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4. Which of the following is the longest written Con-

stitution in the world?
a) United States
b) United Kingdom
c) India
• Total No. Of Questions – 2000 d) Canada

• For free notes & material: click here!! 5. Who is known as the ‘Father of the Indian Consti-
tution’?
• This is the question practice PDF that can a) Mahatma Gandhi
be used to enhance your static factual b) Jawaharlal Nehru
knowledge for the examination. c) B.R. Ambedkar
d) Sardar Patel
• Only questions are provided in this PDF.
6. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution deals
• The reason for not providing explanations with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
and answers is to encourage you to solve a) First Schedule
these questions at home, which will boost b) Second Schedule
your knowledge and prevent you from just
c) Third Schedule
looking at the answers and moving on.
d) Fourth Schedule
• This PDF can be used for:
▪ AFCAT exam factual data practice 7. What is the term duration of the members of the
▪ NDA exam factual data practice Rajya Sabha?
▪ CDS exam factual data practice a) 4 years
▪ CAPF exam factual data practice b) 5 years
▪ Indian Coast Guard Assistant exam factual
c) 6 years
data practice
d) 7 years

8. Who has the authority to amend the Constitution

INDIAN POLITY of India?

a) President
b) Parliament
1. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with c) Supreme Court
Fundamental Rights? d) Prime Minister
a) Part I
b) Part III 9. Under which Article is the President’s rule im-
c) Part IV posed in a state in India?
d) Part V a) Article 352
b) Article 356
2. How many Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by c) Article 360
the Indian Constitution? d) Article 365
a) 6
b) 7 10. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
c) 8 the Directive Principles of State Policy?
d) 9 a) Part II
b) Part III
3. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes c) Part IV
untouchability? d) Part V
a) Article 14
b) Article 15 11. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides
c) Article 16 for the establishment of the Election Commission?
d) Article 17 a) Article 315
b) Article 320
c) Article 324
RAHUL SHARMA 1
d) Article 330 b) Article 20
c) Article 21
12. How many types of emergencies are envisaged by d) Article 22
the Indian Constitution?
a) One 20. How many members can the President nominate
b) Two to the Rajya Sabha?
c) Three a) 10
d) Four b) 12
c) 14
13. Which Article of the Constitution guarantees the d) 16
Right to Education?
a) Article 19 21. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty
b) Article 21A under the Indian Constitution?
c) Article 24 a) To uphold and protect the sovereignty of India
d) Article 29 b) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
c) To protect the natural environment
14. What is the maximum gap allowed between two d) To vote in elections
sessions of Parliament?
a) 3 months 22. Under which Article can the President declare a
b) 4 months Financial Emergency?
c) 6 months a) Article 352
d) 9 months b) Article 356
c) Article 360
15. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals d) Article 365
with the appointment of the Prime Minister and
other Ministers? 23. Who was the first President of independent In-
a) Article 74 dia?
b) Article 75 a) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Article 76 b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d) Article 77 c) S. Radhakrishnan
d) C. Rajagopalachari
16. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
a) Prime Minister 24. Which constitutional amendment is known as the
b) President ‘Mini Constitution’?
c) Lok Sabha a) 24th Amendment
d) Supreme Court b) 36th Amendment
c) 42nd Amendment
17. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the d) 44th Amendment
Right to Constitutional Remedies?
a) Article 32 25. What is the minimum age for election to the Lok
b) Article 33 Sabha?
c) Article 34 a) 18 years
d) Article 35 b) 21 years
c) 25 years
18. The power to prorogue the Parliament rests with d) 30 years
which authority?
a) Prime Minister 26. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals
b) President with the administration and control of Scheduled Ar-
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha eas and Scheduled Tribes?
d) Vice President a) Fifth Schedule
b) Sixth Schedule
19. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals c) Seventh Schedule
with the protection of life and personal liberty? d) Eighth Schedule
a) Article 19
RAHUL SHARMA 2
27. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals b) 4 years
with the functions of the Comptroller and Auditor c) 5 years
General of India? d) 6 years
a) Article 148
b) Article 149 35. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
c) Article 150 with the official language of the Union?
d) Article 151 a) Article 340
b) Article 341
28. Who has the power to promulgate ordinances c) Article 342
during the recess of Parliament? d) Article 343
a) Prime Minister
b) President 36. Which of the following is the supreme law-mak-
c) Chief Justice ing body in India?
d) Vice President a) Supreme Court
b) Parliament
29. Which of the following schedules of the Indian c) President
Constitution deals with the allocation of powers be- d) Prime Minister
tween the Union and States?
a) Second Schedule 37. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?
b) Third Schedule a) Vice President
c) Sixth Schedule b) President
d) Seventh Schedule c) Prime Minister
d) Speaker
30. Which Article provides for the appointment of a
Finance Commission? 38. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related
a) Article 275 to the Annual Financial Statement?
b) Article 280 a) Article 110
c) Article 290 b) Article 111
d) Article 300 c) Article 112
d) Article 113
31. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
Panchayats? 39. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?
a) Part IX a) Chief Justice of India
b) Part X b) Prime Minister
c) Part XI c) President
d) Part XII d) Law Minister

32. Who is the final interpreter of the Indian Consti- 40. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
tution? with the right to form associations or unions?
a) President a) Article 18
b) Parliament b) Article 19(1)(c)
c) Supreme Court c) Article 20
d) Prime Minister d) Article 21

33. Which Article of the Constitution of India pro- 41. Which constitutional body is responsible for the
vides for the establishment of the Supreme Court? delimitation of constituencies?
a) Article 124 a) Election Commission
b) Article 125 b) Finance Commission
c) Article 126 c) Delimitation Commission
d) Article 127 d) Law Commission

34. What is the tenure of the Governor of a state in 42. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empow-
India? ers the Parliament to form a new state by separation
a) 3 years of territory?
RAHUL SHARMA 3
a) Article 1
b) Article 2 50. Which part of the Indian Constitution is described
c) Article 3 as the 'Magna Carta' of India?
d) Article 4 a) Preamble
b) Part III
43. What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha? c) Part IV
a) 545 d) Part V
b) 552
c) 560 51. Which Amendment Act introduced Panchayati
d) 572 Raj institutions in India?
a) 71st Amendment Act
44. Which of the following is not a Fundamental b) 72nd Amendment Act
Right? c) 73rd Amendment Act
a) Right to Equality d) 74th Amendment Act
b) Right to Freedom of Religion
c) Right to Property 52. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings
d) Right against Exploitation against the President of India?
a) Prime Minister
45. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Commit- b) Vice President
tee of the Indian Constitution? c) Either House of Parliament
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad d) Chief Justice of India
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) B.R. Ambedkar 53. Which body is responsible for the distribution of
d) Sardar Patel taxes between the Center and the States?
a) Planning Commission
46. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with b) Finance Commission
the Union and its territory? c) NITI Aayog
a) Part I d) Comptroller and Auditor General
b) Part II
c) Part III 54. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
d) Part IV with the Right to Freedom of Religion?
a) Article 23
47. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals b) Article 24
with the Right to Education? c) Article 25
a) Article 21A d) Article 26
b) Article 22
c) Article 23 55. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
d) Article 24 Municipalities?
a) Part IX
48. Which constitutional amendment added the b) Part IXA
words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ to the Pre- c) Part X
amble? d) Part XI
a) 40th Amendment
b) 42nd Amendment 56. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
c) 44th Amendment with the establishment of the High Courts?
d) 45th Amendment a) Article 214
b) Article 215
49. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution con- c) Article 216
tains the provisions regarding disqualification of MPs d) Article 217
and MLAs on the ground of defection?
a) 8th Schedule 57. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sa-
b) 9th Schedule bha?
c) 10th Schedule a) President
d) 11th Schedule b) Vice President
RAHUL SHARMA 4
c) Prime Minister 65. Who was the first Vice President of independent
d) Speaker India?
a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
58. Which constitutional amendment introduced b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India? c) C. Rajagopalachari
a) 100th Amendment d) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) 101st Amendment
c) 102nd Amendment 66. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution deals
d) 103rd Amendment with the languages recognized by the Constitution?
a) Seventh Schedule
59. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empow- b) Eighth Schedule
ers the President to grant pardons? c) Ninth Schedule
a) Article 71 d) Tenth Schedule
b) Article 72
c) Article 73 67. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes
d) Article 74 the titles except military and academic distinctions?
a) Article 16
60. Which part of the Indian Constitution is related to b) Article 17
the Union Executive? c) Article 18
a) Part IV d) Article 19
b) Part V
c) Part VI 68. Which of the following Articles deals with the
d) Part VII protection and improvement of the environment?
a) Article 47
61. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides b) Article 48
for the separation of the judiciary from the execu- c) Article 48A
tive? d) Article 49
a) Article 48
b) Article 49 69. Which body is responsible for the implementa-
c) Article 50 tion of the provisions of the Official Languages Act,
d) Article 51 1963?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
62. Which body is responsible for the appointment of b) Ministry of Law and Justice
the Attorney General of India? c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
a) Prime Minister d) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
b) President
c) Chief Justice 70. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
d) Law Minister with the appointment of District Judges?
a) Article 230
63. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides b) Article 231
for the establishment of an Inter-State Council? c) Article 232
a) Article 261 d) Article 233
b) Article 262
c) Article 263 71. Which constitutional amendment reduced the
d) Article 264 voting age from 21 to 18 years?
a) 58th Amendment
64. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides b) 59th Amendment
for the right to constitutional remedies? c) 60th Amendment
a) Article 31 d) 61st Amendment
b) Article 32
c) Article 33 72. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is known
d) Article 34 as the 'Right to Equality'?
a) Article 14
b) Article 15
RAHUL SHARMA 5
c) Article 16 a) Article 15
d) Article 17 b) Article 16
c) Article 18
73. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empow- d) Article 19
ers the President to consult the Supreme Court?
a) Article 140 81. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
b) Article 141 the Union Territories?
c) Article 142 a) Part V
d) Article 143 b) Part VI
c) Part VII
74. Which of the following Articles is related to the d) Part VIII
formation of new states and alteration of areas,
boundaries or names of existing states? 82. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
a) Article 1 with the election of the Vice President?
b) Article 2 a) Article 63
c) Article 3 b) Article 64
d) Article 4 c) Article 65
d) Article 66
75. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
the Directive Principles of State Policy? 83. Which Amendment Act is known as the 'Anti-De-
a) Part I fection Law'?
b) Part II a) 51st Amendment Act
c) Part III b) 52nd Amendment Act
d) Part IV c) 53rd Amendment Act
d) 54th Amendment Act
76. Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
a) G.V. Mavalankar 84. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel with the powers of the President during an emer-
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad gency?
d) Jawaharlal Nehru a) Article 352
b) Article 353
77. Which of the following is a justiciable right in In- c) Article 354
dia? d) Article 355
a) Right to Property
b) Right to Education 85. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
c) Right to Constitutional Remedies the Fundamental Duties?
d) Right to Work a) Part III
b) Part IV
78. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides c) Part IVA
for the impeachment of the President? d) Part V
a) Article 56
b) Article 61 86. Which of the following is not a function of the
c) Article 62 Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)?
d) Article 63 a) Recruitment to civil services
b) Conducting examinations for All India services
79. Which constitutional body is responsible for the c) Advising the government on disciplinary matters
preparation of the electoral rolls in India? d) Framing policies for the civil services
a) Election Commission
b) Ministry of Home Affairs 87. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
c) Ministry of Law and Justice with the right against exploitation?
d) NITI Aayog a) Article 22
b) Article 23
80. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals c) Article 24
with the right to freedom of speech and expression? d) Article 25
RAHUL SHARMA 6
 95. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides
88. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals for the establishment of the High Courts in the
with the duties of the Comptroller and Auditor Gen- States?
eral of India? a) Article 214
a) Article 147 b) Article 215
b) Article 148 c) Article 216
c) Article 149 d) Article 217
d) Article 150
96. Which constitutional body is responsible for the
89. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with conduct of elections in India?
the State Executive? a) Parliament
a) Part V b) Election Commission
b) Part VI c) President
c) Part VII d) Supreme Court
d) Part VIII
97. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
90. Which of the following Articles deals with the with the right to constitutional remedies?
emergency provisions due to the failure of constitu- a) Article 31
tional machinery in states? b) Article 32
a) Article 352 c) Article 33
b) Article 356 d) Article 34
c) Article 360
d) Article 365 98. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
the Panchayats?
91. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with a) Part VIII
the allocation of powers between the Union and the b) Part IX
States? c) Part IXA
a) Part IX d) Part X
b) Part X
c) Part XI 99. Who was the first woman to become the Speaker
d) Part XII of the Lok Sabha?
a) Sarojini Naidu
92. Who appoints the Chief Minister of a State in In- b) Indira Gandhi
dia? c) Meira Kumar
a) President d) Sucheta Kriplani
b) Prime Minister
c) Governor 100. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
d) Chief Justice of India with the right to freedom of assembly?
a) Article 18
93. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits b) Article 19(1)(b)
discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, c) Article 20
sex or place of birth? d) Article 21
a) Article 14
b) Article 15 101. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
c) Article 16 the Directive Principles of State Policy?
d) Article 17 a) Part III
b) Part IV
94. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with c) Part V
the relations between the Union and the States? d) Part VI
a) Part X
b) Part XI 102. Which of the following Articles provides for the
c) Part XII right to freedom of profession, occupation, trade or
d) Part XIII business?
a) Article 15
RAHUL SHARMA 7
b) Article 16 110. Which of the following is not a function of the
c) Article 18 Finance Commission?
d) Article 19(1)(g) a) Distribution of tax revenues between the Union and
the States
103. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with b) Allocation of funds for centrally sponsored schemes
the Union Legislature? c) Grants-in-aid to the States
a) Part V d) Monitoring the fiscal performance of the States
b) Part VI
c) Part VII 111. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
d) Part VIII the Union Judiciary?
a) Part V
104. Which constitutional body is responsible for the b) Part VI
regulation of government accounts? c) Part VII
a) Ministry of Finance d) Part VIII
b) Comptroller and Auditor General
c) Finance Commission 112. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
d) Reserve Bank of India with the right to constitutional remedies?
a) Article 32
105. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with b) Article 33
the amendment of the Constitution? c) Article 34
a) Part XV d) Article 35
b) Part XVI
c) Part XVII 113. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
d) Part XX the formation of new states and alteration of areas,
boundaries or names of existing states?
106. Who was the first female judge of the Supreme a) Part I
Court of India? b) Part II
a) Justice M. Fathima Beevi c) Part III
b) Justice Leila Seth d) Part IV
c) Justice Ruma Pal
d) Justice Anna Chandy 114. Which of the following Articles deals with the
right to equality before the law?
107. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals a) Article 13
with the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the b) Article 14
President? c) Article 15
a) Article 73 d) Article 16
b) Article 74
c) Article 75 115. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
d) Article 76 the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
a) Part V
108. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with b) Part VI
the State Legislature? c) Part VII
a) Part V d) Part VIII
b) Part VI
c) Part VII 116. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
d) Part VIII with the right to assemble peacefully and without
arms?
109. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals a) Article 18
with the composition of the Parliament? b) Article 19(1)(b)
a) Article 79 c) Article 20
b) Article 80 d) Article 21
c) Article 81
d) Article 82 117. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
the Fundamental Duties?
RAHUL SHARMA 8
a) Part III b) Article 16
b) Part IV c) Article 18
c) Part IVA d) Article 19(1)(g)
d) Part V
125. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
118. Which of the following Articles deals with the with the right to freedom of religion?
right to form associations or unions? a) Article 23
a) Article 15 b) Article 24
b) Article 16 c) Article 25
c) Article 19(1)(c) d) Article 26
d) Article 21
126. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
119. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals the Union Territories?
with the right to equality of opportunity in matters a) Part V
of public employment? b) Part VI
a) Article 14 c) Part VII
b) Article 15 d) Part VIII
c) Article 16
d) Article 17 127. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
with the election of the Vice President?
120. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with a) Article 63
the Union and its territory? b) Article 64
a) Part I c) Article 65
b) Part II d) Article 66
c) Part III
d) Part IV 128. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
the Directive Principles of State Policy?
121. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals a) Part III
with the right to protection of life and personal lib- b) Part IV
erty? c) Part V
a) Article 19 d) Part VI
b) Article 20
c) Article 21 129. Which of the following Articles provides for the
d) Article 22 right to freedom of profession, occupation, trade or
business?
122. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with a) Article 15
the emergency provisions? b) Article 16
a) Part XVI c) Article 18
b) Part XVII d) Article 19(1)(g)
c) Part XVIII
d) Part XIX 130. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
the Union Legislature?
123. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals a) Part V
with the right to reside and settle in any part of the b) Part VI
country? c) Part VII
a) Article 15 d) Part VIII
b) Article 16
c) Article 19(1)(e) 131. Which constitutional body is responsible for the
d) Article 21 regulation of government accounts?
a) Ministry of Finance
124. Which of the following Articles deals with the b) Comptroller and Auditor General
right to practice any profession or to carry on any oc- c) Finance Commission
cupation, trade or business? d) Reserve Bank of India
a) Article 15
RAHUL SHARMA 9
132. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with a) Germany
the amendment of the Constitution? b) UK
a) Part XV c) France
b) Part XVI d) South Korea
c) Part XVII
d) Part XX 6. Which of the following exercises is a joint naval ex-
ercise between India and Singapore?
133. Who was the first female judge of the Supreme a) SIMBEX
Court of India? b) AUSINDEX
a) Justice M. Fathima Beevi c) RIMPAC
b) Justice Leila Seth d) MALABAR
c) Justice Ruma Pal
d) Justice Anna Chandy 7. Which of the following is an annual joint military
exercise between India and the United States?
134. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals a) Yudh Abhyas
with the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the b) Malabar
President? c) Cobra Gold
a) Article 73 d) Talisman Sabre
b) Article 74
c) Article 75 8. Exercise Hand-in-Hand is conducted between India
d) Article 76 and which country?
a) Japan

Indian Defence b) China

c) USA
1. Which country participates with India in the Mala- d) Russia
bar Exercise?
a) USA 9. Which of the following is a trilateral naval exercise
b) Russia involving India, Japan, and the United States?
c) China a) Malabar
d) France b) RIMPAC
c) INDRA
2. Varuna is a naval exercise between India and d) Varuna
which country?
a) Japan 10. SAMPREETI is a bilateral exercise between the ar-
b) Australia mies of India and which country?
c) France a) Sri Lanka
d) Singapore b) Bangladesh
c) Nepal
3. The joint military exercise 'Indra' is conducted be- d) Myanmar
tween India and which nation?
a) USA 11. What is the equivalent rank of a Captain in the In-
b) Russia dian Navy?
c) UK a) Lieutenant
d) Australia b) Commander
c) Captain
4. Exercise Garuda is an air exercise between India d) Lieutenant Commander
and which country?
a) Israel 12. Which is the highest rank in the Indian Army?
b) France a) Brigadier
c) USA b) General
d) Australia c) Major General
d) Lieutenant General
5. Exercise Shakti is a joint military exercise between
India and which country?
RAHUL SHARMA 10
13. What rank does an officer hold upon graduating d) Brigadier
from the National Defence Academy (NDA)?
a) Second Lieutenant 21. When was the Indian Air Force established?
b) Lieutenant a) 1932
c) Flying Officer b) 1947
d) Sub Lieutenant c) 1950
d) 1965
14. Which rank in the Indian Air Force is equivalent
to Rear Admiral in the Indian Navy? 22. What is the motto of the Indian Navy?
a) Group Captain a) Service Before Self
b) Air Commodore b) Touch the Sky with Glory
c) Air Vice Marshal c) May the Lord of the Oceans be Auspicious unto Us
d) Wing Commander d) Unity and Discipline

