Module - 5: Protection of Information Assets
Module - 5: Protection of Information Assets
Module - 5
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Learning Objectives
Risk response and definition of controls for protection of
information assets
Essentials of information security management like
objectives, processes, policies, procedures, and
compliance.
Information asset protection based on information
classification
Essentials of Physical and environmental security
Logical access controls
Network and related security processes
Audit guidelines for information protection controls
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Chapter 1
Introduction to Protection of
Information
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Risk Response
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Threat Modeling Tools (Contd…)
DREAD – Risk Assessment Model
Damage – how bad would an attack be?
Reproducibility – how easy is it to reproduce the
attack?
Exploitability – how much work is it to launch the
attack?
Affected users – how many people will be
impacted?
Discoverability – how easy is it to discover the
threat?
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Cyber/ Computer Attacks (Contd…)
• Logic Bomb
• Piggybacking
• Salami Theft
• Sensitive Data Exposure
• Injection
• Trojan
• Virus
o Compiled Viruses
o Interpreted Viruses
• Worms
o Network Service Worms
o Mass mailing Worms
• Website Defacement
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Information systems controls
• Need for IS Controls
• Objectives of Controls
• Internal Controls
• Types of Controls
o Preventive Controls
o Detective Controls
o Corrective Controls
• Control rating - Very high, High, Moderate,
Low, and Negligible
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Risk and Control Ownership
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Role of IS Auditor in Information Risk Management
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Summary
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Practice Questions
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1. Which of the following shall BEST help in deciding
upon the protection level for information asset?
A. Location of asset.
B. Impact of risk.
C. Vulnerabilities in asset.
D. Inventory of threats
B is the correct answer.
Other options i.e. location of asset, existing vulnerabilities
in asset shall be covered during risk assessments. Inventory
of threats only will not help, impact due to threat must be
assessed.
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2. Which of the following is a risk response option?
A. Determine likelihood of threat
B. Determine probability of risk
C. Deciding amount of insurance cover
D. Prepare risk profile report
C is the correct answer.
Of the four main risk response options accept, avoid,
mitigate and transfer, Insurance cover is a risk response
option of risk transfer.
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3. After a Tsunami, a business decides to shift the
location of data centre from coastal area to mid
land? Which type of risk response option it has
exercised?
A. Accept
B. Avoid
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
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4. Organizations capacity to sustain loss due to
uncertainty and expressed in monetary terms is best
known as:
A. Risk appetite
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk mitigation
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5. Main use of maintaining and updating risk register
is to:
A. Define controls
B. Identify risk owner
C. Built risk profile
D. Maintain evidence
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6. Of the following who is accountable for deciding
and implementing controls based on risk mitigation
plan?
A. Chief risk officer
B. Risk owner
C. IT operations manager
D. Board of directors
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9. The quantum of risk after enterprise has
implemented controls based on risk mitigation plan is:
A. Accepted risk
B. Residual risk
C. Inherent risk
D. Current risk
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10. Which of the following shall best help in aligning IT
risk with enterprise risk?
A. Presenting IT risk results in business terms.
B. Conducting business impact analysis.
C. Making Chief risk officer accountable.
D. Align IT strategy with business strategy.
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Information Security management
Senior management commitment and support
• Policies and procedures,
• Organization structure and roles and
responsibilities,
• Security awareness and education,
• Monitoring,
• Compliance,
• Incident handling and response.
