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Electrical Engineering
Q.1 In a network, the sum of all currents entering a node is equal to the
sum of all currents leaving that node. This is known as:
(a) Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law
(b) Kirchhoff’s Current Law
(c) Ohm’s Law
(d) Superposition Theorem
Q.2 The Thevenin equivalent resistance is obtained by:
(a) Replacing all voltage sources with short circuits and current sources with
open circuits
(b) Replacing all voltage sources with open circuits and current sources with
short circuits
(c) Removing the load resistance only
(d) Using mesh analysis directly
Q.3 For maximum power transfer to occur, the load resistance (RL) must
be:
(a) Equal to zero
(b) Equal to source resistance (Rs)
(c) Twice the source resistance (2Rs)
(d) Half the source resistance (Rs/2)
Q.4 In a series RLC circuit, resonance occurs when:
(a) XL = XC
(b) XL > XC
(c) XL < XC
(d) R = 0
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Q.5 A balanced three-phase system has a line voltage of 400 V. The phase
voltage is:
(a) 400 V
(b) 230 V
(c) 200 V
(d) 100 V
Q.6 The electric field intensity due to a point charge decreases with
distance as:
(a) 1/r
(b) 1/r²
(c) 1/r³
(d) r
Q.7 Gauss’s Law relates the electric flux through a closed surface to:
(a) Magnetic charge enclosed
(b) Electric current enclosed
(c) Electric charge enclosed
(d) Potential difference
Q.8 The inductance of a solenoid is directly proportional to:
(a) Square of the number of turns
(b) Square root of the number of turns
(c) Length of solenoid
(d) Reluctance of core
Q.9 According to Faraday’s Law, the induced emf in a coil is proportional
to:
(a) Rate of change of current
(b) Rate of change of flux linkage
(c) Square of flux linkage
(d) Resistance of coil
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Q.10 Which of the following is an energy storage element?
(a) Resistor
(b) Inductor
(c) Diode
(d) Switch
Q.11 A causal system is one in which:
(a) Output depends on past and present inputs only
(b) Output depends on future inputs
(c) Output is independent of input
(d) System has zero memory
Q.12 According to the Sampling Theorem, the minimum sampling
frequency should be:
(a) Less than signal bandwidth
(b) Equal to signal bandwidth
(c) Twice the highest signal frequency
(d) Half the signal frequency
Q.13 In Fourier series representation, a half-wave symmetric function
contains:
(a) Only odd harmonics
(b) Only even harmonics
(c) Both odd and even harmonics
(d) Only DC component
Q.14 The Laplace Transform of a unit step function u(t) is:
(a) 1/s
(b) s
(c) e(-st)
(d) 1
Q.15 The RMS value of a sinusoidal current with peak value Im is:
(a) Im
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(b) Im/√2
(c) Im/2
(d) 2Im
Q.16 A resistor of 10 Ω, inductor of 0.1 H, and capacitor of 100 μF are
connected in series with a 200 V, 50 Hz supply. The circuit current is
closest to:
(a) 10 A
(b) 12.5 A
(c) 8.5 A
(d) 15 A
Q.17 In a circuit, two resistors of 6 Ω and 3 Ω are connected in parallel.