15. What is the entry-level rank for a commissioned 23. Which is the largest command of the Indian
officer in the Indian Navy? Army?
a) Ensign a) Northern Command
b) Lieutenant b) Southern Command
c) Sub Lieutenant c) Eastern Command
d) Midshipman d) Western Command

16. Which of the following ranks is the lowest in the 24. Which was the first aircraft inducted into the In-
Indian Army? dian Air Force?
a) Sepoy a) MiG-21
b) Havildar b) HF-24 Marut
c) Lance Naik c) Westland Wapiti
d) Naik d) Dassault Mirage 2000

17. What is the equivalent rank of an Air Marshal in 25. Which naval ship is the flagship of the Indian
the Indian Army? Navy?
a) Major General a) INS Vikrant
b) Lieutenant General b) INS Viraat
c) General c) INS Vikramaditya
d) Brigadier d) INS Arihant

18. What rank follows Lieutenant Commander in the 26. Who is the current Chief of the Army Staff (as of
Indian Navy? 2024)?
a) Commander a) General Bipin Rawat
b) Captain b) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
c) Commodore c) General Manoj Pande
d) Rear Admiral d) General Anil Chauhan

19. Which of the following is not a rank in the Indian 27. Which aircraft is infamous as the "Flying Coffin"
Air Force? in the Indian Air Force?
a) Wing Commander a) MiG-21
b) Major General b) Sukhoi Su-30MKI
c) Air Chief Marshal c) Dassault Mirage 2000
d) Group Captain d) Jaguar

20. Which rank in the Indian Army is equivalent to 28. What is the primary role of the INS
Wing Commander in the Indian Air Force? Vikramaditya?
a) Major a) Submarine Warfare
b) Colonel b) Air Defence
c) Lieutenant Colonel
RAHUL SHARMA 11
c) Aircraft Carrier b) Bofors FH77
d) Mine Sweeping c) Dhanush
d) K9 Vajra
29. Which is not an Indian Army unit?
a) Rajput Regiment 37. Which Indian-made fighter aircraft is used by the
b) Gurkha Regiment Indian Air Force?
c) Ahir Regiment a) MiG-21
d) Maratha Light Infantry b) Sukhoi Su-30MKI
c) Tejas
30. Which squadron of the Indian Air Force is known d) Rafale
as the "Tigers"?
a) No. 1 Squadron 38. Which of the following is a nuclear-powered sub-
b) No. 7 Squadron marine of the Indian Navy?
c) No. 17 Squadron a) INS Chakra
d) No. 45 Squadron b) INS Sindhurakshak
c) INS Arihant
31. Which is the main battle tank of the Indian Army? d) INS Sindhuvir
a) T-72
b) T-90 39. Which surface-to-air missile system is being de-
c) Arjun veloped by DRDO for the Indian Armed Forces?
d) Vijayanta a) Akash
b) Barak 8
32. Which fighter jet was recently inducted into the c) Prithvi
Indian Air Force from France? d) Nag
a) Rafale
b) SU-30 MKI 40. Which radar system is used by the Indian Air
c) MiG-29 Force for long-range surveillance?
d) Tejas a) Swordfish
b) Rajendra
33. Which missile is India's first intercontinental bal- c) Rohini
listic missile (ICBM)? d) Arudhra
a) Agni-V
b) Prithvi-II 41. Who is the supreme commander of the Indian
c) BrahMos Armed Forces?
d) Nirbhay a) Prime Minister
b) Defence Minister
34. Which ship is India's first indigenous aircraft car- c) President
rier? d) Chief of Defence Staff
a) INS Viraat
b) INS Vikramaditya 42. Which command of the Indian Army is responsi-
c) INS Vikrant ble for the western border?
d) INS Vishal a) Northern Command
b) Eastern Command
35. Which is the primary helicopter used by the In- c) Western Command
dian Navy for anti-submarine warfare? d) Southern Command
a) HAL Dhruv
b) Kamov Ka-31 43. Where is the headquarters of the Indian Navy lo-
c) Westland Sea King cated?
d) Boeing AH-64 Apache a) Mumbai
b) New Delhi
36. Which artillery gun has been recently inducted c) Kochi
into the Indian Army? d) Visakhapatnam
a) M777 Howitzer

