LAW

ENFORCEMENT
ADMINISTRATION
1. The following are not members of PLEB, except:

A.senior officer of the regional Commission as

Chairman
B. representative from the PNP
C. regional peace and order council
D.A member from council of captains
2. The National Police Commission shall be an agency attached to the
Department for policy and program coordination. It shall be composed
of:

a. Chairperson c.
Chief of PNP
b. four (4) regular Commissioners d. All of the foregoing
3. Maximum tenure of office of the Chief
of the PNP.
a. 4 years c. 9 years
b. 6 years d. 12 years
4. Under Section 28 of RA 8551 Attrition by
Non-promotion– Any PNP personnel who
have not been promoted for a continuous
period of ___shall be retired or separated.
a. 2 years c. 18
months
b. 6 months d. 10 years
5. In PNP, monthly retirement pay shall be ______of the
base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of
twenty (20) years of active service, increasing by two and
one-half percent (2.5%) for every year of active service
rendered beyond twenty (20) years to a maximum of
ninety percent (90%) for thirty-six (36) years of active
service and over:
A. 50 %
B. 80 %
C. 90 %
D. 5%
6. The PNP rank classification was defined under Section 28 of RA
6975 where the lowest rank is Police Officer 1 and the highest rank
is Director General. By virtue of RA 11200 the rank classification of
the PNP was hereby amended. Today, what is the lowest rank of the
PNP Commissioned Officers?

a. Police Executive Master Sergeant c. Police Captain

b. Police Lieutenant d.
Police Major
7. Any complaint by a natural or juridical person against any
member of the PNP shall be brought before the mayors of
cities and municipalities, where the offense is punishable by
withholding of privileges, restriction to specified limits,
suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof,
for a period of________.
a. not exceeding 15 days
b. not less than 16 days but not more than 30 days
c. exceeding 30 days
d. not exceeding 60 days
8. The following are included under the line
function, except:

A.Patrol
B.Criminal investigation
C.Planning
D.Traffic management
9. It is the central receiving entity of all citizens’
complaints.

A. NAPOLCOM
B. PLEB
C. IAS
D. Regional Appellate Board
10. It is an attached agency of DILG for policy
and program coordination.

A. NAPOLCOM
B. PNP
C. National Appellate Board
D. Regional Appellate Board
11. Any personnel of the BFP and the BJMP shall not
be eligible for promotion to a higher rank unless he/she
has met the minimum qualification standards or the
appropriate civil service eligibility set by the ________.

A. DILG
B. Civil Service Commission (CSC)
C. DOJ
D. NAPOLCOM
12. No person shall be appointed Director unless he or
she is a natural-born citizen of the Philippines and a
member of the Philippine Bar who has been engaged
in the practice of law for at least ___, preferably from
within the ranks of Directors.
a. five (5) years c. fifteen (15) years
b. ten (10) years d. twenty (20) years
13. The following are classical approach to
management EXCEPT

A.Scientific Management
B.Bureaucratic Management
C.Administrative Management
D.Theory of X and Y
14. It is an area of management that sought to
discover the best method of performing specific task.
Based on his studies, it believes that if workers were
taught the best procedures, with pay tied to output,
they would produce the maximum amount of work

A.Scientific Management
B.Bureaucratic Management
C.Administrative Management
D.Theory of X and Y
15. This concept explains that there should be
one manager and one plan for a group of
activities that have the same objective

A.Unity of Direction
B.Unity of Command
C.Division of Work
D.Division of Labor
16. An employee should receive orders from
one superior only.

A.Delegation of authority
B.Unity of Command
C.Command and Responsibility
D.Directing
17. It is the willingness to be patient towards people
whose opinions were different from others.

A. rules of engagement
B. maximum tolerance
C. dispersal of crowd
D. operational procedures
18. Cebu city maintains a police force with a total
manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many PLEB
must be established?

A. Two (2)
B. Three (3)
C. Four (4)
D. Five (5)
19. The doing, either through ignorance, inattention or
malice, of that which the officer had no legal right to do at
all, as where he acts without any authority whatsoever, or
exceeds, ignores or abuses his powers.

A. Misfeasance
B. Nonfeasance
C. Misconduct
D. Malfeasance
20. It is the omission or refusal, without sufficient
excuse, to perform an act or duty, which it was the
peace officer’s legal obligation to perform; it implies a
duty as well as its breach and the fast can never be
found in the absence of a duty.

A. Misfeasance
B. Nonfeasance
C. Misconduct
D. Malfeasance
21. The PNP is a nationwide government organization
whose jurisdiction covers the entire breath of the
Philippines archipelago which extends up to the
municipality of Kalayaan islands in the province of
Palawan.

A. Civilian in character
B. PNP jurisdiction
C. National in scope
D. Generality
22. All but one does not belong to the seven (7)
services of National Bureau of Investigation?

A. Investigation Service
B. Intelligence Service
C. Human Resource and Management Service
D. Crime laboratory Services
23. Aside from court, the following are not
unauthorized to issue subpoena, except.

A. Office of the Prosecutor

B. Office of the Ombudsman
C. National Bureau of Investigation
D. Philippine National Police
24. One of the legal bases of industrial security management is the
Constitutional Authority, which among the following is not true about
its provision.
A. The prime duty of the Government is to serve and protect the
people.
B. No person shall be deprived of life, liberty or property without
due process of law, nor shall any person be denied the equal
protection of the laws.
C. Forms the framework for all decisions made by every government
official and, particularly the legislature, executive and judiciary
D. The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses,
papers, and effects against unreasonable searches
25. It refers to physical structure whether natural
or man-made capable of restricting, deterring,
delaying or preventing illegal and unauthorized
access to an installation.

A. Fence
B. Barrier
C. physical security
D. bodies of water
26. Refers to the security unit maintained and operated by any
government entity other than military or police, which is
established and maintained for the purpose of securing the
office or compound and/or extension of such government entity.

A. Company Guard Force

B. Government Guard Force
C. Private Security Agency
D. None of the above
27. What shall be the Status of License to Operate to
those Private Security not able to maintain the minimum
number of security personnel or conform to standards?

A. Regular LTO
B. Irregular LTO
C. Temporary LTO
D. Interim LTO
28. When shall the LTO be renewed?

A. At least sixty (60) days after expiration date of LTO

B. Within (30) days before expiration date of LTO
C. At least sixty (60) days before expiration date of LTO
D. Not exceeding (30) days before expiration date of LTO
29. What shall be done to the renewal applicants/holders of
regular license not able to maintain the minimum number
of security personnel under its employ or license renewal
requirements?

A. The renewal license shall be automatically cancelled

B. The renewal license shall be reverted to different status
C. The renewal license shall be automatically revoked
D. None of the above
30. What shall be done to the renewal applicants/holders of
regular license who fail to file applications after the expiry
date of LTO?

A. The renewal license shall be automatically cancelled

B. The renewal license shall be reverted to different status
C. The renewal license shall be accepted & penalized for late
filing.
D. None of the above
31. What shall be the effect of the cancelled License to Operate to the agency?
1. Cease to Operate (CTO) orders
2. Deposit its firearms with the Firearms and Explosives Division
3. The concerned agency shall stop its operation
4. The concerned agency shall operate in interim status
5. Police Regional Office shall have the authority to safekeep firearms

A. 2,3,4 and 5 only

B. 1,2,4 and 5 only
C. 1,3,4 and 5 only
D. 1,2,3 and 5 only
E. All of the above
32. The LTO shall be displayed at all times in a conspicuous and
suitable place in the agency office or headquarters and shall be
exhibited at the request of any person whose jurisdiction is in
relation or not with the business of the agency or the employees
thereof. The statement is not incorrect.

A. Yes
B. No
C. I don’t know
D. I don’t care
33. The minimum age requirement for security
manager or operator of a security agency is:

A.40 yrs old

B.25 yrs old
C.30 yrs old
D.35 yrs old
34. The following are the qualifications for
security officer, except:

A.Filipino citizen
B.At least high school graduate
C.Physically and mentally fir
D.Has graduated from a security officer training
course
35. The following are the qualifications of
private detective, except:

A.Filipino or foreign citizen

B.Physically and mentally fit
C.Holder of baccalaureate degree
D.Advance ROTC/CMT graduate or its
equivalent
36. The following are the qualifications for
Security Consultant, except:

A.Master in Public Administration

B.MBA
C.Master in Criminology
D.Bachelor of Law
37. No regular license shall be granted to any
private security agency unless it has a minimum of
how many private security personnel under its
employ?

A.30
B.50
C.200
D.1000
38. What is the maximum number of security
guard can a private security agency employ?

A. 200
B. 500
C. 2000
D. 1000
39. The tenure of security personnel is based on:

A. the service contract between the agency and the

client
B. can be extended by the client
C. tenure provided by the labor law
D. labor only contracting between the agency and the
guard
40. The security guards have limitation in the carrying of
firearms as prescribed by its DDO. In what instance where
the security guard may carry his firearm outside of its DDO?

A. When he went home because he forgot something very

important and thus, carry his firearm
B. When he is in hot pursuit of criminal offenders
C. When he was told by his boss to escort him to the main
officer because he has many loads
D. All of the above
41. A security guard is committed to uphold the
principle Maka-Diyos, Maka-Bayan, Maka-tao at:

A.Makakalikasan
B.Maka-Hayop
C.Maka-tao
D.Makasarili
42. There are three (3) kinds of fence; solid, full view and wire
fences. The following, except one, are the disadvantages of solid
fence:

A. Prevents the guard from observing the area around the

installation.
B. Creates shadow which may be used by the person from cover
and concealment.
C. Denies visual access of the installation to the intruder
D. Only a and b
 43. It is the importance of the firm with reference to
the national economy and security.

A.Relative vulnerability
B.Relative criticality
C.Physical relativity
D.None of the aforementioned
44. The following are purposes of barriers, except

A. Create a physical and psychological deterrent to authorized

entry.
B. Prevent penetration therein or delay intrusion, thus, facilitating
apprehension of intruders.
C. Assist in more efficient and economical employment of guards.
D. Facilitate and improve the control and vehicular traffic.
45. The lifespan of paper from its creation to its final
disposition.

A.Lifespan
B.record cycle
C.record span
D.any of these
46. Record may differ from each other in construction and contents, but
each follows a common cycle or path through its life. The following are
chronological order in the life cycle of record.
1. Transfer 6. Storage
2. Purging or retention 7. Retrieval
3. Archival Storage or disposition
4. Classification
5. Creation
A. 5,1,4,2,6,7,3
B. 5,4,7,6,2,1,3
C. 5,4,6,7,2,1,3
D. 5,1,2,6,4,7,3
47. A type of filing system which places all record series
in one location in an office. Most useful when the
majority of individuals within an office require access to
majority of files

A. Unified filing system

B. Centralized filing system
C. Integrated filing system
D. Combined filing system
48. The following are efficient records control, except:

A. Standardizing the purchase and supplies to allow their

usage anywhere in the police organization
B. Training personnel
C. Following standard procedures of storage and control
D. None of the above
49. The actual placement of materials in a storage
container, generally a folder, according to a plan. It
includes the process of classifying, coding,
arranging, and storage systematically so that they
may be located quietly when needed.

A. Filing
B. Arranging
C. Keeping
D. Preserving
50. It is a type of protective alarm system consists
of rigging up a visual or audible alarm near the
object to be protected, a bell or light indicates an
attempted or successful intrusion.

A. local alarm system

B. central station system
C. proprietary system
D. auxiliary system
51. at least how many police officer are allowed to conduct
the body frisking?

A. One; police officer should secure first the area before

conducting search
B. Two; one police officer to do the search while the other
provides security
C. Three; two for search while the other provides security
D. Three; two securities to provides security while the
other is conducting search
52. If you were the police officer conducting a SPOT
CHECKING/ACCOSTING, the following should be done, except?
A. When approaching the person, the police officer shall clearly
identify himself/herself and present his/her identification card.
B. Police officers shall be courteous at all times but remain
cautious and vigilant.
C. Before approaching more than one person, police officers
should determine whether the circumstances warrant a request
for back-up or whether the stopping should be delayed until
such back-up arrives.
D. Police officers are required to inform the person of his/ her
rights under the law
53. The following shall not be authorized in
conducting checkpoint, except?

A. Police Lieutenant Colonel

B. Police Captain
C. Regional Director
D. Police Lieutenant
54. Which among the following information are
not required prior to the flagging down of vehicle:

A. Plate number and/or conduction sticker;

B. Brand/make, series, type (sedan, SUV, AUV,
etc) and color;
C. Number and/or description of occupants;
D. The name of the driver
55. No person shall be arrested under the following
circumstances, except?

A. An accused is which is already in detention

B. A senator or member of the House of Representatives
shall, in all offenses punishable by not more than six years
imprisonment
C. Diplomatic agents and couriers, under the Vienna
Convention on Diplomatic Relations
D. None of the above
56. At least how many private individuals shall be verbally
summoned by the police officer to give aid in the conduct of
arrest?

A. At least two (2) people within the vicinity

B. More than two (2) people within the area of operation
C. Not less than two (2) people with probable knowledge of the
person to be arrested
D. It depends
57. How many days does the warrant of
arrest shall be executed

A. Within 10 days from its receipt

B. Within 10 days from its issuance
C. Within 10 days from its date
D. Within 10 days from its approval
58. The following are rights of a person under
custodial investigation, except.
A. The right to face the witness face to face
B. Right against self-incrimination
C. Rights against torture, force, violence,
threat, intimidation or any other means
which vitiates freewill
D. To have competent and independent
counsel preferably of his own choice.
59. It involves the presentation of key findings of crime
research and analysis to audiences within law
enforcement, local government, and citizenry based on
legal, political and practical concerns.

A. Administrative Crime Analysis

B. Strategic Crime Analysis
C. Investigative analysis
D. Criminal intelligence analysis
60. It portrays a portion of a real world in a form
we can use to find our way or find answers to
questions we may have about an area we are
interested in.

A. Map
B. Mapping Basics
C. Coordinates
D. Sketch
61. The rights of an accused under Section 12,
paragraph 1 can be waived only if?

