kolkata. Person who
works in Marketing department doesn’t work in IBM. In which of the following city M works?

(1) Mumbai
(2) New Delhi
(3) Chennai
(4) Jaipur

25) Which of the option is the exact water image of given combination.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
A. 4 4 1 4 2 1 2 1 4 4 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
A. 2 3 1 1 3 3 4 3 2 1 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56
A. 3 1 2 3 3 3 3 2 1 3 2 2 1 4 1 4 1 2 4

MATHEMATICS

Q. 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
A. 4 3 3 4 2 3 2 2 2 2 4 3 3 2 1 1 2 2 3

MENTAL ABILITY (IQ)

Q. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95
A. 4 2 3 4 2 3 1 3 2 3 1 1 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 1
Q. 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 1 4 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) P = mv

= kg × 10 m/s = 1 kg m/s

2) Figure in option : Complete two oscillation in 6 seconds.

3) , R (reduced by 25%)

% = 78%

5)

Explanation : will not get reflected

6)

t = hour = 30 min = 1800 s (given)

v0 = u1 + a1t1
v0 = 0 + a1t1
v2 = u2 + a2t2
So 0 = v0 + (–a2t2)

t = t1 + t2

t=

0
1800 = v

0
⇒ v = 300 m/s

So total distance =

= × 300 × 1800 = 270 km

7) Mass of bullet m1 = 25 g = 0.025 kg,

Mass of pistol m2 = 2kg
Initial velocity of bullet u1 = 0,
Initial velocity of pistol u2 = 0
Let the direction of bullet is taken left to right. Now the final velocity of bullet
v1 = 200 ms–1 (by sign convention, left to right is taken positive)
Let ‘v’ be the recoil velocity of pistol.
According to law of conservation of momentum
Initial momentum of pistol and Bullet system = Final momentum of pistol and Bullet system
⇒ m1u1 + m2u2 = mv1 + m2v2
⇒ (m1 × 0) + (m2 × 0) = (0.025 × 200) + (2v)
⇒ 0 = 5 + 2v
⇒ –5 = 2v

⇒ v = – = – 2.5 m/s

8) Distance between two consecutive rarefactions = wavelength = 20 cm.

9) F = =

F' =

10)

According to Newton's first law,

A body in uniform motion has zero net force acting on it, meaning both.
• Summation of all forces is zero.
• Effect of force is zero.

11)
Here, acceleration is opposite to the motion
∴ Acceleration is negative

This is a quadratic equation with decreasing slope

12) According to law of reflection ∠i = ∠r which is followed in option (1) only.

13) The plastic scale and the glass rod have opposite charges.

14) Time to return to thrower's hand, T = =2× = 4 sec.

15) 'g'(d) at a depth 'd'

g(d) = g ← linear relation, 'g' will linearly decrease with 'd'

'g(h)' at a height 'h'

g(h) = g ← Inverse square dependence on 'h'

16) Fnet = ma
In downward motion
Mg – N = ma
N = m(g – a)

m = 40 kg
In upward motion
N = m(g + a)
 or N = 50 kg weight

17)

∴ Balloon is rising up with velocity 7 m/s so, initial velocity of coin dropped with rising balloon
will be (u) = +7 m/s
a = –g = –10 m/s2 let time to reach the ground be ‘t’
S = –90m
Form 2nd Eqn. to motion.

S = ut + at2 ⇒ – 90 = 7 × t + × (–10) × t2
⇒ –90 = 7t – 5t2
⇒ 5t2 – 7t – 90 = 0
⇒ 5t2 – 25t + 18t – 90 = 0
⇒ 5t(t – 5) + 18(t – 5) = 0
⇒ (t – 5) (5t + 18) = 0

∴ t = 5 sec and t = ← not possible

So. The coin will reach the ground after 5 sec.

18)
At 75° angle should a second plane mirror be inclined to horizontal mirror so that reflected ray
from the horizontal mirror is reflected by second mirror horizontally.

19) (a) Distance to wall = 340 m; echo travels to wall and back = 2 × 340 = 680 m
(b) With new speed, time = 680 / 360 ≈ 1.89 s.

CHEMISTRY

20) Fossilization is a slow geological process, which can’t be easily done artificially.