RAHUL SHARMA 12
44. What is the primary role of the Air Force Station
Hindon? 52. Which is the primary training institution for In-
a) Training dian Air Force officers?
b) Logistics a) National Defence Academy
c) Operational b) Air Force Academy
d) Maintenance c) Flying Training School
d) College of Air Warfare
45. Which of the following is a tri-services command
of the Indian Armed Forces? 53. Which naval training institution is located in
a) Northern Command Ezhimala, Kerala?
b) Southern Command a) INS Shivaji
c) Andaman and Nicobar Command b) Naval War College
d) Central Command c) INS Venduruthy
d) Indian Naval Academy
46. Who heads the Indian Air Force?
a) Air Chief Marshal 54. which is not a premier training institute for
b) Air Marshal trainee commissioned officers?
c) Air Vice Marshal a) Officers Training Academy
d) Wing Commander b) Air Force Academy
c) Indian Military Academy
47. Which unit in the Indian Army is responsible for d) Rashtriya Military School
engineering and construction tasks?
a) ASC 55. Which institution conducts the initial training for
b) EME Indian Navy officers?
c) Corps of Engineers a) INS Chilka
d) Artillery b) Naval Academy
c) Naval War College
48. What is the role of the Integrated Defence Staff d) Maritime Warfare Centre
(IDS)?
a) Operational Command 56. Where is the Defence Services Staff College lo-
b) Strategic Planning cated?
c) Training a) Hyderabad
d) Logistics b) Wellington
c) Mussoorie
49. Where is the Western Naval Command of the In- d) Shimla
dian Navy located?
a) Kochi 57. Which training establishment is known as the
b) Visakhapatnam ‘Cradle of the Indian Navy’?
c) Mumbai a) INS Shivaji
d) Karwar b) INS Valsura
c) Indian Naval Academy
50. Which organization is responsible for the tech- d) Naval Dockyard
nical and engineering support to the Indian Navy?
a) Naval Dockyard 58. Which Indian Air Force institution is located in
b) Naval Aviation Hyderabad?
c) Naval Armament Depot a) Flying Training School
d) Indian Naval Material Management Service b) Air Force Academy
c) College of Air Warfare
51. Where is the Indian Military Academy located? d) Technical Training School
a) Pune
b) Dehradun 59. Where is the Officers Training Academy (OTA) lo-
c) Chennai cated in Tamil Nadu?
d) Gaya a) Coimbatore
b) Chennai
RAHUL SHARMA 13
c) Madurai a) Yudh Seva Medal
d) Salem b) Vayu Sena Medal
c) Shaurya Chakra
60. What is the primary training institution for Indian d) Ati Vishisht Seva Medal
Army cadets sent from the National Defence Acad-
emy? 68. Which medal is awarded to Indian Navy person-
a) Indian Military Academy nel for exceptional devotion to duty?
b) Officers Training Academy a) Kirti Chakra
c) Junior Leaders Academy b) Shaurya Chakra
d) Infantry School c) Nau Sena Medal
d) Sena Medal
61. Which is the highest gallantry award in India?
a) Param Vir Chakra 69. Who among the following was awarded the
b) Maha Vir Chakra Ashoka Chakra posthumously for gallantry in 2020?
c) Ashoka Chakra a) ASI Babu Ram
d) Vir Chakra b) Lance Naik Nazir Ahmad Wani
c) Col. Santosh Babu
62. Which award is given for acts of gallantry in the d) Sepoy Vikas Singh
presence of the enemy in the Indian Navy?
a) Kirti Chakra 70. Which award is conferred for exemplary bravery
b) Shaurya Chakra away from the battlefield in the Indian Armed
c) Nau Sena Medal Forces?
d) Sena Medal a) Shaurya Chakra
b) Vir Chakra
63. Which is the peacetime equivalent of the Param c) Ashoka Chakra
Vir Chakra? d) Param Vir Chakra
a) Ashoka Chakra
b) Kirti Chakra 71. Who is known as the “Father of the Indian Air
c) Shaurya Chakra Force”?
d) Mahavir Chakra a) Arjan Singh
b) Subroto Mukerjee
64. Which medal is awarded for exceptional service c) Aspy Engineer
to the Indian Armed Forces? d) P.C. Lal
a) Vishisht Seva Medal
b) Ati Vishisht Seva Medal 72. Who was the first woman to fly a solo in the In-
c) Param Vishisht Seva Medal dian Air Force?
d) Sena Medal a) Gunjan Saxena
b) Bhawana Kanth
65. Who was the first recipient of the Param Vir c) Harita Kaur Deol
Chakra? d) Avani Chaturvedi
a) Major Somnath Sharma
b) Captain Vikram Batra 73. Who was the first Chief of Defence Staff of India?
c) Lt. Col. Ardeshir Tarapore a) General Bipin Rawat
d) Subedar Joginder Singh b) General Dalbir Singh Suhag
c) General VK Singh
66. Which award is given for outstanding service in d) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
the field of sports in the Indian Armed Forces?
a) Dhyanchand Award 74. Which officer led the Indian Peacekeeping Force
b) Khel Ratna in Sri Lanka?
c) Sena Medal a) General K. Sundarji
d) Naib Subedar Bana Singh Award b) Major General Harkirat Singh
c) General K. Krishna Rao
67. Which award is given for distinguished service of d) General AS Vaidya
a high order in the Indian Air Force?
RAHUL SHARMA 14
75. Who is the first woman to become an officer in d) Srividya Rajan
the Indian Navy?
a) Shubhangi Swaroop 83. Who is the first female officer to receive a gal-
b) Punita Arora lantry award in the Indian Army?
c) Prerna Deosthalee a) Mitali Madhumita
d) Alka Shukla b) Bhawana Kanth
c) Avani Chaturvedi
76. Which Air Chief Marshal received the Padma d) Shanti Tigga
Vibhushan for his services?
a) MoAF Arjan Singh 84. Which officer is known as India’s first woman
b) AM P.C. Lal combat aviator?
c) AM S.K. Mehra a) Gunjan Saxena
d) ACM N.A.K. Browne b) Bhawana Kanth
c) Harita Kaur Deol
77. Who was the first Indian to command a subma- d) Avani Chaturvedi
rine in the Indian Navy?
a) Cdr KS Subramanian 85. Who was the first woman to be inducted into the
b) Vice Admiral S.N. Kohli Indian Navy as a pilot?
c) Admiral Arun Prakash a) Shubhangi Swaroop
d) Admiral S.M. Nanda b) Seema Rao
c) Punita Arora
78. Which Indian Army General played a crucial role d) Alka Shukla
in the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War?
a) General Sam Manekshaw 86. Who was the first woman to lead an Indian Air
b) General J.N. Chaudhuri Force contingent during the Republic Day parade?
c) General S.H.F.J. Manekshaw a) Wing Commander Pooja Thakur
d) General K.S. Thimayya b) Squadron Leader Minty Agarwal
c) Flight Lieutenant Bhawana Kanth
79. Who was the first Indian woman to be awarded d) Flight Lieutenant Avani Chaturvedi
the Ashoka Chakra?
a) Neerja Bhanot 87. Which officer is the first woman to become a pi-
b) Kamlesh Kumari lot in the Indian Air Force?
c) Nirupama Pandey a) Bhawana Kanth
d) Bhavana Kasturi b) Avani Chaturvedi
c) Mohana Singh
80. Who was the first woman to lead an all-women d) Harita Kaur Deol
contingent of the Indian Army on Republic Day?
a) Captain Tanya Shergill 88. Who is the first female Admiral of the Indian
b) Captain Divya Ajith Kumar Navy?
c) Captain Swati Singh a) Punita Arora
d) Captain Anjana Bhaduria b) Surekha Suri
c) Shubhangi Swaroop
81. Who was the first female officer to receive the d) Asha Sinha
Sena Medal for gallantry?
a) CR Leena 89. Which female officer led the first all-women con-
b) Priya Jhingan tingent of the Indian Army during the Republic Day
c) Divya Ajith Kumar Parade?
d) Shanti Tigga a) Captain Tanya Shergill
b) Captain Divya Ajith Kumar
82. Which woman became the first helicopter pilot in c) Captain Bhavana Kasturi
the Indian Air Force? d) Captain Sandhya Mehla
a) Gunjan Saxena
b) Anny Divya 90. Who was the first woman to join the Indian
c) Harita Kaur Deol Army's Corps of Military Police?
RAHUL SHARMA 15
a) Shanti Tigga 98. Who was the first Indian to become the Chief of
b) Priya Jhingan the Naval Staff?
c) Bhavana Kasturi a) Admiral R.D. Katari
d) Anjana Bhaduria b) Admiral S.N. Kohli
c) Admiral A.K. Chatterji
91. What is the motto of the Indian Air Force? d) Admiral N. Krishnan
a) Service Before Self
b) Touch the Sky with Glory 99. Which aircraft is used by the Indian Air Force for
c) Victory in War airborne warning and control?
d) Honor and Glory a) C-130J Super Hercules
b) IL-76
92. Which command is responsible for the defense of c) Phalcon AWACS
India's northeastern borders? d) Boeing 737
a) Western Command
b) Eastern Command 100. What is the name of the Indian Navy's stealth
c) Northern Command destroyer class (Project 15B)?
d) Southern Command a) Visakhapatnam-class
b) Delhi-class
93. Where is the Air Force Academy located? c) Rajput-class
a) Hyderabad d) Shivalik-class
b) Bengaluru
c) Dehradun 101. Where is the Indian Naval Academy located?
d) Pune a) Mumbai
b) Kochi
94. Which missile system is developed jointly by In- c) Ezhimala
dia and Israel? d) Vishakhapatnam
a) Akash
b) Barak 8 102. Which institution is the premier leadership
c) BrahMos training institute for the Indian Army?
d) Nag a) Indian Military Academy
b) Defence Services Staff College
95. Which Indian Navy submarine was the first to be c) National Defence Academy
constructed in India? d) College of Defence Management
a) INS Kalvari
b) INS Arihant 103. Where is the Indian Army's Armoured Corps
c) INS Shalki Centre and School located?
d) INS Chakra a) Jabalpur
b) Pune
96. Who was the first woman to serve as the Director c) Ahmednagar
General of Military Hospital Service (MHS) in the In- d) Dehradun
dian Army?
a) Major General Madhuri Kanitkar 104. Which institution trains Indian Air Force cadets
b) Lieutenant General Punita Arora in air traffic control?
c) Major General Ruchi Sharma a) Air Force Academy
d) Air Marshal Sadhna Saxena Nair b) Air Traffic Control School
c) College of Air Warfare
97. Which radar system is primarily used by the In- d) Flying Training School
dian Navy for air and surface surveillance?
a) EL/M-2248 MF-STAR 105. Which is the primary training institution for
b) Rajendra Radar technical trades in the Indian Navy?
c) Rohini Radar a) INS Shivaji
d) Arudhra Radar b) INS Hamla
c) INS Valsura
d) INS Chilka
RAHUL SHARMA 16
 d) HPT-32 Deepak
106. Where is the Indian Army's Infantry School lo-
cated? 114. What is the Indian Navy's primary maritime re-
a) Pune connaissance aircraft?
b) Dehradun a) IL-38
c) Mhow b) P-8I Neptune
d) Jabalpur c) Tu-142
d) Dornier 228
107. Which institution trains Indian Navy officers in
Submarine Training School)? 115. Which Indian Army regiment is known for its
a) INS Satavahana role in the Battle of Rezang La?
b) Naval Academy a) Rajput Regiment
c) Maritime Warfare Centre b) Jat Regiment
d) INS Shivaji c) Punjab Regiment
d) Kumaon Regiment
108. Where is the Indian Air Force's Institute of Aero-
space Medicine located? 116. Which helicopter is used by the Indian Navy for
a) Hyderabad search and rescue operations?
b) New Delhi a) Chetak
c) Bengaluru b) Dhruv
d) Pune c) Kamov Ka-31
d) Sea King
109. Which institution is known as the "Cradle of
Leadership" in the Indian Army? 117. What is the primary role of the Indian Air
a) Indian Military Academy Force's MiG-29 aircraft?
b) Officers Training Academy a) Ground Attack
c) National Defence Academy b) Air Superiority
d) College of Defence Management c) Reconnaissance
d) Transport
110. Which training institution in the Indian Navy is
known for training electrical engineers? 118. Which is the oldest regiment in the Indian
a) INS Venduruthy Army?
b) INS Shivaji a) Madras Regiment
c) INS Valsura b) Sikh Regiment
d) INS Hamla c) Rajputana Rifles
d) Grenadiers
111. When was the Indian Navy founded?
a) 1947 119. Where is the Eastern Naval Command head-
b) 1950 quartered?
c) 1932 a) Chennai
d) 1612 b) Visakhapatnam
c) Kolkata
112. Which Indian Army unit is known as the 'Sav- d) Paradip
iours of Kashmir'?
a) Sikh Regiment 120. Which missile system is the primary surface-to-
b) Rajput Regiment air defense of the Indian Navy?
c) Dogra Regiment a) Barak 8
d) Jat Regiment b) Akash
c) Trishul
113. Which aircraft serves as the primary trainer for d) Nag
the Indian Air Force?
a) Pilatus PC-7
b) HAL HJT-16 Kiran
c) BAE Hawk
International Organizations
RAHUL SHARMA 17
 b) Geneva
1. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations c) The Hague
(UN) located? d) London
a) Geneva 9. What is the main purpose of the World Health Or-
b) New York City ganization (WHO)?
c) Vienna a) Regulate international trade
d) Paris b) Promote global health
c) Manage global financial stability
2. Which organization is known for its annual Human d) Protect intellectual property
Development Report?
a) World Bank 10. When was the United Nations Children's Fund
b) World Health Organization (UNICEF) established?
c) United Nations Development Programme a) 1919
d) International Monetary Fund b) 1945
c) 1946
3. In which year was the World Trade Organization d) 1950
(WTO) established?
a) 1945 11. Which international organization oversees global
b) 1960 financial stability and monetary cooperation?
c) 1980 a) World Bank
d) 1995 b) International Monetary Fund
c) Bank for International Settlements
4. Which international body is responsible for regu- d) International Finance Corporation
lating global postal services?
a) International Telecommunication Union 12. Where is the headquarters of the International
b) Universal Postal Union Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?
c) World Postal Organization a) Vienna
d) International Mail Union b) New York
c) Geneva
5. Where is the headquarters of the International d) Paris
Monetary Fund (IMF)?
a) Washington, D.C. 13. Which year marks the founding of the World
b) Brussels Bank?
c) London a) 1920
d) Tokyo b) 1944
c) 1965
6. How many member countries are part of the Euro- d) 1985
pean Union (EU)?
a) 25 14. Which organization is responsible for coordinat-
b) 27 ing international aviation regulations?
c) 30 a) International Civil Aviation Organization
d) 32 b) International Air Transport Association
c) International Transport Forum
7. Which organization publishes the World Economic d) World Tourism Organization
Outlook report?
a) World Bank 15. How many member countries does the North At-
b) International Monetary Fund lantic Treaty Organization (NATO) have?
c) World Economic Forum a) 28
d) United Nations Conference on Trade and Develop- b) 30
ment c) 32
d) 35
8. In which city is the International Court of Justice
(ICJ) located? 16. Which organization publishes the Global Compet-
a) New York itiveness Report?
RAHUL SHARMA 18
a) World Bank c) Bank for International Settlements
b) International Monetary Fund d) International Finance Corporation
c) World Economic Forum
d) United Nations Development Programme 24. Where is the headquarters of the International
Labour Organization (ILO)?
17. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations a) New York
Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization b) Geneva
(UNESCO)? c) Paris
a) London d) London
b) Paris
c) Rome 25. Which year marks the founding of the United Na-
d) Berlin tions (UN)?
a) 1919
18. In which year was the International Labour Or- b) 1939
ganization (ILO) established? c) 1945
a) 1919 d) 1955
b) 1945
c) 1960 26. Which organization is responsible for maintaining
d) 1972 international peace and security?
a) NATO
19. Which organization is responsible for promoting b) United Nations Security Council
international financial stability and economic cooper- c) International Criminal Court
ation? d) World Court
a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund 27. Where is the headquarters of the Food and Agri-
c) International Finance Corporation culture Organization (FAO)?
d) World Economic Forum a) Rome
b) Paris
20. Where is the headquarters of the World Trade Or- c) Geneva
ganization (WTO)? d) New York
a) New York
b) Brussels 28. When was the International Telecommunication
c) Geneva Union (ITU) established?
d) Tokyo a) 1847
b) 1865
21. Which year marks the establishment of the World c) 1919
Health Organization (WHO)? d) 1945
a) 1919
b) 1945 29. Which international organization monitors nu-
c) 1948 clear safety and security globally?
d) 1955 a) International Energy Agency
b) International Atomic Energy Agency
22. Which international organization is dedicated to c) International Nuclear Safety Group
eradicating hunger and improving nutrition and food d) International Atomic Safety Authority
security?
a) World Food Programme 30. Which organization publishes the World Develop-
b) Food and Agriculture Organization ment Report
c) International Fund for Agricultural Development a) World Economic Forum
d) United Nations Development Programme b) International Monetary Fund
c) United Nations Development Programme
23. Which international institution's primary role is d) World Bank
to promote global monetary cooperation?
a) World Bank 31. Where is the headquarters of the International
b) International Monetary Fund Criminal Court (ICC)?
RAHUL SHARMA 19
a) New York c) New York
b) Geneva d) Vienna
c) The Hague
d) London 39. Which international organization is primarily re-
sponsible for global monetary cooperation and finan-
32. Which year marks the founding of the United Na- cial stability?
tions Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization a) World Bank
(UNESCO)? b) International Monetary Fund
a) 1920 c) Bank for International Settlements
b) 1945 d) International Finance Corporation
c) 1955
d) 1960 40. When was the World Health Organization (WHO)
established?
33. Which international organization works to pro- a) 1919
mote safe, secure, and sustainable shipping? b) 1945
a) International Maritime Organization c) 1948
b) World Maritime Authority d) 1955
c) International Shipping Federation
d) Global Maritime Union 41. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP)?
34. Where is the headquarters of the International a) New York
Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)? b) Nairobi
a) New York c) Geneva
b) Rome d) Paris
c) Geneva
d) Paris 42. Which organization is responsible for promoting
international monetary cooperation?
35. Which organization is known for publishing the a) World Bank
annual Global Risks Report? b) International Monetary Fund
a) World Economic Forum c) International Finance Corporation
b) International Monetary Fund d) World Economic Forum
c) United Nations
d) World Bank 43. Which year marks the founding of the United Na-
tions Development Programme (UNDP)?
36. Which year marks the founding of the Organiza- a) 1945
tion for Economic Co-operation and Development b) 1950
(OECD)? c) 1965
a) 1948 d) 1975
b) 1958
c) 1961 44. Which international body governs the rules of
d) 1971 trade between nations?
a) World Trade Organization
37. Which organization publishes the annual World b) International Trade Centre
Investment Report? c) World Bank
a) World Bank d) International Monetary Fund
b) International Monetary Fund
c) United Nations Conference on Trade and Develop- 45. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations
ment High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)?
d) World Economic Forum a) Geneva
b) New York
38. Where is the headquarters of the International c) Brussels
Energy Agency (IEA)? d) Rome
a) Geneva
b) Paris
RAHUL SHARMA 20
46. Which organization publishes the Global Financial c) 1972
Stability Report? d) 1985
a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund 54. Which organization is known for the publication
c) Financial Stability Board of the World Energy Outlook?
d) International Finance Corporation a) International Energy Agency
b) World Bank
47. Which year marks the establishment of the Inter- c) International Monetary Fund
national Court of Justice (ICJ)? d) United Nations Development Programme
a) 1919
b) 1939 55. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations
c) 1945 Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)?
d) 1955 a) Geneva
b) Vienna
48. Which international organization is known for c) New York
publishing the Global Gender Gap Report? d) Paris
a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund 56. Which year marks the founding of the Interna-
c) World Economic Forum tional Telecommunication Union (ITU)?
d) United Nations Development Programme a) 1865
b) 1919
49. Where is the headquarters of the World Meteor- c) 1945
ological Organization (WMO)? d) 1950
a) Geneva
b) New York 57. Which organization is responsible for interna-
c) London tional public health?
d) Paris a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund
50. Which year marks the founding of the Food and c) World Health Organization
Agriculture Organization (FAO)? d) International Red Cross
a) 1943
b) 1945 58. Where is the headquarters of the Organization
c) 1947 for Economic Co-operation and Development
d) 1950 (OECD)?
a) Brussels
51. Which organization publishes the annual World b) Paris
Happiness Report? c) Geneva
a) World Bank d) New York
b) International Monetary Fund
c) United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions 59. Which year marks the founding of the Interna-
Network tional Criminal Court (ICC)?
d) World Economic Forum a) 1998
b) 2000
52. Where is the headquarters of the International c) 2002
Maritime Organization (IMO)? d) 2005
a) New York
b) London 60. Which international organization is responsible
c) Paris for addressing global food insecurity?
d) Geneva a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund
53. Which year marks the establishment of the c) Food and Agriculture Organization
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)? d) World Food Programme
a) 1945
b) 1955
RAHUL SHARMA 21
61. Where is the headquarters of the International d) 1960
Telecommunication Union (ITU)?
a) New York 69. Which organization is responsible for the Interna-
b) Brussels tional Health Regulations (IHR)?
c) Geneva a) World Bank
d) London b) International Monetary Fund
c) World Health Organization
62. Which year marks the founding of the Interna- d) United Nations Development Programme
tional Monetary Fund (IMF)?
a) 1940 70. Where is the headquarters of the International Fi-
b) 1944 nance Corporation (IFC)?
c) 1945 a) New York
d) 1950 b) London
c) Washington, D.C.
63. Which organization publishes the World Trade d) Geneva
Report?
a) World Bank 71. Which year marks the establishment of the
b) International Monetary Fund United Nations Conference on Trade and Develop-
c) World Trade Organization ment (UNCTAD)?
d) World Economic Forum a) 1948
b) 1958
64. Where is the headquarters of the World Health c) 1964
Organization (WHO)? d) 1974
a) New York
b) Geneva 72. Which organization publishes the annual Global
c) Paris Risks Report?
d) London a) World Economic Forum
b) International Monetary Fund
65. Which year marks the establishment of the World c) World Bank
Meteorological Organization (WMO)? d) United Nations Development Programme
a) 1919
b) 1939 73. Where is the headquarters of the International
c) 1950 Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)?
d) 1960 a) Paris
b) Geneva
66. Which international organization focuses on la- c) Rome
bour standards and rights? d) New York
a) World Bank
b) International Labour Organization 74. Which year marks the founding of the Interna-
c) International Monetary Fund tional Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?
d) World Economic Forum a) 1945
b) 1951
67. Where is the headquarters of the World Intellec- c) 1957
tual Property Organization (WIPO)? d) 1965
a) New York
b) Geneva 75. Which organization is known for the publication
c) Paris of the Global Competitiveness Report?
d) Brussels a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund
68. Which year marks the founding of the North At- c) World Economic Forum
lantic Treaty Organization (NATO)? d) United Nations Development Programme
a) 1945
b) 1949 76. Where is the headquarters of the World Trade Or-
c) 1955 ganization (WTO)?
RAHUL SHARMA 22
a) New York
b) Brussels 84. Which organization publishes the World Eco-
c) Geneva nomic Outlook report?
d) Tokyo a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund
77. Which year marks the establishment of the World c) World Economic Forum
Food Programme (WFP)? d) United Nations Development Programme
a) 1945
b) 1950 85. Where is the headquarters of the World Food
c) 1961 Programme (WFP)?
d) 1975 a) Geneva
b) Paris
78. Which organization publishes the World Invest- c) Rome
ment Report? d) London
a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund 86. Which year marks the establishment of the
c) United Nations Conference on Trade and Develop- United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)?
ment a) 1945
d) World Economic Forum b) 1950
c) 1965
79. Where is the headquarters of the International d) 1970
Labour Organization (ILO)?
a) New York 87. Which organization publishes the World Develop-
b) Geneva ment Report?
c) Paris a) World Economic Forum
d) London b) International Monetary Fund
c) United Nations Development Programme
80. Which year marks the founding of the United Na- d) World Bank
tions Children's Fund (UNICEF)?
a) 1943 88. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations
b) 1945 Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
c) 1946 (UNESCO)?
d) 1948 a) Paris
b) Geneva
81. Which organization is responsible for coordinat- c) New York
ing international postal policies? d) Vienna
a) International Telecommunication Union
b) World Postal Organization 89. Which year marks the founding of the World
c) Universal Postal Union Bank?
d) International Mail Union a) 1919
b) 1944
82. Where is the headquarters of the Organization of c) 1965
Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)? d) 1985
a) Riyadh
b) Abu Dhabi 90. Which organization publishes the Global Financial
c) Vienna Stability Report?
d) Brussels a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund
83. Which year marks the founding of the World c) Financial Stability Board
Trade Organization (WTO)? d) International Finance Corporation
a) 1945
b) 1950 91. Where is the headquarters of the International
c) 1985 Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?
d) 1995 a) Vienna
RAHUL SHARMA 23
b) New York 99. Which year marks the founding of the United Na-
c) Geneva tions Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
d) Paris (UNESCO)?
a) 1920
92. Which year marks the establishment of the b) 1945
United Nations? c) 1955
a) 1919 d) 1960
b) 1939
c) 1945 100. Which international organization works to pro-
d) 1955 mote safe, secure, and sustainable shipping?
a) International Maritime Organization
93. Which organization is responsible for maintaining b) World Maritime Authority
international peace and security? c) International Shipping Federation
a) NATO d) Global Maritime Union
b) United Nations Security Council
c) International Criminal Court 101. Where is the headquarters of the International
d) World Court Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)?
a) New York
94. Where is the headquarters of the Food and Agri- b) Rome
culture Organization (FAO)? c) Geneva
a) Rome d) Paris
b) Paris
c) Geneva 102. Which organization is known for publishing the
d) New York annual Global Risks Report?
- a) World Economic Forum
95. Which year marks the founding of the Interna- - b) International Monetary Fund
tional Telecommunication Union (ITU)? - c) United Nations
a) 1847 - d) World Bank
b) 1865
c) 1919 103. Which organization is responsible for the Inter-
d) 1945 national Health Regulations (IHR)?
a) World Bank
96. Which organization is responsible for monitoring b) International Monetary Fund
nuclear safety and security globally? c) World Health Organization
a) International Energy Agency d) United Nations Development Programme
b) International Atomic Energy Agency
c) International Nuclear Safety Group 104. Where is the headquarters of the World Trade
d) International Atomic Safety Authority Organization (WTO)?
a) New York
97. Which organization publishes the World Develop- b) Brussels
ment Report? c) Geneva
a) World Economic Forum d) Tokyo
b) International Monetary Fund
c) United Nations Development Programme 105. Which year marks the establishment of the In-
d) World Bank ternational Court of Justice (ICJ)?
a) 1919
98. Where is the headquarters of the International b) 1939
Criminal Court (ICC)? c) 1945
a) New York d) 1955
b) Geneva
c) The Hague 106. Which organization is known for the publication
d) London of the Global Competitiveness Report?
a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund
RAHUL SHARMA 24
c) World Economic Forum 114. Which year marks the founding of the Interna-
d) United Nations Development Programme tional Telecommunication Union (ITU)?
a) 1865
107. Where is the headquarters of the World Mete- b) 1919
orological Organization (WMO)? c) 1945
a) Geneva d) 1950
b) New York
c) London 115. Which organization is responsible for interna-
d) Paris tional public health?
a) World Bank
108. Which year marks the founding of the Food and b) International Monetary Fund
Agriculture Organization (FAO)? c) World Health Organization
a) 1943 d) International Red Cross
b) 1945
c) 1947 116. Where is the headquarters of the Organization
d) 1950 for Economic Co-operation and Development
(OECD)?
109. Which organization publishes the annual World a) Brussels
Happiness Report? b) Paris
a) World Bank c) Geneva
b) International Monetary Fund d) New York
c) United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions
Network 117. Which year marks the founding of the Interna-
d) World Economic Forum tional Criminal Court (ICC)?
a) 1998
110. Where is the headquarters of the International b) 2000
Maritime Organization (IMO)? c) 2002
a) New York d) 2005
b) London
c) Paris 118. Which international organization is responsible
d) Geneva for addressing global food insecurity?
a) World Bank
111. Which year marks the establishment of the b) International Monetary Fund
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)? c) Food and Agriculture Organization
a) 1945 d) World Food Programme
b) 1955
c) 1972 119. Where is the headquarters of the International
d) 1985 Telecommunication Union (ITU)?
a) New York
112. Which organization is known for the publication b) Brussels
of the World Energy Outlook? c) Geneva
a) International Energy Agency d) London
b) World Bank
c) International Monetary Fund 120. Which year marks the founding of the Interna-
d) United Nations Development Programme tional Monetary Fund (IMF)?
a) 1940
113. Where is the headquarters of the United Na- b) 1944
tions Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)? c) 1945
a) Geneva d) 1950
b) Vienna
c) New York 121. Which organization publishes the World Trade
d) Paris Report?
a) World Bank
b) International Monetary Fund
RAHUL SHARMA 25
c) World Trade Organization 129. Which year marks the establishment of the
d) World Economic Forum United Nations Conference on Trade and Develop-
ment (UNCTAD)?
122. Where is the headquarters of the World Health a) 1948
Organization (WHO)? b) 1958
a) New York c) 1964
b) Geneva d) 1974
c) Paris
d) London 130. Which organization publishes the annual Global
Risks Report?
123. Which year marks the establishment of the a) World Economic Forum
World Meteorological Organization (WMO)? b) International Monetary Fund
a) 1919 c) World Bank
b) 1939 d) United Nations Development Programme
c) 1950
d) 1960

124. Which international organization focuses on la- ART & CULTURE

bour standards and rights? 1. Which of the following is a central text of the
a) World Bank Nyaya school of philosophy?
b) International Labour Organization a) Yoga Sutras
c) International Monetary Fund b) Nyaya Sutras
d) World Economic Forum c) Brahma Sutras
d) Samkhya Karika
125. Where is the headquarters of the World Intellec-
tual Property Organization (WIPO)? 2. The Vaisesika school of philosophy primarily deals
a) New York with which of the following concepts?
b) Geneva a) Ethics
c) Paris b) Metaphysics
d) Brussels c) Logic
d) Atomic theory
126. Which year marks the founding of the North At-
lantic Treaty Organization (NATO)? 3. Which philosopher is associated with the Samkhya
a) 1945 school of thought?
b) 1949 a) Patanjali
c) 1955 b) Kapila
d) 1960 c) Gautama
d) Shankaracharya
127. Which organization is responsible for the Inter-
national Health Regulations (IHR)? 4. The Yoga school of philosophy was systematized
a) World Bank by which ancient sage?
b) International Monetary Fund a) Vyasa
c) World Health Organization b) Patanjali
d) United Nations Development Programme c) Kanada
d) Bhartrihari
128. Where is the headquarters of the International
Finance Corporation (IFC)? 5. Purva Mimamsa emphasizes the importance of
a) New York which aspect of Vedic texts?
b) London a) Meditation
c) Washington, D.C. b) Rituals
d) Geneva c) Metaphysics
d) Devotion

RAHUL SHARMA 26
6. Which of the following schools of Indian philoso-
phy is primarily concerned with the end part of the 14. Which ancient text is associated with Jainism?
Vedas? a) Rig Veda
a) Nyaya b) Kalpa Sutra
b) Vedanta c) Upanishads
c) Samkhya d) Arthashastra
d) Purva Mimamsa
15. Which of the following is an example of a non-re-
7. Carvaka school of philosophy is best known for its ligious literary source?
stance on which of the following? a) Mahabharata
a) Materialism b) Manusmriti
b) Idealism c) Arthashastra
c) Dualism d) Bhagavad Gita
d) Theism
16. The Rig Veda is primarily composed of which type
8. Who is considered the founder of Jainism? of text?
a) Gautama Buddha a) Hymns
b) Mahavira b) Rituals
c) Adi Shankaracharya c) Philosophy
d) Guru Nanak d) Laws

9. Buddhism was founded by which of the following? 17. The Samaveda is known for its association with
a) Mahavira which of the following?
b) Adi Shankaracharya a) Rituals
c) Gautama Buddha b) Music
d) Guru Nanak c) Medicine
d) Warfare
10. Which of the following is NOT a core teaching of
Buddhism? 18. Yajurveda is mainly concerned with what?
a) Four Noble Truths a) Hymns
b) Eightfold Path b) Rituals
c) Vedas c) Philosophy
d) Nirvana d) Stories

11. Brahmanism is primarily based on which of the 19. The Atharva Veda contains information primarily
following texts? related to which of the following?
a) Tripitaka a) Magic and spells
b) Vedas b) Music
c) Bible c) Law
d) Quran d) Mathematics

12. Which of the following is a religious text of Bud- 20. Aranyakas are primarily associated with which of
dhism? the following?
a) Rig Veda a) Forest treatises
b) Bible b) Ritual texts
c) Quran c) Epics
d) Tripitaka d) Law books

13. The Sangam literature is written in which lan- 21. Which of the following is an Upanishad?
guage? a) Ramayana
a) Sanskrit b) Mahabharata
b) Prakrit c) Chandogya
c) Tamil d) Manu Smriti
d) Pali
RAHUL SHARMA 27
 d) West India
22. Puranas are a genre of ancient texts that are
mainly about what? 30. Who is the author of Tolkappiyam?
a) Hymns a) Ilango Adigal
b) Stories of gods and kings b) Thiruvalluvar
c) Laws c) Kambar
d) Philosophy d) Tolkappiyar

