VP AIR TEST NEET (2024-25)

12th & DROPPER || TEST-2.15

DURATION
DURATION:: 180
90 Minutes
Minutes Date: 25-04-2025 M. MARKS: 720

Topics Covered

Physics: Full Syllabus

Chemistry: Full Syllabus
Botany: Full Syllabus
Zoology: Full Syllabus

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (four options with a single
correct answer).
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks are
720.
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
OMR Instructions:
1. Use only blue/black dark ballpoint pen.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area
may create problems during the evaluation.
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Name of the Student (In CAPITALS): __________________________________________________________________

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Student’s Signature: _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ________________________

 [VP AIR-2.15 | 12th & Dropper-NEET | 25-04-2025]
Full Syllabus

1. If r.m.s. current in an ac circuit is 2 A and its 5. A ball is dropped from certain height above
wattless r.m.s. current is 3 A then power factor in ground. If it moved 25 m distance in last second of
its motion before hitting ground, then height from
this circuit is:
which it was dropped is : (g = 10 m/s2)
3 (1) 25 m (2) 30 m
(1)
2
(3) 60 m (4) 45 m
2
(2)
3
6. If a particle of charge q moves in a circular path of
(3) 0.5 radius r with uniform linear speed u, then
(4) 0.25 magnitude of magnetic field due to it at centre will
be proportional to :
2. Suppose a stationary bomb explodes into three u
(1)
pieces such that one piece of mass m moves with r
speed 4 ms–1 and other piece of mass 0.5m moves u
with speed 6 ms–1 as shown in figure. If mass of (2)
r2
third piece is 0.25 m, then its velocity is:
u2
(3)
r2
u
(4)
r3
(1) 5 m s–1 (2) 50 m s–1
(3) 30 m s–1 (4) 20 m s–1 7. Stable nucleus which has a radius equal to half of
radius of Zn64 among the following is:
3. If magnetic field in plane electromagnetic wave is (1) Ca40 (2) S16
given by B = 2  10−7 sin(200 x − 600  108 t )kˆ (3) Na21 (4) Be8
tesla where x is in meter and t is in second then its
electric field will be equal to : 8. Twelve wires, each of equal resistance r, are joined
(1) 30 2 sin(200 x − 600  10 t )V/m kˆ
8 to form a cube as shown in figure. Equivalent
resistance between its opposite points a and c is
(2) 60sin(200 x − 600  108 t )V/m kˆ

(3) 30 2 sin(200 x − 600  108 t )V/m ˆj

(4) 60sin(200 x − 600  108 t )V/m ˆj

4. If unpolarized light of average intensity i0 is passed (1) r

through a polarizer then amplitude of electric field
(2) 0.25 r
of light coming out is : (c is speed of light in
(3) 0.5 r
vacuum and 0 is permittivity of vacuum.)
(4) 0.75 r
2i0
(1)
co
9. If linear momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) will
i0 be taken as fundamental quantities, then
(2) dimensional formula of energy will be:
co
(1) [ PA−1T ]
i
(3) 2 0
co (2) [ P 2 AT ]

i0 (3) [ PA−1/2T ]
(4)
3co (4) [ PA1/2T −1 ]
[2]
10. If width of 4th bright fringe in Young’ double slit
(1)
experiment is 0.5 mm, then width of its 6th bright
fringe will be:
(1) 7.5 mm
(2) 0.25 mm
(3) 0.5 mm
(2)
(4) 2 mm

11. Consider a particle which is describing SHM along

a straight line with amplitude 8m. When its
potential energy is one fourth of its maximum
energy during oscillation, then its displacement (3)
from mean position will be:
(1) 2.5m
(2) 2m
(3) 4m
(4) 6m (4)

12. If current i at certain instant is 5A and this current

is decreasing at a rate of 103 A/s then potential
difference between points A and B at that instant
is:
f
15. A thin rod of length is placed along the
3
(1) 5V principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length f
(2) 23V such that its image which is real and elongated, just
(3) 7V touches one end of the rod. What is the longitudinal
(4) 30V magnification;
−3
(1)
13. If graph of angle of deviation vs incident angle is 2
plotted for a prism as shown in figure then angle of −1
(2)
prism is: 2
−5
(3)
2
−7
(4)
2
(1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) 45° (4) 75° 16. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Kirchhoff’s current law is a
14. If a cyclic thermodynamic process ABCDA is consequence of the conservation of energy as
shown in the pressure vs volume diagram as shown applied to electric circuits.
in figure then which of the following graph will Statement II: Kirchhoff's voltage law is
represent same thermodynamic process? (Given consequence of the conservation of charge.
BC & DA are isothermal curves) (1) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
correct.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct and statement II is
incorrect.
[3]
17. If a power transmission line feeds input power at 23. If velocity of a particle at certain instant is
500 volt to a step down transformer having 250 (5iˆ − 3 ˆj + 2kˆ)m/s due to constant force
turns in its primary, then number of turns in
secondary coil needed to get output power at 50 (2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 3kˆ)N then instantaneous power applied
volt is: to this particle at this instant is:
(1) 250 (2) 25 (1) 28 J/s
(3) 500 (4) 30 (2) 30 J/s
(3) 7 J/s
18. Consider two charged spherical conductors of radii (4) 3 J/s
ra and rb connected by a metallic wire. If σa and σb
are their final surface charge densities when final
24. Two slits seperated by a distance of 2.5 mm are
charge transfer stop then: (Assume both conductors
illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5 × 10–7 m.
at large distance from each other)
If interference fringes are observed on screen
(1) a rb = b ra (2) a ra = b rb
placed 5 m from the slits then distance between
(3)  a rb2 = b ra2 (4)  a ra2 = b rb2 third dark fringe and fifth bright fringe is:
(1) 0.65 mm (2) 5 mm
19. If velocity of a particle of mass 2 kg at time t is (3) 3.25 mm (4) 4 mm