21) (I) Solid in liquid - sol, (II) Liquid in solid-Gel

(III) Solid in gas - aerosol (IV) Gas in solid-Foam

22)
Kerosene – Used as fuel for jet air craft.
Paraffin wax – Used in making ointments and vaseline.
Coal – Solid fossil fuel used to make coal gas.
CNG – It is clean fuel can be used directly burning in homes and factories.

23) The fuel was petrol and the coolest part of the flame is the innermost zone.

24) Dry leaves and twigs require less heat (low ignition temperature) to start burning, and
the abundant oxygen in the forest helps the fire spread quickly. Wet conditions or lack of
oxygen would prevent fire.

25) At 0°C & 100°C due to latent heat we get flat regions.

26) Mass of syringe remains same.

The pressure we are applying by compressing air till halfway would not be enough to turn it
into solid under normal condition, but at normal condition gases change in to liquid state.

27)

28) Salt in water is a solution (in which particles size is less than 1 nm), chalk in water is a
suspension in which particles will settle down, and milk of magnesia is a colloid, in which
centrifugation techniques are used to separate the particles.

29) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

30) Stainless steel, Bronze are mixture and Glucose, Hydrogen sulphide, Copper sulphate are
compound and Bromine, Graphite are elements.

31) Nail polish remover (acetone) is a volatile liquid with low boiling point.

32) (i) Coal tar is used for making naphthalene balls which repel moths.
(ii) Coke is used in the manufacturing of steel.
(iii) Coal gas is used as a source of heat.
(iv) Coal tar is a mixture of about 200 substances.

33) Substance X at temperature –50°, 25°C and 150°C exist as solid liquid and gaseous
state respectively. Therefore, Melting point will be above –50°C and below 25°C and boiling
point will below 150°C.

34) As iodine is soluble in alcohol, it form solution, Solution are homogenous and particles size
 are less than 1 nm and have stable particles.

35)

During melting, latent heat is absorbed without a temperature change. In condensation heat is
released.

36) For 20 g of Ice heat = 80 × 20 = 1600 cal.

For 16 g of water, heat = 16 × 120 = 1920 cal.

37) When sunlight passed through the canopy of dense forest, Tyndall effect is observed due to
colloidal dust and water particles.
While solution of barium chloride and solution of potassium permanganate are true solution.
Which does not scatter light means these true solution does not shows Tyndall effect.

BIOLOGY

38)

A. Malaria → S. Protozoan disease

B. Polio → P. Viral disease
C. Cholera → Q. Bacterial disease
D. Rust of wheat → R. Fungal disease

39) Crop rotation involves planting different crops in sequence on the same land; legumes, for
instance, restore nitrogen, while other crops deplete different nutrients. This practice also
interrupts the lifecycle of crop-specific pests, achieving both goals.

40) Development in water without a hard shell suggests the egg was laid externally and
fertilised outside the body — a trait seen in oviparous animals with external fertilisation, like
amphibians or fish.

41) growing voice box - Adam's apple is the feature of male puberty.

42) Parenchyma is living, metabolically active, and can divide. It plays a major role in
regeneration and wound healing, especially in young plant tissues.

43) Excess irrigation can lead to waterlogging in fields, which reduces air (oxygen) in the soil
and harms plant roots.

44) i. Areolar - b. loose connective tissue found between skin & muscle
ii. Adipose tissue - a. stores fat globules
iii. Dense regular connective - c. tendons & ligaments
 iv. Bone - d. has hard matrix due to deposition & calcium

48) This diagram depicts a small bulge in the into a new hydra forming into a new Individual
Hydra

50) In some desert plants, epidermis has a thick waxy coating of (i) _cutin_ outer surface. The
husk of coconut is made up of long and arrow dead cells whose wall are thickened due to
(ii) _lignin_

52)

(A) Dendrites - Receive impulses and transmit it towards cell body.

(B) Cell body - Integrate incoming signals from dendride.
(C) Axon - Transmits impulses away from cell body
(D) Axon terminals - Transmit signals from another neuron or to a target cell, such as a muscle
or gland.

53) Chloroplasts → photosynthesis

⦁ Chromoplasts → store pigments (not fats and oils)
⦁ Leucoplasts → store starch, oils, and proteins
⦁ Plastids are unique to plant cells

54) Testosterone → Male sex organ development

Oestrogen → Development of female secondary sexual traits
Insulin → Regulates blood sugar
Thyroxine → Controls metabolic rate

MATHEMATICS

57) (x + y)2 = x2 + y2 + 2xy

= a3 + b3 + 3xy
= a3 + b3 + 3ab (a + b)
= (a + b)3

And =

= ab(a + b)
=0

58) If P is increased by x%, we obtain

 . Hence we have

Q= × ×

Q=

P=

59)

=
= 8.3 + 0.83 + 0.083 = 9.213

60) 25 men can finish the work in 80 hours. Let the no. of extra men be x.