• Continual improvement
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Critical Success Factors to Information
Security Management
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Information Security Organization
• Segregation of Duties
• The ‘Four Eyes’ (Two-Person) Principle
• Rotation of Duties
• Key Man Policy
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Information Security Policies, Procedures,
Standards and Guidelines
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Other Common Security Policies
• Data classification and Privacy Policies
• Acceptable Use of Information Assets Policy
• Physical Access and Security Policy
• Asset Management Policy
• Network Security Policy
• Password Policy
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Information Classification
• Benefits from Information Classification
• Information Classification Policy
• Classification Schema
o Company Confidential Data – Confidential
code
o Unclassified/Public – Information available
in public domain
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The Concept of Responsibility in Information
Security
• Ownership
• Custodianship
• Controlling
• Human Resources Security
o Job descriptions and screening,
o User awareness and training,
o A disciplinary process, and
o An exit process
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Training and Education
• Mandatory security awareness
• Training for third parties
• Training is required before access is granted
• Acknowledge policy
• Training at least annually
• Cyber security training
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Implementation of Information Security
Policies
• Increasing Awareness
• Communicating Effectively
• Simplify Enforcement
o Creating a manageable number of policies
o Making policies understandable for target
audiences
o Making it easy to comply
o Integrating security with business processes
o Aligning policies with job requirements
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Integrating Security with the Corporate
Culture
• Making employees a partner in the security
challenge
• Making security policy part of a larger compliance
initiative
• Tying security policies to company's code of
business conduct
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Practice Questions
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1. The Primary objective of implementing Information
security management is to:
A. Ensure reasonable security practices
B. Comply with internal audit requirements
C. Adopt globally recognized standards
D. Protect information assets
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2. Which of the following is primary function of
information security policies?
A. Align information security practices with strategy
B. Communicate intent of management to stakeholders
C. Perform risk assessment of IT operations and assets
D. Ensure compliance with requirements of standards
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3. Information security policies are set of various
policies addressing different information systems areas
based on the IT infrastructure of organization. Which
of the following policy is most common in all
organizations?
A. Acceptable use policy
B. BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) policy
C. Data encryption policy
D. Biometric security policy
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5. Which of the following is primary reason for
periodic review of security policy?
A. Compliance requirements
B. Changes on board of directors’
C. Changes in environment
D. Joining of new employees
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6. Which of the following is best evidence indicting
support and commitment of senior management for
information security initiatives?
A. Directive for adopting global security standard
B. Higher percentage of budget for security projects
C. Assigning responsibilities for security to IT head
D. Information security is on monthly meeting agenda
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8. Which of the following is Primary purpose of
Information classification?
A. Comply with regulatory requirement
B. Assign owner to information asset
C. Provide appropriate level of protection
D. Reduce costs of data protection
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9. Classification of information is primarily based on:
A. Where the information is stored?
B. Who has access to information?
C. What will happen if information is not available?
D. Why attachments to mail are encrypted?
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10. Which of the following best helps in classifying the
information within organizations?
A. Using minimum classes in classification schema
B. Conducting training on classification schema
C. Labeling all information based on classification schema
D. Determining storage based on classification schema
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Chapter 3
Physical and Environmental
controls
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Objectives of Physical Access Controls
• Primary computer facilities
• Cooling system facilities
• Microcomputers
• Telecommunication equipment and lines
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Physical Security Control Techniques
Choosing and Designing a Secure Site
• Local considerations
• External services
• Visibility
• Windows
• Doors
Security Management
Emergency Procedures
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Perimeter Security
• Guards
• Dogs
• Compound walls and perimeter fencing
• Lighting
• Dead man doors
• Bolting door locks
• Combination or cipher locks
• Electronic door locks
• Biometric locks
• Perimeter intrusion detectors
o Photo electronic sensors
o Dry Contact switches
• Video cameras
• Identity badge
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Perimeter Security
• Manual logging
• Electronic logging
• Controlled single point of access
• Bonded personnel
• Wireless proximity readers
• Alarm system/Motion detectors
• Secured distribution carts
• Cable locks
• Port controls
• Switch controls
• Peripheral switch controls
• Biometric Mouse
• Laptop security
Smart Cards
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Auditing Physical Access Controls
• Risk assessment
• Controls assessment
• Review of documentation
• Testing of controls
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Environmental Controls
Objectives of Environmental Controls
• Hardware and Media
• Information Systems Supporting
Infrastructure or Facilities
• Documentation
• Supplies
• People
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Environmental Threats and Exposures
• Natural Threats and Exposure
• Man-made Threats exposure
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Facilities Planning
• Walls
• Ceiling
• Floors
• Fire-resistance walls, floors and ceilings
• Concealed protective wiring
• Media protection
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• Emergency Plan
• Power Supplies
o UPS/ Generator
o Electrical surge protectors/Line conditioners
o Power leads from two sub-stations
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Fire Detection and Suppression System
• Smoke and Fire Detectors
• Fire Alarms
• Emergency Power Off
• Water Detectors
• Fire Suppression Systems
• Water Based Systems
o Wet pipe sprinklers
o Dry-pipe sprinklers
o Pre-action
• Gas Based Systems
o Carbon dioxide
o FM200
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Auditing Environmental Controls
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Summary
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Practice Questions
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1. Which of the following is first action when a fire
detection system raises the alarm?