( )
2tiˆ − 4 ˆj m/s where t is in seconds then impulse
25. A liquid of specific heat 0.8 cal/g°C at temperature
imparted to it in time interval t = 0 to t = 2s is:
60°C is mixed with other liquid of same mass
(1) (4iˆ) kg-m/s having temperature 45°C. If temperature of
(2) (8iˆ − 4 ˆj ) kg-m/s mixture is 53°C, then specific heat (in cal/g°C) of
the liquid is:
(3) (8iˆ + 4 ˆj ) kg-m/s
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.6
(4) (8iˆ) kg-m/s (3) 0.7 (4) 0.8

20. If a particle of charge q is moving in a circle of 26. Two coils A and B having turns 300 and 600
radius r with uniform speed v then its associated respectively are placed near to each other. On
magnetic moment μ is: passing a current of 3.0 ampere in A, the flux linked
(1) 0.5 qvr with A is 1.2 × 102 wb and with B it is 90 wb. The
mutual inductance of the system is:
(2) qvr 2
(1) 40 H
(3) 0.5 qvr 2
(2) 30 H
(4) qvr (3) 20 H
(4) 18 H
21. If mass of a 5B10 nucleus is 0.042u less than sum of
the masses of its all nucleons, then its binding
27. If the linear charge density of a wire of length L
energy per nucleon is nearly:
depends on the distance x from one end O as
(1) 23 MeV (2) 39 MeV
 x
(3) 5.6 MeV (4) 3.9 MeV  = 0 , then the total charge on the wire is;
L

22. The correct relation between the conductance G of

a material and its conductivity , in terms of the
length L and cross-sectional area A of the conductor
is;
GA GL 0 L
(1)  = (2)  = (1) 0 L (2)
L A 2
A L 0 L
(3)  = (4)  = (3) (4) 20 L
GL GA 4
[4]
28. A spherical ball of radius 3 × 10–4 m and density 32. Ten turning forks are arranged in increasing order
4
10 kg/m falls freely under gravity through a of frequency in such a way that any two nearest
distance h before entering a tank of water. If after turning forks produce 4 beats per sec. The highest
frequency is twice that of the lowest. Possible
entering the water the velocity of the ball does not
highest and lowest frequencies (in Hz) respectively
change, then value of h is: (neglect any loss)
are:
(Viscocity of water is 10–5 N-s/m2) (g = 10 m/s2) (1) 80 and 40
5
(1) 1.62 × 10 m (2) 100 and 50
7
(2) 1.62 × 10 m (3) 44 and 22
(3) 1.62 × 10 m 3 (4) 72 and 36
(4) 1.62 × 104 m
33. If three blocks are connected with ideal strings as
shown in figure and are then pulled on smooth
29. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as horizontal table then tension in string between 2 kg
Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R: block and 5 kg block is;
Assertion A: Average power consumed in an ac
circuit is 2 times the average power consumed by
resistors in the circuit.
Reason R: Average power consumed by capacitor
(1) 2 N (2) 2.5N
and inductor is zero in AC circuit.
(3) 3 N (4) 3.5 N
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 34. If first overtone frequency of a stretched string of
(1) A is true but R is false. given length is 320 Hz then its first harmonic
(2) A is false but R is true. frequency is:
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) 320 Hz (2) 640 Hz
explanation of A. (3) 160 Hz (4) 80 Hz
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
35. Suppose internal energy of an ideal diatomic gas at
explanation of A.
volume V and pressure P is 3PV. If gas expands
from 2 litre to 2.5 litre at a constant pressure of 2
30. Consider a particle moving on a x-y plane along path atm then heat supplied to gas is:
as shown in in figure starting from point O at t = 0. (1) 200 J
At which of the following points, instantaneous (2) 250 J
velocity and average velocity will be in same (3) 400 J
directions; (4) 300 J

36. The dynamic resistance between 0.8 V – 0.9 V for

the given semiconductor is;

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

31. A Carnot engine working between 300 K and

600 K has a work output of 250 J per cycle. The
amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from
(1) 20 
the source in each cycle is: (2) 10 
(1) 800 J (2) 250 J (3) 5 
(3) 500 J (4) 300 J (4) 0.02 
[5]
37. Radius of gyration of a thin uniform rod of length l 42. Suppose a stone is rotated in a vertical circle using
about an axis passing through its centre and long massless string of length l. If its speed at
perpendicular to its length is: bottom most point is 8gl , then ratio of tension in
l string during top and the bottom position of stone
(1)
2 3 is:
(2) 0.5l (1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
l (3) 2 : 5 (4) 5 : 2
(3)
3
l 43. Match List-I with List-II.
(4)
2 List-I List-II
(Physical quantity) (Dimensional
38. A mark at the bottom of liquid when viewed formula)
appears to rise by 0.2 m. The depth of the liquid is (A) universal (I) [L2T–2]
2 m. Find out the refractive index of the liquid. gravitational
7 constant
(1)
5
(B) escape velocity (II) [M–1L3T–2]
4
(2) (C) gravitational (III) [LT–2]
3
potential
6
(3) (D) acceleration due to (IV) [LT–1]
5
gravity
10
(4) Choose the correct answer from the options given
9
below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
39. A ray is incident at 30° incident angle on plane
mirror. What will be deviation of ray after (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
reflection from the mirror? (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(1) 150° (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) 60°