A. Waived in writing in the presence of a police

officer
B. Waived orally in the presence of counsel
C. Waived in the presence of counsel
D. Waived in writing and in the presence of counsel
62. The following are the disadvantages of
motorcycle patrol:

A. Costly to operate
B. Inoperative during inclement whether
C. Provides maneuvering techniques
D. Some of the above
63. All but one is known to be warrantless arrest.

A. Plain view
B. Hot pursuit
C. Inflagrante delicto
D. Escape fugitive
64. Which among the following is a requirement before a
confession be admitted as admissible in evidence?

A. The confession of the accused must be express and

categorical in order for it to be admissible
B. It must be given voluntarily by the accused because if it
is involuntarily given, it will be inadmissible.
C. The confession must always be in writing and understood
by the accused.
D. The written confession must be signed by the accused in
the presence of a counsel together with the aforementioned
65. Include critical incident management
procedures,search, rescue and retrieval operations,
hostage situation, civil disturbance management
operation, management of health hazards and other
operations that promote public safety.

A. Public Safety Operations

B. Special Police Operations
C. Investigation Operations
D. Law enforcement Operations
66. It involves assigning one part of the patrol
force the responsibility of conducting
preventive patrol and assigning another part of
the patrol force the task of responding to calls
for service.

A. Split-force patrol
B. Reactive patrol
C. Preventive patrol
D. Proactive patrol
67. This kind of patrol combines the high-visibility, low-
visibility, and directed patrol to identify persons and places
or events which attract or create crime problems

A. Split-force patrol
B. Target-oriented patrol
C. Selective enforcement
D. Proactive patrol
68. This is a patrol method that relies heavily upon
disguise, deception, and lying in wait rather than
upon high-visibility patrol techniques.

A. Undercover patrol
B. Recon patrol
C. Low-visibility patrol
D. Decoy patrol
69. This kind of patrol is designed to increase the rate of
apprehension and surprise is a primary element.

A. High-visibility patrol
B. Low-visibility patrol
C. Split-force patrol
D. Directed deterrent patrol
70. Is that along with higher standards of
living, victims become more careless of their
belongings, and opportunities for committing
crime multiply. What theory of comparative
policing is this?
A. Demographic theory
B. Opportunity theory
C. Anomie theory
D. None of the above
71. Is based on the event of when a greater number of
children are being born, because as these baby booms
grow up, delinquent subcultures develop out of the
adolescent identity crisis. What theory of comparative
policing is this?
A. Demographic theory
B. Opportunity theory
C. Anomie theory
D. None of the above
72. Which among the following theories relates to
the deprivation theory of comparative policing

A. Class conflict theory

B. Culture deviance theory
C. Social learning theory
D. Peacemaking theory of criminology
73. A command structure of police force which explains that one
police force can effectively carried out common goal and
objective allowing each member of the organization to contribute
and collaborate with the organizational plans and program.

A. Coordinated Centralized
B. Centralized Command
C. Decentralized Command
D. Decentralized Coordinate
74. Refers to the number of police forces does not
overlap?

A. Coordinated Centralized
B. Centralized Command
C. Decentralized Command
D. Multiple Coordinated
75. The following are basic goals of policing,
except:

A. Enforcement of laws
B. Preservation of peace
C. Prevention of Crimes
D. Protect from Elementals
76. The following are the roles of leader, except;

A. Required at all levels

B. Representative of the organization
C. He solicits unfriendly competition
D. Integrates and reconciles the personal goals with
organizational goals
77. Leader is a person who starts the work by communicating the policies
and plans. This passage refers to the importance of leadership.

A. Initiates action, since he is the one that must be mimic with his
subordinate
B. Motivation, since the leader knows the sentiments of his or her
colleagues
C. Providing guidance, as a leader he must guide his subordinates to what
they need to do
D. Creating confidence, so that this or her subordinates be inspired to do
their jobs
78. A leader can be a morale booster by achieving full cooperation so
that they perform with the best of their abilities as they work to achieve
goals.

A. Initiates action, since he is the one that must be mimic with his
subordinate
B. Building morale, so that his/her subordinates could function in
accordance with their specialized job and ability
C. Providing guidance, as a leader he must guide his subordinates to
what they need to do
D. Creating confidence, so that this or her subordinates be inspired to do
their jobs
79. Which of the following does not best describe an ethical
leader?

A. Honest leaders can always be relied upon and depended

upon. They always earn the respect of their followers.
B. Should use his followers as a medium to achieve his personal
goals. He should respect their feelings, decision and values
C. consider his own purpose as well as his followers’ purpose
while making efforts to achieve the goals suitable to both of
them.
D. He is fair and just. Wherever some followers are treated
differently, the ground for differential treatment should be
80. This involves allocating employee resources
and delegating responsibilities, as well as setting
realistic timelines and standards for completion.
a.Organizing
b.Leading
c.planning
d.controlling
81. Determine the basic policies organizations and
are taken at top-level management. The policies
decided at the top become the basis for operative
decisions that can go beyond the policy framework
of the organization.

A. policy decisions
B. administrative decisions
C. operative decisions
D. organizational decisions
82. This type of policy comes from top
management level and is intended to set up
guidelines in the operation of the police
organization.

A. originated policy
B. appealed policy
C. imposed policy
D. amended policy
83. type of policy comes from the government in
the forms of laws, administrative orders, and rules
and procedures or contract specifications.

A. Originated policy
B. appealed policy
C. imposed policy
D. amended policy
84. This pertains to source of leaders power
which uses force to effect obedience.

A.Expert power
B.Legitimate power
C.Coercive power
D.Referent power
85. It is based on one party’s identification
with the other, “the desire of followers to
identify with their leaders and to be accepted
by them.”

A. coercive power
B. reward power
C. legitimate power
D. referent power
86. This power states that individuals will
acquire this through their ability to, or
perceived ability to, distribute intrinsic and
extrinsic rewards to others in the organization.

A. coercive power
B. legitimate power
C. reward power
D. referent power
87. In this style of leadership, a leader has complete
command and hold over their employees/team.

a. autocratic leadership style

b. participative leadership style
c. laissez faire leadership style
d. bureaucratic leadership style
88. Jabz Culanag is a leader who believes in group
decision-making and he even shares information with his
subordinates. What type of leadership did Jabz manifest?

a. Directive
b. supportive
c. participative
d. achievement-oriented
89. This henry fayol principle of management
states that the management should strive to
create unity, morale, and co-operation among
the employees.
a. Equity
b. Scalar Chain
c. Esprit de Corps
d. Order
90. What planning approach if it involves
collective actions to achieve concrete results
in the immediate future.
a. Synoptic planning
b. advocacy planning
c. Transactive planning
d. radical planning
91. It is regarded as the cognitive
process resulting in the selection of a belief or
a course of action among several possible
alternative options

A.Decision-making
B.Planning
C.Management
D.Organizing
92. What technique of decision-making is trying
to illustrate here which is characterized by the
inner feeling of the person where he takes a
decision as per the dictates of his conscience?

A. Facts
B. Experience
C. Intuition
D. Considered options
93. are those decisions to be taken by the
managers on their own. Others need not be
consulted.

A.Policy decisions
B.Personal decisions
C.Operative decisions
D.Organizational decisions
94. This involves allocating employee resources
and delegating responsibilities, as well as setting
realistic timelines and standards for completion.
a.Organizing
b.Leading
c.planning
d.controlling
95. The power of persuasion is the ability to persuade others
to seek defined objectives enthusiastically, according to one
of the most successful motivational coaches in the world. It
is the human factor that binds a group together and
motivates it towards goals

A. Manager
B. Management
C. Leadership
D. Leader
96. a type of nationalism that defines nation in
terms of ethnicity. Including the ideas of a culture
shared between members of the group and with
their ancestors, and usually a shared language.

A. Ethnic Nationalism
B. Civic Nationalism
C. Romantic Nationalism
D. Third World Nationalism
97. A program aimed at enhancing civic
consciousness and defense preparedness in the
youth by developing the ethics of service and
patriotism.

A. NSTP
B. CWTS
C. ROTC
D. LTS
98. It is the overall policy making body,
coordinating, and grants giving agency for the
preservation, development and promotion of
Philippine arts and culture.

A. NCCA
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PNP
D. NCAA
99. The following are type of Patriotism,
except?

A. Personal Patriotism
B. Official Patriotism
C. Symbolic Patriotism
D. Cultural Patriotism
100. It refers to the strong belief that the
interests of a particular nation-state are of
primary importance.

A. Nationalism
B. Patriotism
C. Altruism
D. Socialism
Let’s Check
1. The following are not members of PLEB, except:

A.senior officer of the regional Commission as

Chairman
B. representative from the PNP
C. regional peace and order council
D.A member from council of captains
1. The following are not members of PLEB, except:

A.senior officer of the regional Commission as

Chairman
B. representative from the PNP
C. regional peace and order council
D.A member from council of captains
 THE FOLLOWING ARE MEMBERS OF
PLEB:
 One (1) Sangguniang Panglungsod/Bayan
representative;
 One (1) representative from the Association of
Barangay Captains of the city of municipality;
 Three (3) individuals from the community known
for their probity and integrity: one must be a
woman;
The Chairman of the PLEB shall be elected from among its
members.
The term of office of the members of the PLEB shall be for a
period of three (3) years from assumption of office. Such
member shall hold office until his successor shall have been
chosen and qualified.“
(c) Compensation. Membership in the PLEB is a civic duty.
However, PLEB members shall be paid per diem and shall be
provided with life insurance coverage as may be determined by
the city or municipal council from city or municipal funds. The
DILG shall provide for the per diem and insurance coverage of
PLEB members in certain low income municipalities."
How many members in PLEB
that constitutes a quorum?

SEC. 7. Quorum. – The presence of three (3)

members of the PLEB shall constitute a quorum:
Provided, however, that a vote of at least three (3)
members shall be required in rendering a decision.

05/26/2024
2. The National Police Commission shall be an agency attached to the
Department for policy and program coordination. It shall be composed
of:

a. Chairperson c.
Chief of PNP
b. four (4) regular Commissioners d. All of the foregoing
2. The National Police Commission shall be an agency attached to the
Department for policy and program coordination. It shall be composed
of:

a. Chairperson c.
Chief of PNP
b. four (4) regular Commissioners d. All of the foregoing
THE NATIONAL POLICE
COMMISSION
3. Maximum tenure of office of the Chief
of the PNP.
a. 4 years c. 9 years
b. 6 years d. 12 years
3. Maximum tenure of office of the Chief
of the PNP.
a. 4 years c. 9 years
b. 6 years d. 12 years
4. Under Section 28 of RA 8551 Attrition by
Non-promotion– Any PNP personnel who
have not been promoted for a continuous
period of ___shall be retired or separated.
a. 2 years c. 18
months
b. 6 months d. 10 years
4. Under Section 28 of RA 8551 Attrition by
Non-promotion– Any PNP personnel who
have not been promoted for a continuous
period of ___shall be retired or separated.
a. 2 years c. 18
months
b. 6 months d. 10 years
ATTRITION SYSTEM OF
UNIFORMED PERSONNEL

Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure in

Position
 Chief - 4 years
 Deputy Chief - 4 years
 Directors of Staff - 4 years
 Regional Directors - 6 years
 Prov/City - 9 years
 SEC. 26. Attrition by Relief. - A PNP uniformed personnel
who has been relieved for just cause and has not been given
an assignment within two (2) years after such relief shall be
retired or separated.

SEC. 27. Attrition by Demotion in Position or Rank. - Any

PNP personnel, civilian or uniformed, who is relieved and
assigned to a position lower than what is established for his
or her grade in the PNP staffing pattern and who shall not be
assigned to a position commensurate to his or her grade
within eighteen (18) months after such demotion in position
shall be retired or separated.

SEC. 28. Attrition by Non-promotion. - Any PNP personnel

who has not been promoted for a continuous period of ten
(10) years shall be retired or separated.
SEC. 29. Attrition by Other Means. - A PNP member
or officer with at least five (5) years of accumulated
active service shall be separated based on any of
the following factors:
a.inefficiency based on poor performance during the
last two (2) successive annual rating periods;
b.inefficiency based on poor performance for three
(3) cumulative annual rating periods;
c.physical and/or mental incapacity to perform
police functions and duties; or
d.failure to pass the required entrance examinations
twice and/or finish the required career courses
except for justifiable reasons.
5. In PNP, monthly retirement pay shall be ______of the
base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of
twenty (20) years of active service, increasing by two and
one-half percent (2.5%) for every year of active service
rendered beyond twenty (20) years to a maximum of
ninety percent (90%) for thirty-six (36) years of active
service and over:
A. 50 %
B. 80 %
C. 90 %
D. 5%
5. In PNP, monthly retirement pay shall be ______of the
base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of
twenty (20) years of active service, increasing by two and
one-half percent (2.5%) for every year of active service
rendered beyond twenty (20) years to a maximum of
ninety percent (90%) for thirty-six (36) years of active
service and over:
A. 50 %
B. 80 %
C. 90 %
D. 5%
"SEC. 75. Retirement Benefits. - Monthly retirement pay
shall be fifty percent (50%) of the base pay and longevity
pay of the retired grade in case of twenty (20) years of
active service, increasing by two and one-half percent
(2.5%) for every year of active service rendered beyond
twenty (20) years to a maximum of ninety percent (90%)
for thirty-six (36) years of active service and over:
Provided, That, the uniformed personnel shall have the
option to receive in advance and in lump sum his
retirement pay for the first five (5) years: Provided, further,
That payment of the retirement benefits in lump sum shall
be made within six (6) months from effectivity date of
retirement and/or completion: Provided, finally, That
retirement pay of the officers/non-officers of the PNP shall
be subject to adjustments based on the prevailing scale of
base pay of police personnel in the active service."
6. The PNP rank classification was defined under Section 28 of RA
6975 where the lowest rank is Police Officer 1 and the highest rank
is Director General. By virtue of RA 11200 the rank classification of
the PNP was hereby amended. Today, what is the lowest rank of the
PNP Commissioned Officers?