23. The Jataka tales are part of which religion's litera- 31. Barabar Caves are an example of which type of
ture? architecture?
a) Hinduism a) Rock-cut architecture
b) Buddhism b) Temple architecture
c) Jainism c) Stupa architecture
d) Sikhism d) Palace architecture

24. Which of the following is NOT a Pitaka in Bud- 32. The Great Bath is a notable structure from which
dhist literature? ancient civilization?
a) Vinaya Pitaka a) Egyptian
b) Sutta Pitaka b) Mesopotamian
c) Abhidhamma Pitaka c) Indus Valley
d) Brahma Pitaka d) Greek

25. Milinda Panho is a significant text in which reli- 33. Which style of sculpture is associated with the
gion? Gandhara region?
a) Hinduism a) Dravidian
b) Buddhism b) Nagara
c) Jainism c) Greco-Buddhist
d) Islam d) Vesara

26. The language predominantly used in Jain litera- 34. The Gopuram is a feature of which architectural
ture is? style?
a) Sanskrit a) Nagara
b) Pali b) Dravidian
c) Prakrit c) Vesara
d) Tamil d) Indo-Islamic

27. Which text contains biographies of Jain Tirthan- 35. Which of the following is the central shrine in a
karas? Hindu temple?
a) Kalpa Sutra a) Mandapa
b) Bhagavad Gita b) Shikara
c) Ramayana c) Garbhagriha
d) Mahabharata d) Vimana

28. Who is the 24th Tirthankara in Jainism? 36. Who is known as the architect of modern Indian
a) Rishabhanatha architecture?
b) Mahavira a) Le Corbusier
c) Parshvanatha b) Charles Correa
d) Neminatha c) Laurie Baker
d) B.V. Doshi
29. Silappadikaram is a famous work from which re-
gion's literature? 37. Which classical dance form is associated with
a) North India Tamil Nadu?
b) South India a) Kathak
c) East India b) Bharatanatyam
RAHUL SHARMA 28
 c) Odissi b) Sanskrit
d) Kathakali c) Tamil
d) Kannada
38. Kathakali is a dance form from which state?
a) Karnataka 46. Which ancient Indian text is a treatise on state-
b) Tamil Nadu craft, economic policy, and military strategy?
c) Kerala a) Arthashastra
d) Andhra Pradesh b) Manusmriti
c) Ramayana
39. Which dance form is known for its storytelling as- d) Mahabharata
pect using facial expressions and hand gestures?
a) Kathak 47. Which calendar is used for official purposes in In-
b) Bharatanatyam dia?
c) Odissi a) Gregorian
d) Kathakali b) Saka
c) Hijri
40. Which instrument is commonly associated with d) Vikram Samvat
Carnatic music?
a) Sitar 48. In which state is the Pushkar Fair held annually?
b) Violin a) Gujarat
c) Sarangi b) Rajasthan
d) Santoor c) Maharashtra
d) Uttar Pradesh
41. Who is known as the father of Hindustani classi-
cal music? 49. Which institution is dedicated to the promotion
a) Tansen of classical dance and music in India?
b) Thyagaraja a) Lalit Kala Akademi
c) Bismillah Khan b) Sangeet Natak Akademi
d) Ravi Shankar c) Sahitya Akademi
d) National School of Drama
42. Carnatic music is predominantly practiced in
which part of India? 50. Which Indian martial art is also known as 'The Art
a) North India of the Sword and Shield'?
b) South India a) Kalaripayattu
c) East India b) Silambam
d) West India c) Gatka
d) Thang-Ta
43. Which Indian festival is known as the Festival of
Lights? 51. Which ancient text is considered the earliest
a) Holi work on Indian dance and drama?
b) Diwali a) Natya Shastra
c) Navratri b) Silappadikaram
d) Raksha Bandhan c) Manimekalai
d) Arthashastra
44. Which martial art form originates from Kerala?
a) Kalaripayattu 52. Which instrument is associated with the legend-
b) Silambam ary musician Ustad Bismillah Khan?
c) Gatka a) Sitar
d) Thang-Ta b) Tabla
c) Shehnai
45. Which Indian language is considered the classical d) Santoor
language of India?
a) Hindi 53. Who among the following is a renowned Bha-
ratanatyam dancer?
RAHUL SHARMA 29
 a) Birju Maharaj 61. Which Indian classical dance form is associated
b) Rukmini Devi Arundale with the state of Odisha?
c) Yamini Krishnamurthy a) Kathak
d) Sonal Mansingh b) Bharatanatyam
c) Odissi
54. Which style of painting is Raja Ravi Varma known d) Kuchipudi
for?
a) Mughal painting 62. Which architectural style is characterized by a
b) Miniature painting Dravidian shikhara?
c) Tanjore painting a) Nagara
d) Academic realism b) Vesara
c) Dravida
55. Which dance form is known for its elaborate d) Gandhara
masks and vigorous movements?
a) Bharatanatyam 63. The Elephanta Caves are dedicated to which
b) Kathakali Hindu deity?
c) Odissi a) Vishnu
d) Manipuri b) Shiva
c) Brahma
56. Which of the following is a traditional folk dance d) Durga
of Gujarat?
a) Garba 64. Which ancient Indian city is known for its rock-cut
b) Bihu architecture and monolithic structures?
c) Lavani a) Harappa
d) Ghoomar b) Mohenjo-Daro
c) Ajanta
57. Which Veda is primarily concerned with the mel- d) Ellora
odies and chants used in rituals?
a) Rig Veda 65. In which Indian state is the dance form Mohini-
b) Sama Veda yattam primarily performed?
c) Yajur Veda a) Tamil Nadu
d) Atharva Veda b) Karnataka
c) Andhra Pradesh
58. Who wrote the ancient Indian treatise on state- d) Kerala
craft, the Arthashastra?
a) Kalidasa 66. Which of the following is an important Sangam
b) Chanakya literature work?
c) Valmiki a) Ramayana
d) Vyasa b) Manimekalai
c) Bhagavad Gita
59. In which Indian state is the classical dance form d) Mahabharata
Kuchipudi primarily performed?
a) Tamil Nadu 67. Which of the following is a percussion instrument
b) Karnataka used in Indian classical music?
c) Andhra Pradesh a) Sitar
d) Kerala b) Veena
c) Tabla
60. Who is considered the principal deity in the Rig d) Flute
Veda?
a) Vishnu 68. The term "Upanishad" is derived from which of
b) Shiva the following meanings?
c) Indra a) Hymns
d) Brahma b) Rituals
c) Sitting down near
RAHUL SHARMA 30
 d) Stories c) Shah Jahan
d) Aurangzeb
69. Which Hindu festival celebrates the victory of
light over darkness? 77. The term "Garbhagriha" in temple architecture
a) Holi refers to which part of the temple?
b) Diwali a) Entrance hall
c) Dussehra b) Central shrine
d) Raksha Bandhan c) Outer courtyard
d) Tower
70. Which classical dance form originates from the
state of Assam? 78. **Who is the author of the famous Tamil epic "Si-
a) Kathak lappadikaram"?
b) Bharatanatyam a) Thiruvalluvar
c) Manipuri b) Ilango Adigal
d) Sattriya c) Kambar
d) Tolkappiyar
71. Who is considered the father of Carnatic music?
a) Tansen 79. Which Veda is primarily concerned with the ritu-
b) Thyagaraja als and formulas used in sacrificial rites?
c) Swathi Thirunal a) Rig Veda
d) Purandara Dasa b) Sama Veda
c) Yajur Veda
72. Which ancient Indian text is a compilation of d) Atharva Veda
songs dedicated to deities?
a) Arthashastra 80. Which form of classical Indian dance is known for
b) Mahabharata its graceful movements and elaborate costumes?
c) Rig Veda a) Bharatanatyam
d) Ramayana b) Kathak
c) Odissi
73. Who among the following was a famous expo- d) Kuchipudi
nent of Hindustani classical music?
a) M.S. Subbulakshmi 81. Which of the following is a famous rock-cut cave
b) Bismillah Khan complex in Maharashtra?
c) Lata Mangeshkar a) Ajanta Caves
d) Thyagaraja b) Badami Caves
c) Barabar Caves
74. The term 'Brahman' in Vedic literature refers to d) Ellora Caves
which of the following?
a) Priest 82. Who is known as the "Nightingale of India"?
b) Warrior ) Lata Mangeshkar
c) Commoner b) M.S. Subbulakshmi
d) Supreme reality c) Sarojini Naidu
d) Asha Bhosle
75. Which ancient Indian text is considered a major
Upanishad? 83. Which ancient text is a treatise on the art of
a) Rig Veda dance, drama, and music?
b) Chandogya Upanishad a) Arthashastra
c) Arthashastra b) Natya Shastra
d) Bhagavad Gita c) Manusmriti
d) Mahabharata
76. Which Mughal emperor was a great patron of art
and culture and commissioned the Taj Mahal? 84. Who among the following is a famous Odissi
a) Akbar dancer?
b) Jahangir a) Birju Maharaj
RAHUL SHARMA 31
 b) Yamini Krishnamurthy a) Kathakali
c) Sonal Mansingh b) Mohiniyattam
d) Kelucharan Mohapatra c) Bharatanatyam
d) Odissi
85. Which form of painting is Madhubani known for?
a) Miniature painting 93. Who among the following is a famous exponent
b) Mural painting of Kathak dance?
c) Folk painting a) Birju Maharaj
d) Abstract painting b) Yamini Krishnamurthy
c) Kelucharan Mohapatra
86. Which instrument is used in both Hindustani and d) Rukmini Devi Arundale
Carnatic music and is known for its drone sound?
a) Sitar 94. Which ancient Indian city is known for its well-
b) Tabla planned urban layout and advanced drainage sys-
c) Tanpura tem?
d) Veena a) Harappa
b) Mohenjo-Daro
87. Who is the author of the Sanskrit epic "Rama- c) Lothal
yana"? d) Kalibangan
a) Vyasa
b) Valmiki 95. Which Indian festival is known for the ritual of
c) Kalidasa lighting lamps and celebrating the victory of good
d) Bhartrihari over evil?
a) Holi
88. Which form of dance is associated with the no- b) Diwali
madic tribes of Rajasthan? c) Dussehra
a) Kathak d) Raksha Bandhan
b) Ghoomar
c) Bhangra 96. Which classical dance form is characterized by
d) Garba vigorous movements and elaborate face masks?
a) Bharatanatyam
89. Which of the following is a famous rock-cut Bud- b) Kathak
dhist monastery complex in Maharashtra? c) Kathakali
a) Ajanta Caves d) Odissi
b) Badami Caves
c) Barabar Caves 97. Who is the author of the famous epic "Mahabha-
d) Ellora Caves rata"?
a) Valmiki
90. Which musical instrument is Ustad Amjad Ali b) Vyasa
Khan famous for playing? c) Kalidasa
a) Sitar d) Bhartrihari
b) Tabla
c) Sarod 98. Which Veda is also known as the "Book of
d) Flute Chants"?
a) Rig Veda
91. Who wrote the famous treatise on Indian classi- b) Sama Veda
cal dance, "Abhinaya Darpana"? c) Yajur Veda
a) Bharata Muni d) Atharva Veda
b) Nandikeshvara
c) Bhasa 99. Which ancient Indian text is a treatise on state-
d) Kalidasa craft and political philosophy?
a) Manusmriti
92. Which dance form is performed exclusively by b) Arthashastra
women and originates from Kerala? c) Ramayana
RAHUL SHARMA 32
 d) Mahabharata b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
100. Which dance form is traditionally performed in d) Andhra Pradesh
the temples of Odisha?
a) Bharatanatyam 108. Which classical dance form is known for its intri-
b) Kathak cate footwork and expressive gestures?
c) Odissi a) Bharatanatyam
d) Kuchipudi b) Kathak
c) Odissi
101. Who is the author of the ancient Tamil epic d) Kuchipudi
"Manimekalai"?
a) Ilango Adigal 109. Who wrote the famous work "Geet Govind"?
b) Sattanar a) Kalidasa
c) Kambar b) Tulsidas
d) Tolkappiyar c) Jayadeva
d) Kabir
102. Which form of Indian classical music is known
for its complex rhythms and improvisation? 110. Which of the following is a traditional folk dance
a) Hindustani of Punjab?
b) Carnatic a) Bhangra
c) Western b) Garba
d) Folk c) Ghoomar
d) Lavani
103. The ancient city of Pataliputra is located in
which modern-day Indian state? 111. Which Veda is known as the "Book of Spells"?
a) Uttar Pradesh a) Rig Veda
b) Bihar b) Sama Veda
c) Madhya Pradesh c) Yajur Veda
d) Rajasthan d) Atharva Veda

104. Which festival marks the beginning of the Hindu 112. The famous painting "Bharat Mata" was created
New Year in many parts of India? by which artist?
a) Holi a) Raja Ravi Varma
b) Diwali b) Nandalal Bose
c) Navratri c) Abanindranath Tagore
d) Ugadi d) Jamini Roy

105. Who among the following is a famous sitar 113. Which musical instrument is associated with the
player? Dhrupad genre of Hindustani classical music?
a) Zakir Hussain a) Sitar
b) Ravi Shankar b) Tabla
c) Amjad Ali Khan c) Pakhawaj
d) Bismillah Khan d) Santoor

106. Which of the following is a type of traditional In- 114. Who is considered the father of Indian archaeol-
dian painting style? ogy?
a) Renaissance a) Alexander Cunningham
b) Impressionism b) Mortimer Wheeler
c) Madhubani c) John Marshall
d) Cubism d) Dayaram Sahni

107. The Brihadeeswarar Temple, known for its mag- 115. Which form of Indian classical dance is known
nificent architecture, is located in which state? for its devotional themes and intricate footwork?
a) Kerala
RAHUL SHARMA 33
 a) Bharatanatyam
b) Kathak 123. Which of the following is a traditional Indian
c) Odissi martial art form?
d) Kuchipudi a) Kalaripayattu
b) Karate
116. Which city is known as the cultural capital of In- c) Taekwondo
dia? d) Judo
a) Delhi 124. Who is the composer of the famous Carnatic
b) Mumbai music kritis?
c) Kolkata a) Tansen
d) Chennai b) Thyagaraja
c) Bismillah Khan
117. Which ancient Indian text is a collection of 700 d) Zakir Hussain
Sanskrit verses on various aspects of life and philoso-
phy? 125. Which of the following is a famous folk dance of
a) Ramayana Rajasthan?
b) Mahabharata a) Garba
c) Bhagavad Gita b) Ghoomar
d) Arthashastra c) Bhangra
d) Lavani
118. The famous rock-cut temples of Mahabalipuram
are located in which state? 126. Which ancient Indian city is known for its rock-
a) Kerala cut architecture and monolithic structures?
b) Karnataka a) Harappa
c) Tamil Nadu b) Mohenjo-Daro
d) Andhra Pradesh c) Ajanta
d) Ellora
119. Which dance form is known for its elaborate
makeup and colorful costumes?
a) Bharatanatyam GAMES & SPORTS
b) Kathak 1. In which sport is the term "Double Fault" used?
c) Odissi a) Tennis
d) Kathakali b) Badminton
c) Table Tennis
120. Who is the author of the famous Tamil classic d) Squash
"Tirukkural"?
a) Ilango Adigal 2. What does the term "Birdie" refer to in golf?
b) Thiruvalluvar a) A score of one under par
c) Kambar b) A score of one over par
d) Tolkappiyar c) A hole-in-one
d) The golf ball
121. Which Indian festival is celebrated with the fly-
ing of kites? 3. In which sport is the term "Offside" commonly
a) Holi used?
b) Diwali a) Football
c) Makar Sankranti b) Cricket
d) Navratri c) Basketball
d) Hockey
122. Which musical instrument is known for its asso-
ciation with Pandit Ravi Shankar? 4. What does "Ace" refer to in tennis?
a) Tabla a) A serve that the opponent fails to touch
b) Flute b) Winning a set without losing a game
c) Sitar c) A fault serve
d) Sarod d) A tie in the game

RAHUL SHARMA 34
 13. How many players are there in a football (soccer)
5. In which sport would you find a "Scrum"? team on the field?
a) Rugby a) 9
b) American Football b) 10
c) Soccer c) 11
d) Hockey d) 12

6. What is a "Hat-trick" in cricket? 14. How many players are there in a rugby union
a) Three consecutive wickets by a bowler team on the field?
b) Three consecutive sixes by a batsman a) 13
c) Scoring three centuries in three matches b) 15
d) Three catches in one match c) 17
d) 18
7. In which sport is the term "Free Throw" used?
a) Basketball 15. How many players are there in a volleyball team
b) Volleyball on the court?
c) Soccer a) 5
d) Handball b) 6
c) 7
8. What does "Penalty Stroke" refer to in field d) 8
hockey?
a) A free shot at the goal 16. How many players are there in a hockey team on
b) A free hit from the center of the field the field?
c) A defensive strategy a) 9
d) A type of pass b) 10
c) 11
9. In which sport would you use a "Butterfly Stroke"? d) 12
a) Swimming
b) Gymnastics 17. How many players are there in a baseball team
c) Wrestling on the field?
d) Fencing a) 7
b) 8
10. What does the term "Yorker" refer to in cricket? c) 9
a) A ball bowled to pitch right at the batsman's feet d) 10
b) A delivery that bounces twice before reaching
the batsman 18. How many players are there in a kabaddi team?
c) A slow, looping delivery a) 5
d) A fast bouncer b) 7
c) 9
11. How many players are there in a basketball team d) 11
on the court?
a) 5 19. How many players are there in a water polo
b) 7 team?
c) 9 a) 5
d) 11 b) 6
c) 7
12. How many players are there in a cricket team? d) 8
a) 9
b) 10 20. How many players are there in a handball team
c) 11 on the court?
d) 12 a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
RAHUL SHARMA 35
 d) Squash
21. Which sport is associated with the "Wimbledon
Trophy"? 29. Which sport is associated with the "Heisman Tro-
a) Tennis phy"?
b) Golf a) American Football
c) Cricket b) Basketball
d) Badminton c) Baseball
d) Golf
22. The "FIFA World Cup" is associated with which
sport? 30. The "Ryder Cup" is associated with which sport?
a) Rugby a) Golf
b) Basketball b) Tennis
c) Football (Soccer) c) Cricket
d) Tennis d) Polo

23. Which sport is associated with the "Stanley 31. Which sport is associated with the "Calcutta
Cup"? Cup"?
a) Ice Hockey - a) Rugby
b) Field Hockey - b) Football
c) Football - c) Tennis
d) Basketball - d) Cricket

24. The "Ashes" trophy is associated with which 32. The "America's Cup" is associated with which
sport? sport?
a) Cricket a) Sailing
b) Rugby b) Swimming
c) Golf c) Rowing
d) Tennis d) Polo

25. Which sport is associated with the "Claret Jug"? 33. Which sport is associated with the "Walker Cup"?
a) Golf a) Golf
b) Tennis b) Tennis
c) Cricket c) Cricket
d) Polo d) Polo

26. The "Thomas Cup" is associated with which 34. The "Ranji Trophy" is associated with which
sport? sport?
a) Badminton a) Cricket
b) Tennis b) Football
c) Table Tennis c) Hockey
d) Squash d) Tennis