( )
(3) 30°
44. A force F = 4iˆ − 5 ˆj + 3kˆ N is acting on a point
(4) 120°
( )
r1 = 2iˆ + 4 ˆj + 3kˆ m. The torque acting about a
40. Magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance 20
is changed from 20 Wb to 40 Wb in 5 ms. Charge
(
point with position vector r2 = 4iˆ − 3kˆ m is: )
passed through the circuit during this time is: (1) Zero
(1) 1C (2) 42iˆ − 30 ˆj + 6kˆ Nm
(2) 2C (3) 42iˆ + 30 ˆj + 6kˆ Nm
(3) Zero
(4) 42iˆ + 30 ˆj − 6kˆ Nm
(4) 0.5C

41. Output of Boolean circuit as shown in figure in 45. Suppose a particle starting from rest, moves in
which inputs are A and B is: circular path of radius r meter with constant
angular acceleration. If it attains speed equal to 6
m/s in completing its 3 rounds, then magnitude of
its angular acceleration will be:
3 3
(1) rad/s2 (2) rad/s2
r r
(1) AB (2) AB + AB 3 5
(3) rad/s2 (4) rad/s2
(3) AB + AB (4) A + B + AB r 2 2r

[6]
 [VP AIR-2.15 | 12th & Dropper-NEET | 25-04-2025]
Full Syllabus

46. Given below are two statements: In the light of above statements, choose the correct
Statement I: In diamond each carbon is sp2 answer from the options given below:
hybridised. (1) A is true but R is false.
Statement II: In graphite each carbon is sp3 (2) A is false but R is true.
hybridised. (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the most explanation of A.
appropriate answer from the options given below: (4) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. explanation of A.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect. 52. Given below are two statements:
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Statement I: Silver sol is a negativity charged sol.
correct. Statement II: The range of diameter of colloidal
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are particles is 1 to 1000 Å.
incorrect. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
47. Most reactive alcohol towards Lucas reagent is: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) (2) incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(3) (4) (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
48. Which among the following solutions has maximum
pH at 25°C? 53. When the temperature of benzenediazonium
(1) 1 M HNO3 (2) 1 M NH4CN chloride salt solution is allowed to rise upto 283 K,
the salt gets hydrolysed to:
(3) 1 M NaCl (4) 1 M NaCN

(1) (2)
49. Amphoteric oxide among the following is:
(1) V2O5 (2) CrO
(3) Mn2O7 (4) CrO3 (3) (4)

50. Most acidic compound among the following is:

(1) HCOOH 54. A sample of 0.50 g of an organic compound was
(2) CH3COOH treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The
ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 mL of 0.5 M
(3) H2SO4. The residual acid required 60 mL of 0.5 M
solution of NaOH for neutralisation. The percentage
of the nitrogen in the compound is:
(4)
(1) 42% (2) 56%
(3) 68% (4) 36%
51. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R: 55. The correct formula of pyrophosphoric acid is:
Assertion A: A catalyst does not alter Gibbs energy (1) H4P2O7
G, of a reaction. (2) (HPO3)3
Reason R: A catalyst can catalyse both spontaneous (3) H3PO4
and non-spontaneous reactions. (4) H4P2O5

[7]
56. Species obtained when KMnO4 is decomposed at
513K are: (1) (2)
(1) K2MnO4, MnO2 and O2
(2) K2MnO4, MnO and O2 (3) (4)
(3) MnO2, MnO and Mn
(4) MnO2, MnO and O2
62. Given below are two statements:
57. Gold combines with cyanide in the presence of Statement I: All ketose monosaccharides are non-
oxygen and water to form the coordination entity: reducing sugars.
(1) [Au(CN)4]2– (2) [Au(CN)3]6– Statement II: Maltose is more commonly known as
milk sugar.
(3) [Au(CN)2]– (4) [Au(CN)4]6–
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
58. Which of the following compounds is most reactive
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
for SN1 pathway?
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(2)
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3)
63. The molarity of resulting solution obtain by diluting
(4) 1M, 2L aqueous glucose solution to 4L is:
(1) 0.25 M (2) 0.1 M
(3) 0.75 M (4) 0.5 M

59. Most acidic compound among the following is:

64. For which of the following processes, S is
positive?
(1) (2) CH3CH2OH (1) 2H(g) → H2 (g)
(2) H2O( ) → H2O(g)
(3) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) → PCl5 (g)
(4) I2 (g) → I2 (s)

(3) (4)
65. Among the following elements, which one has the
same oxidation state in all of its compounds?
(1) Mn (2) Mg
(3) Cl (4) O
60. The major product of the following reaction is:
CH3CH2CH2CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Jones reagent
→ 66. An example of disproportionation reaction among
(1) CH3CH2CH2CHO the following is:
(2) CH3CH2CH=CH2 (1) 2NO2 + 2NaOH → NaNO2 + NaNO3 + H2O

(3) CH3CH=CHCH3 (2) CaCO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + CO2

(4) CH3CH2CH2COOH (3) N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

(4) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
61. Consider the following reaction sequence:
67. Order of a reaction can never be:
(1) Zero (2) 2
The compound B is: (3) –1 (4) 1

[8]
68. The lowest ionization enthalpy among the following Choose the correct answer from the options given
is of: below:
(1) B (2) Be (1) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
(3) O (4) N (2) A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
(3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
69. Atomic number of an element having symbol Uno
(4) A-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III
is:
(1) 112 (2) 104
(3) 108 (4) 110 76. The value of Eo will be:
Cu/Cu +