a. Police Executive Master Sergeant c. Police Captain

b. Police Lieutenant d.
Police Major
6. The PNP rank classification was defined under Section 28 of RA
6975 where the lowest rank is Police Officer 1 and the highest rank
is Director General. By virtue of RA 11200 the rank classification of
the PNP was hereby amended. Today, what is the lowest rank of the
PNP Commissioned Officers?

a. Police Executive Master Sergeant c. Police Captain

b. Police Lieutenant d.
Police Major
7. Any complaint by a natural or juridical person against any
member of the PNP shall be brought before the mayors of
cities and municipalities, where the offense is punishable by
withholding of privileges, restriction to specified limits,
suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof,
for a period of________.
a. not exceeding 15 days
b. not less than 16 days but not more than 30 days
c. exceeding 30 days
d. not exceeding 60 days
7. Any complaint by a natural or juridical person against any
member of the PNP shall be brought before the mayors of
cities and municipalities, where the offense is punishable by
withholding of privileges, restriction to specified limits,
suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof,
for a period of________.
a. not exceeding 15 days
b. not less than 16 days but not more than 30 days
c. exceeding 30 days
d. not exceeding 60 days
"SEC. 41.Citizen's Complaints. - Any complaint by a natural or juridical
person against any member of the PNP shall be brought before the
following:
Chiefs of Police, where the offense is punishable by withholding of
privileges, restriction to specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary,
or any combination thereof, for a period not exceeding fifteen (15) days;
Mayors of cities and municipalities, where the offense is punishable by
withholding of privileges, restriction to specified limits, suspension or
forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof, for a period of not less than
sixteen (16) days but not exceeding thirty (30) days;
People's Law Enforcement Board, as created under Section 43 hereof,
where the offense is punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction to
specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination
thereof for a period exceeding thirty (30) days; or by dismissal.
8. The following are included under the line
function, except:

A.Patrol
B.Criminal investigation
C.Planning
D.Traffic management
8. The following are included under the line
function, except:

A.Patrol
B.Criminal investigation
C.Planning
D.Traffic management
FUNCTIONS IN A POLICE ORGANIZATION
1) PRIMARY OR LINE FUNCTIONS
 functions that carry out the major purposes of the
organization, delivering the services and dealing directly with the public.
Examples are patrol, traffic, investigation and vice control.
2) STAFF/ADMINISTRATIVE FUNCTIONS
 functions that are designed to support the line functions and assist
in the performance of the line functions.
examples are personnel, finance, planning and training.
3) AUXILIARY FUNCTIONS
 functions involving the logistical operations of the organization.
 examples are communication, maintenance, records management,
supplies and equipment management
9. It is the central receiving entity of all citizens’
complaints.

A. NAPOLCOM
B. PLEB
C. IAS
D. Regional Appellate Board
9. It is the central receiving entity of all citizens’
complaints.

A. NAPOLCOM
B. PLEB
C. IAS
D. Regional Appellate Board
"SEC. 43. People's Law Enforcement Board (PLEB). - (a) Creation
and Functions - The sangguniang panlungsod/bayan in every city and
municipality shall create such number of People's Law Enforcement
Boards (PLEBs) as may be necessary: Provided, That there shall be at
least one (1) PLEB for every five hundred (500) city or municipal
police personnel and for each of the legislative districts in a city.

"The PLEB shall be the central receiving entity for any citizen's
complaint against the officers and members of the PNP.
10. It is an attached agency of DILG for policy
and program coordination.

A. NAPOLCOM
B. PNP
C. National Appellate Board
D. Regional Appellate Board
10. It is an attached agency of DILG for policy
and program coordination.

A. NAPOLCOM
B. PNP
C. National Appellate Board
D. Regional Appellate Board
 National Police Commission (Philippines)

The National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM;

Filipino: Pambansang Komisyon ng Pulisya) is an
agency attached to the Department of the Interior
and Local Government (DILG) responsible for the
administrative control and operational supervision of
the Philippine National Police (PNP).
 National Appellate Board Regional Appellate Board
Four (4) members Three (3) member
The four regular commissioner of senior officer of the regional
the commission and chaired by Commission as Chairman
the executive officer one (1) representative each from
the PNP
regional peace and order council
consider appeals from consider appeals from
PNP Chief regional directors
Inspector General of IAS other officials
 mayors
PLEBs
11. Any personnel of the BFP and the BJMP shall not
be eligible for promotion to a higher rank unless he/she
has met the minimum qualification standards or the
appropriate civil service eligibility set by the ________.

A. DILG
B. Civil Service Commission (CSC)
C. DOJ
D. NAPOLCOM
11. Any personnel of the BFP and the BJMP shall not
be eligible for promotion to a higher rank unless he/she
has met the minimum qualification standards or the
appropriate civil service eligibility set by the ________.

A. DILG
B. Civil Service Commission (CSC)
C. DOJ
D. NAPOLCOM
 Requirements for Promotion
"1) Any personnel of the BFP and the BJMP shall not be eligible for promotion to a
higher rank unless he/she has met the minimum qualification standards or the
appropriate civil service eligibility set by the Civil Service Commission (CSC),
and has satisfactorily passed the required psychiatric/psychological, drug and
physical tests: Provided, however, That concerned BFP and the BJMP personnel
who have obtained NAPOLCOM eligibility prior to the effectivity of Republic Act
No. 9263 shall be considered to have complied with the appropriate civil service
eligibility requirement.
"2) Any personnel of the BFP and the BJMP who has exhibited acts of conspicuous
courage and gallantry at the risk of his/her life above and beyond the call of duty,
or selected as such in a nationwide search conducted by any accredited civic
organization, shall be promoted to the next higher rank: Provided, That these shall
be validated by the DILG and the CSC based on established criteria."
14. No person shall be appointed Director unless he or
she is a natural-born citizen of the Philippines and a
member of the Philippine Bar who has been engaged
in the practice of law for at least ___, preferably from
within the ranks of Directors.
a. five (5) years c. fifteen (15) years
b. ten (10) years d. twenty (20) years
14. No person shall be appointed Director unless he or
she is a natural-born citizen of the Philippines and a
member of the Philippine Bar who has been engaged
in the practice of law for at least ___, preferably from
within the ranks of Directors.
a. five (5) years c. fifteen (15) years
b. ten (10) years d. twenty (20) years
The NBI Director shall be appointed by the President
and shall have the rank, salary, and benefits equivalent
to that of an Undersecretary.

No person shall be appointed Director unless he or she

is a natural-born citizen of the Philippines and a
member of the Philippine Bar who has been engaged in
the practice of law for at least fifteen (15) years,
preferably from within the ranks of Directors.
No person shall be appointed Deputy Director
or Regional Director unless he or she is a
citizen of the Philippines and a member of the
Philippine Bar who has been engaged in the
practice of law for at least ten (10) years for the
Deputy Director and for at least five (5) years
for the Regional Director.
13. The following are classical approach to
management EXCEPT

A.Scientific Management
B.Bureaucratic Management
C.Administrative Management
D.Theory of X and Y
13. The following are classical approach to
management EXCEPT

A.Scientific Management
B.Bureaucratic Management
C.Administrative Management
D.Theory of X and Y
14. It is an area of management that sought to
discover the best method of performing specific task.
Based on his studies, it believes that if workers were
taught the best procedures, with pay tied to output,
they would produce the maximum amount of work

A.Scientific Management
B.Bureaucratic Management
C.Administrative Management
D.Theory of X and Y
14. It is an area of management that sought to
discover the best method of performing specific task.
Based on his studies, it believes that if workers were
taught the best procedures, with pay tied to output,
they would produce the maximum amount of work

A.Scientific Management
B.Bureaucratic Management
C.Administrative Management
D.Theory of X and Y
THE FOUNDATIONS OF POLICE ORGANIZATION AND
MANAGEMENT
CLASSICAL APPROACH
1. SCIENTIFIC MANAGEMENT ( Frederick Taylor,1856-1915) from the
earlier use of the rule of the thumb to a more scientific approach. Taylor
believe that if workers were taught the best procedures, with pay tied to
output they would produce maximum amount of effort
2. Bureaucratic Management –(Max Weber ,1864-1920) emphasize on
structuring an organization into a hierarchy and having clearly defines rules.
3. Administrative /Modern Management (Henry Fayol)-it emphasizes broad
administrative principles applicable to higher levels within the organization
4. GULICK AND URWICK (1920-1937)-Pioneers of ‘’The Science of
Administration ‘’(1937) POSDCORB
15. This concept explains that there should be
one manager and one plan for a group of
activities that have the same objective

A.Unity of Direction
B.Unity of Command
C.Division of Work
D.Division of Labor
15. This concept explains that there should be
one manager and one plan for a group of
activities that have the same objective

A.Unity of Direction
B.Unity of Command
C.Division of Work
D.Division of Labor
16. An employee should receive orders from
one superior only.

A.Delegation of authority
B.Unity of Command
C.Command and Responsibility
D.Directing
16. An employee should receive orders from
one superior only.

A.Delegation of authority
B.Unity of Command
C.Command and Responsibility
D.Directing
Henry Fayol’s 14 Principles of Management

1. Division of Work
The first Henry Fayol principle of management is based
on the theory that if an employee is given a specific task
to do, they will become more efficient and skilled in it.
2. Authority
This henry fayol principle of management states that a
manager needs to have the necessary authority in order
to ensure that his instructions are carried out by the
employees.
3. Discipline
This principle states that discipline is required for any
organization to run effectively. In order to have disciplined
employees, managers need to build a culture of mutual respect.
4. Unity of Command
This principle states that that should be a clear chain of
command in the organization. An employee should receive
orders from one superior only.
5. Unity of Direction
This concept explains that there should be one manager and one
plan for a group of activities that have the same objective.
6. Collective Interest Over Individual Interest
This principle states that the overall interest of the team should
take precedence over personal ones. The interest of the
organization should not be sabotaged by the interest of an
individual. If anyone goes rogue, the organization will collapse.
7. Remuneration
This henry fayol principle of management states that employees
should be paid fair wages for the work that they carry out.
8. Centralization
Centralization refers to the concentration of power in the hands
of the authority and following a top-bottom approach to
management.
9. Scalar Chain
A scalar chain refers to a clear chain of communication between
employees and their superiors. Employees should know where
they stand in the hierarchy of the organization and who to go to
in a chain of command.
10. Order
This principle states that there should be an orderly placement
of resources (manpower, money, materials, etc.) in the right
place at the right time.
11. Equity
Equity is a combination of kindness and justice. This principle
states that managers should use kindliness and justice towards
everyone they manage.
12. Stability of Tenure of Personnel
This principle states that an organization should work to
minimize staff turnover and maximize efficiency
13. Initiative
This principle states that all employees should be encouraged
to show initiative. When employees have a say as to how best
they can do their job, they feel motivated and respected
14. Esprit de Corps
Esprit de Corps means “Team Spirit”. This henry fayol
principle of management states that the management should
strive to create unity, morale, and co-operation among the
employees.
17. It is the willingness to be patient towards people
whose opinions were different from others.

A. rules of engagement
B. maximum tolerance
C. dispersal of crowd
D. operational procedures
17. It is the willingness to be patient towards people
whose opinions were different from others.

A. rules of engagement
B. maximum tolerance
C. dispersal of crowd
D. operational procedures
"Maximum tolerance" means the highest
degree of restraint that the military, police
and other peace keeping authorities shall
observe during a public assembly or in the
dispersal of the same.
18. Cebu city maintains a police force with a total
manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many PLEB
must be established?

A. Two (2)
B. Three (3)
C. Four (4)
D. Five (5)
18. Cebu city maintains a police force with a total
manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many PLEB
must be established?

A. Two (2)
B. Three (3)
C. Four (4)
D. Five (5)
19. The doing, either through ignorance, inattention or
malice, of that which the officer had no legal right to do at
all, as where he acts without any authority whatsoever, or
exceeds, ignores or abuses his powers.

A. Misfeasance
B. Nonfeasance
C. Misconduct
D. Malfeasance
19. The doing, either through ignorance, inattention or
malice, of that which the officer had no legal right to do at
all, as where he acts without any authority whatsoever, or
exceeds, ignores or abuses his powers.

A. Misfeasance
B. Nonfeasance
C. Misconduct
D. Malfeasance
20. It is the omission or refusal, without sufficient
excuse, to perform an act or duty, which it was the
peace officer’s legal obligation to perform; it implies a
duty as well as its breach and the fast can never be
found in the absence of a duty.

A. Misfeasance
B. Nonfeasance
C. Misconduct
D. Malfeasance
20. It is the omission or refusal, without sufficient
excuse, to perform an act or duty, which it was the
peace officer’s legal obligation to perform; it implies a
duty as well as its breach and the fast can never be
found in the absence of a duty.

A. Misfeasance
B. Nonfeasance
C. Misconduct
D. Malfeasance
Misfeasance: means improper
performance of an act which might be
properly be performed
Malfeasance: means performance of an
act which ought not to be done
Nonfeasance: means omission of an act
which ought to be done
21. The PNP is a nationwide government organization
whose jurisdiction covers the entire breath of the
Philippines archipelago which extends up to the
municipality of Kalayaan islands in the province of
Palawan.

A. Civilian in character
B. PNP jurisdiction
C. National in scope
D. Generality
21. The PNP is a nationwide government organization
whose jurisdiction covers the entire breath of the
Philippines archipelago which extends up to the
municipality of Kalayaan islands in the province of
Palawan.

A. Civilian in character
B. PNP jurisdiction
C. National in scope
D. Generality
NATIONAL IN SCOPE - means that the PNP is a
nationwide government organization whose jurisdiction
covers the entire breadth of the Philippine archipelago.
- all uniformed and non-uniformed personnel
of the PNP are national government employees.

CIVILIAN IN CHARACTER - means that that the

PNP is not a part of the military, although it retains
some military attributes such as discipline.
22. All but one does not belong to the seven (7)
services of National Bureau of Investigation?

