1. If you have a specification % = 40, what is the discrimination index ...?

Less than 2
B. Equal to 6
Between 2 and 4
D. Mayor to 4

2. What is another name for fault tree analysis?

a. Failure Analysis
b. Systematic analysis
c. 5 Whys Techniques
d. Failure mode analysis

3. In which company did the Six Sigma methodology begin?

a. Motorola
b. GE
c. Allied Sigma
Coca-Cola

4. What does the Six Sigma terminology mean for Motorola?

Zero defects
Achieve approximately 99.9996% performance
c. Quality at any cost
d. Combine LEAN tools with applied statistics

5. What is the main purpose of the X-bar chart?

a. To monitor the change in averages of the relative subgroups…
b. To monitor the change in means of the relative subgroups...
c. To monitor the change in variances of relative subgroups...
d. To monitor the change in standard deviations of the subgroups...

6. What is a Run chart used for?

a. To see the variation of the data with respect to the tempo
b. To evaluate clustering, mixing, trend, and oscillation
c. To evaluate the process capability with respect to specification limits
d. To evaluate reproducibility and repeatability
7. What are the three stages of a product's bathtub curve?
a. Infant mortality, life expectancy and wear
b. Start and tests, development and feedback to the client
c. Mortality, use and change
d. Preliminary tests, design and production

8. What does the general model of Shewhart say?

a. The natural variation of a process is estimated by its mean plus or minus two errors.
standards.
b. The natural variation of a process is estimated by its median plus or minus the average interval.
quarter of the range.
c. The natural variation of a process is estimated by the mean plus or minus three errors.
standards
d. The natural variation of a process is estimated by the mean plus minus three ranges.
standards.

9. What can be assumed when conducting a capacity analysis...?

a. The process is capable and under control
b. The process data is under control and capable
c. The process data is normal and the process is in control
d. The process is stable and under control.

In an experiment with 2 levels and 5 variables, how many regression coefficients are there?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 32
d. 64

11. Which of the following factors is related to a pilot's studies?

A pilot of our improved process will be sought in a typical environment.
b. The pilot will be planned appropriately, including how to evaluate its success.
A pilot is usually easy and does not involve problems.
A well-developed pilot should identify various opportunities for improvement in
our new process.

12. What are Pp and Ppk for?

a. Estimate short-term performance, similar to CP and Cpk
b. Estimate long-term performance, similar to Cp and Cpk
c. Estimate long-term performance, similar to Cp only
d. Estimate short-term performance, similar to Cpk only
13. What does the central limit theorem say?
a. From a set of averages, this distribution will tend to be normal even if the
population is not it.
b. The trend of a normal distribution can be estimated by the transformation
Z
c. The result of a measurement study is altered because the operators
they feel evaluated.
d. The capabilities of a system can be evaluated if the data is transformed.

14. The graphs p and np are designed for this type of data.
a. Binomial
b. Normal
c. Hypergeometric
d. Bernoulli

15. What is the purpose of individual graphs (IMR)?

a. To control the observations made one at a time
b. To monitor observations as they are collected before being placed in
subgroups
c. Explore data from subgroups if a problem is found
d. Provide an alternative for the CUSUM graph

16. Deliverables of the measurement stage

a. QFD AND PROJECT CHARTER
b. Data collection plan and SIPOC
c. PUGH Matrix and process map
d. Minitab analysis and brainstorming
17. Which chart is not applicable for continuous data?
X-bar Graph
b. Graphic R
c. Graphic S
d. NP Graphics
18. What does the p value of a correlation matrix indicate in a survey analysis?
a. The probability that a perfect correlation exists
b. The probability that there is a correlation equal to 0
c. The probability that there is an inverse correlation
d. None of the above

19. What is the purpose of a C graph?

a. To monitor a Poisson variable for constant sample sizes
b. To monitor a Poisson variable for non-constant sample sizes
c. To monitor a bivariate variable for a constant sample size
d. To monitor a bivariate variable for a non-constant sample size
20. What does a linear regression test?
a. Relationships of one or more continuous (x)'s and a categorical response
b. Relationships and models of one or more continuous (x)'s and one continuous response
c. Relationships and models of one or more continuous (x)'s and one continuous response
d. Relationships and models of one or more (x)'s categorical and continuous responses