(Given: Eo = x1V and Eo = x 2V )

70. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is Cu/Cu 2+ Cu + /Cu 2+
not possible? (1) 2x1 − x2 V (2) x2 − x1 V
1
(1) n = 2, = 1, m = 0, s = + (3) x1 − x2 V (4) 2x2 − x1 V
2
1
(2) n = 3, = 1, m = −1, s = − 77. The highest ligand field strength among the
2
following ligands is of:
1
(3) n = 1, = 0, m = 0, s = + (1) NH3 (2) Cl−
2
1 (3) CO (4) H2O
(4) n = 2, = 2, m = −1, s = −
2
78. Maximum number of atoms are present in:
71. Number of unpaired electron(s) present in B2 (1) 10 g He(g) (2) 4 g H2(g)
molecule is: (3) 16 g O(g) (4) 80 g Ca(s)
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) Zero (4) 3
79. Most stable carbocation among the following is:

72. Shape of XeO3 molecule is:

(1) Trigonal pyramidal (1) (2) (CH3 )3 C+
(2) V-shape
+
(3) T-shape
(3) CH2 =CH−CH2 (4)
(4) Trigonal planar

73. Reductive ozonolysis of Isobutylene gives:

80. During nitration of benzene using conc. HNO3 and
(1) Propanal and methanal
conc. H2SO4, the electrophile is:
(2) Acetone and methanal
(3) Acetone and CO2 (1) NO+2 (2) NO+
(4) Propanal and acetone (3) NO2 (4) NO

74. van’t Hoff factor of ethanoic acid in benzene is 81. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
nearly: Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) 1 (2) 0.5 Assertion A: Most of the reactions of fluorine are
(3) 2 (4) 1.5 exothermic.
Reason R: Fluorine has small size and form strong
75. Match List-I with List-II. bond with other elements.
List-I List-II
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
(A) Maximum electrons (I) 18
answer from the options given below:
in an orbital
(1) A is true but R is false.
(B) Maximum electrons (II) 2
(2) A is false but R is true.
in d-subshell
(C) Maximum electrons (III) 4 (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
in 3rd shell explanation of A.
(D) Maximum orbitals in (IV) 10 (4) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
2nd shell explanation of A.

[9]
82. The volume of water needed to prepare a saturated Choose the correct answer from the options given
solution of 2.334 g of BaSO4 at TK is nearly: below:
(Given: Ksp = 110−10 and molar mass of BaSO4 = (1) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
(2) A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
233.4 g mol–1)
(1) 1000 L (2) 1500 L (3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
(4) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
(3) 1200 L (4) 800 L

87. The correct formula for the coordination compound

83. Given below are two statements:
iron (III) hexacyanidoferrate (II) is:
Statement I: A reversible process takes finite time
for completion. (1) Fe3[Fe(CN)6 ]4
Statement II: Unit of entropy is Joule. (2) Fe[Fe(CN)6 ]
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (3) Fe2[Fe(CN)6 ]
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(4) Fe4[Fe(CN)6 ]3
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
88. How much electricity is required for the oxidation
incorrect.
of 1 mol of H2O to O2?
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) 2 × 96500 C
correct.
(2) 96500 C
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect. (3) 0.5 × 96500 C
(4) 4 × 96500 C
84. 0.5 g of a non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 50 g of
benzene lowered the freezing point of benzene by 89. The pH of a resulting solution obtained by diluting
0.20°C. The molar mass of the solute is: 0.1 M, 100 mL NaCl solution to 1000 mL solution
(Given: Kf = 5.12 K kg mol–1) will be:
(1) 200 g mol–1 (2) 112 g mol–1 (1) 5
(3) 256 g mol–1 (4) 294 g mol–1 (2) 6
(3) 7
85. Consider the following statements regarding (4) 8
chloroform:
A. It is used in the production of the freon 90. Match List-I with List-II.
refrigerant R-22. List-I List-II
B. It is used as an anaesthetic. (A) (I) Imine
C. It is slowly oxidized by air into poisonous gas
chloral.
The incorrect statement(s) is/are: (B) (II) Acetal
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C only (4) A, B and C (C) (III) Ketal

86. Match List-I with List-II. (D) (IV) Schiff’s

List-I List-II base
(Vitamins) (Deficiency diseases) Choose the correct answer from the options given
(A) Thiamine (I) Fissuring at corners below:
of mouth and lips (1) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
(B) Riboflavin (II) Convulsions (2) A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
(C) Pyridoxine (III) Bleeding gums (3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
(4) A-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III
(D) Ascorbic acid (IV) Loss of appetite