A. Turn off the air conditioner
B. Determine type of fire
C. Evacuate the facility
D. Turn off power supply
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2. Which of the following are most important controls
for unmanned data center?
A. Access control for entry and exit for all doors
B. The humidity levels need not be maintained
C. The temperature must be at sub-zero level
D. Halon gas based fire suppression system
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3. Primary purpose of access controlled deadman door,
turnstile, mantrap is to:
A. Prevent unauthorized entry
B. Detect perpetrators
C. Meet compliance requirement
D. Reduce cost of guard
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4. Which of the following is the main reason for
appointing human guards at main entrance of
facilities?
A. Address visitors’ requirements to visit
B. Issue the access cards to visitors
C. Cost of automation exceeds security budget
D. Deter the unauthorized persons
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5. Which of the following is major concern associated
with biometric physical access control?
A. High acceptability
B. High false positives
C. High false negatives
D. High cost
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6. Which of the following evidence is best to provide
assurance on automated environmental controls?
A. Annual maintenance contract with vendor
B. Simulation testing of devices during audit
C. Device implementation report by vendor
D. Documented results of periodic testing
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7. What are the problems that may be caused by
humidity in an area with electrical devices?
A. High humidity causes excess electricity, and low
humidity causes corrosion
B. High humidity causes power fluctuations, and low
humidity causes static electricity
C. High humidity causes corrosion, and low humidity
causes static electricity
D. High humidity causes corrosion, and low humidity
causes power fluctuations.
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8. Automated access controls opens doors based on access
cards, pins, and/or biometric devices and are powered by
electricity. Which of the following is the best policy in case
of power failure?
A. Keep the door in locked state
B. Open door and appoint guard
C. Find root cause of power failure
D. Arrange for battery backup
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10. Which of the following is main reason for not
allowing mobile devices into data center?
A. Unauthorized changes and access in configuration
B. Prevent photography of data center layout
C. User can provide information to attacker on phone
D. Mobile devices generate wireless communication
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Chapter 4
Logical Access Controls
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Objectives of Logical Access Controls
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Logical Access Attacks and Exposures
• Masquerading
• Piggybacking
• Wiretapping
• Denial of service
• Social Engineering
• Phishing
• Vishing
• Key Logger
• Malware
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Access Control Mechanism – IAA
Identification techniques
• Something the user knows (e.g., a password),
• Something the user has (e.g., a token or smart
card), and
• Something the user is (a physical / biometric
comparison)
Authentication Techniques
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Attacks on Logon/Password Systems
• Brute force
• Dictionary attack
• Trojan
• Spoofing attacks
• Piggybacking
Biometric Authentication
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Authorization Techniques: Operating Systems
• Pluggable Authentication Modules
• File Permissions
• Access Control Lists (ACL)
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Logical Access Control Techniques
• User management
• User responsibilities
• Network access controls
• Application access controls
• Database access controls
• Operating system access controls
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Identity Management and Access Controls
• Privileged Logons
Audit Trail
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Auditing Logical Access Controls
• Understanding of an organization’s information
security framework
• Selection and implementation of appropriate access
controls
• Top management’s commitment
• Management controls
• Explicit access permission to information or systems
• Periodic review / audit of access permission
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Summary
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Practice Questions
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1. Which of the following pair of authentication can
be considered as two factor?
A. Password and passphrase
B. Passphrase and PIN
C. Token and access card
D. Access card and PIN
D is correct answer.
The three factors are what a user knows (PIN, Password,
Passphrase), what user possesses (Access card, Token)
and what unique characteristics of user (Biometric). Use
of any two factors for authentication is called two factor.