A. Investigation Service
B. Intelligence Service
C. Human Resource and Management Service
D. Crime laboratory Services
22. All but one does not belong to the seven (7)
services of National Bureau of Investigation?

A. Investigation Service
B. Intelligence Service
C. Human Resource and Management Service
D. Crime laboratory Services
B. The NBI Director and Other Officials (Sec. 6 of RA
10867)
WHO SHALL BE THE HEAD OF THE NBI?
The NBI shall be headed by a Director and assisted by two
(2) Deputy Directors, one for Administration and another for
Operations, and an Assistant Director for each of the
following seven (7) Services:
Investigation Service, Intelligence Service, Human Resource
and Management Service, Comptroller Service, Forensic and
Scientific Research Service, Legal Service, and Information
and Communications Technology Service
23. Aside from court, the following are not
unauthorized to issue subpoena, except.

A. Office of the Prosecutor

B. Office of the Ombudsman
C. National Bureau of Investigation
D. Philippine National Police
23. Aside from court, the following are not
unauthorized to issue subpoena, except.

A. Office of the Prosecutor

B. Office of the Ombudsman
C. National Bureau of Investigation
D. Philippine National Police
24. One of the legal bases of industrial security management is the
Constitutional Authority, which among the following is not true about
its provision.
A. The prime duty of the Government is to serve and protect the
people.
B. No person shall be deprived of life, liberty or property without
due process of law, nor shall any person be denied the equal
protection of the laws.
C. Forms the framework for all decisions made by every government
official and, particularly the legislature, executive and judiciary
D. The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses,
papers, and effects against unreasonable searches
24. One of the legal bases of industrial security management is the
Constitutional Authority, which among the following is not true about
its provision.
A. The prime duty of the Government is to serve and protect the
people.
B. No person shall be deprived of life, liberty or property without due
process of law, nor shall any person be denied the equal protection
of the laws.
C. Forms the framework for all decisions made by every
government official and, particularly the legislature, executive
and judiciary
D. The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers,
and effects against unreasonable searches
Constitutional Authority
 The prime duty of the Government is to serve and protect
people. The government may call upon the people to defend the
State and, in the fulfilment thereof, all citizens may be required,
under conditions provided by law, or to render personal military or
civil service. (Art II, Sec 4 of the 1987 Constitution.
 No person shall be deprived of life, liberty or property without
due process of law, nor shall any person be denied the equal
protection of the laws. (Art III Sec 1 of 1987 Constitution) This
means the life, liberty; freedom and property can only be taken from
a person after the observance of due process of law.
 The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses,
papers, and effects against unreasonable searches and seizures of
whatever nature and for any purpose shall be inviolable.
25. It refers to physical structure whether natural
or man-made capable of restricting, deterring,
delaying or preventing illegal and unauthorized
access to an installation.

A. Fence
B. Barrier
C. physical security
D. bodies of water
25. It refers to physical structure whether natural
or man-made capable of restricting, deterring,
delaying or preventing illegal and unauthorized
access to an installation.

A. Fence
B. Barrier
C. physical security
D. bodies of water
BARRIERS - refers to any physical structure whether natural
or man-made capable of restricting, deterring, delaying or
preventing illegal and unauthorized access to an installation.
General Types of Physical Security Barriers:
Natural Barrier – These are offered by nature which could
obstruct or delay the passage way of potential intruders. These also
refer to natural structures that serve as deterrents or obstructions to
intruders such as high cliff, canyon, desert, or bodies of water.
Man-made Barrier – these are structural constructions like
fences, walls, floors, roofs, grills, bars, roadblocks or other
physical means to deter or impede penetration
26. Refers to the security unit maintained and operated by any
government entity other than military or police, which is
established and maintained for the purpose of securing the
office or compound and/or extension of such government entity.

A. Company Guard Force

B. Government Guard Force
C. Private Security Agency
D. None of the above
26. Refers to the security unit maintained and operated by any
government entity other than military or police, which is
established and maintained for the purpose of securing the
office or compound and/or extension of such government entity.

A. Company Guard Force

B. Government Guard Force
C. Private Security Agency
D. None of the above
Types of Security Guard Force
1.Private Security Agency–any person, association, partnership, firm
or private corporation, who contracts, recruits, trains, furnishes or post
any security guard to do its function or solicit individual business firms
or private public or government owned or controlled corporations to
engage his its service or those of his its security guards for hire
commission or compensation.
2.Company Guard Force–a security force maintained and operated by
any private company/corporation for its own security requirements.
3.Government Guard Unit–a security unit maintained and operated
by any government entity other than the military and / or a police,
which is established and maintained for the purpose of securing the
office or compound and/ or extension of such government entity.
27. What shall be the Status of License to Operate to
those Private Security not able to maintain the minimum
number of security personnel or conform to standards?

A. Regular LTO
B. Irregular LTO
C. Temporary LTO
D. Interim LTO
27. What shall be the Status of License to Operate to
those Private Security not able to maintain the minimum
number of security personnel or conform to standards?

A. Regular LTO
B. Irregular LTO
C. Temporary LTO
D. Interim LTO
SECTION 8. Status and Validity of License to Operate. The status of license
certificate in Section 7 above shall be issued in conformity with the
following:
a. Regular LTO – issued, after complying with licensing requirements, to
private security agencies having obtained and maintained in its employ at
least two hundred (200) security personnel, and to company guard forces
and private detective agencies having obtained and maintained in its
employ at least thirty (30) security personnel and private detectives
respectively. Such license may be renewed following conformity with
renewal requirements prescribed in a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP).
b. Temporary LTO – initial and conditional issuance to new private
security agencies and to PSAs holding regular LTO not able to maintain the
minimum number of security personnel or conform to standards, for them to
be able to attain the 200 minimum number of security personnel or comply
with licensing standards, prior to issuance/re-issuance of regular LTO. Such
issuance shall not be renewable nor be extendible.
SECTION 8. Status and Validity of License to Operate. The
status of license certificate in Section 7 above shall be issued
in conformity with the following:
c. Unless sooner cancelled or revoked and provisions hereof
modified, all licenses to operate shall have a validity of two
(2) years. Temporary LTOs upon expiration are automatically
cancelled.
28. When shall the LTO be renewed?

A. At least sixty (60) days after expiration date of LTO

B. Within (30) days before expiration date of LTO
C. At least sixty (60) days before expiration date of LTO
D. Not exceeding (30) days before expiration date of LTO
28. When shall the LTO be renewed?

A. At least sixty (60) days after expiration date of LTO

B. Within (30) days before expiration date of LTO
C. At least sixty (60) days before expiration date of
LTO
D. Not exceeding (30) days before expiration date of
LTO
29. What shall be done to the renewal applicants/holders of
regular license not able to maintain the minimum number
of security personnel under its employ or license renewal
requirements?

A. The renewal license shall be automatically cancelled

B. The renewal license shall be reverted to different status
C. The renewal license shall be automatically revoked
D. None of the above
29. What shall be done to the renewal applicants/holders of
regular license not able to maintain the minimum number of
security personnel under its employ or license renewal
requirements?

A. The renewal license shall be automatically cancelled

B. The renewal license shall be reverted to different status
C. The renewal license shall be automatically revoked
D. None of the above
30. What shall be done to the renewal applicants/holders of
regular license who fail to file applications after the expiry
date of LTO?

A. The renewal license shall be automatically cancelled

B. The renewal license shall be reverted to different status
C. The renewal license shall be accepted & penalized for late
filing.
D. None of the above
30. What shall be done to the renewal applicants/holders of
regular license who fail to file applications after the expiry date
of LTO?

A. The renewal license shall be automatically cancelled

B. The renewal license shall be reverted to different status
C. The renewal license shall be accepted & penalized for late
filing.
D. None of the above
Renewal of License to Operate.
a. Filing of Applications for Renewal and Late Filing. All
applications for renewal of License to Operate shall be filed at least
sixty (60) days before expiry date of LTO subject of the renewal
application. Applications filed/accepted thereafter shall be
penalized for late filing.
b. Failure to Conform to the Standards for Renewal. Renewal
applicants/holders of regular license not able to maintain the 200
minimum number of security personnel under its employ or license
renewal requirements at the time of filing of application, shall be
reverted to temporary status and issued temporary LTO. Within
its duration the agency-applicant may comply with the required
minimum number of employed security personnel or license renewal
requirements prior to reissuance/renewal of its regular LTO.
Renewal of License to Operate.
c. Failure to file for renewal. The Licenses to Operate of
applications for renewal of regular Licenses to Operate who
fail to file applications sixty (60) days after the expiry date
of LTO subject of the renewal application, SHALL
AUTOMATICALLY BE CANCELLED.
d. In addition to other renewal requirements under
provisions of these rules and regulations, no application
shall be approved unless a certification is issued by
FEDCSG to the effect that all licenses of firearms of the
agency concerned are updated/renewed for at least one (1)
year forthcoming during the validity of the renewed LTO.
31. What shall be the effect of the cancelled License to Operate to the agency?
1. Cease to Operate (CTO) orders
2. Deposit its firearms with the Firearms and Explosives Division
3. The concerned agency shall stop its operation
4. The concerned agency shall operate in interim status
5. Police Regional Office shall have the authority to safekeep firearms

A. 2,3,4 and 5 only

B. 1,2,4 and 5 only
C. 1,3,4 and 5 only
D. 1,2,3 and 5 only
E. All of the above
31. What shall be the effect of the cancelled License to Operate to the agency?
1. Cease to Operate (CTO) orders
2. Deposit its firearms with the Firearms and Explosives Division
3. The concerned agency shall stop its operation
4. The concerned agency shall operate in interim status
5. Police Regional Office shall have the authority to safekeep firearms

A. 2,3,4 and 5 only

B. 1,2,4 and 5 only
C. 1,3,4 and 5 only
D. 1,2,3 and 5 only
E. All of the above
SECTION 13. Cancelled LTO. All cancellations shall be
issued the corresponding Cease to Operate (CTO)
orders. Thereafter the concerned agency shall stop its
operation and deposit its firearms with the Firearms
and Explosives Division (FED-CSG) or nearest Police
Regional Office for safekeeping until legal disposition
thereof by the agency in accordance with existing
firearms laws, rules or regulations.
32. The LTO shall be displayed at all times in a conspicuous and
suitable place in the agency office or headquarters and shall be
exhibited at the request of any person whose jurisdiction is in
relation or not with the business of the agency or the employees
thereof. The statement is not incorrect.

A. Yes
B. No
C. I don’t know
D. I don’t care
32. The LTO shall be displayed at all times in a conspicuous and
suitable place in the agency office or headquarters and shall be
exhibited at the request of any person whose jurisdiction is in
relation or not with the business of the agency or the employees
thereof. The statement is not incorrect.

A. Yes
B. No
C. I don’t know
D. I don’t care
SECTION 15. Display of License. The LTO shall
be displayed at all times in a conspicuous and
suitable place in the agency office or headquarters
and shall be exhibited at the request of any person
whose jurisdiction is in relation with the business
of the agency or the employees thereof.
33. The minimum age requirement for security
manager or operator of a security agency is:

A.40 yrs old

B.25 yrs old
C.30 yrs old
D.35 yrs old
33. The minimum age requirement for security
manager or operator of a security agency is:

A.40 yrs old

B.25 yrs old
C.30 yrs old
D.35 yrs old
SECTION 1. Who may organize and maintain a Private
Security Agency and Private Detective Agency. - Any
Filipino citizen or corporation, association, partnership,
one hundred percent (100%) of which is owned and
controlled by Filipino citizens, may organize and
maintain a Private Security Agency or Private Detective
Agency.
SECTION 2. Basic requirement of an operator or manager of agency –
a. The operator or manager of an agency including, managers of branch offices, must
be:
1. Filipino citizen;
2. Not be less than twenty five (25) years of age;
3. College graduate and/or a commissioned officer in the inactive service or retired
from the Armed Forces of the Philippines or the Philippine National police;
4. Has taken a course/seminar on industrial Security Management and/or must have
adequate training or experience in security business; and,
5. Good moral character
b. New applicants for license to operate shall be required to obtain a minimum
capitalization of one million pesos (P1, 000,000.00) with a minimum bank
deposit of five hundred thousand (P500, 000.00) pesos in order to start its business
operation.
34. The following are the qualifications for
security officer, except:

A.Filipino citizen
B.At least high school graduate
C.Physically and mentally fir
D.Has graduated from a security officer training
course
34. The following are the qualifications for
security officer, except:

A.Filipino citizen
B.At least high school graduate
C.Physically and mentally fir
D.Has graduated from a security officer training
course
SECTION 4. Qualifications for Security
Officer. - No person shall be licensed as
Security Officer unless he has the following
qualifications:
a. Filipino citizen;
b. Holder of a Baccalaureate Degree;
c. Physically and mentally fit; and
d. Has graduated from a Security Officer
Training Course or its equivalent.
35. The following are the qualifications of
private detective, except:

A.Filipino or foreign citizen

B.Physically and mentally fit
C.Holder of baccalaureate degree
D.Advance ROTC/CMT graduate or its
equivalent
35. The following are the qualifications of
private detective, except:

A.Filipino or foreign citizen

B.Physically and mentally fit
C.Holder of baccalaureate degree
D.Advance ROTC/CMT graduate or its
equivalent
SECTION 6. Qualifications of a private detective.- No
person shall be licensed as a private detective unless
possesses the following qualifications:
a. Filipino citizen;
b. Physical and mentally fit;
c. Holder of a baccalaureate degree preferably Bachelor of
laws or Bachelor of Science in Criminology;
d. Graduate of a Criminal Investigation Course offered by
the Philippine National Police or the National Bureau of
Investigation or any police training school, or a detective
training in any authorized/recognized training center;
chanroblespublishingcompany
e. Advance ROTC/CMT graduate or its equivalent.
36. The following are the qualifications for
Security Consultant, except:

A.Master in Public Administration

B.MBA
C.Master in Criminology
D.Bachelor of Law
36. The following are the qualifications for
Security Consultant, except:

A.Master in Public Administration

B.MBA
C.Master in Criminology
D.Bachelor of Law
SECTION 5. Qualifications of Security Consultants. -
No person shall be licensed as a Security Consultant
unless he possesses the following qualifications:
a. Filipino citizen;
b. Physically and mentally fit;
c. Holder of a Masters degree in either Criminology,
Public Administration, MNSA, Industrial Security
Administration, or Law;
d. Must have at least ten (10) years experience in the
operation and management of security business.
37. No regular license shall be granted to any
private security agency unless it has a minimum of
how many private security personnel under its
employ?