21. What represents the biggest limitation in a Six Sigma program?

To make people understand the DMAIC methodology
b. The amount of fallen Futa
c. Estimating savings for projects
d. Review what the competition is doing

22. Which statement is false when creating an operations curve (oc)?

a. An operating curve tells us about the performance of the sampling plan
The less pronounced the curve is, the better.
c. The analyst must define the AQL and the LTPD
The more pronounced the operations curve is, the more our services are required.

23. When should transformations be used in order to carry out an analysis of

capabilities?
a. As long as the data is not normal
b. When we decide so - it always works
c. As a last resort, when the data is not normal and we do not find a
distribution that helps
d. When we want consistent queue distribution

24. What is the purpose of the 2-sample T test?

a. To evaluate the interrelation between different discrete variables
b. To discard those variables that are not significant
c. To assess normality in a sample
d. To evaluate whether there are differences in the means of two populations

25. In the TUKEY test, how are differences between the means of 2 variables detected?
The interval is zero
b. The interval includes ZERO
c. The interval DOES NOT include ZERO
d. None of the above

26. What is the purpose of the cause-effect analysis matrix?

a. Identify the most important relationships
b. Identify the most important inputs regarding the outputs
c. Identify the most important requirements
d. Identify the most important outputs.
27. Before closing a Green Belt project, it should be:
a. Ensure that the champion, the process owner, and the stakeholders are in agreement with
the closure
b. Perform a postmortem exercise
c. Determine whether this project involves intellectual property protection
d. All of the above

28. In the DMAIC methodology, which of the following is false?

a. Pilot tests commonly occur in the definition phase.
b. Pilot tests commonly occur in the improvement phase.
c. The pilot test must have its own plan and schedule
d. The pilot test in some cases requires the same effort...

29. Which of the following is not assumed when making a regression model ...?
a. The response is normally distributed
b. The errors are independent
c. The errors have a constant variance
d. The errors have an average of zero

30. In a statistical process control (SPC), which statement is true?

A CEP graph is a graphical hypothesis test
b. The null hypothesis for a CEP graph is that the process is out of control.
c. It is possible to prove that a process is in control in its entirety
d. The assignable causes are random by nature and the variation is independent.

31. What is the best way to interpret the p value for a single coefficient in a design...?
a. A high o value means that we can ignore the term and all its components.
A low p value means that we can ignore the term and all its components.
A high p value means that we can include the term in the model.
A low p value means that the term is related to the ability of the
operators.

32. Which of the following is false in the creation of the DMAIC problem statement?
a problem statement must answer: WHAT, WHEN, WHERE, HOW MUCH AND
HOW
b. A problem statement must contain a solution
c. A problem statement must be objective-factual only, not opinions
A problem statement should be written to be read by executives.
33. If a graph p has been calculated, p bar is 0.8 and the subgroup sample is 20 (LCI)?
Approximately LCS 92 and LCI 68 percent
b. Approximately LCI 89 and YLCS 71 percent
c. More or less 3 standard deviations
d. Equal to the average of the process

34. Which of the following statements is false regarding control plans?

a. Its purpose is to document exactly how the process will be controlled.
It is mandatory for a Six Sigma project
c. It does not mention the business metric as this is the responsibility...
d. Include information such as the sampling scheme

35. An administrator system

A method that a business uses to control work
A report that is generated for management
c. A system for feedback with information about the process
d. Another name for ISO 9001

What is the purpose of the Bartlety Levine test?

a. It tells us the means of the equal populations
b. It tells us if the variances of the populations are equal through...
c. It tells us if the populations are similar
d. It tells us if the populations are significantly different

37. What is TUKEY for?

a. To test the equivalence of the bipolar coordinates of TUKEY
b. To test that population means are different from each other
c. To prove that the TUKEY test works
d. To prove that the averages are equal to each other

38. What is the objective of QFD?

a. Identify the customers
b. Evaluate the competitive situation
c. Evaluate the relationships between the requirements and the variables...
d. Define the requirements

39. The following is not a component of the SIPOC:

a. Customer Requirements
b. Inputs and outputs
c. Suppliers
d. Budgets
40. Which of the following is not true for pilot studies?
The studies of a pilot can help create support for a solution
b. The studies of a pilot are faster and without difficulties
c. The studies of a pilot give us the opportunity to refine a solution.
The studies of a pilot provide a good job opportunity.