27. Which sport is associated with the "Vince Lom- 35. Which sport is associated with the "Durand
bardi Trophy"? Cup"?
a) American Football a) Football (Soccer)
b) Basketball b) Hockey
c) Baseball c) Cricket
d) Rugby d) Basketball

28. The "Davis Cup" is associated with which sport? 36. The "Santosh Trophy" is associated with which
a) Tennis sport?
b) Badminton a) Football (Soccer)
c) Table Tennis b) Cricket

RAHUL SHARMA 36
 c) Hockey c) Football
d) Badminton d) Tennis

37. Which sport is associated with the "Subroto 45. What is the national sport of India?
Cup"? - a) Field Hockey
a) Football (Soccer) - b) Cricket
b) Cricket - c) Football
c) Hockey - d) Kabaddi
d) Tennis
46. Which country has Bullfighting as its national
38. The "Beighton Cup" is associated with which sport?
sport? a) Spain
a) Hockey b) Portugal
b) Cricket c) Mexico
c) Football d) Brazil
d) Polo
47. What is the national sport of New Zealand?
39. Which sport is associated with the "Deodhar Tro- a) Rugby
phy"? b) Cricket
a) Cricket c) Football
b) Hockey d) Netball
c) Football
d) Tennis 48. Which country's national sport is Sumo Wres-
tling?
40. The "Azlan Shah Cup" is associated with which a) Japan
sport? b) China
a) Hockey c) South Korea
b) Cricket d) Mongolia
c) Football
d) Badminton 49. What is the national sport of Bhutan?
a) Archery
41. What is the national sport of Canada? b) Football
a) Ice Hockey c) Basketball
b) Basketball d) Cricket
c) Baseball
d) Rugby 50. What is the national sport of South Korea?
a) Taekwondo
42. What is the national sport of Brazil? b) Baseball
a) Football (Soccer) c) Football
b) Volleyball d) Basketball
c) Basketball
d) Rugby 51. Which country considers Gaelic Football its na-
tional sport?
43. Which country considers Baseball its national a) Ireland
sport? b) Scotland
a) Japan c) Wales
b) USA d) England
c) Cuba
d) Dominican Republic 52. What is the national sport of Sri Lanka?
a) Volleyball
44. What is the national sport of Australia? b) Cricket
a) Cricket c) Rugby
b) Rugby d) Football

RAHUL SHARMA 37
 c) Football
53. What is the national sport of Pakistan? d) Rugby
a) Field Hockey
b) Cricket 62. Which sport is played on a "Pitch"?
c) Football a) Cricket
d) Squash b) Tennis
c) Basketball
54. Which country has Ice Hockey as its national d) Ice Hockey
sport?
a) Russia 63. Which sport is played on a "Gridiron"?
b) Sweden a) American Football
c) Finland b) Rugby
d) Canada c) Soccer
d) Baseball
55. What is the national sport of Norway?
a) Skiing 64. Which sport is played on a "Court"?
b) Football a) Tennis
c) Handball b) Cricket
d) Ice Hockey c) Football
d) Golf
56. What is the national sport of England?
a) Cricket 65. Which sport is played on a "Ring"?
b) Football a) Boxing
c) Rugby b) Basketball
d) Tennis c) Badminton
d) Baseball
57. What is the national sport of China?
a) Table Tennis 66. Which sport is played on a "Field"?
b) Badminton a) Soccer
c) Basketball b) Tennis
d) Volleyball c) Swimming
d) Table Tennis
58. Which country's national sport is Sepak Takraw?
a) Thailand 67. Which sport is played on a "Course"?
b) Malaysia a) Golf
c) Indonesia b) Basketball
d) Vietnam c) Cricket
d) Football
59. What is the national sport of Philippines?
a) Arnis 68. Which sport is played on an "Arena"?
b) Boxing a) Ice Hockey
c) Basketball b) Cricket
d) Football c) Football
d) Tennis
60. What is the national sport of Argentina?
a) Pato 69. Which sport is played on a "Velodrome"?
b) Football a) Cycling
c) Rugby b) Running
d) Polo c) Swimming
d) Horse Racing
61. Which sport is played on a "Diamond"?
a) Baseball 70. Which sport is played on a "Track"?
b) Cricket a) Athletics

RAHUL SHARMA 38
 b) Tennis a) England
c) Cricket b) New Zealand
d) Basketball c) Australia
d) South Africa
71. Which sport is played on a "Mat"?
a) Wrestling 80. Where did the modern Olympic Games originate?
b) Boxing a) Greece
c) Basketball b) France
d) Football c) USA
d) Italy
72. Which sport is played on a "Lane"?
a) Bowling 81. Which country is the birthplace of baseball?
b) Swimming a) USA
c) Track and Field b) Cuba
d) Badminton c) Japan
d) Mexico
73. Which sport is played on a "Table"?
a) Table Tennis 82. Which country is credited with inventing ice
b) Tennis hockey?
c) Badminton a) Canada
d) Basketball b) Russia
c) Sweden
74. Which sport is played on a "Slope"? d) Finland
a) Skiing
b) Swimming 83. Where did volleyball originate?
c) Running a) USA
d) Cycling b) Brazil
c) Russia
75. Which sport is played on a "Grid"? d) Italy
a) Motorsport
b) Rugby 84. Which country is considered the home of table
c) Football tennis?
d) Golf a) England
b) China
76. Which country is the birthplace of cricket? c) Japan
a) England d) Germany
b) Australia
c) India 85. Where did badminton originate?
d) South Africa a) India
b) China
77. Where did basketball originate? c) Japan
a) USA d) Malaysia
b) Canada
c) Australia 86. Where is the "Wimbledon" tennis tournament
d) Germany held?
a) London
78. Which country is considered the home of golf? b) Paris
a) Scotland c) New York
b) Ireland d) Melbourne
c) USA
d) England 87. Which city hosts the "Maracana Stadium"?
a) Rio de Janeiro
79. Which country is credited with inventing rugby? b) Buenos Aires

RAHUL SHARMA 39
 c) Madrid d) Bhasa
d) Lisbon
6. Who wrote the famous ancient text "Manusmriti"?
88. In which city is the "Lords Cricket Ground" lo- a) Manu
cated? b) Vyasa
a) London c) Valmiki
b) Sydney d) Vishnu Sharma
c) Mumbai
d) Cape Town 7. "Shakuntala" was written by which ancient Indian
poet?
89. Where is the "Melbourne Cricket Ground" lo- a) Bhavabhuti
cated? b) Kalidasa
a) Melbourne c) Bharavi
b) Sydney d) Bhasa
c) Brisbane
d) Perth 8. Who is the author of "Brihat Samhita"?
a) Aryabhata
90. Which city is home to the "Yankee Stadium"? b) Varahamihira
a) New York c) Bhaskara
b) Los Angeles d) Brahmagupta
c) Chicago
d) Boston 9. Who wrote the medieval Indian text "Babur-
nama"?

STATIC GK a) Humayun
b) Akbar
1. Who is the author of the ancient Indian text "Ar- c) Babur
thashastra"? d) Jahangir
a) Vatsyayana
b) Kalidasa 10. The book "Kitab-ul-Hind" was written by?
c) Chanakya a) Al-Biruni
d) Banabhatta b) Ibn Battuta
c) Al-Masudi
2. "Rajatarangini" was written by which author? d) Al-Idrisi
a) Kalhana
b) Harsha 11. "Akbarnama" was authored by?
c) Kalidasa a) Abul Fazl
d) Banabhatta b) Faizi
c) Badauni
3. Who wrote "Meghaduta"? d) Todar Mal
a) Bhasa
b) Kalidasa 12. Who wrote "Tahqiq-i-Hind"?
c) Bharavi a) Al-Biruni
d) Dandin b) Ibn Battuta
c) Al-Masudi
4. The book "Ain-i-Akbari" was written by? d) Al-Idrisi
a) Abul Fazl
b) Faizi 13. The book "Gita Govinda" was written by?
c) Amir Khusrau a) Kalidasa
d) Ibn Battuta b) Jayadeva
c) Tulsidas
5. "Harshacharita" is authored by? d) Surdas
a) Bana Bhatt
b) Kalidasa 14. Who is the author of "Prithviraj Raso"?
c) Harsha
RAHUL SHARMA 40
 a) Chand Bardai
b) Kalidasa 23. Who wrote "Wings of Fire"?
c) Jayadeva a) Vikram Sarabhai
d) Banabhatta b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
c) Homi J. Bhabha
15. The famous text "Siddhanta Shiromani" was writ- d) C.V. Raman
ten by?
a) Bhaskara II 24. "Godan" was written by which famous Indian au-
b) Aryabhata thor?
c) Varahamihira a) Munshi Premchand
d) Brahmagupta b) Rabindranath Tagore
c) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
16. Who wrote "Ramcharitmanas"? d) R.K. Narayan
a) Kabir
b) Tulsidas 25. Who is the author of "The White Tiger"?
c) Surdas a) Aravind Adiga
d) Mirabai b) Kiran Desai
c) Vikram Seth
17. The book "Tughlaqnama" was authored by? d) Arundhati Roy
a) Amir Khusrau
b) Ziauddin Barani 26. "Train to Pakistan" was authored by?
c) Minhaj-i-Siraj a) R.K. Narayan
d) Ibn Battuta b) Khushwant Singh
c) Vikram Seth
18. Who wrote "Chandrakanta"? d) Salman Rushdie
a) Devaki Nandan Khatri
b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay 27. Who wrote "The God of Small Things"?
c) Premchand a) Kiran Desai
d) Rabindranath Tagore b) Arundhati Roy
c) Anita Desai
19. "Indica" was written by? d) Jhumpa Lahiri
a) Megasthenes
b) Herodotus 28. The book "Midnight's Children" was written by?
c) Pliny the Elder a) Vikram Seth
d) Strabo b) Salman Rushdie
c) Arundhati Roy
20. Who is the author of "Anandmath"? d) Khushwant Singh
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay 29. Who is the author of "A Suitable Boy"?
c) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay a) Vikram Seth
d) R.K. Narayan b) Salman Rushdie
c) Arundhati Roy
21. Who wrote the book "Discovery of India"? d) Kiran Desai
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Jawaharlal Nehru 30. "The Inheritance of Loss" was written by?
c) Subhas Chandra Bose a) Kiran Desai
d) Sardar Patel b) Arundhati Roy
c) Jhumpa Lahiri
22. "Geetanjali" was authored by? d) Salman Rushdie
a) Sarojini Naidu
b) Rabindranath Tagore 31. The Bharat Ratna award was established in which
c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay year?
d) R.K. Narayan a) 1947

RAHUL SHARMA 41
 b) 1950 b) 1970
c) 1954 c) 1975
d) 1960 d) 1980

32. Which organization awards the Dadasaheb 40. Who was the first recipient of the Jnanpith
Phalke Award? Award?
a) Sahitya Akademi a) G. Sankara Kurup
b) Ministry of Culture b) Kuvempu
c) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting c) S.H. Vatsyayan
d) National Film Development Corporation d) D.R. Bendre

33. The Nobel Prize in Literature is awarded by which 41. Which year was the Ramon Magsaysay Award es-
country? tablished?
a) USA a) 1950
b) UK b) 1954
c) Sweden c) 1957
d) Norway d) 1960

34. Who was the first recipient of the Bharat Ratna? 42. Who was the first Indian to win the Nobel Prize?
a) C. Rajagopalachari a) C.V. Raman
b) S. Radhakrishnan b) Rabindranath Tagore
c) C.V. Raman c) Amartya Sen
d) Jawaharlal Nehru d) Hargobind Khorana

35. Which year was the Padma Awards instituted? 43. The Booker Prize was established in which year?
a) 1947 a) 1965
b) 1950 b) 1968
c) 1954 c) 1969
d) 1960 d) 1971

36. Which institute awards the Sahitya Akademi 44. Which institute awards the National Film
Award? Awards?
a) Ministry of Culture a) Film Federation of India
b) Sahitya Akademi b) National Film Development Corporation
c) National Book Trust c) Directorate of Film Festivals
d) NITI Aayog d) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

37. The first Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded in 45. The Pulitzer Prize was established in which year?
which year? a) 1900
a) 1900 b) 1917
b) 1901 c) 1920
c) 1902 d) 1930
d) 1903
46. Who was the first recipient of the Dadasaheb
38. Which organization gives the Jnanpith Award? Phalke Award?
a) Ministry of Culture a) Raj Kapoor
b) Bharatiya Jnanpith b) Devika Rani
c) National Book Trust c) B.N. Sircar
d) Sahitya Akademi d) Prithviraj Kapoor

39. The first Dadasaheb Phalke Award was given in 47. Which year was the Sahitya Akademi Award insti-
which year? tuted?
a) 1969 a) 1950

RAHUL SHARMA 42
 b) 1954 d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
c) 1956
d) 1960 56. Who is referred to as the "Desert Fox"?
a) Erwin Rommel
48. The Grammy Awards were established in which b) Bernard Montgomery
year? c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
a) 1950 d) Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw
b) 1955
c) 1959 57. Who is known as the "Saint of the Gutters"?
d) 1965 a) Mother Teresa
b) Florence Nightingale
49. Which organization awards the Man Booker c) Sister Nivedita
Prize? d) Sarojini Naidu
a) British Council
b) Booker Prize Foundation 58. Who is called the "Frontier Gandhi"?
c) BBC a) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Nobel Foundation b) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
50. The Templeton Prize was established in which d) B.R. Ambedkar
year?
a) 1970 59. Who is known as the "Flying Sikh"?
b) 1972 a) Milkha Singh
c) 1975 b) P.T. Usha
d) 1980 c) Hima Das
d) Sachin Tendulkar
51. Who is known as the "Iron Man of India"?
a) Mahatma Gandhi 60. Who is referred to as the "Father of the Indian
b) Jawaharlal Nehru Constitution"?
c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel a) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Subhas Chandra Bose b) B.R. Ambedkar
c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
52. Who is referred to as the "Nightingale of India"? d) Rajendra Prasad
a) Sarojini Naidu
b) Lata Mangeshkar 61. Who is known as the "Tiger of Mysore"?
c) Indira Gandhi a) Hyder Ali
d) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit b) Tipu Sultan
c) Krishnaraja Wadiyar
53. Who is known as the "Father of the Nation"? d) Siraj ud-Daulah
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) B.R. Ambedkar 62. Who is called the "Father of the Nation" in South
c) Mahatma Gandhi Africa?
d) Subhas Chandra Bose a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Nelson Mandela
54. Who is called the "Missile Man of India"? c) Martin Luther King Jr.
a) Vikram Sarabhai d) Oliver Tambo
b) Homi J. Bhabha
c) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam 63. Who is known as the "Mother of Indian Revolu-
d) C.V. Raman tion"?
a) Rani Lakshmibai
55. Who is known as the "Bard of Bengal"? b) Sarojini Naidu
a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay c) Bhikaiji Cama
b) Rabindranath Tagore d) Annie Besant
c) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay

RAHUL SHARMA 43
64. Who is referred to as the "Grand Old Man of In- 72. Who is referred to as the "Magician of Hockey"?
dia"? a) Dhanraj Pillay
a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak b) Balbir Singh
b) Dadabhai Naoroji c) Dhyan Chand
c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale d) Pargat Singh
d) Bipin Chandra Pal
73. Who is known as the "Father of Indian Navy"?
65. Who is known as the "King of Indian Cinema"? a) Vice Admiral R.D. Katari
a) Raj Kapoor b) Vice Admiral Krishnan
b) Dilip Kumar c) Vice Admiral Cursetji
c) Amitabh Bachchan d) Vice Admiral Chakravarti
d) Dev Anand
74. Who is called the "Father of Indian Air Force"?
66. Who is called the "Father of Indian Space Pro- a) Subroto Mukerjee
gram"? b) Arjan Singh
a) Vikram Sarabhai c) Aspy Engineer
b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam d) Pratap Chandra Lal
c) Homi J. Bhabha
d) Satish Dhawan 75. Who is known as the "Father of Indian Civil Ser-
vice"?
67. Who is known as the "Father of Indian Atomic a) Warren Hastings
Program"? b) Lord Cornwallis
a) Homi J. Bhabha c) Lord Dalhousie
b) Vikram Sarabhai d) Lord Curzon
c) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
d) Raja Ramanna 76. Who is referred to as the "Father of Modern Ben-
gali Literature"?
68. Who is referred to as the "Nightingale of South a) Rabindranath Tagore
India"? b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
a) M.S. Subbulakshmi c) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
b) P. Susheela d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
c) K.S. Chitra
d) S.Janaki 77. Who is known as the "Birdman of India"?
a) Salim Ali
69. Who is known as the "Father of Modern India"? b) J.C. Bose
a) Jawaharlal Nehru c) Birbal Sahni
b) Mahatma Gandhi d) M.S. Swaminathan
c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 78. Who is called the "Father of Indian Renaissance"?
a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
70. Who is called the "Father of Green Revolution in b) Mahatma Gandhi
India"? c) Jawaharlal Nehru
a) M.S. Swaminathan d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
b) Verghese Kurien
c) C. Subramaniam 79. Who is known as the "Guru of Gurus"?
d) N.E. Borlaug a) Guru Nanak
b) Guru Gobind Singh
71. Who is known as the "Milkman of India"? c) Guru Tegh Bahadur
a) M.S. Swaminathan d) Guru Ram Das
b) Verghese Kurien
c) C. Subramaniam 80. Who is referred to as the "Mother of Indian Cin-
d) N.E. Borlaug ema"?
a) Devika Rani

RAHUL SHARMA 44
 b) Zubeida c) R.K. Narayan
c) Meena Kumari d) V.S. Naipaul
d) Nargis Dutt
89. Who is the author of "The Great Indian Novel"?
81. Who is the author of "India Wins Freedom"? a) Khushwant Singh
a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Vikram Seth
b) Mahatma Gandhi c) Shashi Tharoor
c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad d) R.K. Narayan
d) Sardar Patel
90. "God of Small Things" is a novel by?
82. "Discovery of India" was written by which Indian a) Kiran Desai
leader? b) Arundhati Roy
a) B.R. Ambedkar c) Jhumpa Lahiri
b) Sardar Patel d) Anita Desai
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Rajendra Prasad 91. Who wrote the book "Interpreter of Maladies"?
a) Arundhati Roy
83. Who wrote "My Experiments with Truth"? b) Jhumpa Lahiri
a) Mahatma Gandhi c) Kiran Desai
b) Jawaharlal Nehru d) Vikram Seth
c) Sardar Patel
d) Rajendra Prasad 92. "Freedom at Midnight" was authored by?
a) Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre
84. "The Story of My Life" is an autobiography of b) Dominique Lapierre
which Indian freedom fighter? c) Larry Collins
a) Jawaharlal Nehru d) Salman Rushdie
b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) Sardar Patel 93. Who wrote "The Guide"?
d) Subhas Chandra Bose a) Khushwant Singh
b) Vikram Seth
85. Who is the author of "Glimpses of World His- c) R.K. Narayan
tory"? d) Ruskin Bond
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Jawaharlal Nehru 94. "Midnight's Children" is a famous work by?
c) Mahatma Gandhi a) Vikram Seth
d) Subhas Chandra Bose b) Arundhati Roy
c) Salman Rushdie
86. "The Argumentative Indian" was written by d) Khushwant Singh
which Nobel laureate?
a) Rabindranath Tagore 95. Who is the author of "The Namesake"?
b) Amartya Sen a) Arundhati Roy
c) V.S. Naipaul b) Jhumpa Lahiri
d) R.K. Narayan c) Kiran Desai
d) Anita Desai
87. Who wrote "An Era of Darkness"?
a) Arundhati Roy 96. "The Suitable Boy" was written by?
b) Shashi Tharoor a) Vikram Seth
c) Vikram Seth b) Salman Rushdie
d) Kiran Desai c) Arundhati Roy
d) Khushwant Singh
88. "A Passage to England" was authored by?
a) Nirad C. Chaudhuri 97. Who wrote "The Immortals of Meluha"?
b) Mulk Raj Anand a) Amish Tripathi