Option A, B and C use only one factor.
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2. Which of the following is primary requirement of
granting user access to information asset?
A. Identification
B. Authorization
C. Authentication
D. Need to know
A is correct answer.
Identification of user is first and primary requirement of
granting access. Next will be authentication method to be
established and finally finding authorization levels based on
role that also addresses need to know.
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3. Mandatory access controls are those controls that
are:
A. Based on global standards
B. Defined by security policy
C. Part of compliance requirements
D. Granted by asset owner
B is correct answer.
Mandatory accesses are those controls that are to be
applied uniformly across organization and are defined
by information security policy. D is discretionary access
controls. B and C generally do not specify such
requirements.
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4. Which of the following is a major concern associated
with Single-Sign-on?
A. Multiple passwords are noted
B. User may select easy password
C. It is a single point of failure
D. High maintenance cost
C is correct answer.
Single point of failure is a major concern. One password if
compromised, all accesses for that user are available to
perpetrator.
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5. Which of the following non-compliance with
information security policy is most difficult to
detect or get evidence for?
A. Use of removable media
B. Password sharing by user
C. Access to banned web sites
D. Passing information over phone
B is correct answer.
Password sharing by user is most difficult to get
evidence for or detect. Others can be monitored or
enforced using technology.
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6. Which of following processes in user access
management is most essential to detect errors and
omissions resulting in unauthorized or excess accesses to
users?
A. Identification
B. Authentication
C. Authorization
D. Review
D is correct answer.
Periodic user access review helps in ensuring that all users
have appropriate level of accesses. This happens due to
changes in internal environment like role, emergency
situation, resignation and retiring of employees. In such
situations sometimes revocation of accesses is missed out,
which can be corrected during review.
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7. While auditing compliance with password policy, IS
auditor observed that configuration of password
parameters in system is as per information security policy.
Which of the following the auditor should verify?
A. Review enforcement for sample users
B. Verify all assets have same configuration
C. Review log for password configuration
D. Interview users on policy enforcement
C is correct answer.
Review of log for password configuration may disclose the
compliance of policy because policy is configured in the
system through password configuration. This may also detect
unwarranted changes made by a malicious user (who obtains
administrative access) in the password configuration.
However, option A and D may provide assurance for
compliance of password policy configurations in the system, 87
8. One time password is considered strong because
they are:
A. Active for short period
B. Communicated on mobile
C. Unique for each user
D. Unique for session
A is correct answer.
Strength of one-time password is that it is active for
short time, if user does not login during that time the
one-time password expires. One-time password is
unique for each session and user, however it is not
strength. It can be communicated by suitable means.
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9. Which of the following attack to break the user
password is difficult to control?
A. Brute Force
B. Dictionary attack
C. Spoofing
D. Social engineering
D is correct answer.
In Social engineering attacks, the weakest link is
unsuspecting human user. Attacker uses techniques to
compel users to reveal passwords and other confidential
information. For example in Phishing. Other options are
technology based attacks and can be detected or
controlled.
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10. Which of the following is a primary objective of
implementing logical access controls?
A. Identify users on the system
B. Fixing accountability of actions
C. Authorize users based on role
D. Compliance with policy
C is correct answer.
Primary objective of implementing access controls is to
restrict access to authorized people. Fixing
accountability of actions is the primary objective of
audit trail. Others are means to implement access
controls not objectives.