A.30
B.50
C.200
D.1000
37. No regular license shall be granted to any
private security agency unless it has a minimum of
how many private security personnel under its
employ?

A.30
B.50
C.200
D.1000
SECTION 8. Status and Validity of License to Operate. The status of license
certificate in Section 7 above shall be issued in conformity with the following:
a. Regular LTO – issued, after complying with licensing requirements, to
private security agencies having obtained and maintained in its employ at
least two hundred (200) security personnel, and to company guard forces
and private detective agencies having obtained and maintained in its employ
at least thirty (30) security personnel and private detectives respectively.
Such license may be renewed following conformity with renewal requirements
prescribed in a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP).
b. Temporary LTO – initial and conditional issuance to new private security
agencies and to PSAs holding regular LTO not able to maintain the minimum
number of security personnel or conform to standards, for them to be able to
attain the 200 minimum number of security personnel or comply with
licensing standards, prior to issuance/re-issuance of regular LTO. Such
issuance shall not be renewable nor be extendible.
38. What is the maximum number of security
guard can a private security agency employ?

A. 200
B. 500
C. 2000
D. 1000
38. What is the maximum number of security
guard can a private security agency employ?

A. 200
B. 500
C. 2000
D. 1000
SECTION 5. On Membership.
a. No regular license shall be granted to any private security
agency unless it has a minimum of two hundred (200)
licensed private security personnel under its employ.
b. No regular license shall be granted to any company guard
force or private detective agency unless it has a minimum of
thirty (30) licensed private security personnel under its
employ.
c. The maximum number of private security personnel that a
PSA/CGF/PDA may employ shall be one thousand (1000).
39. The tenure of security personnel is based on:

A. the service contract between the agency and the

client
B. can be extended by the client
C. tenure provided by the labor law
D. labor only contracting between the agency and the
guard
39. The tenure of security personnel is based on:

A. the service contract between the agency and the

client
B. can be extended by the client
C. tenure provided by the labor law
D. labor only contracting between the agency and the
guard
RULE IV SECTION 17. Tenure of Security Personnel. - The
tenure of security personnel shall be co-terminus with the
service contract between the PSA and the client.
Services of any security personnel shall be terminated on the
following grounds:
a. Expiration of contract;
b. Revocation of license to exercise profession;
c. Conviction of a crime or offense involving moral turpitude;
d. Loss of trust and confidence;
e. Physical and mental disability; and
f. Violation of the pertinent rules and regulations promulgated
by the PNP
40. The security guards have limitation in the carrying of
firearms as prescribed by its DDO. In what instance where
the security guard may carry his firearm outside of its DDO?

A. When he went home because he forgot something very

important and thus, carry his firearm
B. When he is in hot pursuit of criminal offenders
C. When he was told by his boss to escort him to the main
officer because he has many loads
D. All of the above
40. The security guards have limitation in the carrying of
firearms as prescribed by its DDO. In what instance where
the security guard may carry his firearm outside of its DDO?

A. When he went home because he forgot something very

important and thus, carry his firearm
B. When he is in hot pursuit of criminal offenders
C. When he was told by his boss to escort him to the main
officer because he has many loads
D. All of the above
RA 5487 as amended; RULE VII
USE OF FIREARMS
SECTION 1. Possession of Firearms by Private Security Agency
/Private Detective Agency/ Company Security Force/ Government
Security Unit. – Private Security Agency /Private Detective
Agency/ Company Security Force/ Government Security Unit shall
be entitled to possess firearms after satisfactorily complying with
the requirements prescribed by the Chief, Philippine National
Police pertinent to the possession of firearms, provided that the
number of firearms shall not exceed one (1) firearm for every two
(2) security guard in its employ. No private security
agency/private detective agency/company security
force/government security unit shall be allowed to possess firearms
SECTION 3. Limitations in the carrying of firearms.
a. Unless specified and/or exempted pursuant to provisions of these
rules and regulations and/or firearms laws, no firearm shall be borne nor
be in the possession of any private security personnel except when in
the actual performance of duty, in the prescribed uniform, in the place
and time so specified in the DDO.
b. The firearm issued to security personnel of private security
agency/private detective agency/company security services/government
security unit shall be carried by the security personnel only within the
compound of the establishment where he is assigned to guard, except
when the security personnel is escorting big amount of money or
valuables on conduction duties outside its jurisdiction or area of
operation, upon prior coordination with the nearest PNP
units/stations, or when in hot pursuit of criminal offenders.
41. A security guard is committed to uphold the
principle Maka-Diyos, Maka-Bayan, Maka-tao at:

A.Makakalikasan
B.Maka-Hayop
C.Maka-tao
D.Makasarili
41. A security guard is committed to uphold the
principle Maka-Diyos, Maka-Bayan, Maka-tao at:

A.Makakalikasan
B.Maka-Hayop
C.Maka-tao
D.Makasarili
Security Guard’s Creed
“As a security guard, my fundamental duty is to protect
lives and properties and maintain order within the
vicinity/my place of duty, protect the interest of my
employer and our clients and the security and stability
of our government and country without compromise
and prejudice, honest in my action, words and thought,
and do my best to uphold the principle
“MAKADIYOS, MAKABAYAN, MAKATAO at
MAKAKALIKASAN”
42. There are three (3) kinds of fence; solid, full view and wire
fences. The following, except one, are the disadvantages of solid
fence:

A. Prevents the guard from observing the area around the

installation.
B. Creates shadow which may be used by the person from cover
and concealment.
C. Denies visual access of the installation to the intruder
D. Only a and b
42. There are three (3) kinds of fence; solid, full view and wire
fences. The following, except one, are the disadvantages of solid
fence:

A. Prevents the guard from observing the area around the

installation.
B. Creates shadow which may be used by the person from cover
and concealment.
C. Denies visual access of the installation to the intruder
D. Only a and b
TYPES OF FENCES
Solid Fence
Full View Fence
THE SOLID FENCE
SOLID FENCE is a fence constructed out of opaque materials
in such a way that visual access through the fence structure is
impossible.
Advantages of Solid Fence:
It denies observation and viewing of the installation from
outside.
It denies intruder the opportunity to become familiar with the
personnel, activities, and the time schedules and movement of
guards within the installation.
Disadvantages of Solid Fence:
It prevents the security guard from observing the area around the
installation;
It creates a shadow that may be used by the intruder as cover and
concealment
THE FULL VIEW FENCE
FULL VIEW FENCE is a fence constructed in such a way that a visual access
through the fence is possible. Barbed wire, cyclone wire (chain link), concertina, or
decorative grills are examples of Full View Fence.
Advantages of Full View Fence:
It permits 24-hour observation by roving and stationary security guards;
It does not create shadows for possible cover and concealment
Disadvantages of Full View Fence:
It allows visual access/observation to the installation by outsiders/intruders;
It allows intruder to become familiar with the movement and time schedule of
security personnel
 43. It is the importance of the firm with reference to
the national economy and security.

A.Relative vulnerability
B.Relative criticality
C.Physical relativity
D.None of the aforementioned
 43. It is the importance of the firm with reference to
the national economy and security.

A.Relative vulnerability
B.Relative criticality
C.Physical relativity
D.None of the aforementioned
B. RELATIVITY OF RISK AND SECURITY The extent and
degree of risks to security is dependent on the following:
1. Relative criticality of operation - This pertains to the
importance of the firm with reference to the natural
economy and security. Example is gasoline depots,
communication transmission lines, and power plants.
2. Relative vulnerability - This is the susceptibility of the
plant or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of
operation due to various hazards. A good example is the
location of the building; the machines; or presence of
possible poisons.
44. The following are purposes of barriers, except

A. Create a physical and psychological deterrent to authorized

entry.
B. Prevent penetration therein or delay intrusion, thus, facilitating
apprehension of intruders.
C. Assist in more efficient and economical employment of guards.
D. Facilitate and improve the control and vehicular traffic.
44. The following are purposes of barriers, except

A. Create a physical and psychological deterrent to authorized

entry.
B. Prevent penetration therein or delay intrusion, thus, facilitating
apprehension of intruders.
C. Assist in more efficient and economical employment of guards.
D. Facilitate and improve the control and vehicular traffic.
PURPOSE OF BARRIERS

 Outline the perimeter of the area to be protected

 Create a physical and psychological deterrent to
unauthorized entry
 Delay intrusion, thus facilitating apprehension of
intruders
 Assist in more efficient and economical employment of
guards
 Facilitate and improve the control of pedestrian and
vehicular traffic
45. The lifespan of paper from its creation to its final
disposition.

A.Lifespan
B.record cycle
C.record span
D.any of these
45. The lifespan of paper from its creation to its final
disposition.

A.Lifespan
B.record cycle
C.record span
D.any of these
46. Record may differ from each other in construction and contents, but
each follows a common cycle or path through its life. The following are
chronological order in the life cycle of record.
1. Transfer 6. Storage
2. Purging or retention 7. Retrieval
3. Archival Storage or disposition
4. Classification
5. Creation
A. 5,1,4,2,6,7,3
B. 5,4,7,6,2,1,3
C. 5,4,6,7,2,1,3
D. 5,1,2,6,4,7,3
46. Record may differ from each other in construction and contents, but
each follows a common cycle or path through its life. The following are
chronological order in the life cycle of record.
1. Transfer 6. Storage
2. Purging or retention 7. Retrieval
3. Archival Storage or disposition
4. Classification
5. Creation
A. 5,1,4,2,6,7,3
B. 5,4,7,6,2,1,3
C. 5,4,6,7,2,1,3
D. 5,1,2,6,4,7,3
RECORDS CYCLE –also known as “birth-through-death
cycle” –the life span of records from creation to final
disposition:
1.Birth or Creation
2.Classification
3.Storage
4.Retrieval
5.Purging or Retention
6.Transfer
7.Archival Storage or Records Disposition
BIRTH OR CREATION –the period during which the record is created or comes
into existence. These records have already served their purpose but must be kept
for legal requirement or other compelling reasons.
CLASSIFICATION –records are classified for filing purposes.
STORAGE –refers to the filing of records according to classification.
RETRIEVAL –the act of taking out of record from the storage for reference
purposes.
PURGING OR RETENTION –the act of determining if the record is for
retention or ready for disposal.
TRANSFER –the process of moving the record from one storage to another.
ARCHIVAL STORAGE OR RECORDS DISPOSITION –the systematic
transfer of non-current records from the office to any storage area or archives for
long term storage, the identification of preservation of permanent records and the
destruction of valueless records
47. A type of filing system which places all record series
in one location in an office. Most useful when the
majority of individuals within an office require access to
majority of files

A. Unified filing system

B. Centralized filing system
C. Integrated filing system
D. Combined filing system
47. A type of filing system which places all record series
in one location in an office. Most useful when the
majority of individuals within an office require access to
majority of files

A. Unified filing system

B. Centralized filing system
C. Integrated filing system
D. Combined filing system
48. The following are efficient records control, except:

A. Standardizing the purchase and supplies to allow their

usage anywhere in the police organization
B. Training personnel
C. Following standard procedures of storage and control
D. None of the above
48. The following are efficient records control, except:

A. Standardizing the purchase and supplies to allow their

usage anywhere in the police organization
B. Training personnel
C. Following standard procedures of storage and control
D. None of the above
49. The actual placement of materials in a storage
container, generally a folder, according to a plan. It
includes the process of classifying, coding,
arranging, and storage systematically so that they
may be located quietly when needed.

A. Filing
B. Arranging
C. Keeping
D. Preserving
49. The actual placement of materials in a storage
container, generally a folder, according to a plan. It
includes the process of classifying, coding,
arranging, and storage systematically so that they
may be located quietly when needed.

A. Filing
B. Arranging
C. Keeping
D. Preserving
50. It is a type of protective alarm system consists
of rigging up a visual or audible alarm near the
object to be protected, a bell or light indicates an
attempted or successful intrusion.

A. local alarm system

B. central station system
C. proprietary system
D. auxiliary system
50. It is a type of protective alarm system consists
of rigging up a visual or audible alarm near the
object to be protected, a bell or light indicates an
attempted or successful intrusion.

A. local alarm system

B. central station system
C. proprietary system
D. auxiliary system
TYPES OF PROTECTIVE ALARM
1. Central Station System – Several separate compounds tie their alarm
system to a central station so that in case of need, the central station
calls for assistance to the police, fire department, hospital or with other
government assisting units.
2. Proprietary System – Similar to the central station type excepts that
the proprietary console is located inside the subscribers installation who
owns or bases the system.
3. Auxiliary System – An installation owned system which is a direct
extension of the local enforcement agency and/or fire department by
special arrangements.
4. Local Alarm System – Consists of rigging up a visual or audible alarm
near the object to be protected. In case of alarm, response will be made
by the local guards and other personnel within sight or hearing
51. at least how many police officer are allowed to conduct
the body frisking?

A. One; police officer should secure first the area before

conducting search
B. Two; one police officer to do the search while the other
provides security
C. Three; two for search while the other provides security
D. Three; two securities to provides security while the
other is conducting search
51. at least how many police officer are allowed to conduct
the body frisking?