41. This tool helps to provide the different modes of failure and their form.
a. FTA
b. AMEF
c. XYZ
d. CDM

42. What is the purpose of the requirements matrix within a QFD?

a. Synthesize the information and requirements of VOC
b. Enter the VOC information
c. Unfold and weigh those important factors for the client
d. Show what the competition is doing

43. What is the purpose of a p-graph?

a. Monitor fractions or percentages
b. Monitoring bivariate variables
c. Monitoring normally distributed fractions
d. Monitoring defect count information

44. Which VOC tool is not applicable for obtaining VOC information?
a. Interviews
b. Focus groups
c. Surveys
d. Customer visits

45. When analyzing a survey design, how is repeatability and redundancy evaluated?
a. Through Tukey's test and Chebyshev's theorem
b. Through the Levene test and the Bartlett test
c. Through the Anderson test and the Darling index
d. Through the Cronbach's alpha coefficients and the discrimination index
47.-This is not a market research tool

a. Selection model

b. Focus groups

c. Experimentation

d. Primary Research

48.- What is the Adelta T process used for?

a.-To identify the variation of the operations

b.-To identify waiting times or dead times and how to reduce them

c.-To examine the activities in costly terms

To identify those operations that do not generate value and their impact on the cycle.

49.-Questions answered by a problem statement

a.- ¿Por qué?, ¿Cuándo?, ¿Cuánto?, ¿Qué?

b.- ¿Cuánto cuesta?, ¿Por qué?, ¿Cuándo?, ¿Qué?

¿Qué?

How?

50.-This tool helps to anticipate the different modes of failure and how to prevent them.

a.-FTA

b.-AMEF

c.-XYZ

d.- CDM

51.- What is process mapping?

a.- a way to visualize the steps of a process, flow, and decisions

b.- a different way to create a value stream map

c.- a way to understand the process and identify the problem

d.- all of the above

52.- Which statement is false?

a.- The well-defined scope of the project guarantees its success.

b.-The project scope must include what is inside and outside of it.

c.- The project scope can be used to limit resource spending.

A good definition of the project scope must be agreed upon by all those involved.

53.-Why did Motorola's Six Sigma model fail?

a.-Lack of support from management

b.-Only the Black Belts were given continuity

c.- The training program focused only on quality

d.- The customer's voice was ignored

54.- In which type of distribution is it common to use the z-transform?

a.- Gumbel

b.- Gamma

c.- Binomial

d.- Normal

55.- What is the purpose of the Gage R&R study?

a.- To identify the significant variables

b.- to evaluate if the measurement system is adequate

c.- to evaluate the predominant factors

d.- to evaluate the relationships between the input and output variables

56.- Which of the following best describes the concept of Six Sigma brainstorming?

a.-a structured process that helps to identify problems

b.- a structured process that helps identify solutions

a structured process that helps to resolve interpersonal problems

a structured process that identifies six sigma projects

57.- What physical interpretation does the discrimination index have?

a.- it is the number of error levels of the process

b.- it is the number of error categories

c.- it is the number of categories formed when measuring the process

d.- it is the number of metrics that we can estimate

58.- Why do we use central points in a complete factorial experiment?

a.- to balance the number of runs to an even number

b.- to review the lack of model fit

c. - to review the centricity of the logistic regression

to improve the accuracy of the Cpk values

59.- Which statement is false for Shewhart's charts?

a.- The Shewhart graphs were developed in the 1930s

b.- The Shewhart charts were designed to be simple, with statistical graphic tests and that did not
they require a computer

c.-The range is a better estimate for the variation than the standard deviation for samples of
small size

d.- All Stewart graphs include USL and LSL

60.-The Western Electric rules were designed to:

a. Take advantage of the customer

b.- detect variations in behaviors that are unlikely to be due to chance

c.- Make the control charts easier

d.- minimize the beta error.