[10]
 [VP AIR-2.15 | 12th & Dropper-NEET | 25-04-2025]
Full Syllabus

91. Identify the wall layer of a microsporangium that 96. Which of the following is not true for Drosophila?
surrounds the sporogenous tissue and possesses (1) They could produce a large number of
dense cytoplasm in its cells. progeny flies in a single mating.
(1) Middle layer (2) Epidermis (2) They could be grown on simple synthetic
(3) Tapetum (4) Endothecium medium in the laboratory.
(3) They complete their life cycle in about two
92. In which of the following disorders, an affected weeks.
individual has rudimentary ovaries, lacks other (4) There is no clear differentiation of the sexes.
secondary sexual characters and has only 45
chromosomes? 97. Electrons from NADH produced in the
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome mitochondrial matrix during citric acid cycle are
(2) Turner’s syndrome oxidised in the ETS by;
(3) Thalassemia (1) complex I.
(4) Down's syndrome (2) cytochrome c oxidase.
(3) succinate dehydrogenase.
93. Pollen grains; (4) complex III.
(1) are generally spherical measuring about 25-50
micrometers in diameter. 98. Perispermic seeds are found in;
(2) can be stored for years in liquid nitrogen (1) beet.
(–160°C). (2) pea.
(3) have outer hard layer called the intine which (3) groundnut.
is made up of sporopollenin. (4) wheat.
(4) are well preserved as fossils due to the
presence of cellulose and pectin. 99. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
94. Given below are two statements: (A) Placenta forms a (I) Marigold
Statement I: Transfer of pollen grains from the ridge along the
anther to the stigma of another flower of the same ventral suture of
plant is called xenogamy. ovary
Statement II: Chasmogamous flowers produce (B) False septum present (II) Pea
assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinators. in ovary
In the light of the above statements, choose the (C) Multilocular ovary (III) Tomato
most appropriate answer from the options given (D) Single ovule in ovary (IV) Argemone
below: Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is below:
incorrect. (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
correct. (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
100. Out of 64 codons, for how many codons there is no
95. Identify the incorrect statements with respect to tRNA?
phenylketonuria. (1) Two
A. It is an example of pleiotropy. (2) Three
B. Phenotypic expression is characterised by (3) Four
mental retardation and increase in hair and (4) Five
skin pigmentation.
C. It is an autosomal dominant trait. 101. The largest known human gene;
D. Tyrosine is accumulated in the brain due to (1) has 3000 bases.
the lack of an enzyme that converts tyrosine to (2) is not yet known.
phenylalanine. (3) has 3164.7 million bases.
E. This is an inborn error of metabolism. (4) is dystrophin.
(1) A, E and C only (2) A and D only
(3) C, D and E only (4) B, C and D only
[11]
102. Which of the following statements is correct 109. Identify the incorrect statement about the type of
regarding double helix model of DNA? inflorescence shown below.
(1) The sugars of the polynucleotide chain project
outside from the backbone.
(2) Backbone is constituted by sugar-nitrogen
base.
(3) The two chains have anti-parallel polarity.
(4) Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine
(1) The diagram represents cymose inflorescence.
and cytosine is two.
(2) Main axis terminates in a flower.
(3) Flowers are borne in an acropetal order.
103. In lac operon, the product of which gene binds to
(4) Growth of main axis is limited.
operator and prevents RNA polymerase from
transcribing the operon?
110. In the chlorophyceae members, the flagellar
(1) Lac z (2) Lac y
number and position of insertions is;
(3) Lac a (4) Lac i
(1) 2-8 and apical. (2) 2 and lateral.
(3) 1 and apical. (4) 4 and lateral.
104. Cell walls form two thin overlapping shells, which
fit together as in a soap box in;
111. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(1) slime moulds. (2) diatoms.
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(3) dinoflagellates. (4) euglenoids.
Assertion: Greenhouse crops such as tomatoes and
bell peppers are grown in CO₂ enriched
105. Match List-I and List-II:
environments to increase yield.
List-I List-II
Reason: Increased CO₂ concentration enhances the
(A) Rhizopus (I) Extensively used in
rate of photosynthesis in C₃ plants, leading to
biochemical and
higher productivity and greater crop yield.
genetic work
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(B) Bladderwort (II) The bread mould
correct answer from the options given below:
(C) Trypanosoma (III) Insectivorous plant
(1) A is true but R is false.
(D) Neurospora (IV) Causes sleeping (2) A is false but R is true.
sickness (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Choose the correct answer from the options given explanation of A.
below: (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV correct explanation of A.
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III 112. The colour of chlorophyll b in the chromatogram
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV is;
(1) bright or blue green.
106. Mustard and cabbage belong to the family; (2) yellow-orange.
(1) Malvaceae. (3) yellow.
(2) Cruciferae. (4) yellow-green.
(3) Gramineae.
(4) Compositae. 113. C4 plants have all the following features, except
that they;
107. The fleshy edible part of the mango fruit is; (1) have special type of leaf anatomy.
(1) mesocarp. (2) epicarp. (2) tolerate higher temperatures.
(3) endosperm. (4) endocarp. (3) perform photorespiration.
(4) have greater productivity of biomass than C3
108. All the following are true for red algae, except that; plants.
(1) they reproduce asexually by motile spores.
(2) they have r-phycoerythrin pigment in their 114. Ladybird is useful in controlling;
body. (1) fungi. (2) baculoviruses.
(3) the food is stored as floridean starch. (3) aphids. (4) arthropods.
(4) they usually reproduce vegetatively by
fragmentation.
[12]
115. In a dicot root, the conjuctive tissue lies between; 121. Commensalism is the population interaction in
(1) epidermis and cortex. which;
(2) endodermis and pericycle. (1) one species is benefitted and the other is
(3) xylem and phloem. neither benefitted nor harmed.
(4) cortex and endodermis. (2) one species is benefitted and other is harmed.
(3) both species are benefitted.
116. Kelps are; (4) both species are harmed.
(1) red algae.
(2) profusely branched algae. 122. Cristae are infoldings of;
(3) green algae. (1) outer mitochondrial membrane.
(4) primarily fresh-water algae. (2) inner mitochondrial membrane.
(3) plasma membrane.
117. Given below are two statements: (4) cell wall.
Statement I: Statins produced by the yeast
Trichoderma polysporum have been commercialised 123. When the centromere in a chromosome is located
as blood-cholesterol lowering agents. close to its end, the chromosome is called;
Statement II: Lipases are used in detergent (1) metacentric.
formulations and are helpful in removing oily (2) sub-metacentric.
stains from the laundry. (3) acrocentric.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (4) telocentric.
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 124. Diakinesis of prophase I does not involve;
incorrect. (1) terminalisation of chiasmata.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) disappearance of nucleolus.
correct. (3) breakdown of nuclear envelope.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) formation of synaptonemal complex.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
125. Given below are two statements:
118. The enzyme invertase catalyses the conversion of; Statement I: Glycolysis occurs in the
(1) sucrose into glucose and fructose. mitochondria of the cell and is present in all living
(2) 1,3 bisphosphoglyceric acid into 3- organisms.
phosphoglyceric acid. Statement II: Pyruvic acid is the key product of
(3) phosphoenol pyruvate into pyruvic acid. glycolysis.
(4) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate into DHAP. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below :
119. The loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to; (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) decreased variability in pest and disease cycle. incorrect.
(2) lowered resistance to environmental (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
perturbations such as drought. correct.
(3) decreased variability in water use. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) increase in plant production. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
120. Identify the incorrect statements from the following:
A. The heterotrophic organisms involved in the 126. In grasses, bulliform cells are not;
detritus food chain are mainly fungi and (1) large sized.
bacteria. (2) empty cells.
B. Decomposers in detritus food chain are also (3) present on abaxial epidermis.
known as autotrophs. (4) colourless.
C. Decomposers meet their energy and nutrient
requirements by degrading dead organic 127. How many organisms from the given list are
matter or detritus. included in order Primata?
D. The natural interconnection of food webs Monkey, dog, cat, gorilla, gibbon, leopard
makes a food chain. (1) Three (2) Four
(1) A and D (2) B and D (3) Five (4) Six
(3) B and C (4) A and C
[13]
128. Match List-I with List-II. 132. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(A) IBA (I) Ethylene (A) Marshall (I) Proposed a scheme for
(B) NAA (II) Synthetic auxin Nirenberg DNA replication
(C) Inhibitor-B (III) Later named as (B) Frederick (II) Developed the technique
abscisic acid Sanger of DNA Fingerprinting
(D) Volatile PGR (IV) Natural auxin (C) Alec (III) Developed method for
Choose the correct answer from the options given Jeffreys determination of amino
below: acid sequences in proteins
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (D) Watson (IV) Developed cell free system
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV and Crick for protein synthesis
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
129. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Saving the entire forest to save the 133. The phytohormone that helps seeds to withstand
tiger is a type of ex situ conservation strategy. desiccation and other factors unfavourable for
Reason R: In ex situ conservation, threatened growth is;
animals and plants are taken out from their natural (1) ethylene.
habitat and placed in special setting where they can (2) gibberellin.
be protected and given special care. (3) cytokinin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) ABA.
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false. 134. A sparrow is a _____ consumer when it eats seeds,
(2) A is false but R is true. fruits, peas, and a _____ consumer when it eats
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct insects and worms.
explanation of A. (1) primary; secondary
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the (2) secondary; tertiary
correct explanation of A. (3) secondary; primary
(4) tertiary; secondary
130. A species, restricted to a small geographical area,
expands its distributional range when the 135. Which of the following is not true about the
competing species is experimentally removed. This growth curve given in the below graph?
is the observation of;
(1) resource partitioning.
(2) competitive release.
(3) interference competition.
(4) competitive exclusion.