According to question,

⇒ 25 × 80 = 25 × 10 + 25 × 50 + 50x
⇒ 25 × (80 – 10 – 50) = 50x

∴ 10 more men should be employed.

61) 555 + 555 + 555 + 555 + 555 = (54)x

5 × 555 = 54x
556 = 54x
4x = 56
x = 14

= = = 515/3 = 55

62) r + h = 74, 2πr(h + r) = 1628

Hence, volume = × 70.5 = 2714.25 cm3

63) (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + ……….. + 99) – (1 + 3)

= 502 – 4
= 502 – 22

64) Sum of interior angles of a polygon with n – sides = (n – 2) × 180

6120 = (n – 2) × 180

⇒ 34 + 2 = n ⇒ n = 36

65) ∵

Hence
hence, x + 1 =

Now, (x + 1)128 =
Sum of the digits = 2 + 4 + 0 + 1 = 7, which is an odd prime number.

66) To determine the points which are equidistant from the y-axis, we need to compare the
absolute values of their x-coordinates Opt (1) (0, 1), (1, 0)
The x-coordinate is of (0,1) is 0
The x-coordinate is of (1,0) is 1
0≠1
Opt (2) (4, 1), & (–4, 4)
The x-coordinate of (4, 1) is 4
The x-coordinate of (–4, 1) is –4
∴ |4| = |–4|
∴ (4, 1) & (–4, 4) are equidistant from y-axis

67) Let the 3-digit number is AB7.

To be divisible by 11, A + 7 – B = 0 or multiple of 11
⇒A+7=B
OR A + 7 = B + 11 (multiple of 11)
If A + 7 = B
A = 1, B = 8
A = 2, B = 9
then numbers are 187 and 297
If A + 7 = B + 11
Possible values, B = 0, A = 4
⇒ 407
B = 1, A = 5, → [517]
(B = 2, A = 6), (B = 3, A = 7), (B = 4, A = 8), (B = 5, A = 9)
Thus, the numbers are 407, 517, 627, 737, 847, 957.
Total numbers of such numbers is 2 + 6 = 8

68) f(1) = 1 ⇒ f(1) – 1 = 0

f(2) = 2 ⇒ f(2) – 2 = 0
f(3) = 3 ⇒ f(3) – 3 = 0
∴ f(x) = k(x–1)(x–2)(x–3) + x
f(4) = k × 3 × 2 × 1 + 4
f(4) = 6k + 4
10 = 6k + 4
6k = 6
k=1
∴ f(x) = (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3) + x
f(5) = 4 × 3 × 2 + 5
f(5) = 29

69) Let the number of days he saved = x

Total saving = ₹ 40x
ATQ
40x – 280 = 520
40x = 520 + 280
40x =800
x = 20

70)
∵ AB = BE = AE
ΔABE is an equilateral triangle.
∠ABE = 60°, ∠EBC = 180° – 60° = 120°

∵ BE = BC ⇒ ∠BEC = ∠BCE =
Thus, ∠ECD = 180 – 30 = 150°

∵ CE = CE ⇒ ∠CDE = ∠CED =
Thus, ∠DEA = 60° + 30° + 15° = 105°

71)

….(1)

Now

⸫ ⇒ a5 + =141 – 18 = 123
⸫ Sum of digits = 6
72)
Let ∠JKD = x

then (Given)

(corresponding angles)
& ∠EKC = ∠JKD = x (vertically opposite angles)
In ΔEKC,

⇒ x = 60°

∴
Now, In ΔABC
∠A = 180° – (80° – 80°)
= 20°

73) , , xy = –2

= = = =

74) x2025 = g(x)(x–1)(x+1) + ax + b

At x = 1 ; 1 = a + b ...(1)
at x = –1 ; –1 = –a + b ...(2)
Add eqn. (1) and (2)
2b = 0 ⇒ b = 0
from eqn. (1)
1=a+0
⇒a=1
So, a2 + b2 = 1 + 0 = 1

75)

= 20
19n = 1200

Now, –1= –1
=2–1
 =1

MENTAL ABILITY (IQ)

76)
Clearly, Y is mother of P.
Hence, option (4) is the correct answer.