61.-What are the two types of data that can be collected?

a.-Ordinal and Nominal

b.-Discrete and Binary
Categorial and Binary
d.-Variables and Attributes.

62.- What is the purpose of the AdeltaT process?

a.-To identify variations in the operation

b.-To identify waiting times or downtime and how to reduce them.

to examine the activities in terms of costs

d.- to identify those operations that do not create value and their impact on the cycle time

63.- What represents the biggest limitation of a six sigma project?

a.- Achieve that people understand the DMAIC methodology

b.- The amount of fallen fruit

c.-Estimate savings by project

d.- Check what the competition is doing.

64.- Which of the statements is false?

a.- if the takt time is the production time divided by the demand of the shift

b.-The tempo is the production time divided by the shift demand.

If the tempo Taktes is greater than the cycle tempo, then we have resources on standby.

If the takt time is less than the cycle time, then we have resources waiting.

65. What are the two types of Kanban cards?

a.- Defect and rework Kanban

b.- Production and feedback Kanban

c.-Maintenance and logistics Kanban

d.-Variation and control Kanban

66.- What is the definition of standard operations?

a.-Removing the waste from a step of the process

b.-Removing waste from a process

Finding the best way to execute a process step and making it a 'standard'.

d.-Remove all unnecessary steps

67.- How many runs are involved in a 2-level, 5-variable experimental design?
with 2 replicas and 4 central points?

-14

-36

c.-64

-68

68.- What is the purpose of the CPK?

a.-Establish how well the process will perform if it is stable.

b.-Estmar normality

c.- Allow estimating the DPU, PPM, SIGMA and the probability of normality

d.-Establish how far we are from the center

69.- What is the purpose of varying dead times?

a.-to identify variation in the operation

to identify wait times or dead times and how to reduce them

to examine the activities in terms of costs and their impact on the cycle time

to identify those operations that do not add value

70.- In a project launch, which of the following is false?

a.- Each project must stop at a single metric

The primary metric must be congruent with the problem and the objectives.

The problem charter must be defined before forming the team.

d.-The scope and limits of the project are one of the main risk factors.
71.-There are four types of customers

a.-Long and short term, loyal and lasting

Loyalists and mercenaries, traitors and prisoners

c.- Loyal customers, satisfied and dissatisfied

d.- Type A, type C and without classification.

72.- Which of the following is not a cycle time reduction tool?

a.-Cost time profile

b.-Adelta T Profile

c.- Reduction of waiting times or downtime

d.-Gage R&R

73.-In an unacceptable measurement system with a high degree of variation, what result should be
waiting for a Gage R&R analysis

>30% specification D>2.0

b. - specification < 30% D>2.0

c.- -%specification < 30% D<2.0

d.- -%specification > 30% D<2.0

74.- The graphs p and np are designed for data types

a.-Binomial

b.-Normal

c.-Hypergeometric

d.-Bernoulli

75.- Which of the following is not a graph available in Minitab?

a.- Matrix graphics

b.- Box Plot Graph

c.- Scatter plot

d.-Gantt chart
76.- Why do we code factorial experiments with -1 and +1?

a.-to obtain accurate estimates of the regression coefficients

b.- to obtain estimates without correlation of the regression coefficients.

c.- to improve the results of the experimental design

d.- to use a binomial distribution model

77.-Which of the following statements is false?

a.- The graphic of combinations of standard operations is a method to optimize the

sequence of the process

The process route table shows the equipment required to complete your work.

c.- The PQ analysis table details the customer's demand by product.

A unit of work is measured in seconds.

78.- Which statement is false about control plans?

A control plan lists the input and output variables.

A control plan is a living document that requires periodic updates.

A control plan must be approved by the process owner and subcontractors.

A control plan is not required in a six sigma certification.