RAHUL SHARMA 45
 b) Devdutt Pattanaik c) 1965
c) Chetan Bhagat d) 1970
d) Ravi Subramanian
106. Which year was the Ramon Magsaysay Award
98. "Five Point Someone" is a book by? established?
a) Arundhati Roy a) 1950
b) Jhumpa Lahiri b) 1954
c) Kiran Desai c) 1957
d) Chetan Bhagat d) 1960

99. Who is the author of "The Last Mughal"? 107. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award was established in
a) Salman Rushdie which year?
b) William Dalrymple a) 1969
c) Vikram Seth b) 1970
d) V.S. Naipaul c) 1975
d) 1980
100. "Sea of Poppies" was written by which Indian
author? 108. The Booker Prize was established in which year?
a) Kiran Desai a) 1965
b) Arundhati Roy b) 1968
c) Amitav Ghosh c) 1969
d) Salman Rushdie d) 1971

101. The Bharat Ratna award was established in 109. The Pulitzer Prize was established in which
which year? year?
a) 1950 a) 1900
b) 1952 b) 1917
c) 1954 c) 1920
d) 1956 d) 1930

102. Which year was the Padma Awards instituted? 110. The Grammy Awards were established in which
a) 1947 year?
b) 1950 a) 1950
c) 1954 b) 1955
d) 1960 c) 1959
d) 1965
103. The Sahitya Akademi Award was established in
which year? 111. Who is known as the "Father of the Nation" in
a) 1950 India?
b) 1954 a) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) 1956 b) B.R. Ambedkar
d) 1960 c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Subhas Chandra Bose
104. The Nobel Prize was established in which year?
a) 1895 112. Who is referred to as the "Missile Man of In-
b) 1900 dia"?
c) 1901 a) Vikram Sarabhai
d) 1905 b) Homi J. Bhabha
c) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
105. The Jnanpith Award was established in which d) C.V. Raman
year?
a) 1955 113. Who is called the "Iron Man of India"?
b) 1961 a) Mahatma Gandhi

RAHUL SHARMA 46
 b) Jawaharlal Nehru A) Agni-V
c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel B) Prithvi-II
d) Subhas Chandra Bose C) BrahMos
D) Akash
114. Who is known as the "Flying Sikh"?
a) Milkha Singh 2. The Prithvi missile is part of which series?
b) P.T. Usha A) Surface-to-surface
c) Hima Das B) Surface-to-air
d) Sachin Tendulkar C) Air-to-air
D) Anti-tank
115. Who is referred to as the "Father of the Indian
Constitution"? 3. The Akash missile is designed for which purpose?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru A) Surface-to-air defense
b) B.R. Ambedkar B) Anti-tank
c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel C) Air-to-air combat
d) Rajendra Prasad D) Surface-to-surface attack

116. Who is known as the "Bard of Bengal"? 4. Which missile is a joint venture between India and
a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay Russia?
b) Rabindranath Tagore A) BrahMos
c) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay B) Nirbhay
d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar C) Nag
D) K-4
117. Who is called the "King of Indian Cinema"?
a) Raj Kapoor 5. Which missile is known as the "Fire Dragon"?
b) Dilip Kumar A) Agni-IV
c) Amitabh Bachchan B) Prithvi-III
d) Dev Anand C) Shaurya
D) Nirbhay
118. Who is known as the " Father of Indian Space
Program"? 6. The Nag missile is designed to target which kind of
a) Vikram Sarabhai threats?
b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam A) Tanks
c) Homi J. Bhabha B) Aircraft
d) Satish Dhawan C) Submarines
D) Ships
119. Who is called the "Saint of the Gutters"?
a) Mother Teresa 7. What is the range of the Agni-II missile?
b) Florence Nightingale A) 2,000 km
c) Sister Nivedita B) 5,000 km
d) Sarojini Naidu C) 1,000 km
D) 500 km
120. Who is known as the "Tiger of Mysore"?
a) Hyder Ali 8. The missile 'Astra' is associated with which type of
b) Tipu Sultan platform?
c) Krishnaraja Wadiyar A) Air-to-air
d) Siraj ud-Daulah B) Surface-to-air
C) Surface-to-surface
D) Air-to-surface
Defence Research & Space
9. Which missile is part of the Integrated Guided Mis-
1. Which of the following missiles is India's first inter- sile Development Program (IGMDP)?
continental ballistic missile? A) Prithvi

RAHUL SHARMA 47
 B) K-15 A) Airborne Early Warning and Control System
C) Dhanush (AEW&CS)
D) Barak-8 B) Surface-to-air missile
C) Anti-submarine warfare
10. Which of the following is a submarine-launched D) Unmanned aerial vehicle
ballistic missile (SLBM) developed by India?
A) K-4 18. DRDO's 'Rustom' is a type of:
B) Agni-V A) Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV)
C) Shaurya B) Missile
D) BrahMos C) Tank
D) Radar
11. DRDO stands for:
A) Defence Research and Development Organisa- 19. What does 'KALI' stand for in DRDO's context?
tion A) Kilo Ampere Linear Injector
B) Defence Research and Development Office B) Kinetic Advanced Laser Interceptor
C) Defence Research and Development Operation C) Key Aeronautical Laser Instrument
D) Defence Research and Development Overseas D) Kinetic Armed Launching Instrument

12. Which DRDO project developed the Light Combat 20. Which of these DRDO establishments focuses on
Aircraft (LCA) Tejas? electronic warfare systems?
A) ADA (Aeronautical Development Agency) A) Defence Electronics Research Laboratory (DLRL)
B) ADE (Aeronautical Development Establishment) B) Defence Metallurgical Research Laboratory
C) ARDE (Armament Research and Development Es- (DMRL)
tablishment) C) Snow and Avalanche Study Establishment (SASE)
D) DRDE (Defence Research and Development Es- D) Vehicle Research and Development Establish-
tablishment) ment (VRDE)

13. Which anti-tank missile was developed by DRDO? 21. What was the name of India's first satellite?
A) Nag A) Aryabhata
B) Trishul B) Bhaskara
C) Prithvi C) INSAT-1A
D) Agni D) Rohini

14. Which radar system was developed by DRDO for 22. Which ISRO mission successfully placed an or-
the Indian Air Force? biter around Mars?
A) Rajendra Radar A) Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission)
B) Rohini Radar B) Chandrayaan-1
C) Indra Radar C) PSLV-C37
D) Revati Radar D) GSLV Mk III

15. Which missile system did DRDO develop to inter- 23. Which launch vehicle is known as the workhorse
cept and destroy incoming ballistic missiles? of ISRO?
A) Prithvi Air Defence (PAD) A) PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle)
B) Akash B) GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle)
C) Nag C) ASLV (Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle)
D) Trishul D) SLV (Satellite Launch Vehicle)

16. DRDO's 'Arjun' is a: 24. Which Indian satellite was launched to study the
A) Main Battle Tank moon?
B) Fighter Aircraft A) Chandrayaan-1
C) Missile B) Mangalyaan
D) Submarine - C) Cartosat-2
- D) GSAT-1
17. What is the purpose of DRDO's 'Netra' system?
RAHUL SHARMA 48
25. What is the name of the Indian satellite naviga- - C) 1955
tion system developed by ISRO? - D) 1985
A) NavIC
B) GPS 33. What is the primary role of the National Security
C) GLONASS Guard (NSG)?
D) Galileo A) Counter-terrorism
B) Border security
26. The GSAT series of satellites are primarily used C) Riot control
for: D) Disaster response
A) Communication
B) Earth observation 34. The motto of the Indo-Tibetan Border Police
C) Weather monitoring (ITBP) is:
D) Navigation A) Shaurya, Dridhata, Karm Nishtha
B) Duty, Honour, Country
27. Which satellite was launched by ISRO for moni- C) Service before Self
toring the weather and climate of the Indian subcon- D) Courage and Faith
tinent?
A) INSAT-3D 35. Which year was the National Investigation
B) GSAT-6 Agency (NIA) established?
C) Cartosat-3 A) 2009
D) GSAT-11 B) 2001
C) 2015
28. Which ISRO mission aimed at demonstrating re- D) 1999
usable launch vehicle technology?
A) RLV-TD (Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology De- 36. The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) is pri-
monstrator) marily responsible for:
B) Chandrayaan-2 A) Industrial security
C) Gaganyaan B) Border security
D) RISAT-2B C) Counter-insurgency
D) Railway security
29. The Indian human spaceflight program is named:
A) Gaganyaan 37. What is the motto of the National Security Guard
B) Mangalyaan (NSG)?
C) Vikram A) Sarvatra, Sarvottam, Suraksha
D) Chandrayaan B) Valour, Honour, Courage
C) Service before Self
30. Which ISRO launch vehicle set a world record by D) Safety, Security, Sovereignty
launching 104 satellites in a single mission?
A) PSLV-C37 38. The Assam Rifles are primarily deployed for:
B) GSLV Mk II A) Internal security in the Northeast
C) GSLV Mk III B) Coastal security
D) ASLV C) VIP protection
D) Counter-terrorism
31. What is the motto of the Central Reserve Police
Force (CRPF)? 39. What does the acronym 'RAW' stand for?
A) Service and Loyalty A) Research and Analysis Wing
B) Duty unto Death B) Reconnaissance and Warfare
C) Valour, Honour, Courage C) Research and Warfare Agency
D) Safety, Security, Sovereignty D) Rapid Action Wing

32. When was the Border Security Force (BSF) estab- 40. The primary task of the Intelligence Bureau (IB)
lished? is:
- A) 1965 A) Internal intelligence and counter-intelligence
- B) 1975
RAHUL SHARMA 49
 B) Border security A) Protection and Security
C) Counter-terrorism B) Service and Loyalty
D) Cybersecurity C) Safety First
D) Security for All
41. When was the National Disaster Response Force
(NDRF) established? 49. The motto of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) is:
A) 2006 A) Service, Security, Brotherhood
B) 2010 B) Security, Safety, Strength
C) 1999 C) Valour, Honour, Courage
D) 2002 D) Duty unto Death

42. The Special Protection Group (SPG) is responsible 50. The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) was estab-
for: lished in:
A) Protecting the Prime Minister of India A) 1962
B) Border security B) 1972
C) Coastal security C) 1982
D) Counter-terrorism operations D) 1992

43. Which organization is tasked with safeguarding 51. The Defence Research and Development Organi-
India's nuclear facilities? sation (DRDO) was established in which year?
A) CISF A) 1958
B) CRPF B) 1962
C) BSF C) 1971
D) ITBP D) 1980

44. What is the motto of the Railway Protection 52. Which missile is India's first nuclear-capable mis-
Force (RPF)? sile?
A) Service with Protection A) Prithvi
B) Nation First, Always B) Agni
C) Safety and Security C) BrahMos
D) Integrity and Service D) Nirbhay

45. The motto of the Border Security Force (BSF) is: 53. The K-15 missile is also known as:
A) Duty unto Death A) Sagarika
B) Service and Loyalty B) Shourya
C) Courage and Commitment C) Akash
D) Truth Alone Triumphs D) Trishul

46. Which agency is India's primary external intelli- 54. The successful test of the Prithvi Air Defence
gence agency? (PAD) system marked India's entry into which elite
A) RAW club?
B) IB A) Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD)
C) NIA B) Hypersonic Missile Technology
D) NSG C) Anti-Tank Guided Missiles
D) Space Exploration
47. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) was
established in which year? 55. The DRDO-developed 'INSAS' is a type of:
A) 1986 A) Rifle
B) 1975 B) Tank
C) 1990 C) Radar
D) 2000 D) Missile

48. The motto of the Central Industrial Security Force

(CISF) is:
RAHUL SHARMA 50
56. The Barak-8 missile system was developed in col-
laboration with which country? 64. The Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) was
A) Israel launched in which year?
B) Russia A) 2013
C) USA B) 2010
D) France C) 2015
D) 2017
57. The term 'Mission Shakti' is associated with:
A) India's Anti-Satellite (ASAT) test 65. The NavIC system consists of how many satel-
B) India's Mars mission lites?
C) India's human spaceflight program A) 7
D) India's lunar mission B) 4
C) 8
58. The Shourya missile is a variant of which other D) 9
missile system?
- A) K-15 66. Which ISRO satellite is used for weather forecast-
B) Agni ing and disaster warning?
C) BrahMos A) INSAT-3D
D) Nirbhay B) GSAT-7
C) Cartosat-2
59. The DRDO's 'Astra' missile is designed for which D) RISAT-2B
type of warfare?
A) Air-to-air 67. What is the purpose of ISRO's Gaganyaan mis-
B) Surface-to-air sion?
C) Surface-to-surface A) Human spaceflight
D) Anti-ship B) Mars exploration
C) Lunar exploration
60. Which Indian missile system is capable of being D) Satellite navigation
launched from submarines?
A) K-4 68. The RISAT series of satellites are primarily used
B) Prithvi for:
C) Agni-V A) Radar imaging
D) Akash B) Communication
C) Navigation
61. What is the full form of ISRO? D) Weather monitoring
A) Indian Space Research Organisation
B) International Space Research Organisation 69. The GSAT-11 satellite is primarily intended for:
C) Indian Scientific Research Organisation A) High-throughput communication
D) Interplanetary Space Research Organisation B) Earth observation
C) Weather monitoring
62. The Chandrayaan-2 mission aimed to explore D) Scientific research
which part of the moon?
A) South Pole 70. ISRO's first satellite launch vehicle was:
B) North Pole A) SLV-3
C) Equator B) ASLV
D) Far side C) PSLV
D) GSLV
63. The PSLV-C37 mission is famous for launching
how many satellites in a single mission? 71. The Defence Research and Development Organi-
A) 104 sation (DRDO) developed which stealth frigate for
B) 98 the Indian Navy?
C) 50 A) INS Shivalik
D) 83 B) INS Vikrant
C) INS Arihant
RAHUL SHARMA 51
 D) INS Talwar - D) Cruise missile

72. The DRDO's 'Nirbhay' is a type of: 80. The DRDO's 'Akash' missile system is designed for
A) Cruise missile which type of defense?
B) Ballistic missile A) Surface-to-air
C) Anti-tank missile B) Surface-to-surface
D) Surface-to-air missile C) Air-to-air
D) Anti-ship
73. Which radar system developed by DRDO is used
for battlefield surveillance? 81. The Border Security Force (BSF) primarily guards
A) BFSR-SR (Battlefield Surveillance Radar - Short which borders of India?
Range) A) Pakistan and Bangladesh
B) Rajendra Radar B) China and Nepal
C) Rohini Radar C) Myanmar and Bhutan
D) Indra Radar D) Sri Lanka and Maldives

74. The 'Pinaka' rocket system developed by DRDO is 82. The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) pro-
classified as: vides security to which major Indian installations?
A) Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL) A) Airports and industrial units
B) Surface-to-air missile B) Borders
C) Anti-tank missile C) Coastal areas
D) Air-to-air missile D) Railway stations

75. Which aircraft carrier is the largest warship built 83. The Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) primarily guards
in India, with assistance from DRDO? which borders of India?
A) INS Vikrant A) Nepal and Bhutan
B) INS Viraat B) Pakistan and China
C) INS Vishal C) Myanmar and Bangladesh
D) INS Shivalik D) Sri Lanka and Maldives

76. Which organization is primarily responsible for 84. The primary task of the Indian Coast Guard is:
India's nuclear arsenal? - A) Coastal surveillance and maritime law enforce-
A) Strategic Forces Command (SFC) ment
B) DRDO B) Counter-terrorism
C) Indian Army C) Border security
D) Indian Navy D) Industrial security

77. The motto of the Indian Air Force is: 85. The Intelligence Bureau (IB) operates under
A) Touch the Sky with Glory which ministry?
B) Service Before Self A) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Courage and Honour B) Ministry of Defence
D) Victory with Honour C) Ministry of External Affairs
D) Prime Minister's Office
78. The motto of the Indian Navy is:
A) Sham No Varunah 86. The National Security Guard (NSG) is also known
B) Valour, Honour, Courage by which nickname?
C) Service Before Self A) Black Cats
D) Always Faithful B) Blue Tigers
C) Red Dragons
79. The DRDO-developed 'Lakshya' is a type of: D) Green Hornets
A) Target drone
B) Unmanned combat aerial vehicle 87. The motto of the Central Reserve Police Force
C) Surveillance satellite (CRPF) is:
A) Service and Loyalty
RAHUL SHARMA 52
 B) Courage and Commitment A) Special Protection Group (SPG)
C) Duty unto Death B) National Security Guard (NSG)
D) Integrity and Service C) Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
D) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
88. The primary responsibility of the National Investi-
gation Agency (NIA) is: 96. The DRDO's project 'Indra' is associated with:
A) Counter-terrorism investigations A) Radar systems
B) Border security B) Missile systems
C) VIP protection C) Armoured vehicles
D) Cybersecurity D) Unmanned aerial vehicles

89. The Indian Army's 'Operation Vijay' in 1999 was 97. The motto of the Indian Coast Guard is:
aimed at: A) Vayam Rakshamah (We Protect)
A) Clearing Kargil sector of infiltrators B) Sarvatra, Sarvottam, Suraksha
B) Securing the Siachen Glacier C) Seva Paramo Dharma
C) Conducting nuclear tests D) Safety First
D) Counter-insurgency in Kashmir
98. Which organization operates under the Ministry
90. The motto of the Indian Army is: of Home Affairs and is responsible for internal intelli-
A) Service Before Self gence in India?
B) Valour, Honour, Courage A) Intelligence Bureau (IB)
C) Touch the Sky with Glory B) Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)
D) The Team, The Task, The Nation C) National Investigation Agency (NIA)
D) National Security Guard (NSG)
91. Which organization is tasked with conducting
cyber security operations in India? 99. The 'Iron Fist' exercise is conducted by which
A) National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO) branch of the Indian Armed Forces?
B) NIA A) Indian Air Force
C) RAW B) Indian Army
D) CISF C) Indian Navy
D) Indian Coast Guard
92. The motto of the Indian Air Force is derived from
which ancient text? 100. The 'Dakshin Prahar' exercise is conducted by
A) Bhagavad Gita which branch of the Indian Armed Forces?
B) Rig Veda A) Indian Coast Guard
C) Ramayana B) Indian Navy
D) Mahabharata C) Indian Army
D) Indian Air Force
93. The primary focus of the Defence Intelligence
Agency (DIA) is:

Indian Geography
A) Military intelligence
B) Border security
C) Counter-terrorism
D) Cybersecurity 1. Which is the highest peak in India?
A) K2
94. The Indian Army's Parachute Regiment is also B) Kanchenjunga
known as: C) Nanda Devi
A) The Red Berets D) Dhaulagiri
B) The Black Cats
C) The Blue Tigers 2. The longest river in India is:
D) The Green Hornets A) Ganges
B) Godavari
95. Which agency is responsible for protecting India's C) Yamuna
VIPs?
RAHUL SHARMA 53
 D) Brahmaputra
11. The monsoon season in India generally starts in:
3. The Thar Desert is located in: A) June
A) Rajasthan B) July
B) Gujarat C) August
C) Punjab D) September
D) Haryana
12. Which region in India receives the highest rain-
4. The Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet at: fall?
A) Nilgiri Hills A) Western Ghats
B) Aravalli Range B) Assam
C) Vindhya Range C) Meghalaya
D) Satpura Range D) Kerala

5. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are located in 13. The Thar Desert experiences which type of cli-
which sea? mate?
A) Arabian Sea A) Arid
B) Bay of Bengal B) Semi-arid
C) Indian Ocean C) Humid
D) Laccadive Sea D) Subtropical

6. Which is the largest saltwater lake in India? 14. The coldest place in India is:
A) Chilika Lake A) Dras
B) Sambhar Lake B) Leh
C) Vembanad Lake C) Srinagar
D) Pulicat Lake D) Shimla

7. The Deccan Plateau is mainly composed of: 15. The Western Disturbances cause winter rainfall in
A) Basalt which part of India?
B) Granite A) Northern India
C) Sandstone B) Southern India
D) Limestone C) Eastern India
D) Western India
8. The Sundarbans delta is formed by which two riv-
ers? 16. Which state in India is known for its Mediterra-
A) Ganges and Brahmaputra nean climate?
B) Yamuna and Saraswati A) Kerala
C) Godavari and Krishna B) Tamil Nadu
D) Narmada and Tapi C) Himachal Pradesh
D) Maharashtra
9. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many In-
dian states? 17. The hot and dry winds that blow in the northern
A) 8 plains of India are called:
B) 9 A) Loo
C) 10 B) Nor'wester
D) 11 C) Cyclone
D) Monsoon
10. The main river flowing through Jammu and Kash-
mir is: 18. The annual range of temperature is the greatest
A) Indus in:
B) Ganges A) Himalayas
C) Yamuna B) Thar Desert
D) Godavari C) Western Ghats

RAHUL SHARMA 54
 D) Coastal Plains 27. The Sundarbans region is famous for which ani-
mal?
19. The retreating monsoon season occurs during: A) Royal Bengal Tiger
A) October to November B) Asiatic Lion
B) June to July C) Indian Elephant
C) August to September D) Indian Rhinoceros
D) December to January
28. The city of Udaipur is known for its:
20. Which type of vegetation is found in the Western A) Lakes
Ghats? B) Forts
A) Tropical evergreen C) Temples
B) Deciduous D) Beaches
C) Thorny bushes
D) Alpine 29. Which city is known as the City of Pearls?
A) Hyderabad
21. Which state is the most densely populated in In- B) Jaipur
dia? C) Surat
A) Bihar D) Mysuru
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) West Bengal 30. The Pushkar Fair is held in which state?
D) Kerala A) Rajasthan
B) Gujarat
22. The least populated state in India is: C) Punjab
- A) Sikkim D) Haryana
- B) Goa
- C) Mizoram 31. Which state is the largest producer of coal in In-
- D) Manipur dia?
A) Jharkhand
23. The largest state in India by area is: B) Chhattisgarh
A) Rajasthan C) Odisha
B) Madhya Pradesh D) West Bengal
C) Maharashtra
D) Uttar Pradesh 32. The leading state in coffee production in India is:
A) Karnataka
24. Which city is known as the Silicon Valley of India? B) Kerala
A) Bengaluru C) Tamil Nadu
B) Hyderabad D) Andhra Pradesh
C) Pune
D) Chennai 33. Which mineral is known as 'black gold'?
A) Coal
25. The city of Kochi is located in which state? B) Oil
A) Tamil Nadu C) Iron ore
B) Kerala D) Bauxite
C) Karnataka
D) Andhra Pradesh 34. The main producer of natural rubber in India is:
A) Kerala
26. The largest tribal community in India is: B) Tamil Nadu
A) Bhils C) Karnataka
B) Santhals D) Andhra Pradesh
C) Gonds
D) Todas 35. The city of Jamshedpur is famous for:
A) Steel industry
B) Textile industry

RAHUL SHARMA 55
 C) IT industry
D) Film industry 44. The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is constructed on
which river?
36. Which state is the largest producer of sugarcane A) Krishna
in India? B) Godavari
A) Uttar Pradesh C) Kaveri
B) Maharashtra D) Mahanadi
C) Karnataka
D) Andhra Pradesh 45. The river Tapti flows into:
A) Arabian Sea
37. The largest tea-producing state in India is: B) Bay of Bengal
A) Assam C) Indian Ocean
B) West Bengal D) Laccadive Sea
C) Kerala
D) Tamil Nadu 46. The Bhakra Nangal Dam is built on which river?
A) Sutlej
38. The Hirakud Dam is built on which river? B) Beas
A) Mahanadi C) Ravi
B) Godavari D) Yamuna
C) Krishna
D) Kaveri 47. The river Indus flows into which sea?
A) Arabian Sea
39. The Bhilai Steel Plant is located in: B) Bay of Bengal
A) Chhattisgarh C) Indian Ocean
B) Jharkhand D) Laccadive Sea
C) Odisha
D) West Bengal 48. Which River is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar'?
A) Kosi
40. Which state is the leading producer of manga- B) Gandak
nese in India? C) Mahananda
A) Odisha D) Son
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Karnataka 49. The river which is called 'Ganga of the South' is:
D) Maharashtra A) Kaveri
B) Godavari
41. The river which flows through a rift valley is: C) Krishna
A) Narmada D) Mahanadi
B) Ganges
C) Yamuna 50. Which of the following rivers originates from the
D) Krishna Amarkantak Plateau?
A) Narmada
42. The largest river island in the world, Majuli, is lo- B) Ganges
cated in which river? C) Brahmaputra
A) Brahmaputra D) Godavari
B) Ganges
C) Godavari 51. The highest peak in the Western Ghats is:
D) Yamuna A) Anamudi
B) Doddabetta
43. Which River is known as the 'Dakshin Ganga'? C) Mullayanagiri
A) Godavari D) Mahendragiri
B) Krishna
C) Kaveri 52. Which Mountain range separates the Indo-Gan-
D) Mahanadi getic Plain from the Deccan Plateau?

RAHUL SHARMA 56
 A) Vindhya Range
B) Aravalli Range 61. The Kaziranga National Park is famous for:
C) Satpura Range A) One-horned rhinoceros
D) Eastern Ghats B) Bengal tiger
C) Asiatic lion
53. The hill station 'Ooty' is located in which state? D) Indian elephant
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Karnataka 62. The Sundarbans National Park is located in which
C) Kerala state?
D) Andhra Pradesh A) West Bengal
B) Odisha
54. The Sulaiman and Kirthar ranges are located in: C) Assam
A) Pakistan D) Bihar
B) India
C) Afghanistan 63. The Jim Corbett National Park is situated in:
D) Nepal A) Uttarakhand
B) Himachal Pradesh
55. The hill station 'Darjeeling' is situated in: C) Rajasthan
A) West Bengal D) Madhya Pradesh
B) Sikkim
C) Assam 64. The Gir National Park is famous for:
D) Meghalaya A) Asiatic lion
B) Bengal tiger
56. The Aravalli Range is located in: C) Indian elephant
A) Rajasthan D) One-horned rhinoceros
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Gujarat 65. The Kanha National Park is located in which
D) Maharashtra state?
A) Madhya Pradesh
57. The highest peak of the Eastern Ghats is: B) Maharashtra
A) Arma Konda C) Rajasthan
B) Mahendragiri D) Chhattisgarh
C) Khandadhar
D) Mullayanagiri 66. The Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in:
A) Kerala
58. The hill station 'Shimla' is the capital of which B) Tamil Nadu
state? C) Karnataka
A) Himachal Pradesh D) Andhra Pradesh
B) Uttarakhand
C) Jammu and Kashmir 67. The Manas National Park is a UNESCO World Her-
D) Punjab itage Site located in:
A) Assam
59. The Khasi Hills are part of which state? B) West Bengal
A) Meghalaya C) Odisha
B) Assam D) Jharkhand
C) Nagaland
D) Manipur 68. The Bandipur National Park is located in:
A) Karnataka
60. The highest peak in the Nilgiri Hills is: B) Tamil Nadu
A) Doddabetta C) Kerala
B) Anamudi D) Andhra Pradesh
C) Mahendragiri
D) Mullayanagiri 69. The Ranthambore National Park is famous for:

RAHUL SHARMA 57
 A) Bengal tiger B) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
B) Asiatic lion C) Maharashtra and Gujarat
C) One-horned rhinoceros D) Kerala and Karnataka
D) Indian elephant
78. The primary crop grown in the Sundarbans delta
70. The Silent Valley National Park is situated in: is:
A) Kerala A) Rice
B) Tamil Nadu B) Wheat
C) Karnataka C) Maize
D) Andhra Pradesh D) Sugarcane
71. The Green Revolution in India was initiated in
which decade? 79. The largest producer of jute in India is:
A) 1960s A) West Bengal
B) 1970s B) Bihar
C) 1980s C) Assam
D) 1990s D) Odisha

72. Which state is the largest producer of wheat in 80. Which state is the largest producer of pulses in
India? India?
A) Uttar Pradesh A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Punjab B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Haryana C) Rajasthan
D) Madhya Pradesh D) Maharashtra

73. The major crop grown in the Deccan Plateau is: 81. The longest railway platform in India is located at:
A) Cotton A) Gorakhpur
B) Rice B) Kharagpur
C) Wheat C) Bilaspur
D) Maize D) Jodhpur

74. The largest producer of spices in India is: 82. The major port located on the east coast of India
A) Kerala is:
B) Andhra Pradesh A) Chennai
C) Karnataka B) Mumbai
D) Tamil Nadu C) Kandla
D) Kochi
75. The Hirakud Dam helps in irrigation of which river
basin? 83. The Golden Quadrilateral connects which four
A) Mahanadi major cities of India?
B) Godavari A) Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata
C) Krishna B) Mumbai, Hyderabad, Bangalore, Pune
D) Kaveri C) Delhi, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Ahmedabad
D) Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Pune
76. The Bhakra Nangal Project is a joint venture of
which states? 84. The first metro rail service in India was started in:
A) Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan A) Kolkata
B) Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir B) Delhi
C) Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana C) Mumbai
D) Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh D) Chennai

77. The Kaveri River dispute is mainly between which 85. The busiest airport in India by passenger traffic is:
two states? A) Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi
A) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

RAHUL SHARMA 58
 B) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Air- C) Loktak Lake
port, Mumbai D) Sambhar Lake
C) Kempegowda International Airport, Bangalore
D) Chennai International Airport 94. The oldest refinery in India is located at:
A) Digboi
86. The Konkan Railway connects which two cities? B) Mumbai
A) Mumbai and Mangalore C) Kochi
B) Chennai and Kolkata D) Vishakhapatnam
C) Delhi and Jaipur
D) Bangalore and Hyderabad 95. The famous 'Hornbill Festival' is celebrated in
which state?
87. The headquarters of Indian Railways is located in: A) Nagaland
A) New Delhi B) Assam
B) Mumbai C) Manipur
C) Kolkata D) Meghalaya
D) Chennai
96. The main river flowing through Pakistan border in
88. The National Highway 44 (NH 44) connects which J&K is:
two cities? A) Sutlej
A) Srinagar and Kanyakumari B) Beas
B) Mumbai and Delhi C) Ravi
C) Chennai and Kolkata D) Jhelum
D) Bangalore and Hyderabad
97. The largest producer of natural gas in India is:
89. The largest inland river port in India is located at: A) Assam
A) Kolkata B) Gujarat
B) Allahabad C) Maharashtra
C) Patna D) Andhra Pradesh
D) Guwahati
98. The southernmost point of India is:
90. The headquarter of South Eastern Railway is lo- A) Indira Point
cated in: B) Kanyakumari
A) Kolkata C) Point Calimere
B) Bhubaneswar D) Cape Comorin
C) Ranchi
D) Bilaspur 99. The famous 'Pushkar Fair' is held in which state?
A) Rajasthan
91. The largest producer of silk in India is: B) Gujarat
A) Karnataka C) Punjab
B) Assam D) Haryana
C) West Bengal
D) Tamil Nadu 100. The famous 'Jog Falls' is located in which state?
A) Karnataka
92. The only floating national park in the world is lo- B) Maharashtra
cated in: C) Kerala
A) Manipur D) Tamil Nadu
B) Assam
C) Tripura 101. The source of the river Ganges is:
D) Meghalaya A) Gangotri Glacier
B) Yamunotri Glacier
93. The largest freshwater lake in India is: C) Mansarovar Lake
A) Wular Lake D) Nanda Devi Glacier
B) Chilika Lake

RAHUL SHARMA 59
102. The river which forms the boundary between B) Madhya Pradesh
Haryana and Uttar Pradesh is: C) Karnataka
A) Yamuna D) Andhra Pradesh
B) Ganges
C) Ghaggar 111. The city of Agra is situated on the banks of
D) Sutlej which river?
A) Yamuna
103. The famous Dal Lake is located in: B) Ganges
A) Srinagar C) Chambal
B) Shimla D) Betwa
C) Leh
D) Manali 112. The city of Bengaluru is known for its:
A) IT industry
104. The Hirakud Dam is built on which river? B) Textile industry
- A) Mahanadi C) Film industry
- B) Godavari D) Steel industry
- C) Krishna
- D) Kaveri 113. The Pink City of India is:
A) Jaipur
105. The Bhakra Dam is located on which river? B) Jodhpur
A) Sutlej C) Udaipur
B) Beas D) Ajmer
C) Ravi
D) Yamuna 114. The financial capital of India is:
A) Mumbai
106. The Tehri Dam is built on which river? B) Delhi
A) Bhagirathi C) Kolkata
B) Alaknanda D) Chennai
C) Mandakini
D) Yamuna 115. The temple city of India is:
A) Bhubaneswar
107. The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located on which B) Varanasi
river? C) Madurai
A) Krishna D) Tirupati
B) Godavari
C) Mahanadi 116. The city of Kochi is located in which state?
D) Kaveri A) Kerala
B) Tamil Nadu
108. The river Brahmaputra enters India through C) Karnataka
which state? D) Andhra Pradesh
A) Arunachal Pradesh
B) Assam 117. The capital city of Telangana is:
C) Meghalaya A) Hyderabad
D) Nagaland B) Warangal
C) Karimnagar
109. The Narmada River flows through which states? D) Nizamabad
A) Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat
B) Maharashtra and Karnataka 118. The Gateway of India is located in:
C) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar A) Mumbai
D) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana B) Delhi
C) Kolkata
110. The source of the river Godavari is in: D) Chennai
A) Maharashtra

RAHUL SHARMA 60
119. The Silicon Valley of India is: A) 12 years
A) Bengaluru B) 6 years
B) Hyderabad C) 4 years
C) Pune D) 8 years
D) Chennai
128. The largest state in India by population is:
120. The city of Patna is situated on the banks of A) Uttar Pradesh
which river? B) Maharashtra
A) Ganges C) Bihar
B) Yamuna D) West Bengal
C) Kosi
D) Gandak 129. The largest producer of rice in India is:
A) West Bengal
121. The largest desert in India is: B) Punjab
A) Thar Desert C) Uttar Pradesh
B) Rann of Kutch D) Tamil Nadu
C) Deccan Desert
D) Ladakh Desert 130. The oldest mountain range in India is:
A) Aravalli Range
122. The national fruit of India is: B) Himalayas
A) Mango C) Satpura Range
B) Banana D) Western Ghats
C) Apple
D) Orange 131. The capital of the state of Uttarakhand is:
A) Dehradun
123. The longest coastline in India is in which state? B) Nainital
A) Gujarat C) Haridwar
B) Maharashtra D) Almora
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Andhra Pradesh 132. The smallest state in India by area is:
A) Goa
124. The official language of the Indian state of Naga- B) Sikkim
land is: C) Tripura
A) English D) Mizoram
B) Hindi
C) Naga 133. The state with the highest literacy rate in India
D) Assamese is:
A) Kerala
125. The headquarters of the Eastern Naval Com- B) Mizoram
mand of the Indian Navy is located in: C) Goa
A) Vishakhapatnam D) Tamil Nadu
B) Chennai
C) Kolkata 134. The capital of the Union Territory of Puducherry
D) Kochi is:
A) Puducherry
126. The largest producer of spices in India is: B) Karaikal
A) Kerala C) Mahe
B) Andhra Pradesh D) Yanam
C) Karnataka
D) Tamil Nadu 135. The capital of the Union Territory of Lakshad-
weep is:
127. The famous 'Kumbh Mela' is held every how A) Kavaratti
many years? B) Minicoy

RAHUL SHARMA 61
 C) Amini A) Maharashtra
D) Agatti B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Gujarat
136. The capital of the state of Arunachal Pradesh is: D) Rajasthan
A) Itanagar
B) Naharlagun 145. The famous Brihadeeswara Temple is located in:
C) Pasighat A) Tamil Nadu
D) Tawang B) Karnataka
C) Kerala
137. The capital of the state of Jharkhand is: D) Andhra Pradesh
A) Ranchi
B) Jamshedpur 146. The famous Meenakshi Temple is located in
C) Dhanbad which city?
D) Bokaro A) Madurai
B) Chennai
138. The capital of the state of Chhattisgarh is: C) Thanjavur
A) Raipur D) Kanchipuram
B) Bilaspur
C) Durg 147. The Golconda Fort is located in:
D) Bhilai A) Hyderabad
B) Jaipur
139. The capital of the state of Haryana is: C) Delhi
A) Chandigarh D) Lucknow
B) Gurgaon
C) Faridabad 148. The famous Hawa Mahal is located in:
D) Panipat A) Jaipur
B) Jodhpur
140. The capital of the state of Odisha is: C) Udaipur
A) Bhubaneswar D) Ajmer
B) Cuttack
C) Puri 149. The Khajuraho Temples are located in which
D) Rourkela state?
A) Madhya Pradesh
141. The famous dance form of Kerala is: B) Uttar Pradesh
A) Kathakali C) Rajasthan
B) Bharatanatyam D) Gujarat
C) Kuchipudi
D) Odissi 150. The famous Sanchi Stupa is located in which
state?
142. The famous classical dance form of Andhra Pra- A) Madhya Pradesh
desh is: B) Maharashtra
A) Kuchipudi C) Gujarat
B) Bharatanatyam D) Rajasthan
C) Kathak
D) Mohiniyattam
Physical Geography
143. The Sun Temple is located in which state?
A) Odisha 1. The layer of the atmosphere closest to the Earth's
B) West Bengal surface is:
C) Bihar A) Stratosphere
D) Jharkhand B) Mesosphere
C) Troposphere
144. The Ajanta Caves are located in which state? D) Thermosphere