131. During anaphase I of meiosis;

(1) homologous chromosomes separate.
(1) The growth curve is known as sigmoid growth
(2) non-homologous chromosomes join each
curve.
other.
(2) It is a characteristic of living organism
(3) sister chromatids of a chromosome separate.
growing in a natural environment.
(4) non-sister chromatids of homologous
(3) Nutrient supply is unlimited here.
chromosomes join each other.
(4) The growth curve represents geometric growth.

[14]
 [VP AIR-2.15 | 12th & Dropper-NEET | 25-04-2025]
Full syllabus

136. Match List-I with List-II regarding cockroaches. In the light of the above statements, choose the
List-I List-II correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Phallomere (I) Capsule in which (1) A is true but R is false.
fertilized eggs are (2) A is false but R is true.
encased (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(B) Spermatophores (II) Also called vagina explanation of A.
(C) Median oviduct (III) Discharge during (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
copulation explanation of A.
(D) Oothecae (IV) Chitinous asymmetrical
structures surrounding 142. Read the following statements.
the male gonopore A. Oxygen is carried by haemoglobin.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
B. Carbonic anhydrase helps in transportation of
below:
oxygen.
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. CO2 is carried by haemoglobin in the form of
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I carbamino-haemoglobin.
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV D. Only oxygen is transported by the blood.
E. Only CO2 is transported by the blood.
137. The atrial systole causes; Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) 60% increase in blood flow from atria to (1) A and D (2) B and C
ventricle. (3) D and E (4) A and C
(2) 30% blood flow from ventricle to atria.
(3) 30% increase in blood flow from atria to 143. Match the List-I with List-II.
ventricle. List-I List-II
(4) 30% increase in blood flow from ventricle to (A) Wings of birds and (I) Saltation
atria. butterfly
(B) Australian marsupials (II) Darwin’s
138. Urine of a human being suffering from diabetes
Finches
insipidus is;
(C) Galapagos island (III) Adaptive
(1) Highly concentrated
(2) Highly diluted radiation
(3) Highly acidic with ketone bodies (D) Single step large (IV) Convergent
(4) Highly concentrated with excess proteins. mutation evolution
Choose the correct answer from the options given
139. Constituents of blood which remains unchanged in below.
concentration after circulating through the kidney (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
are: (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(1) urea and uric acid. (3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(2) urea and proteins. (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) urea and glucose.
(4) glucose and protein. 144. What of the following statement is not true
regarding A-band in a myofibril?
140. What is the primary role of peptide bonds in (1) Middle part contains M-line.
proteins? (2) Length remains constant during the muscle
(1) To store genetic information contraction.
(2) To link amino acids into polypeptide chains
(3) Includes H-zone.
(3) To catalyze biochemical reactions
(4) Has thick filaments only.
(4) To provide energy for cellular processes
145. Which of the following organ systems jointly
141. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
coordinate and integrate all the activities of the body
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
organs?
Assertion A: Bacteria like Streptococcus
pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are (1) Neural system and sensory system
responsible for the disease pneumonia in humans. (2) Digestive system and respiratory system
Reason R: They infect the nose and respiratory (3) Neural system and endocrine system
passage but not the lungs. (4) Circulatory system and respiratory system.