A. One; police officer should secure first the area before

conducting search
B. Two; one police officer to do the search while the
other provides security
C. Three; two for search while the other provides security
D. Three; two securities to provides security while the
other is conducting search
When genuine reason justifies body frisking (pat-down search), it shall be done with due
caution, restraint, and sensitivity in the following manner:

 Whenever possible, body frisking shall be done by at least two police

officers, one to do the search while the other provides security. it shall be
done with the person in a standing position with hands raised. the police
officers are permitted only to feel the outer clothing of the person. Police
officers shall not place their hands inside the pockets of the clothing unless
they feel an object that could probably be a weapon, such as a gun, knife,
club, or the like.
 If the person is carrying an object such as a handbag, suitcase, briefcase,
sack, or other similar items that may conceal a weapon, the police officer
shall not open the item but instead put it in a place out of the person’s reach.
 If the external patting of the person’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a
weapon, no further search may be made. If a weapon is found and the
possession of it constitutes a violation of the law, the police officer shall
arrest the person and conduct a complete search.
52. If you were the police officer conducting a SPOT
CHECKING/ACCOSTING, the following should be done, except?
A. When approaching the person, the police officer shall clearly
identify himself/herself and present his/her identification card.
B. Police officers shall be courteous at all times but remain
cautious and vigilant.
C. Before approaching more than one person, police officers
should determine whether the circumstances warrant a request
for back-up or whether the stopping should be delayed until
such back-up arrives.
D. Police officers are required to inform the person of his/ her
rights under the law
52. If you were the police officer conducting a STOPPING, the
following should be done, except?
A. When approaching the person, the police officer shall clearly
identify himself/herself and present his/her identification
card.
B. Police officers shall be courteous at all times but remain
cautious and vigilant.
C. Before approaching more than one person, police officers
should determine whether the circumstances warrant a
request for back-up or whether the stopping should be
delayed until such back-up arrives.
D. Police officers are required to inform the person of his/
Stopping

 When approaching the person, the police officer shall clearly identify
himself/herself and present his/her identification card.
 Police officers shall be courteous at all times but remain cautious and vigilant.
 Before approaching more than one person, police officers should determine
whether the circumstances warrant a request for back-up or whether the
stopping should be delayed until such back-up arrives.
 Police officers shall confine their questions in relation to the grounds for
stopping the person. In no instance shall a police officer stop a person longer
than the period reasonably necessary.
 Police officers are not required to inform the person of his/her rights under
the law (i.e. Miranda Warning, Anti-torture law, etc.) unless the person is
placed under arrest.
53. The following shall not be authorized in
conducting checkpoint, except?

A. Police Lieutenant Colonel

B. Police Captain
C. Regional Director
D. Police Lieutenant
53. The following shall not be authorized in
conducting checkpoint, except?

A. Police Lieutenant Colonel

B. Police Captain
C. Regional Director
D. Police Lieutenant
a. Authority to Establish Checkpoints.
The establishment of checkpoints shall be authorized by the Head of Office of
the territorial PNP unit and manned by uniformed PNP personnel. Other units
may establish checkpoints in coordination with the Head of Office of the
territorial PNP unit in the area. For this purpose, the Heads of Offices of
territorial units are the following:
Regional Director (RD);
District Director;
Provincial Director;
City Director;
Chief of City/Municipal Police Station;
Station Commander;
Sub-Station Commander; and
54. Which among the following information are
not required prior to the flagging down of vehicle:

A. Plate number and/or conduction sticker;

B. Brand/make, series, type (sedan, SUV, AUV,
etc) and color;
C. Number and/or description of occupants;
D. The name of the driver
54. Which among the following information are
not required prior to the flagging down of vehicle:

A. Plate number and/or conduction sticker;

B. Brand/make, series, type (sedan, SUV, AUV,
etc) and color;
C. Number and/or description of occupants;
D. The name of the driver
Before flagging down the vehicle, call the station
TOC and provide the following available
information:
 Plate number and/or conduction sticker;
 Brand/make, series, type (sedan, SUV, AUV, etc),
and color;
 Number and/or description of occupants;
 Reason(s) for the planned intervention;
 Location and its direction.
55. No person shall be arrested under the following
circumstances, except?

A. An accused is which is already in detention

B. A senator or member of the House of Representatives
shall, in all offenses punishable by not more than six years
imprisonment
C. Diplomatic agents and couriers, under the Vienna
Convention on Diplomatic Relations
D. None of the above
55. No person shall be arrested under the following
circumstances, except?

A. An accused is which is already in detention

B. A senator or member of the House of Representatives
shall, in all offenses punishable by not more than six
years imprisonment
C. Diplomatic agents and couriers, under the Vienna
Convention on Diplomatic Relations
D. None of the above
The following are immune from arrest:
(1) A Senator or Member of the House of the
Representatives while Congress is in session for
an offense punishable by not more than six years
of imprisonment; and
(2) Diplomatic Agents, Under the Vienna
Convention on Diplomatic Relations.
56. At least how many private individuals shall be verbally
summoned by the police officer to give aid in the conduct of
arrest?

A. At least two (2) people within the vicinity

B. More than two (2) people within the area of operation
C. Not less than two (2) people with probable knowledge of the
person to be arrested
D. It depends
56. At least how many private individuals shall be verbally
summoned by the police officer to give aid in the conduct of
arrest?

A. At least two (2) people within the vicinity

B. More than two (2) people within the area of operation
C. Not less than two (2) people with probable knowledge of the
person to be arrested
D. It depends
Rule 113 Section 10. Officer may summon assistance.
— An officer making a lawful arrest may orally
summon as many persons as he deems necessary to
assist him in effecting the arrest. Every person so
summoned by an officer shall assist him in effecting
the arrest when he can render such assistance without
detriment to himself.
57. How many days does the warrant of
arrest shall be executed

A. Within 10 days from its receipt

B. Within 10 days from its issuance
C. Within 10 days from its date
D. Within 10 days from its approval
57. How many days does the warrant of
arrest shall be executed

A. Within 10 days from its receipt

B. Within 10 days from its issuance
C. Within 10 days from its date
D. Within 10 days from its approval
58. The following are rights of a person under
custodial investigation, except.
A. The right to face the witness face to face
B. Right against self-incrimination
C. Rights against torture, force, violence,
threat, intimidation or any other means
which vitiates freewill
D. To have competent and independent
counsel preferably of his own choice.
58. The following are rights of a person under
custodial investigation, except.
A. The right to face the witness face to face
B. Right against self-incrimination
C. Rights against torture, force, violence,
threat, intimidation or any other means
which vitiates freewill
D. To have competent and independent
counsel preferably of his own choice.
59. It involves the presentation of key findings of crime
research and analysis to audiences within law
enforcement, local government, and citizenry based on
legal, political and practical concerns.

A. Administrative Crime Analysis

B. Strategic Crime Analysis
C. Investigative analysis
D. Criminal intelligence analysis
59. It involves the presentation of key findings of crime
research and analysis to audiences within law
enforcement, local government, and citizenry based on
legal, political and practical concerns.

A. Administrative Crime Analysis

B. Strategic Crime Analysis
C. Investigative analysis
D. Criminal intelligence analysis
Tactical crime analysis examines recent criminal events and potential
criminal activity by analyzing how, when, and where the events occur to
establish patterns and series, identify the leads or suspects and to clear cases.
Tactical analysis focuses on specific information about each crime such as
method of entry, point of entry, suspect’s actions, victim`s characteristics,
types of weapons used and the date, time and location of the crime.
Strategic Crime Analysis involves the study of crime and other law
enforcement issues to identify long-standing patterns of crime and other
problems and to assess police responses to these problems. Typically, this
analysis involves collecting a great deal of information about criminal
events.
Criminal intelligence analysis (CIA) is a philosophy which sets out how
we can approach the investigation of crime and criminals by using the
intelligence and information that we have collected concerning them.
60. It portrays a portion of a real world in a form
we can use to find our way or find answers to
questions we may have about an area we are
interested in.

A. Map
B. Mapping Basics
C. Coordinates
D. Sketch
60. It portrays a portion of a real world in a form
we can use to find our way or find answers to
questions we may have about an area we are
interested in.

A. Map
B. Mapping Basics
C. Coordinates
D. Sketch
61. The rights of an accused under Section 12,
paragraph 1 can be waived only if?

A. Waived in writing in the presence of a police

officer
B. Waived orally in the presence of counsel
C. Waived in the presence of counsel
D. Waived in writing and in the presence of counsel
61. The rights of an accused under Section 12,
paragraph 1 can be waived only if?

A. Waived in writing in the presence of a police

officer
B. Waived orally in the presence of counsel
C. Waived in the presence of counsel
D. Waived in writing and in the presence of
counsel
Section 12.
Any person under investigation for the commission of an offense shall have
the right to be informed of his right to remain silent and to have competent
and independent counsel preferably of his own choice. If the person cannot
afford the services of counsel, he must be provided with one. These rights
cannot be waived except in writing and in the presence of counsel.
No torture, force, violence, threat, intimidation, or any other means which
vitiate the free will shall be used against him. Secret detention places,
solitary, incommunicado, or other similar forms of detention are prohibited.
Any confession or admission obtained in violation of this or Section 17
hereof shall be inadmissible in evidence against him.
The law shall provide for penal and civil sanctions for violations of this
Section as well as compensation to the rehabilitation of victims of torture or
similar practices, and their families.
62. The following are the disadvantages of
motorcycle patrol:

A. Costly to operate
B. Inoperative during inclement whether
C. Provides maneuvering techniques
D. Some of the above
62. The following are the disadvantages of
motorcycle patrol:

A. Costly to operate
B. Inoperative during inclement weather
C. Provides maneuvering techniques
D. Some of the above
63. All but one is known to be warrantless arrest.

A. Plain view
B. Hot pursuit
C. Inflagrante delicto
D. Escape fugitive
63. All but one is known to be warrantless arrest.

A. Plain view
B. Hot pursuit
C. Inflagrante delicto
D. Escape fugitive
64. Which among the following is a requirement before a
confession be admitted as admissible in evidence?

A. The confession of the accused must be express and

categorical in order for it to be admissible
B. It must be given voluntarily by the accused because if it
is involuntarily given, it will be inadmissible.
C. The confession must always be in writing and understood
by the accused.
D. The written confession must be signed by the accused in
the presence of a counsel together with the aforementioned
64. Which among the following is a requirement before a
confession be admitted as admissible in evidence?

A. The confession of the accused must be express and

categorical in order for it to be admissible
B. It must be given voluntarily by the accused because if it
is involuntarily given, it will be inadmissible.
C. The confession must always be in writing and understood
by the accused.
D. The written confession must be signed by the accused
in the presence of a counsel together with the
65. Include critical incident management
procedures,search, rescue and retrieval operations,
hostage situation, civil disturbance management
operation, management of health hazards and other
operations that promote public safety.

A. Public Safety Operations

B. Special Police Operations
C. Investigation Operations
D. Law enforcement Operations
65. Include critical incident management
procedures, search, rescue and retrieval operations,
hostage situation, civil disturbance management
operation, management of health hazards and other
operations that promote public safety.

A. Public Safety Operations

B. Special Police Operations
C. Investigation Operations
D. Law enforcement Operations
CATEGORIES OF POLICE OPERATIONS
1. Public Safety Operation – includes Search, Rescue and Retrieval Operations, Fire
Drills, Earthquake Drills and similar operations that promote public safety.
2.Law Enforcement Operation – includes Service of Warrant of Arrest,
Implementation of Search Warrant, Enforcement of Visitorial Powers of the Chief,
Philippine National Police and Unit Commanders, Anti-Illegal Drugs Operation,
Anti-Illegal Gambling Operations, Anti-Illegal Logging Operations, Anti-Illegal
Fishing Operations, Anti-Carnapping Operations, Anti-Kidnapping Operations, Anti-
Cyber Crime Operations and similar operations that are conducted to enforce laws,
statutes, executive orders and ordinances.
3. Internal Security Operation – includes Counter-Insurgency Operations, Counter
Terrorist Operations and similar operations that are conducted to ensure internal
security.
4. Special Police Operation – includes Checkpoint Operation, Roadblock Operation,
Civil Disturbance Management Operation, Police Assistance in the Implementation
of Final Court Order and Order from Quasi-Judicial Bodies, Hostage Situation, and
similar police operations that are conducted by police units with specialized training
CATEGORIES OF POLICE OPERATIONS
5. Intelligence Operation – includes Surveillance Operation,
Counter Intelligence, Intelligence Research, Intelligence
Assessment and similar police intelligence operation conducted
to gather information related to security, public safety and order.
6. Investigation Operation – includes Investigation of Crime
or Incident, Administrative Investigation and similar
investigative work necessary to determine facts and
circumstances for filing of cases criminally or administratively.
7. Scene of the Crime Operation (SOCO) – includes the
processing of crime scene, technical and forensic examination
of evidences and similar scientific investigative assistance.
66. It involves assigning one part of the patrol
force the responsibility of conducting
preventive patrol and assigning another part of
the patrol force the task of responding to calls
for service.

A. Split-force patrol
B. Reactive patrol
C. Preventive patrol
D. Proactive patrol
66. It involves assigning one part of the patrol
force the responsibility of conducting
preventive patrol and assigning another part of
the patrol force the task of responding to calls
for service.

A. Split-force patrol
B. Reactive patrol
C. Preventive patrol
D. Proactive patrol
67. This kind of patrol combines the high-visibility, low-
visibility, and directed patrol to identify persons and places
or events which attract or create crime problems

A. Split-force patrol
B. Target-oriented patrol
C. Selective enforcement
D. Proactive patrol
67. This kind of patrol combines the high-visibility, low-
visibility, and directed patrol to identify persons and places
or events which attract or create crime problems

A. Split-force patrol
B. Target-oriented patrol
C. Selective enforcement
D. Proactive patrol
 Proactive Patrol. An alternative patrol system
which entails anticipation on the part of the patrol
units that something unusual would occur. It
consists of fielding of units in their respective area
of responsibility with described objectives and
specific tasks for the day to augment calls and other
on sight activities.
 Preventive patrol is when police actively patrol an
area in an attempt to prevent crime from occurring.
They may walk or drive through an area to keep a
watch on the area and see if anything is happening.
68. This is a patrol method that relies heavily upon
disguise, deception, and lying in wait rather than
upon high-visibility patrol techniques.