The equivalent resistance is:
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 9 Ω
(c) 4 Ω
(d) 1.5 Ω
Q.18 A 1 mH inductor carries a current of 10 A. The stored magnetic
energy is:
(a) 0.01 J
(b) 0.05 J
(c) 0.1 J
(d) 0.5 J
Q.19 A voltage source of 10 V is connected to a 2 Ω resistor. The power
absorbed by the resistor is:
(a) 25 W
(b) 50 W
(c) 5 W
(d) 10 W
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Q.20 In a balanced three-phase, 4-wire system with line voltage of 400 V,
a balanced star connected load of 10 kW at 0.8 lagging power factor is
connected. The line current is approximately:
(a) 18 A
(b) 20 A
(c) 14 A
(d) 25 A
Q.21 A two-port network has Z11 = 10 Ω, Z22 = 20 Ω, Z12 = Z21 = 5 Ω. If the
input current is 2 A with output port short circuited, the input voltage is:
(a) 10 V
(b) 20 V
(c) 30 V
(d) 40 V
Q.22 In a transient RL circuit with R = 5 Ω and L = 2 H, the time constant
is:
(a) 2.5 s
(b) 0.4 s
(c) 10 s
(d) 0.2 s
Q.23 A capacitor of 100 μF is charged to 100 V. The energy stored is:
(a) 0.25 J
(b) 0.5 J
(c) 1 J
(d) 2 J
Q.24 A parallel RLC circuit resonates at 1 kHz. If capacitance is 10 μF,
the required inductance is:
(a) 2.53 mH
(b) 25.3 mH
(c) 253 μH
(d) 0.25 H
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Q.25 A current of 5 A flows through a 2 μF capacitor connected across
100 V AC (rms). The frequency of supply is approximately:
(a) 79.6 Hz
(b) 159 Hz
(c) 318 Hz
(d) 50 Hz
Q.26 The electric field at a distance of 0.1 m from a point charge of 1 μC
in free space (ε0 = 8.85 × 10⁻¹² F/m) is closest to:
(a) 0.9 × 10⁵ N/C
(b) 1.8 × 10⁵ N/C
(c) 9 × 10⁵ N/C
(d) 3 × 10⁵ N/C
Q.27 The capacitance between two parallel plates of area 0.01 m²
separated by 1 mm air gap is (ε0 = 8.85 × 10⁻¹² F/m):
(a) 88.5 pF
(b) 8.85 nF
(c) 885 pF
(d) 8.85 pF
Q.28 A circular loop of radius 0.1 m carries a current of 2 A. The
magnetic field at its center is (μ0 = 4π × 10⁻⁷H/m):
(a) 2 μT
(b) 4 μT
(c) 10 μT
(d) 12.6 μT
Q.29 A long straight conductor carries 100 A current. The magnetic field
at a distance of 0.05 m is:
(a) 0.2 mT
(b) 0.4 mT
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(c) 2 mT
(d) 4 mT
Q.30 The flux density in a magnetic material is 1.2 T when the field
intensity is 1000 A/m. The relative permeability is:
(a) 600
(b) 955
(c) 1000
(d) 1200
Q.31 Two long parallel conductors are separated by 0.2 m and carry equal
currents of 50 A in opposite directions. The force per meter length
between them is:
(a) 12.5 × 10⁻⁵ N
(b) 25 × 10⁻⁵ N
(c) 50 × 10⁻⁵ N
(d) 100 × 10⁻⁵ N
Q.32 A coil with 500 turns links a flux of 2 mWb. The self-inductance is:
(a) 0.5 H
(b) 2 H
(c) 0.2 H
(d) 1 H
Q.33 A 100-turn coil of 0.01 m² area is placed in a magnetic field of 0.2 T.