[15]
146. Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) is a thyroid hormone which; 150. Read the following statements (A-E)
(1) elevates calcium level in blood. A. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle left in
(2) has no effect on calcium. ovary is first converted to corpus albicans.
(3) elevates potassium level in blood. B. The secondary oocyte forms a thick coat
(4) lower calcium level in blood. around itself called zona pellucida.
C. The primary oocytes are surrounded by a single
layer of follicular cells.
147. Given below are two statements:
D. The primary oocyte (2n) within the tertiary
Statement I: The female reproductive system
follicle grows in size and completes its first
consists of an ovary alongwith a pair of oviducts, meiotic division.
uterus, cervix, vagina and the external genitalia E. The tertiary follicle is characterised by a fluid
located in pelvic region. filled cavity antrum.
Statement II: Humans are sexually reproducing Which of the above statements are true?
and viviparous. (1) B and C only (2) C and D only
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (3) B, C, D and E (4) A, B and C
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 151. If kidney fail to reabsorb water, the effect on tissue
incorrect. would be:
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) Swelling due to water retention
correct. (2) Dehydration due to excessive water loss
(3) Increased blood pressure due to fluid overload
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) No significant effect on body tissues
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
152. Match List-I with List-II.
148. The four sketches (a, b, c and d) given below List-I List-II
represent four different types of animal tissues. (A) Dendrites (I) Transmit nerve impulses
Which one of these is correctly identified in the towards the cell body
options given along with its correct location and (B) Axon (II) Bulb like
function? (C) Synaptic (III) Transmit nerve impulses
knob away from the cell body
(D) Nodes of (IV) Gap between two
Ranvier adjacent myelin sheath
(a) (b) Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(c) (d)
153. Select the correct match.
Organism Characteristic feature
Tissue Location Function (1) Euspongia External fertilisation
(1) (b) Glandular Alimentary Secretion (2) Adamsia Stinging cells on tentacles
epithelium canal (3) Pleurobrachia Exhibit metagenesis
(2) (c) Squamous Cartilage Attach skeletal (4) Nereis Presence of hooks and suckers
epithelium muscles to
bones 154. Which of the following is best suited as X-axis in
(3) (d) Smooth Heart Heart the given below graph of enzymatic action?
muscle tissue contraction
(4) (a) Columnar Nephron Secretion and
epithelium absorption

149. In recombinant DNA technology, a plasmid vector

should be cleaved by;
(1) modified DNA ligase. (1) pH
(2) a heated alkaline solution. (2) Temperature
(3) the same enzyme that cleaves donor DNA. (3) Substrate concentration
(4) different enzyme that cleaved the donor DNA. (4) Velocity of reaction
[16]
155. Match List-I with List-II. 159. Read the given statements.
List-I List-II A. Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)
during first trimester is generally safe.
(A) Exocoetus (I) Rohu
B. Generally, chances of conception are nil until
(B) Pterophyllum (II) Fighting fish mother breastfeeds the infant up to two years.
(C) Betta (III) Flying fish C. Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective
(D) Labeo (IV) Angel fish contraceptives.
Choose the correct answer from the options given D. Contraception pills may be taken up to one
week after coitus to prevent conception.
below:
Which two of the above statements are correct?
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A and C (2) A and B
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) B and C (4) C and D
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 160. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Origin of replication (ori) is a
156. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t
sequence from where replication starts.
smack? Reason R: This sequence is also responsible for
(1) It is chemically diethyl morphine. controlling the copy number of the linked DNA.
(2) It is a white, odourless, bitter, crystalline In the light of above statements, choose the correct
compound. answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) It is generally taken by snorting or injection.
explanation of A.
(4) It is a depressant and slows down body functions. (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.
157. Match List-I with List-II. (3) A is true but R is false.
List-I List-II (4) A is false but R is true.
(A) Alkaloid (I) Vinblastine
161. In a standard ECG, the segment between end of T-
(B) Essential oil (II) Codeine wave and starting of P-wave represent;
(C) Toxin (III) Lemon grass oil (1) atrial systole.
(D) Drug (IV) Ricin (2) ventricular systole.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) ventricular diastole.
(4) joint diastole.
below.
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 162. Select the incorrect match.
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (1) Transgenic mice → Testing of Polio vaccine
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV safety
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) Rosie cow → α lactalbumin gene
(3) ss DNA/RNA probe → Gene therapy
158. Given below are two statements: (4) PCR → Molecular diagnosis
Statement I: Plasmids and bacteriophages have the
163. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
ability to replicate within bacterial cells independent Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
of the control of chromosomal DNA. Assertion A: The mammary glands of females do
Statement II: The separated DNA fragments in gel not undergo differentiation during pregnancy and
electrophoresis can be visualised by directly start producing milk only after childbirth.
Reason R: Lactation helps the mother in feeding the
exposure to UV radiation.
newborn by providing essential nutrients and
In the light of the above statements, choose the most immunity.
appropriate answer from the options given below: In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is correct answer from the option given below:
incorrect. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
correct.
explanation of A.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (4) A is true but R is false.