A. Undercover patrol
B. Recon patrol
C. Low-visibility patrol
D. Decoy patrol
68. This is a patrol method that relies heavily upon
disguise, deception, and lying in wait rather than
upon high-visibility patrol techniques.

A. Undercover patrol
B. Recon patrol
C. Low-visibility patrol
D. Decoy patrol
69. This kind of patrol is designed to increase the rate of
apprehension and surprise is a primary element.

A. High-visibility patrol
B. Low-visibility patrol
C. Split-force patrol
D. Directed deterrent patrol
69. This kind of patrol is designed to increase the rate of
apprehension and surprise is a primary element.

A. High-visibility patrol
B. Low-visibility patrol
C. Split-force patrol
D. Recon Partrol
II. Proactive and Reactive Patrol
1. Proactive Patrol – it is the deployment of patrol
officers in their area with prescribe objectives and
verifiable task for the day.
- it addresses crime at its very root before it can be
developed into felonious act.
2. Reactive Patrol – it involves going around the
area of responsibility waiting for something to happen
and to react accordingly if something does happen
IV. High and Low Visibility
Police Visibility – not just presence of patrol officer but actual presence
which involves: 1) Physical Presence 2) Patrolling Scheme 3) Response
Time – is the running time of the dispatched patrol car from his position
where the assignment was received and the arrival at the scene (the ideal time
is 5minutes)
*Critical Time – it is the time between the call of concerned individual to the
police regarding crime incident and the arrival at the scene of patrol officer.
1. High Visibility – it is accomplished by deploying uniformed patrol
officers and marked patrol cars in the AOR with the objective of increasing
the “aura of police omnipresence”.
2. Low Visibility – a strategy wherein patrol officers are in civilian
clothes or in unmarked patrol cars with the primary purpose of increasing the
apprehension of criminal engage in street crimes and deterrence of criminal
activity as a result of greater probability of apprehension.
70. Is that along with higher standards of
living, victims become more careless of their
belongings, and opportunities for committing
crime multiply. What theory of comparative
policing is this?
A. Demographic theory
B. Opportunity theory
C. Anomie theory
D. None of the above
70. Is that along with higher standards of
living, victims become more careless of their
belongings, and opportunities for committing
crime multiply. What theory of comparative
policing is this?
A. Demographic theory
B. Opportunity theory
C. Anomie theory
D. None of the above
71. Is based on the event of when a greater number of
children are being born, because as these baby booms
grow up, delinquent subcultures develop out of the
adolescent identity crisis. What theory of comparative
policing is this?
A. Demographic theory
B. Opportunity theory
C. Anomie theory
D. None of the above
71. Is based on the event of when a greater number of
children are being born, because as these baby booms
grow up, delinquent subcultures develop out of the
adolescent identity crisis. What theory of comparative
policing is this?
A. Demographic theory
B. Opportunity theory
C. Anomie theory
D. None of the above
Theories of Comparative Policing According to Scheider (2001), the
various theories that exist with empirical support are the following
theories of comparative criminology:
1. Alertness to crime theory- Is that as a nation develops, people’s
alertness to crime is heightened, so they report more crime to police
and also demand the police become more effective at solving crime
problems.
2. Economic or migration theory- Is that crime everywhere is the
result of unrestrained migration and overpopulation in urban areas
such as ghettos and slums.
3. Opportunity theory - Is that along with higher standards of
living, victims become more careless of their belongings, and
opportunities for committing crime multiply.
4. Demographic theory - Is based on the event of when a greater number
of children are being born, because as these baby booms grow up,
Theories of Comparative Policing According to Scheider (2001), the
various theories that exist with empirical support are the following
theories of comparative criminology:
5. Deprivation theory- Holds that progress comes along with rising
expectations, and people at the bottom develop unrealistic
expectations while people at the top don’t see themselves rising fast
enough.
6. Modernization theory- Sees the problem as society becoming too
complex.
7. Theory of anomie and synomie - (The latter being a term
referring to social cohesion on values), suggests that progressive
lifestyle and norms result in the disintegration of older norms that once
held people together (anomie). o Anomie comes from the Greek anomos
meaning "lawless”. Anomie means a lack of moral standards, or a
72. Which among the following theories relates to
the deprivation theory of comparative policing

A. Class conflict theory

B. Culture deviance theory
C. Social learning theory
D. Peacemaking theory of criminology
72. Which among the following theories relates to
the deprivation theory of comparative policing

A. Class conflict theory

B. Culture deviance theory
C. Social learning theory
D. Peacemaking theory of criminology
73. A command structure of police force which explains that one
police force can effectively carried out common goal and
objective allowing each member of the organization to contribute
and collaborate with the organizational plans and program.

A. Coordinated Centralized
B. Centralized Command
C. Decentralized Command
D. Decentralized Coordinate
73. A command structure of police force which explains that one
police force can effectively carried out common goal and
objective allowing each member of the organization to contribute
and collaborate with the organizational plans and program.

A. Coordinated Centralized
B. Centralized Command
C. Decentralized Command
D. Decentralized Coordinate
74. Refers to the number of police forces does not
overlap?

A. Coordinated Centralized
B. Centralized Command
C. Decentralized Command
D. Multiple Coordinated
74. Refers to the number of police forces does not
overlap?

A. Coordinated Centralized
B. Centralized Command
C. Decentralized Command
D. Multiple Coordinated
CLASSIFICATION BASED ON COMMAND
STRUCTURE
 Centralized- primary decisions are made by
the person at the top of the organization
 Decentralized- organization delegate
decision-making authority throughout the
organization
 Single/Singular- one person coordinates the
incident, single jurisdiction incidents
 IN THIS MODEL CLASSIFICATION IS BASED ON TWO
DIMENSIONS:
A. Number of forces to be commanded:

 Singular model- If the entire police force in the country is

organized as a single force under a single commander.
 Multiple model- If in a single country, there are a number of
police forces, like in India
Multiple Coordinated- If the police forces have well defined
territories of functioning and their functions do not overlap each other
Multiple Uncoordinated- If the case is reversed as in India,
where many agencies can have overlapping jurisdictions
 B. Type of forces:
 Coordinated Centralized- If the police
forces in a country is highly organized and
having a centralized command.
 Decentralized command structure- If the
police forces in a country do not have an
apparent centralized command structure.
75. The following are basic goals of policing,
except:

A. Enforcement of laws
B. Preservation of peace
C. Prevention of Crimes
D. Protect from Elementals
75. The following are basic goals of policing,
except:

A. Enforcement of laws
B. Preservation of peace
C. Prevention of Crimes
D. Protect from Elementals
76. The following are the roles of leader, except;

A. Required at all levels

B. Representative of the organization
C. He solicits unfriendly competition
D. Integrates and reconciles the personal goals with
organizational goals
76. The following are the roles of leader, except;

A. Required at all levels

B. Representative of the organization
C. He solicits unfriendly competition
D. Integrates and reconciles the personal goals with
organizational goals
 ROLE OF A LEADER
1. Required at all LEVELS

2. Representative of the organization

 ROLE OF A LEADER
3. Integrates and reconciles the
personal goals with organizational
Goals

4. He solicits support

5. As a friend,
philosopher and guide
77. Leader is a person who starts the work by communicating the policies
and plans. This passage refers to the importance of leadership.

A. Initiates action, since he is the one that must be mimic with his
subordinate
B. Motivation, since the leader knows the sentiments of his or her
colleagues
C. Providing guidance, as a leader he must guide his subordinates to what
they need to do
D. Creating confidence, so that this or her subordinates be inspired to do
their jobs
77. Leader is a person who starts the work by communicating the policies
and plans. This passage refers to the importance of leadership.

A. Initiates action, since he is the one that must be mimic with his
subordinate
B. Motivation, since the leader knows the sentiments of his or her
colleagues
C. Providing guidance, as a leader he must guide his subordinates to what
they need to do
D. Creating confidence, so that this or her subordinates be inspired to do
their jobs
78. A leader can be a morale booster by achieving full cooperation so
that they perform with the best of their abilities as they work to achieve
goals.

A. Initiates action, since he is the one that must be mimic with his
subordinate
B. Building morale, so that his/her subordinates could function in
accordance with their specialized job and ability
C. Providing guidance, as a leader he must guide his subordinates to
what they need to do
D. Creating confidence, so that this or her subordinates be inspired to do
their jobs
78. A leader can be a morale booster by achieving full cooperation so
that they perform with the best of their abilities as they work to achieve
goals.

A. Initiates action, since he is the one that must be mimic with his
subordinate
B. Building morale, so that his/her subordinates could function in
accordance with their specialized job and ability
C. Providing guidance, as a leader he must guide his subordinates to
what they need to do
D. Creating confidence, so that this or her subordinates be inspired to do
their jobs
 IMPORTANCE OF LEADERSHIP
COORDINATION it can be achieved through
reconciling personal interests with organizational goal
Builds work environment An efficient work
environment helps in sound and stable growth. Therefore,
human relations should be kept into mind by a leader.
Building morale, A leader can be a morale booster by
achieving full co-operation so that they perform with best
of their abilities as they work to achieve goals.
IMPORTANCE OF LEADERSHIP
Creating confidence- Confidence is an important factor
which can be achieved through expressing the work
efforts to the subordinates.
Providing guidance- A leader has to not only supervise
but also play a guiding role for the subordinates.
Motivation- A leader proves to be playing an incentive
role in the concern’s working.
Initiates action- Leader is a person who starts the work
by communicating the policies and plans.
79. Which of the following does not best describe an ethical
leader?

A. Honest leaders can always be relied upon and depended

upon. They always earn the respect of their followers.
B. Should use his followers as a medium to achieve his personal
goals. He should respect their feelings, decision and values
C. consider his own purpose as well as his followers’ purpose
while making efforts to achieve the goals suitable to both of
them.
D. He is fair and just. Wherever some followers are treated
differently, the ground for differential treatment should be
79. Which of the following does not best describe an ethical leader?

A. Honest leaders can always be relied upon and depended upon.

They always earn the respect of their followers.
B. Should use his followers as a medium to achieve his personal
goals. He should respect their feelings, decision and values
C. consider his own purpose as well as his followers’ purpose while
making efforts to achieve the goals suitable to both of them.
D. He is fair and just. Wherever some followers are treated
differently, the ground for differential treatment should be fair,
clear, and built on morality.
 An effective and ethical leader has the
following traits / characteristics
should not use his followers as a medium to
Dignity and achieve his personal goals. He should respect
Respectful- their feelings, decision and values
Honest leaders can be ness
should place his follower’s
always relied upon and
Serving interests ahead of his
depended upon. They Honesty
always earn respect of others interests. He should be
their followers. humane.

Commu
nity
considers his own purpose building
as well as his followers’
Justice
purpose, while making He is fair and just. Wherever some
followers are treated differently, the
efforts to achieve the goals
ground for differential treatment
suitable to both of them.
should be fair, clear, and built on
morality.
80. This involves allocating employee resources
and delegating responsibilities, as well as setting
realistic timelines and standards for completion.
a.Organizing
b.Leading
c.planning
d.controlling
80. This involves allocating employee resources
and delegating responsibilities, as well as setting
realistic timelines and standards for completion.
a.Organizing
b.Leading
c.planning
d.controlling
 Fundamental Functions of Management
 Planning
-One main role of a manager is creating a plan to meet company goals
and objectives. This involves allocating employee resources and
delegating responsibilities, as well as setting realistic timelines and
standards for completion.

 Organizing
-Along with planning, a manager's organizational skills can help to
ensure a company or departmental unit runs smoothly. From
establishing internal processes and structures to knowing which
employees or teams are best suited for specific tasks, keeping
everyone and everything organized throughout daily operations are
important functions of management.
 Fundamental Functions of Management
 Leading
-Managers should be comfortable and confident commanding
their team members’ daily tasks as well as during periods of
significant change or challenge.
 Controlling
-To ensure all of the above functions are working toward the
success of a company, managers should consistently monitor
employee performance, quality of work, and the efficiency and
reliability of completed projects
81. Determine the basic policies organizations and
are taken at top-level management. The policies
decided at the top become the basis for operative
decisions that can go beyond the policy framework
of the organization.

A. policy decisions
B. administrative decisions
C. operative decisions
D. organizational decisions
81. Determine the basic policies organizations and
are taken at top-level management. The policies
decided at the top become the basis for operative
decisions that can go beyond the policy framework
of the organization.

A. policy decisions
B. administrative decisions
C. operative decisions
D. organizational decisions
 Types of Decision
1. Organizational and Personal Decision
 Organizational Decisions - are those which managers
undertake under certain conditions relating to organization.
Sometimes taken independently and sometimes delegated
to other colleagues.
 Personal Decisions – are to be taken by the managers on
their own. Others need not be consulted.
 Types of Decision
2. Tactical (Routine) and Strategic (Basic) Decisions
 Tactical (Routine) Decisions
- Concerned with routine and preventive problems
- Neither require collection of new data nor conferring
with the people. Thus, can be taken without much
deliberation.
- Has short term implications
 Strategic (Basic) Decisions
- Made on the problems which are important
- Require thorough fact-finding analysis of the
possible alternatives
- Finding the correct problem in such decisions
assume more importance
- Has long term implications
 Types of Decision
3. Programmed and Non-Programmed Decisions
Professor Herbert Simon has given this
classification. He has utilized terminology in
classifying decisions.
- Programmed Decision may also be called as
routine decision
- Non-programmed as strategic decisions.
 Types of Decision
4. Policy and Operative Decisions
Policy Decisions determined the basic policies organizations and are
taken at top level management. The policies are decided at the top
become the basis for operative decisions can go beyond the policy
framework of the organization. These are important in nature and have
long term impact.
Operative Decisions on the other hand, are less important and related
with day-to-day operations of the business. Middle and lower
management take these decisions since these involve actual execution and
supervision
 Types of Decision
5. Individual and Group Decisions
It is based on the number of persons involved in
decision-making
- Individual decisions are less important and
programmed one.
- Group decisions are taken by a group of persons.
These are generally important decisions and relate to
policy matters.
82. This type of policy comes from top
management level and is intended to set up
guidelines in the operation of the police
organization.