The flux linkage is:
(a) 0.2 Wb-turn
(b) 0.1 Wb-turn
(c) 0.05 Wb-turn
(d) 0.002 Wb-turn
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Q.34 A capacitor of 10 μF is charged to 200 V. It is then connected across
a 10 μF uncharged capacitor. The final common voltage is:
(a) 200 V
(b) 100 V
(c) 50 V
(d) 0 V
Q.35 The curl of electrostatic field is always:
(a) Zero
(b) Constant
(c) Equal to divergence
(d) Infinite
Q.36 A continuous-time signal x(t) = cos(200πt) is sampled at 150 Hz. The
resulting sampled signal will be:
(a) Aliased with frequency 50 Hz
(b) Perfectly reconstructed
(c) Aliased with frequency 100 Hz
(d) A constant DC signal
Q.37 The Fourier series coefficient a₀ of a periodic square wave of
amplitude ±1 and 50% duty cycle is:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) –1
Q.38 A signal x(t) = e⁻²ᵗ u(t) has Laplace transform X(s). The region of
convergence (ROC) is:
(a) Re(s) < –2
(b) Re(s) > –2
(c) Re(s) = –2
(d) Entire s-plane
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Q.39 The Z-transform of x[n] = (0.5)ⁿ u[n] is:
(a) 1/(1 – 0.5z⁻¹), |z| > 0.5
(b) 1/(1 – 2z⁻¹), |z| > 2
(c) z/(z – 0.5), |z| > 0.5
(d) z/(z – 2), |z| > 2
Q.40 The RMS value of a triangular wave of peak value Vm is:
(a) Vm/√2
(b) Vm/√3
(c) Vm/2
(d) Vm/√6
Q.41 A transformer has an efficiency of 90% at full load and 0.9 pf lag. If
output power is 10 kW, the total losses are:
(a) 500 W
(b) 900 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1111 W
Q.42 A 50 Hz transformer has maximum flux density of 1.2 T. If emf per
turn is 5 V, the core area required is:
(a) 5.9 cm²
(b) 6.9 cm²
(c) 8.3 cm²
(d) 9.6 cm²
Q.43 The open-circuit test of a single-phase transformer gives core loss =
200 W. The short-circuit test gives copper loss = 100 W. The efficiency at
half full load (0.8 pf lag) is closest to:
(a) 80%
(b) 85%
(c) 90%
(d) 92%
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Q.44 A 4-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor runs at 1450 rpm. The slip
is:
(a) 2%
(b) 3.3%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
Q.45 A 400 V, 50 Hz, 4-pole, 3-phase induction motor has rotor resistance
= 0.1 Ω, standstill reactance = 0.5 Ω. The slip at maximum torque is:
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.25
(d) 0.5
Q.46 A 230 V DC shunt motor draws 21 A at rated load. If the armature
resistance is 0.5 Ω and field current is 1 A, the back emf is:
(a) 210 V
(b) 215 V
(c) 220 V
(d) 225 V
Q.47 A 220 V DC series motor takes 30 A at a speed of 600 rpm. Assuming
flux ∝ current, the speed at 20 A is approximately:
(a) 450 rpm
(b) 600 rpm
(c) 900 rpm
(d) 1200 rpm
Q.48 A synchronous generator has emf = 11 kV, synchronous reactance =
10 Ω/phase, armature resistance negligible. The short-circuit current for a
field current producing rated voltage on open circuit is:
(a) 1100 A
(b) 1000 A
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(c) 800 A
(d) 600 A
Q.49 A 20 kVA, 2000/200 V transformer has iron loss = 200 W and full-
load copper loss = 300 W. The efficiency at full load, unity pf is
approximately:
(a) 97%
(b) 98%
(c) 95%
(d) 96%
Q.50 The no-load current of a 1-phase transformer is 5% of rated current
and lags the voltage by 75°. The magnetizing component of current is
approximately:
(a) 2.5%
(b) 4.8%
(c) 1.3%
(d) 5%
Q.51 A 3-phase 6-pole synchronous motor runs at 970 rpm. The supply
frequency is:
(a) 48 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 60 Hz
(d) 55 Hz
Q.52 A single-phase 230 V induction motor draws 5 A at 0.6 pf lag. The
power consumed is:
(a) 460 W
(b) 690 W
(c) 1050 W
(d) 1150 W
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Q.53 A 3-phase induction motor develops maximum torque at slip s = 0.1.