[17]
164. Cry gene which synthesize crystaline insecticidal 169. Choose the correct statement w.r.t origin of life.
proteins is isolated from; (1) Universe is almost 2.5 billion years old.
(1) Bacillus thuriengensis (2) Earth was formed about 3.5 billion years back.
(2) Rhizobium (3) Life appeared 200 million years after the
(3) Meloidegyne incognitia formation of earth.
(4) E.coli (4) Oparin and Haldane proposed that the first life
could have come from pre-existing non – living
165. Which of the following statements are incorrect organic molecule.
w.r.t Frog?
A. The body cavity of frog accommodates 170. Given below are two statements:
digestive, circulatory, respiratory system but Statement I: Innate immunity is non-specific type
lack nervous system. of defence.
B. The mouth opens into the buccal cavity that Statement II: The T-cells themselves do not secrete
leads to the pharynx through oesophagus. antibodies but help B cells to produce them.
C. The vascular system is closed type. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
D. They are ureotelic animal. appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A and C (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) B and D (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) A and B incorrect.
(4) C and D (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
166. A transgenic rice (golden rice) has been developed
for increased content of;
171. All the given situations favour the dissociation of
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B1
oxyhaemoglobin except;
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D
(1) Increased partial pressure of O2.
(2) Increased partial pressure of CO2.
167. Red muscle fibres differ from white muscle fibres
(3) Increased concentration of H+.
as;
(4) Decreased partial pressure of O2.
(1) former contains large quantities of oxygen
binding pigment haemoglobin.
(2) latter has large amount of sarcoplasmic
172. Nervous system differs from endocrine system
reticulum than former.
because in the former;
(3) former are unbranched and multinucleated
(1) transmission of information is comparatively
while latter are not.
slower.
(4) latter are responsible for aerobic respiration (2) response is comparatively slower.
while former udergo only anaerobic (3) response is of longer duration.
respiration. (4) response is limited to only those cells which are
innervated by neurons.
168. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: 173. Given below are two statements:
Assertion A: India was amongst the first countries Statement I: The midbrain is located between the
in the world to initiate action plans and thalamus/hypothalamus of the forebrain and
programmes at a national level to attain total medulla of the hindbrain.
reproductive health as a social goal. Statement II: Cerebellum has very convoluted
Reason R: RCH programme was initiated in our surface in order to provide the additional space for
country in 1951. many more neurons.
In the light of the above statements, choose the In the light of the above statements, choose the most
correct answer from the options given below: appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
explanation of A. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct incorrect.
explanation of A. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) A is true but R is false. correct.
(4) A is false but R is true. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
[18]
174. Match List-I with List-II w.r.t organisms and their 178. Gamete intra fallopian transfer involves;
respective characteristics. A. collection of ovum from donor.
List-I List-II B. transfer of ovum collected from a donor and
(A) Pila (I) Flame cells sperms from husband/donor into the fallopian
(B) Bombyx (II) Comb plates tube of recipient female.
(C) Pleurobrachia (III) Radula C. zygote or early embryos transferred into the
(D) Taenia (IV) Malpighian tubules fallopian tube.
Choose the correct answer from option given D. fertilization in-vivo.
below:
E. fertilization in-vitro.
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(1) A, C and D
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A, B and D
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, C-I (3) A and D only
(4) A, B and C
175. Choose the correct statement from the options
given below. 179. In the given diagram, identify what is depicted by
(1) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joint labelled parts A, B and C?
causes their inflammation.
(2) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic
vertebrae.
(3) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a
fibrous joint.
(4) A decrease level of progesterone causes
osteoporosis in old peoples.

176. Choose the correct statement with respect to human

evolution.
(1) Neanderthal man and Homo habilis were living
at the same time.
(2) Australopithecines was living in Australia.
(3) Homo erectus had a larger brain capacity than
Neanderthal man.
(4) Extinct human ancestor who ate only fruits and (1) A-Air going out from lungs, B-Ribs and
hunted with stone weapons was sternum relaxed, C-Volume of thorax
Australopithecines. increased
(2) A-Air entering lungs, B-Ribs and sternum
177. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as relaxed, C-Volume of thorax increased
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
(3) A-Air entering lungs, B-Ribs and sternum
Assertion A: Blood clotting is a cascade process
raised, C-Volume of thorax increased
that involves a series of linked enzymatic reactions.
Reason R: Clotting factors are present in plasma in (4) A-Air going out from lungs, B-Ribs and
an inactive state and get activated sequentially sternum relaxed, C-Volume of thorax
during the process. decreased
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. 180. The appearance of albumin in the urine is most
(1) A is true but R is false. likely due to;
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) increase in blood pressure.
explanation of A.
(2) decrease in the blood osmotic pressure.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(3) damage to the Malpighian corpuscles.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A. (4) damage to the proximal convoluted tubules.
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