A. originated policy
B. appealed policy
C. imposed policy
D. amended policy
82. This type of policy comes from top
management level and is intended to set up
guidelines in the operation of the police
organization.

A. originated policy
B. appealed policy
C. imposed policy
D. amended policy
83. type of policy comes from the government in
the forms of laws, administrative orders, and rules
and procedures or contract specifications.

A. Originated policy
B. appealed policy
C. imposed policy
D. amended policy
83. type of policy comes from the government in
the forms of laws, administrative orders, and rules
and procedures or contract specifications.

A. Originated policy
B. appealed policy
C. imposed policy
D. amended policy
84. This pertains to source of leaders power
which uses force to effect obedience.

A.Expert power
B.Legitimate power
C.Coercive power
D.Referent power
84. This pertains to source of leaders power
which uses force to effect obedience.

A.Expert power
B.Legitimate power
C.Coercive power
D.Referent power
85. It is based on one party’s identification
with the other, “the desire of followers to
identify with their leaders and to be accepted
by them.”

A. coercive power
B. reward power
C. legitimate power
D. referent power
85. It is based on one party’s identification
with the other, “the desire of followers to
identify with their leaders and to be accepted
by them.”

A. coercive power
B. reward power
C. legitimate power
D. referent power
86. This power states that individuals will
acquire this through their ability to, or
perceived ability to, distribute intrinsic and
extrinsic rewards to others in the organization.

A. coercive power
B. legitimate power
C. reward power
D. referent power
86. This power states that individuals will
acquire this through their ability to, or
perceived ability to, distribute intrinsic and
extrinsic rewards to others in the organization.

A. coercive power
B. legitimate power
C. reward power
D. referent power
Bases of Power
1. Reward Power
Individuals acquire reward power through their ability to, or
perceived ability to, distribute intrinsic and extrinsic rewards to
others in the organization.
2. Coercive Power
Coercive power is based on the power recipient’s perception
that sanctions will result from noncompliance. Perceptions are more
critical than the power holder’s actual ability to punish or deliver
some penalty.
3. Legitimate Power
It is based on the power recipient’s belief that the power holder
has a right, generally based on an organizationally bestowed position
or rank, to extract compliance from others.
Bases of Power
4. Referent Power
Referent power is based on one party’s identification with the other, “the
desire of followers to identify with their leaders and to be accepted by them.” The
power recipient admires, respects, or seeks to associate with the power holder.
Referent power comes from the characteristics of the individual (e.g., personality,
approachability), not the position occupied
5. Expert Power
Individuals acquire expert power due to their extensive knowledge in a
specific area. Power recipients often defer to an expert’s advice, particularly in
situations where their own knowledge base is lacking.
6. Information Power
One additional base of power emerged soon after the publication of the
original five—information power. In spite of its prominence in the power literature,
scholars never unified around a single definition of the concept. Accordingly,
information power is possessed by individuals who control information flows
within an organization or who have access to information sought by others.
87. In this style of leadership, a leader has complete
command and hold over their employees/team.

a. autocratic leadership style

b. participative leadership style
c. laissez faire leadership style
d. bureaucratic leadership style
87. In this style of leadership, a leader has complete
command and hold over their employees/team.

a. autocratic leadership style

b. participative leadership style
c. laissez faire leadership style
d. bureaucratic leadership style
 Important leadership styles are as
follows:
 Autocratic leadership style: In this style
of leadership, a leader has complete command
and hold over their employees/team.
 The Laissez Faire Leadership Style:
Here, the leader totally trusts their
employees/team to perform the job
themselves.
Important leadership styles are as follows:

 Democrative/Participative leadership style:

The leaders invite and encourage the team members
to play an important role in decision-making
process, though the ultimate decision-making power
rests with the leader.
 Bureaucratic leadership: Here the leaders
strictly adhere to the organizational rules and
policies.
88. Jabz Culanag is a leader who believes in group
decision-making and he even shares information with his
subordinates. What type of leadership did Jabz manifest?

a. Directive
b. supportive
c. participative
d. achievement-oriented
88. Jabz Culanag is a leader who believes in group
decision-making and he even shares information with his
subordinates. What type of leadership did Jabz manifest?

a. Directive
b. supportive
c. participative
d. achievement-oriented
 The four leadership styles are:
Directive Here the leader provides guidelines, lets subordinates know what is expected of
them, sets performance standards for them, and controls behavior when performance
standards are not met. He makes judicious use of rewards and disciplinary action. The
style is the same as task-oriented one.

Supportive The leader is friendly towards subordinates and displays personal concern for
their needs, welfare, and well-being. This style is the same as people-oriented
leadership.
Participative The leader believes in group decision-making and shares information with
subordinates. He consults his subordinates on important decisions related to work, task
goals, and paths to resolve goals.
Achievement- The leader sets challenging goals and encourages employees to reach their peak
oriented performance. The leader believes that employees are responsible enough to
accomplish challenging goals. This is the same as goal-setting theory
89. This henry fayol principle of management
states that the management should strive to
create unity, morale, and co-operation among
the employees.
a. Equity
b. Scalar Chain
c. Esprit de Corps
d. Order
89. This henry fayol principle of management
states that the management should strive to
create unity, morale, and co-operation among
the employees.
a. Equity
b. Scalar Chain
c. Esprit de Corps
d. Order
90. What planning approach if it involves
collective actions to achieve concrete results
in the immediate future.
a. Synoptic planning
b. advocacy planning
c. Transactive planning
d. radical planning
90. What planning approach if it involves
collective actions to achieve concrete results
in the immediate future.
a. Synoptic planning
b. advocacy planning
c. Transactive planning
d. radical planning
 PLANNING APPROACHES
Acronym: S-T-A-I-R
 Synoptic Planning – the rational comprehensive approach and
tradition in planning. This is the most appropriate for police agencies
because it is based on a problem-oriented approach to planning.
 Transactive Planning – the approach involves the interaction with
the people who are to be affected by the plan hence; surveys and
interpersonal dialogues are conducted.
 Advocacy Planning – the beneficial aspect of this approach
includes greater sensitivity to the unintended and negative side
effects of the plan.
 PLANNING APPROACHES
Acronym: S-T-A-I-R

 Incremental Planning – in this planning

approach, the problems are seen as too difficult
when they are grouped together and easier to
solve when they are taken one at a time and
broken down into gradual adjustment over time.
 Radical Planning – this involves collective
actions to achieve concrete results in the
immediate future
91. It is regarded as the cognitive
process resulting in the selection of a belief or
a course of action among several possible
alternative options

A.Decision-making
B.Planning
C.Management
D.Organizing
91. It is regarded as the cognitive
process resulting in the selection of a belief or
a course of action among several possible
alternative options

A.Decision-making
B.Planning
C.Management
D.Organizing
 DECISION-MAKING
It is the process of identifying and choosing
alternatives based on the values, preferences and
beliefs of the decision-maker. Every decision-making
process produces a final choice, which may or may
not prompt action.
92. What technique of decision-making is trying
to illustrate here which is characterized by the
inner feeling of the person where he takes a
decision as per the dictates of his conscience?

A. Facts
B. Experience
C. Intuition
D. Considered options
 Following techniques of decision-making are
generally employed
1. Intuition
Decision-making by intuition is characterized by inner
feeling of the person. He takes a decision as per the dictates of his
conscious. He thinks about the problem and an answer is found in
his mind.
2. Facts
Facts are considered to be the best basis of decision-making.
A decision based on facts has its roots in factual data. Such
decisions will be sound and proper. The increasing use of computers
has helped in systematic analysis of data.
 Following techniques of decision-making are
generally employed
3. Experience
Past experience of a person becomes a good basis for taking
decisions. When a similar situation arises then the manager can rely on
his past decisions and takes similar decisions. The person sees and
understands things in terms of concepts with which he is familiar.
4. Considered Opinions
Some managers use considered opinions as a basis for decision-
making. Besides pertinent statistics, opinions are also given due
weightage. Something discussed and considered by more persons
become logical and may form a sound basis for decision-making.
 Following techniques of decision-making are
generally employed
5. Operation Research
The traditional methods of taking decision on the basis of
intuition, experience, etc. are replaced by systematic techniques based
on analysis of data. The operations research is one of the techniques
used by modern management for deciding important matters.
E. Problem-Solving
In order to effectively manage and run a successful organization,
leadership must guide their employees and develop problem-solving
techniques.
93. are those decisions to be taken by the
managers on their own. Others need not be
consulted.

A.Policy decisions
B.Personal decisions
C.Operative decisions
D.Organizational decisions
93. are those decisions to be taken by the
managers on their own. Others need not be
consulted.

A.Policy decisions
B.Personal decisions
C.Operative decisions
D.Organizational decisions
94. This involves allocating employee resources
and delegating responsibilities, as well as setting
realistic timelines and standards for completion.
a.Organizing
b.Leading
c.planning
d.controlling
94. This involves allocating employee resources
and delegating responsibilities, as well as setting
realistic timelines and standards for completion.
a.Organizing
b.Leading
c.planning
d.controlling
95. The power of persuasion is the ability to persuade others
to seek defined objectives enthusiastically, according to one
of the most successful motivational coaches in the world. It
is the human factor that binds a group together and
motivates it towards goals

A. Manager
B. Management
C. Leadership
D. Leader
95. The power of persuasion is the ability to persuade others
to seek defined objectives enthusiastically, according to one
of the most successful motivational coaches in the world. It
is the human factor that binds a group together and
motivates it towards goals

A. Manager
B. Management
C. Leadership
D. Leader
96. a type of nationalism that defines nation in
terms of ethnicity. Including the ideas of a culture
shared between members of the group and with
their ancestors, and usually a shared language.

A. Ethnic Nationalism
B. Civic Nationalism
C. Romantic Nationalism
D. Third World Nationalism
96. a type of nationalism that defines nation in
terms of ethnicity. Including the ideas of a culture
shared between members of the group and with
their ancestors, and usually a shared language.

A. Ethnic Nationalism
B. Civic Nationalism
C. Romantic Nationalism
D. Third World Nationalism
Ethnic Nationalism- a type of nationalism that defines nation in terms
of ethnicity. Including the ideas of a culture shared between members of
the group and with their ancestors, and usually a shared language.
Third World Nationalism- A type of nationalism involving the
nationalist feelings are the outcome of opposition to colonial rule to
survive and maintain a domestic identity.
Religious Nationalism- Nationalism's connection to a specific religious
faith, church, or affiliation. It can be seen that a shared religion
contributes to a sense of domestic unity and a mutual bond between the
nation's people
Civic nationalism is a form of Nationalism that is based on the adoption
of shared values amongst citizens. It is often associated with a
commitment to progressive ideals such as tolerance, democracy and
individual rights.
97. A program aimed at enhancing civic
consciousness and defense preparedness in the
youth by developing the ethics of service and
patriotism.

A. NSTP
B. CWTS
C. ROTC
D. LTS
97. A program aimed at enhancing civic
consciousness and defense preparedness in the
youth by developing the ethics of service and
patriotism.

A. NSTP
B. CWTS
C. ROTC
D. LTS
The NSTP is a program aimed at enhancing civic
consciousness and defense preparedness in the youth by
developing the ethics of service and patriotism while
undergoing training in any of its program components.
The NSTP has three components which are as follows:
i. Reserve Officers’ Training Corps (ROTC)
A program institutionalized under Sections 38 and 39 of
Republic Act No. 7077 designed to provide military training
to tertiary level students in order to motivate, train, organize
and mobilize them for national defense preparedness.
ii. Literacy Training Service (LTS)
A program designed to train students to become teachers of
literacy and numeracy skills to school children, out of school
youth, and other segments of society in need of their service.
iii. Civic Welfare Training Service (CWTS)
It is composed of programs or activities contributory to the
general welfare and the betterment of life for the members
of the community or the enhancement of its facilities,
especially those devoted to improving health, education,
environment, entrepreneurship, safety, recreation and morals
of the citizenry.
98. It is the overall policy making body,
coordinating, and grants giving agency for the
preservation, development and promotion of
Philippine arts and culture.

A. NCCA
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PNP
D. NCAA
98. It is the overall policy making body,
coordinating, and grants giving agency for the
preservation, development and promotion of
Philippine arts and culture.

A. NCCA
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PNP
D. NCAA
The National Commission for Culture and the Arts
(NCCA), is the overall policy making body, coordinating,
and grants giving agency for the preservation, development
and promotion of Philippine arts and culture; an executing
agency for the policies it formulates; and task to
administering the National Endowment Fund for Culture
and the Arts (NEFCA) -- fund exclusively for the
implementation of culture and arts programs in line with the
Medium Term Philippine Development Plan for Culture and
the Arts.
The government’s support for cultural development is
particularly highlighted by the passage of R.A. 7356 that
created the NCCA.
99. The following are type of Patriotism,
except?

A. Personal Patriotism
B. Official Patriotism
C. Symbolic Patriotism
D. Cultural Patriotism
99. The following are type of Patriotism,
except?

A. Personal Patriotism
B. Official Patriotism
C. Symbolic Patriotism
D. Cultural Patriotism
Types of patriotism
 Personal patriotism is emotional and voluntary. Other expressions o
personal patriotism include enlisting in the army, public service, and
participation in the political process through voting or other forms of
activism.
 Official patriotism relies heavily on symbolic acts, such as displayin
the flag, singing the national anthem, saying a pledge, participating in
a mass rally, placing a patriotic bumper sticker on one's vehicle, or an
other way of publicly proclaiming allegiance to the state.
 Symbolic patriotism in wartime is intended to raise morale, in turn
contributing to the war effort. Peacetime patriotism can not be so
easily linked to a measurable gain for the state, but the patriot does no
see it as inferior.
100. It refers to the strong belief that the
interests of a particular nation-state are of
primary importance.

A. Nationalism
B. Patriotism
C. Altruism
D. Socialism
100. It refers to the strong belief that the
interests of a particular nation-state are of
primary importance.

A. Nationalism
B. Patriotism
C. Altruism
D. Socialism
END OF
PRESENTATION