79.- Which VOC tool would not be applicable to obtain VOC information from a group of 5

a-Interviews

b-Focus groups

c-Surveys

d-Client visits

80.- Which of the following does not correspond to the description of WIP?

a.-Units that are being worked on

b.-Units in refrigeration

c.- Units on hold that are not serving a purpose

d.-Units in testing
 81.- Which of the following best defines the method known as Concept Selection?

A process to relate the

a process to analyze the root cause based on failure modes

A process for selecting Six Sigma projects

A low p value means that there is covariance between the runs.

82.- How many subgroups are necessary to have some certainty that the process is
find in control

a-5

b-10

c-25

d-Infinite

83.- In the DMAIC methodology, which of the following is false?

Change management is the key factor for the control phase.

b- The scope is the key risk factor for the Definition phase.

c-Failure in the accuracy of the measurement system is the key risk factor for the phase of
Measurement

Not having a well-designed experiment is the key risk factor for the Improvement phase.

84.- What are the 2 methods for constructing process mappings?

Interview methods and plurality

b-Group and individual methods

c-Methods of plurality and individuals

d-Methods of interviews and group meetings.

 85.- The 3x2 rule when we reduce the tempo vs the competition tells us:

The lost time is attributed to 3 sources and has an effect in two places within the process.

b-You can grow three times and earnings two times compared to the industry

c-Means reducing the cycle time by 3 times and we can double productivity

if we reduce the cycle three times, value is created in 2

86.- Which statement is false?

In basic queueing systems, the arrival rate must be greater than the service rate.

The MM1 model assumes Poisson arrivals

The MMS model assumes that each channel has the same characteristics.

The MMS model assumes exponential service times.

87.- Which of the following is not related to the SMED concept?

It is a concept related to reducing the changeover time of parts and machine adjustments.

b-Seeks to reduce adjustment errors and parts replacement

It aims to reduce the rework tempo of defective parts.

It focuses on making changes to the machine and tools to reduce the tempo of
preparation

88.- Which statement is false?

The project resources are typically adaptable and can be changed.

b-Any project must have a well-established calendar

It is necessary to hold constant meetings to maintain the commitment of all involved.

A responsibility matrix is very useful for creating consensus in the schedule.

89.- What is the purpose of FMEA?

Calculate an RPN for each step of the process.

Evaluate qualitatively the risk of all failures at each step of the process

Quantify the risk of failure at each step of the process

Identify solutions for each failure in the steps of the process

90.- Which of the following is not a characteristic of a standard operating sheet?

Indicate all permitted deviations and where to carry out the rework
b-Summarize the final steps of the process and important information

c-It is done once the process has been optimized.

It is done with defined levels of WIP.

91.- The seven types of shedding identify

Cycle time

b-Delay time

c-Waste

d-Indecision

92.- What is the purpose of the 5S?

to optimize the work cell

b-Optimize the work cell in the shortest time

c- Putting all the tools in the right place

The all-purpose cleaner

93.

What are the two most important menus in Minitab?

a-Editing and statistics

b-File and help

c-Statistics and graphics

d-Tool and calculation

 94.- What is the purpose of an Experimental Design

To test all the central points

b-Carry out different runs

c-Review the lack of adjustment

Deconstruct the value options

95.- Theorem applicable to data from any standard distribution that allows for evaluation of the
set of measurements inside

The K deviations

a-Chebyshev

b-Anderson –Darling
c-Tukey

d-Gamma

96. What does the concept of hidden factory mean?

One must search for each of its components in every process.

b-All manufacturing concepts can be applied

In every process, there are costs that are not directly visible.

Any process can be analyzed with Six Sigma

97.- Which of the following is not a source of measurement error?

a-Linearity

b-Stability

c-Compatibility

d. Repeatability
98.- Are examples of discrete probability models:

a-Binomial and Normal

b-Poisson and Hypergeometric

c-Binomial and Gamma

d-Normal and Gumbel

99.- The following is not a component of SIPOC

a-Customer requirements

b-Entries and exits

c-Suppliers

d-Budgets

100.- Which of the following is not related to TPM?