If rotor resistance is doubled, the slip at maximum torque will be:
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.05
(c) 0.1
(d) 0.15
Q.54 The speed of a 6-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor is:
(a) 750 rpm
(b) 1000 rpm
(c) 1200 rpm
(d) 1500 rpm
Q.55 A 230 V DC shunt motor has armature resistance = 0.2 Ω. If the
motor draws 25 A at no-load and 100 A at full load, the change in back
emf is approximately:
(a) 0 V
(b) 15 V
(c) 20 V
(d) 25 V
Q.56 A 3-phase, 11 kV, 50 Hz, 100 MVA generator has a synchronous
reactance of 1.2 pu and negligible resistance. The short-circuit current in
per-unit is:
(a) 0.83 pu
(b) 1.0 pu
(c) 1.2 pu
(d) Infinite
Q.57 A 100 km long, 3-phase transmission line has resistance = 0.2 Ω/km
and reactance = 0.4 Ω/km. The total series impedance is:
(a) 20 + j40 Ω
(b) 200 + j400 Ω
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(c) 40 + j20 Ω
(d) 100 + j200 Ω
Q.58 In a power system, per unit quantities help because:
(a) They make impedance values dimensionless and comparable
(b) They always reduce system losses
(c) They increase power factor
(d) They eliminate the need for reactance
Q.59 A transmission line has sending-end voltage of 220 kV, receiving-end
voltage of 210 kV, and power transmitted = 100 MW. The voltage
regulation is approximately:
(a) 4.5%
(b) 5%
(c) 10%
(d) 2%
Q.60 A 100 MVA, 11 kV generator has an inertia constant H = 5 MJ/MVA.
The stored energy in the rotor at synchronous speed is:
(a) 500 MJ
(b) 1000 MJ
(c) 200 MJ
(d) 50 MJ
Q.61 A power system experiences a fault that increases load angle from
30° to 120°. If δmax = 150°, the system is:
(a) Stable
(b) Critically stable
(c) Unstable
(d) Cannot be determined
Q.62 In Gauss-Seidel load flow, the reactive power limit violation at PV
bus is handled by:
(a) Converting it into a PQ bus
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(b) Retaining it as PV bus
(c) Increasing the generator voltage
(d) Neglecting the limits
Q.63 A synchronous generator is delivering 0.8 pu active power to an
infinite bus. If excitation is doubled, the reactive power output will:
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain unchanged
(d) Become zero
Q.64 A 3-phase fault occurs at the terminals of a synchronous generator.
The fault current is limited by:
(a) Armature resistance
(b) Synchronous reactance
(c) Field resistance
(d) Leakage inductance only
Q.65 A single line-to-ground fault on an unloaded generator with
reactance Xd = 0.8 pu will produce a fault current of approximately:
(a) 1.25 pu
(b) 2 pu
(c) 3 pu
(d) 4 pu
Q.66 The equal area criterion is applied to study:
(a) Frequency control
(b) Voltage stability
(c) Rotor angle stability
(d) Overvoltage transients
Q.67 A distance relay has a reach setting of 80% of line length. For a line
of 100 km, if the actual impedance is 0.8 Ω/km, the relay reach is:
(a) 80 Ω
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(b) 64 Ω
(c) 100 Ω
(d) 0.8 Ω
Q.68 A PID controller with proportional gain Kp, integral time Ti, and
derivative time Td has transfer function:
(a) Kp(1 + 1/sTi + sTd)
(b) Kp(1 + sTi + 1/sTd)
(c) Kp(s + Ti + Td)
(d) Kp(sTd + Ti/s)
Q.69 For a unity feedback system with G(s) = 10/(s(s+2)), the steady-state
error for a unit ramp input is:
(a) 0
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.2
(d) Infinite
Q.70 A second-order system has ζ = 0.5 and ωn = 10 rad/s. The peak
overshoot in percentage is approximately:
(a) 8%
(b) 16%
(c) 25%
(d) 50%
Q.71 The transfer function of a lead compensator is generally of the form:
(a) (Ts+1)/(αTs+1), α < 1
(b) (αTs+1)/(Ts+1), α > 1