77)

Number: First letter’s Place value+2

Letter: Last letter of the word
Best – First letter B’s place value is 2 so if we add 2 in it number will become 4 and last letter
is t so code of ‘Best’ will be 4t. Similarly in case of Teacher, first letter T’s place value is 20 so
if we add 2 in it number will become 22 and last letter is r so code of ‘Teacher’ will be 22r.
Final Answer is: 4t 22r

78)

79) Total in this ⇒ 2n where n = [Link] small

⇒ ⇒ 3 triangles
Total

80) From (I) and (IV)

∴ 1 is opposite to 5.

81) Let the three faces of the cube which are coloured red be - front, top and RHS as shown in
the figure below. This cube is cut into four cuboids of equal size. When these four cuboids are
coloured green on all uncoloured faces and these four cuboids are further cut into four equal
cuboids each, we get four ‘stacks of four cuboids each as shown in the figure.

Let four stacks A, B, C and D each comprising of four cuboids (labelled in the figure) be
formed from the cube.
Stack A has the top and front faces red and all the remaining four faces green.
Stack B has the top, front and the RHS faces red and remaining three faces green.
Stack C has the front face red and remaining five faces green.
Stack D has the front and RHS faces red and remaining four faces green.
Two cuboids (A1 and A2) in stack A, two cuboids (B1 and B4) in stack B and two cuboids (D2 and
D4) in stack D have two green faces each. Thus, there are 2 + 2 + 2 = 6 such cuboids,

82) The Shortest distance between point P and point U is m.

83) By observation.

84) Possible pair of floors whose product is 15 are (3,5) or (5,3)

 Floor Case-I Case-II

5 F E

3 E F

2 R R

1 Q Q

R is live immediately above Q sum of floors on which S and T lives is 7.

If T lives on floor 3, S lives on floor 4.
Therefore,
Floor Person

6 P

5 U

4 S

3 T

2 R

1 Q

So, there are 2 people living between Q and S

85)

5 × 6 + 7 = 37 ↔ 73
6 × 7 + 9 = 51 ↔ 15
3 × 5 + 2 = 17 ↔ 71
2 × 9 + 8 = 26 ↔ 62

86) The central arrow rotates 90º ACW, 45º CW alternately. The half-arrow moves a half-a-side
of the
square boundary in a CW direction and its head turns to the other side of the line in each step.

87)

Explanation:
35 ÷ 5 × 5 + 30 – 18 = 23
On checking option 1:
35 ÷ 5 × 5 + 18 – 30 = 23
7 × 5 + 18 – 30 = 23
35 + 18 – 30 = 23
53 – 30 = 23
Hence, Option 1 is correct
88) Here, the mirror is placed vertically on the RHS of the question figure. Hence, only answer
figure (3) would be obtained as the correct mirror image.

89) One letter is small in all the given determine and it moves towards left in order we have to
compare the corresponding letters of each, term clearly PcR the required missing term

90)
We know Monika’s position from left which is 17 and 27th from right. Total Girls = L + R – 1
Total girls = 17 + 27 – 1 = 43

91) Rajesh’s rank = 34 – 19 = 15th rank

No. of persons between Rajesh and Manoj
= 240 – (15 + 79)
= 240 – 94
= 146.

92) 2 + 22 = 6
6 + 32 =15
15 + 42 = 31
31 + 52 = 56
56 + 62 = 92
92 + 72 = 141

93)

Series:
1×2+1=3
3 × 3 + 1 = 10
10 × 2 + 1 = 21
21 × 3 + 1 = 64
64 × 2 + 1 = 129
129 × 3 + 1 ≠ 388
388 × 2 + 1 = 777

95) Option (1) is the clear answer following the water image rules.

96)

From the word - FLOAT

For 1st letter code F + L = 6 + 12 = 18 = R,
For 2nd letter code O (As it is)
For 3rd letter code A + T = 1 + 20 = 21 = U
Similarly, for the word - ARMED
For 1st letter code = A + R = 1 + 18 = S
For 2nd letter code = M (As it is)
For 3rd letter code = E + D = 5 + 4 = 9 = I
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

97)
B and C both are towards East of A.

98)

99) The final arrangement will be: -

M works in Jaipur city.

100) Water image of