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Chapter 5
Network security Controls
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Objective of Network Security Controls
• Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
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Cryptography
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Types of Cryptography
• Secret-key cryptography or symmetric-key
cryptography
• Public key Cryptography or asymmetric key
cryptography
• Hash Function or message digest
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Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
• Components of PKI
• Digital Certificates
o Digital Signing Certificate: Issued to the
Individuals
o Digital Encryption Certificate: Issued to
individuals or servers
o Code Signer (Software code)
• Digital Signatures
• Controller of Certifying Authority
• Certifying Authority (CA)
• Certificate Revocation List (CRL)
• Quantum Cryptography
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Application of Cryptographic Systems
• Transport Layer Security
• IPSec
o Tunnel model
o Transport mode
• SSH
• Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (SMIME)
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Malicious Code
• Viruses
o Master boot record (MBR) viruses
o Stealth viruses
o Polymorphic viruses
o Macro viruses
o Logic bomb/Time bomb
• Worms
• Trojan Horse
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Firewalls
• Intranet
• Extranet
• Securing Firewall
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Wireless Security Threats and Risk Mitigation
Threats:
• Ad-hoc networks
• Non-traditional networks
• MAC spoofing
• Man-in-the-middle attacks
• Accidental association
• Denial of service
Common Controls:
• Encryption
• Signal-hiding techniques
• Anti-virus and anti-spyware software
• Default passwords
• MAC address
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Endpoint Security
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Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing
• External testing
• Internal testing
• Targeted testing
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Auditing Network Security Controls
• Evaluating logical network security policies and
practices
• Evaluate network event logging and monitoring
• Firewalls and filtering routers
• Intrusion detection systems
• Virtual private networks
• Security protocols
• Encryption
• Middleware controls
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Summary
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1. Which of the following is a method used to gather
information about the communication network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Brute force
C. Eavesdropping
D. Wiretapping
A is correct answer.
Other methods are active attacks on network after getting
information about networks.
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2. Message digest helps organization in getting
assurance on:
A. Communication delivery
B. Data availability
C. Data integrity
D. Data confidentiality
C is correct answer.
Message digest is a hash function that helps in confirming
integrity of data communicated over network.
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3. While auditing organization’s network which of the
following control IS auditor must verify first?
A. Encrypted communication
B. Network zoning
C. Firewall configuration
D. Penetration test report
B is correct answer.
Network segmentation or zoning is first control to
implement network security. Other controls depend upon
segmentation.
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4. Cryptographic checksum is a network control that:
A. Adds a parity bit after adding the data bits.
B. Translates data in a file into a hash value.
C. Transmits the data after encryption.
D. Translates the data into a parity checksum combination.
B is correct answer.
Checksum is a type of hash that is used to check integrity
of data after communication. It is different that parity bit
that adds an extra bit for each byte and word.
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5. Primary function of Security operations center
(SOC) is to:
A. Define baseline
B. Configure firewall
C. Monitor logs
D. Implement Antivirus
C is correct answer.
Primary function of SOC is to collect and monitor logs
based on identified rules. It also defines correlation
between various logs and identifies possible incidents,
which are communicated to respective asset owners. A is
role of security manager; B and D are roles of network
team.
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6. The intrusion detection monitoring on a host for
data integrity attack by malicious software is a:
A. Technical control
B. Corrective control
C. Detective Control
D. Preventive Control
C is correct answer.
Intrusion detection detects the possible intrusion
attempt. It does not prevent or corrects it. It is a control
implemented using technology.
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7. Which of the following is most important while
performing penetration testing?
A. Maintain secrecy about testing
B. Get consent from affected stakeholders
C. Report to be provided to all users
D. Perform test after office hours
B is correct answer.
It is most essential to get consent from affected asset
owners before performing test, so that they can ensure
that operations are not affected. Maintaining secrecy shall
depend upon type of test. Report must be kept
confidential and accessed only by select few. Test
generally is performed when it will have least impact, but
is not most important.
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8. Most web based application attacks can be prevented
by:
A. Input validation
B. Encryption
C. Penetration test
D. Access controls
A is correct answer.
Most web application attacks like SQL injection can be
prevented by validating input, which can reject the attackers
input that can exploit vulnerability. Encryption may or may
not prevent an attack. Penetration test shall provide input on
vulnerability that must be closed. Access controls may
prevent some attacks.
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9. Social engineering attacks can best be prevented by:
A. Intrusion detection system
B. Strong access controls
C. Two factor authentication
D. Awareness training
D is correct answer.
Social engineering attack is attack on human and hence
no technology can prevent it. Awareness training best
prevents it.
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10. Which of the following is a type of malware that
does not use system resources for execution of malicious
codes?
A. Virus
B. Logic bomb
C. Trojan
D. Worm
D is correct answer.
Worms are self-executable. Rest of the options use system
resources for execution of malicious codes.
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? Questions
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Thank You
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