(c) (Ts+1)/(αTs+1), α > 1
(d) (αTs+1)/(Ts+1), α < 1
Q.72 For a unity feedback system with open loop G(s) = K/s(s+1), the root
locus starts at:
(a) –1 and 0
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(b) –1 and –∞
(c) 0 and –∞
(d) –1 and –2
Q.73 Routh’s criterion states that a system is stable if:
(a) All roots of characteristic equation are real
(b) All elements of first column of Routh array are positive
(c) All poles are on jω axis
(d) The system has no zero roots
Q.74 The Nyquist stability criterion is based on:
(a) Mapping of s-plane into G(s) plane
(b) Mapping of jω axis into G(s)H(s) plane
(c) Mapping of poles into zeros
(d) Mapping of time-domain into frequency-domain
Q.75 The steady-state error for a type-2 system with a parabolic input is:
(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) Finite
(d) Depends on K
Q.76 In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, R1 = 100 Ω, R2 = 150 Ω and R3 =
300 Ω. The unknown resistor Rx for balance is:
(a) 150 Ω
(b) 200 Ω
(c) 250 Ω
(d) 300 Ω
Q.77 A potentiometer has a total length of 100 cm and is used as a
standard to measure an emf of 10 mV. If the slide length for 10 mV is 40
cm, the potentiometer constant (mV/cm) is:
(a) 0.25 mV/cm
(b) 0.4 mV/cm
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(c) 0.1 mV/cm
(d) 0.5 mV/cm
Q.78 A current transformer (CT) rated 1000 A/5 A has a secondary
burden of 1 Ω. The VA burden on the CT at rated current is
approximately:
(a) 5 VA
(b) 25 VA
(c) 100 VA
(d) 500 VA
Q.79 A measuring instrument has accuracy specification ±(0.5% of
reading + 2 digits). If it displays 2.000 V (3 decimal digits), the maximum
absolute error is approximately:
(a) ±0.002 V
(b) ±0.010 V
(c) ±0.012 V
(d) ±0.020 V
Q.80 An oscilloscope has 10 divisions horizontally. If the timebase is set to
5 ms/div, the total sweep time is:
(a) 5 ms
(b) 10 ms
(c) 50 ms
(d) 500 ms
Q.81 A 10:1 passive oscilloscope probe is connected to a scope input of 1
MΩ. The effective input resistance seen at probe tip is approximately:
(a) 100 kΩ
(b) 1 MΩ
(c) 10 MΩ
(d) 11 MΩ
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Q.82 A non-inverting op-amp configuration uses Rf = 39 kΩ and R1 = 1
kΩ. The closed-loop voltage gain is approximately:
(a) 1
(b) 39
(c) 40
(d) 0.025
Q.83 An op-amp has slew-rate SR = 0.5 V/μs. For a sine wave of peak
amplitude 10 V, the maximum frequency at which the waveform will not
be slew-rate limited (approx.) is:
(a) 0.8 kHz
(b) 7.96 kHz
(c) 31.8 kHz
(d) 79.6 kHz
Q.84 A Sallen–Key unity-gain low-pass filter uses R = 10 kΩ and C = 10
nF in the simple configuration. The approximate cutoff frequency fc is:
(a) 159 Hz
(b) 1.59 kHz
(c) 15.9 kHz
(d) 159 kHz
Q.85 A 12-bit ADC has a full-scale input of 5.0 V. The quantization step
(LSB) is approximately:
(a) 1.22 mV
(b) 2.44 mV
(c) 0.61 mV
(d) 10 mV
Q.86 An 8-bit DAC with Vref = 2.5 V produces an LSB size of:
(a) 9.77 mV
(b) 1.22 mV
(c) 0.98 mV
(d) 19.53 mV
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Q.87 For an ideal uniform quantizer, the RMS value of the quantization
noise is LSB/√12. For the 12-bit ADC of Q.85, the quantization noise RMS
is approximately:
(a) 3.52 mV
(b) 0.352 mV
(c) 1.22 mV
(d) 12.2 mV
Q.88 A sample-and-hold circuit has a hold capacitor C = 100 pF and the
leakage (net) current from the capacitor is 100 nA. The droop rate (dV/dt)
is I/C and the voltage droop over 1 ms is approximately:
(a) 1 mV
(b) 10 mV
(c) 100 mV
(d) 1 V
Q.89 A single-phase full-wave uncontrolled rectifier supplies a heavily
inductive load (continuous current). For VAC (rms) = 230 V, Vm = 325 V.