They are actions to avoid machine downtime.

b-Looks for everyone to take care of the company's assets

It is based on empowering employees to care for the equipment and report on time.
breakdowns

d-Busca to delegate to the employees all repairs of the equipment and thus eliminate the
maintenance department

101.- The 5S are:

Sort, organize, shine, standardize and sustain

b-Organize, put in order, shine, sanitize, and support

c-Organize, set in stone, shine, standardize, and sustain

D-Organize, put in order, polish, standardize and support

102.- In the DMAIC methodology which of the following is false

The champion is responsible for the selection, identification, and launch of the project.

b- The champion is responsible for change management in the control phase.

c- The champion is not responsible for keeping the project on schedule as planned.

The Green belts responsible for implementing the project

103.- This is not a criterion for a project objective

to be specific

b-Arbitrary

c-Real
d- With those responsible

104.- How can you fully prove that a process is in control?

a-It cannot be

b-Have at least 30 subgroups

c-Ensure that none of the Western Electric rules have been violated

to have at least 60 subgroups

105.- Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Kanban system?

Utilize cards or other devices to control the movement of materials and WIP

Its purpose is to reduce defects and rework.

Its purpose is to synchronize work with the required demand.

d-Reduces overproduction through load balancing

106.- What types of files does Minitab handle?

a-Word and projects

b-Power point graphics

c-Work sheets, project graphs

d-AutoCAD
107.- General Electric contributed a lot to Six Sigma. Which of the following is not one of the
contribution of GE?

the voice of the customer VOC through your service company GE capital

The public announcement of the term Six Sigma within its annual reports

Promoting the Six Sigma methodology and its benefits within the industry

d-Process capacity

108.- What is the purpose of SIPOC?

Summarize information about suppliers, inputs, process steps, outputs, clients and
requirements

Summarize the information of suppliers, inputs, process steps, outputs, and customers.

c-Provide the foundation for the start of a Six Sigma project

Help the team find relationships between the elements of a SIPOC table

109.- What is the difference between a treatment (factor) and an effect?

A treatment is a type of (x) and an effect is how dispersed the (X) is.

b-Un treatment is a level for a factor (X) and an effect is the change in the response.

c-Un-treatment is a fixed factor and an effect is a random factor

d-Treatment is a random factor and an effect is a fixed factor.

110.- Which of the following statements is false regarding experimental design

The central points help estimate the measurement error.

Replicating the entirety of the design means we can estimate more coefficients.

The central points must be distributed in the design.

The null hypothesis of the goodness-of-fit test indicates that the model fits the data.
111.- What is the purpose of the CP metric?

Establish the actual PPM of the process

Estimate the PPM and DPU of the process

c-Determine how well the process would perform if it were centered

Establish the lower limit of CPK

112.- Which statement is false for an X-bar graph?

An Xbar chart requires a sample size greater than one.

If the sample size is 8 or less, an R chart must accompany the X-bar chart.

For c-Si, if the sample size is 10 or more, an R chart must accompany the Xbar chart.

The size of the subgroup must be constant for an Xbar chart.

113.- What tools are normally used in the workflow of a piece

a. Linear regression and ANOVA

b-MRP and Kanban

c-5`S and poka yoke

d-PQ Analysis Table and Process Route Table

114.- Which of the following is not part of the definition of objectives in Six Sigma

The project objectives must be realistic.

The objectives of the project must be more than what we can achieve.

The project's objectives must be measurable.

The objectives of the project must have a time component.

115.- Which of the following is not a characteristic of a one-piece flow?

It is the closest thing to automation.

b- Minimize the cycle time per unit

c-Reduce inventories and lead time

The quality and material movement problems are difficult to detect.

116.- Which statement is false

A well-defined scope of the project guarantees its success.

The project's scope must include what is inside and outside of it.

The scope of the project can be used to limit resource expenditure.

A good definition of the project scope must be agreed upon by all those involved.
same

117.- Which of the following are not errors within the scope of poka yoke?

Mistakes due to misunderstandings

b-Unintended errors

c-Vendor errors

Errors due to lack of standards