The average DC output (α = 0) is approximately:
(a) 146 V
(b) 207 V
(c) 260 V
(d) 325 V
Q.90 For a single-phase full-wave controlled rectifier with Vm = 325 V and
firing angle α = 30°, the average DC output (continuous conduction) is
approximately:
(a) 179 V
(b) 207 V
(c) 260 V
(d) 283 V
Q.91 A three-phase full-wave uncontrolled bridge rectifier is fed from a
400 V (line–line, rms) supply. The average DC output (ignoring drops) is
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approximately:
(a) 230 V
(b) 311.8 V
(c) 400 V
(d) 552 V
Q.92 A boost converter needs to step Vin = 48 V to Vout = 100 V (ideal
converter). The required duty cycle D (continuous conduction) is
approximately:
(a) 0.33
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.52
(d) 0.68
Q.93 A buck converter supplies Vout = 12 V from Vin = 100 V (ideal,
continuous conduction). The duty cycle D is:
(a) 0.12
(b) 0.88
(c) 0.48
(d) 0.24
Q.94 In a buck converter with Vin = 100 V, Vout = 12 V, switching
frequency fs = 100 kHz, output capacitor C = 10 μF and load current Io = 2
A (assume triangular inductor current ripple produces capacitor ripple
approx ΔV ≈ Io(1−D)/(Cfs)). The approximate peak-to-peak output ripple
is:
(a) 0.176 V
(b) 1.76 V
(c) 17.6 V
(d) 176 V
Q.95 A three-phase 6-pulse diode rectifier feeding a well-smoothed DC
link draws line currents with dominant harmonics of order 5 and 7.
Typical input current THD (approx.) for such a 6-pulse rectifier is around:
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(a) 5%
(b) 12%
(c) 31%
(d) 60%
Q.96 An IGBT-based inverter switching at 20 kHz will have switching
losses roughly compared to an identical design switching at 2 kHz (all else
equal):
(a) ~the same
(b) ~2× larger
(c) ~10× larger
(d) ~100× larger
Q.97 A single-phase full-wave bridge rectifier with capacitor-input filter
supplies R = 100 Ω. The AC is 230 V rms (Vm ≈ 325 V). With C = 4700 μF,
the approximate peak-to-peak ripple voltage (fripple = 100 Hz) is:
(a) ≈0.69 V
(b) ≈6.9 V
(c) ≈69 V
(d) ≈690 V
Q.98 A fully-controlled single-phase converter supplies an infinitely
inductive load in continuous conduction. For α = 60° the displacement
power factor (ignoring harmonics) is approximately:
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.866
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.0
Q.99 A buck–boost converter (ideal) produces Vout = −D/(1−D) · Vin. If Vin
= 48V and desired Vout = −12 V,the required duty cycle D is approximately:
(a) 0.20
(b) 0.25
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(c) 0.33
(d) 0.75
Q.100 A single-switch DC–DC boost converter operates in continuous
conduction. If switching frequency increases while keeping other
parameters same, which one of the following is the most likely effect (ideal
components assumed)?
(a) Output voltage decreases (for fixed duty)
(b) Inductor ripple current decreases and output voltage ripple decreases
(c) Converter becomes unstable and output inverts polarity
(d) Duty cycle must increase proportionally to fs to maintain Vout
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