RAHUL SHARMA 62
 10. The term "albedo" refers to:
2. The phenomenon of the "Greenhouse Effect" is A) The moisture content of the soil
mainly caused by: B) The reflectivity of a surface
A) Nitrogen C) The temperature difference between day and
B) Oxygen night
C) Carbon dioxide D) The movement of tectonic plates
D) Argon
11. The process of the breaking down of rocks into
3. The primary factor that drives ocean currents is: smaller particles is called:
A) Temperature A) Erosion
B) Wind B) Weathering
C) Salinity C) Deposition
D) Ocean depth D) Sedimentation

4. The monsoon winds in India are primarily influ- 12. The highest type of volcanic eruption on the Vol-
enced by: canic Explosivity Index (VEI) is:
A) Jet streams A) Strombolian
B) Continental drift B) Vulcanian
C) Pressure differences C) Plinian
D) Ocean currents D) Hawaiian

5. The driest place on Earth is: 13. The geological process by which continents are
A) Sahara Desert formed is known as:
B) Atacama Desert A) Plate tectonics
C) Gobi Desert B) Seafloor spreading
D) Kalahari Desert C) Volcanism
D) Erosion
6. The "eye" of a cyclone is characterized by:
A) Calm weather 14. The Himalayan Mountain range was formed as a
B) Strong winds result of:
C) Heavy rainfall A) Volcanic activity
D) High pressure B) Subduction
C) Continental collision
7. The climate zone characterized by hot and dry con- D) Transform boundary movement
ditions is known as:
A) Temperate 15. The term "isostasy" in geology refers to:
B) Tropical A) The equilibrium between the Earth's crust and
C) Polar mantle
D) Arid B) The alignment of magnetic minerals in rocks
C) The flow of magma beneath the Earth's crust
8. The largest ozone hole is typically found over: D) The folding and faulting of rocks
A) Arctic
B) Antarctica 16. The U-shaped valleys are typically formed by:
C) Equator A) River erosion
D) Tropic of Cancer B) Glacial erosion
C) Wind erosion
9. The most abundant greenhouse gas in the Earth's D) Coastal erosion
atmosphere is:
A) Carbon dioxide 17. The process of rock particles being transported by
B) Methane wind, water, or ice is known as:
C) Water vapor A) Deposition
D) Nitrous oxide B) Weathering
C) Erosion
D) Sedimentation
RAHUL SHARMA 63
 B) Density-driven circulation of ocean water
18. The primary force behind the movement of tec- C) Movement of tectonic plates
tonic plates is: D) Volcanic activity on the ocean floor
A) Gravitational pull
B) Earth's rotation 27. The phenomenon where cold, nutrient-rich water
C) Mantle convection rises to the surface is called:
D) Solar radiation A) Downwelling
B) Upwelling
19. The deepest part of the world's oceans is the: C) Thermocline
A) Mariana Trench D) Halocline
B) Tonga Trench
C) Philippine Trench 28. The largest and most powerful ocean current is
D) Puerto Rico Trench the:
A) Gulf Stream
20. The term "karst" refers to a landscape shaped by: B) Kuroshio Current
A) Volcanic activity C) Antarctic Circumpolar Current
B) Glacial erosion D) California Current
C) Chemical weathering of limestone
D) River erosion 29. The term "El Niño" refers to:
A) A volcanic eruption
21. The largest ocean on Earth is the: B) A periodic warming of sea surface temperatures
A) Atlantic Ocean in the Pacific Ocean
B) Indian Ocean C) A hurricane
C) Arctic Ocean D) A tectonic plate movement
D) Pacific Ocean
30. The boundary where the ocean floor transitions
22. The process by which seawater is converted into to the continental shelf is called:
freshwater is called: A) Abyssal plain
A) Evaporation B) Continental slope
B) Condensation C) Oceanic trench
C) Desalination D) Mid-ocean ridge
D) Precipitation
31. The biome characterized by very low tempera-
23. The world's largest coral reef system is: tures and permafrost is:
A) Great Barrier Reef A) Desert
B) Mesoamerican Reef B) Tundra
C) New Caledonia Barrier Reef C) Rainforest
D) Florida Reef D) Savanna

24. The main cause of ocean tides is: 32. The largest terrestrial biome on Earth is the:
A) Wind A) Desert
B) Earth's rotation B) Rainforest
C) Gravitational pull of the moon C) Taiga
D) Temperature differences D) Grassland

25. The area where a river meets the sea is called: 33. The region with the highest biodiversity is:
A) Delta A) Arctic
B) Estuary B) Temperate forests
C) Lagoon C) Tropical rainforests
D) Bay D) Deserts

26. The term "thermohaline circulation" refers to: 34. The grasslands of North America are known as:
A) Wind-driven Ocean currents A) Pampas

RAHUL SHARMA 64
 B) Steppes C) Fault line
C) Prairies D) Hypocenter
D) Savannas
43. The scale used to measure the intensity of earth-
35. The Sahara Desert is located on which continent? quakes is:
A) Asia A) Richter scale
B) Africa B) Beaufort scale
C) Australia C) Fujita scale
D) South America D) Kelvin scale

36. Mangrove forests are typically found: 44. A tsunami is typically caused by:
A) In cold climates A) Hurricanes
B) Along tropical and subtropical coasts B) Earthquakes under the sea
C) In deserts C) Volcanic eruptions on land
D) On mountain slopes D) Tornadoes

37. The major factor determining the distribution of 45. The deadliest natural disaster in recorded history
biomes is: is:
A) Soil type A) 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami
B) Altitude B) 1931 China floods
C) Climate C) 1556 Shaanxi earthquake
D) Human activity D) 2010 Haiti earthquake

38. The largest rainforest in the world is the: 46. The term "cyclone" is used for hurricanes occur-
A) Congo Rainforest ring in:
B) Amazon Rainforest A) Atlantic Ocean
C) Daintree Rainforest B) Indian Ocean
D) Valdivian Rainforest C) Pacific Ocean
D) Arctic Ocean
39. The term "biodiversity hotspot" refers to:
A) Areas with high species richness and endemism 47. The process of removing loose material by wind
B) Areas with high temperatures action is called:
C) Areas with high rainfall A) Deflation
D) Areas with large human populations B) Erosion
C) Abrasion
40. The biome characterized by seasonal rainfall and D) Weathering
grasses with few trees is:
A) Tundra 48. The sudden downhill movement of soil and rock
B) Desert due to gravity is known as:
C) Savanna A) Landslide
D) Temperate Forest B) Erosion
C) Sedimentation
41. The instrument used to measure the magnitude D) Avalanch
of earthquakes is:
A) Barometer 49. The Ring of Fire is located in:
B) Seismograph A) Atlantic Ocean
C) Hygrometer B) Indian Ocean
D) Anemometer C) Pacific Ocean
D) Arctic Ocean
42. The point on the Earth's surface directly above
the focus of an earthquake is called the: 50. The phenomenon of liquefaction during an earth-
A) Epicenter quake occurs when:
B) Focus A) Solid ground behaves like a liquid

RAHUL SHARMA 65
 B) Water in rivers starts to boil B) Sandy and dry
C) Lava flows from a volcano C) Lateritic and nutrient-poor
D) Air pressure increases dramatically D) Clayey and waterlogged

51. The most fertile type of soil is: 59. The primary factor that influences soil formation
A) Sandy soil is:
B) Clay soil A) Time
C) Loamy soil B) Climate
D) Peaty soil C) Parent material
D) Topography
52. The process of soil formation from parent rock
material is known as: 60. The process by which nutrients are washed out of
- A) Sedimentation the soil is known as:
- B) Weathering A) Erosion
- C) Erosion B) Leaching
- D) Deposition C) Weathering
D) Deposition
53. The dark, organic material in soil, derived from
decayed plants and animals, is called: 61. The primary source of energy for the Earth's cli-
A) Clay mate system is:
B) Silt A) Geothermal energy
C) Humus B) Wind energy
D) Sand C) Solar energy
D) Nuclear energy
54. The soil layer that is rich in minerals and organic
material is known as the: 62. The largest producer of coal in the world is:
A) Bedrock A) USA
B) Topsoil B) India
C) Subsoil C) China
D) Parent material D) Australia

55. The primary source of soil nutrients is: 63. The country with the largest reserves of natural
A) Air gas is:
B) Water A) Russia
C) Organic matter B) Qatar
D) Sunlight C) USA
D) Saudi Arabia
56. The type of vegetation found in desert regions is:
A) Tropical rainforest 64. The most common type of renewable energy
B) Deciduous Forest used worldwide is:
C) Grasslands A) Solar energy
D) Xerophytes B) Wind energy
C) Hydroelectric energy
57. The tropical grassland with scattered trees is D) Geothermal energy
known as:
A) Tundra 65. The major component of natural gas is:
B) Taiga A) Ethane
C) Savanna B) Propane
D) Steppe C) Methane
D) Butane
58. The soil type found in tropical rainforests is typi-
cally: 66. The most abundant metallic mineral in the
A) Fertile and rich Earth's crust is:

RAHUL SHARMA 66
 A) Iron D) Oxygen
B) Aluminum
C) Copper 75. The process by which fertile land becomes desert
D) Zinc is known as:
A) Erosion
67. The largest producer of crude oil in the world is: B) Deforestation
A) USA C) Desertification
B) Saudi Arabia D) Leaching
C) Russia
D) Canada 76. The international agreement aimed at reducing
ozone-depleting substances is:
68. The term "fossil fuels" refers to: A) Paris Agreement
A) Renewable energy sources B) Montreal Protocol
B) Non-renewable energy sources C) Kyoto Protocol
C) Hydroelectric power D) Rio Declaration
D) Nuclear power
77. The largest contributor to air pollution in urban
69. The primary use of uranium is in: areas is:
A) Generating nuclear power A) Industrial emissions
B) Manufacturing fertilizers B) Agricultural activities
C) Producing steel C) Vehicular emissions
D) Making batteries D) Natural disasters

70. The world's largest producer of hydropower is: 78. The most effective way to reduce soil erosion is:
A) USA A) Deforestation
B) China B) Urbanization
C) Brazil C) Afforestation
D) Canada D) Mining

71. The main cause of deforestation is: 79. The major effect of deforestation is:
A) Urbanization A) Increased biodiversity
B) Agriculture B) Improved air quality
C) Mining C) Soil erosion
D) Industrialization D) Decreased carbon dioxide levels

72. The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement 80. The phenomenon where the Earth's average tem-
related to: perature is increasing is known as:
A) Nuclear disarmament A) Global cooling
B) Climate change B) Global warming
C) Biodiversity conservation C) Climate stabilization
D) Human rights D) Ozone depletion

73. The primary greenhouse gas responsible for 81. The Richter scale measures:
global warming is: A) The intensity of an earthquake
A) Oxygen B) The magnitude of an earthquake
B) Nitrogen C) The depth of an earthquake
C) Carbon dioxide D) The duration of an earthquake
D) Methane
82. The place within the Earth where an earthquake
74. The primary cause of acid rain is: originates is called the:
A) Carbon dioxide A) Epicenter
B) Sulfur dioxide B) Hypocenter
C) Nitrogen C) Fault line

RAHUL SHARMA 67
 D) Seismic zone 91. The theory of plate tectonics explains:
A) The formation of mountains
83. The most active volcano in the world is: B) The distribution of continents and oceans
A) Mount Vesuvius C) The movement of Earth's lithospheric plates
B) Mount Fuji D) The process of erosion
C) Kilauea
D) Mount St. Helens 92. The supercontinent that existed around 300 mil-
lion years ago is called:
84. The process by which magma reaches the Earth's A) Gondwana
surface is called: B) Laurasia
A) Eruption C) Pangaea
B) Weathering D) Rodinia
C) Deposition
D) Subduction 93. The mid-ocean ridges are associated with:
A) Convergent boundaries
85. The type of boundary where two tectonic plates B) Divergent boundaries
collide is called: C) Transform boundaries
A) Divergent boundary D) Subduction zones
B) Convergent boundary
C) Transform boundary 94. The movement of tectonic plates is primarily
D) Subduction boundary caused by:
A) Solar radiation
86. The largest volcanic eruption in recorded history B) Mantle convection
occurred at: C) Gravitational pull
A) Mount Vesuvius D) Ocean currents
B) Krakatoa
C) Mount St. Helens 95. The Himalayas were formed as a result of the col-
D) Mauna Loa lision between:
A) African Plate and Eurasian Plate
87. The Pacific Ring of Fire is known for: B) Indian Plate and Eurasian Plate
A) High levels of biodiversity C) Pacific Plate and North American Plate
B) Frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions D) South American Plate and African Plate
C) Extreme weather patterns
D) Large coral reef systems 96. The boundary where two tectonic plates move
apart is called a:
88. The study of earthquakes is known as: A) Convergent boundary
A) Volcanology B) Divergent boundary
B) Seismology C) Transform boundary
C) Meteorology D) Subduction zone
D) Geology
97. The Andes Mountain range was formed due to:
89. The Hawaiian Islands were formed by: A) Volcanic activity
A) Subduction zones B) Erosion
B) Hotspot volcanism C) Subduction of the Nazca Plate beneath the South
C) Transform boundaries American Plate
D) Divergent boundaries D) Divergence of the Pacific Plate

90. The San Andreas Fault is an example of a: 98. The process by which one tectonic plate is forced
A) Convergent boundary under another is called:
B) Divergent boundary A) Erosion
C) Transform boundary B) Subduction
D) Subduction zone C) Faulting
D) Weathering

RAHUL SHARMA 68
99. The African Rift Valley is an example of: 107. The depressions carved by glaciers that later fill
A) Convergent boundary with water are called:
B) Divergent boundary A) Fjords
C) Transform boundary B) Moraines
D) Subduction zone C) Drumlin
D) Cirques
100. The process of seafloor spreading occurs at:
A) Ocean trenches 108. The process by which glaciers erode the land is
B) Mid-ocean ridges known as:
C) Subduction zones A) Abrasion and plucking
D) Transform boundaries B) Deposition and sedimentation
C) Sublimation and melting
101. The largest glacier in the world is the: D) Weathering and erosion
A) Lambert Glacier
B) Siachen Glacier 109. The feature formed by the meeting of two or
C) Jakobshavn Glacier more glaciers is called:
D) Biafo Glacier - A) Arête
- B) Horn
102. The process of ice breaking off from the edge of - C) Hanging valley
a glacier is called: - D) Moraine
A) Calving
B) Erosion 110. The term "glacial till" refers to:
C) Ablation A) Sediments deposited by glacial meltwater
D) Deposition B) Rocks transported and deposited by glaciers
C) Erosion caused by glacial movement
103. The term "firn" refers to: D) The ice at the bottom of a glacier
A) Newly fallen snow
B) Glacial ice 111. The physical breakdown of rocks into smaller
C) Compacted snow that is intermediate between pieces without chemical change is called:
snow and ice A) Chemical weathering
D) Icebergs B) Physical weathering
C) Erosion
104. The boundary between the zone of accumula- D) Deposition
tion and the zone of ablation on a glacier is called
the: 112. The primary agent of chemical weathering is:
A) Snowline A) Wind
B) Terminus B) Water
C) Equilibrium line C) Ice
D) Crevasse D) Plants

105. The phenomenon of glaciers flowing due to 113. The process by which rocks are worn away by
gravity is known as: the grinding action of other rock particles is called:
A) Sublimation A) Abrasion
B) Deposition B) Solution
C) Glacier drift C) Hydrolysis
D) Glacier creep D) Oxidation

106. The largest ice sheet in the world is located in: 114. The type of weathering that involves the expan-
A) Greenland sion of water when it freezes in cracks and crevices of
B) Antarctica rocks is called:
C) Iceland A) Thermal expansion
D) Alaska B) Frost wedging
C) Biological weathering
RAHUL SHARMA 69
 D) Chemical weathering B) Aquifer
C) Unsaturated zone
115. The movement of sediment or rock by wind, wa- D) Recharge area
ter, ice, or gravity is known as:
A) Weathering 123. The process by which water from the surface in-
B) Erosion filtrates into the ground to replenish groundwater is
C) Deposition called:
D) Sedimentation A) Evaporation
B) Transpiration
116. The process of wind removing loose material C) Recharge
from the Earth's surface is called: D) Discharge
A) Abrasion
B) Deflation 124. The continuous movement of water on, above,
C) Corrosion and below the surface of the Earth is known as the:
D) Weathering A) Rock cycle
B) Hydrologic cycle
117. The term "mass wasting" refers to: C) Carbon cycle
A) Erosion caused by rivers D) Nitrogen cycle
B) The downslope movement of soil and rock due
to gravity 125. The area of land where all precipitation collects
C) Weathering caused by chemical reactions and drains into a common outlet is called a:
D) The deposition of sediment by wind A) Basin
B) Watershed
118. The process by which soluble minerals are dis- C) Reservoir
solved and removed from the soil is known as: D) Aquifer
A) Erosion
B) Weathering 126. The term "aquifer" refers to:
C) Leaching A) A body of permeable rock that can contain or
D) Deposition transmit groundwater
B) A natural or artificial lake
119. The type of weathering that results from the ac- C) The area above the water table
tivities of living organisms is called: D) The process of water moving into the atmos-
A) Physical weathering phere
B) Chemical weathering
C) Biological weathering 127. The largest river by discharge in the world is:
D) Mechanical weathering A) Nile River
B) Amazon River
120. The process by which transported sediment is C) Yangtze River
laid down or dropped in a new location is called: D) Mississippi River
A) Erosion
B) Weathering 128. The process by which plants release water vapor
C) Deposition into the atmosphere is called:
D) Transportation A) Evaporation
B) Transpiration
121. The largest freshwater lake by volume in the C) Condensation
world is: D) Precipitation
A) Lake Superior
B) Lake Baikal 129. The layer of rock or sediment that slows down
C) Lake Victoria or stops the flow of groundwater is called an:
D) Lake Tanganyika A) Aquifer
B) Aquiclude
122. The zone of saturation where all pore spaces in C) Water table
soil or rock are filled with water is called the: D) Artesian well
A) Water table
RAHUL SHARMA 70
130. The main cause of river meanders is: C) Ecological succession
A) Steep gradient D) Adaptation
B) Erosion and deposition
C) Human activity 138. The type of symbiotic relationship where both
D) Tectonic activity species benefit is called:
A) Commensalism
131. The place where an organism lives and obtains B) Parasitism
its food, water, shelter, and other resources is called C) Mutualism
its: D) Predation
A) Niche
B) Habitat 139. The role an organism plays in its environment,
C) Ecosystem including what it eats, how it obtains its food, and
D) Biome how it interacts with other organisms, is its:
A) Habitat
132. The interdependent relationships between B) Niche
plants and animals in an ecosystem are known as: C) Territory
A) Food chains D) Home range
B) Food webs
C) Trophic levels 140. The term "keystone species" refers to:
D) Ecological succession A) The most abundant species in an ecosystem
B) A species that has a disproportionately large ef-
133. The primary producers in an ecosystem are usu- fect on its ecosystem
ally: C) The primary producers in an ecosystem
A) Herbivores D) The top predators in an ecosystem
B) Carnivores
C) Plants 141. The primary cause of recent climate change is:
D) Decomposers A) Natural cycles of the Earth
B) Human activities, such as burning fossil fuels
134. The process by which plants make their own C) Volcanic eruptions
food using sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water is D) Changes in solar radiation
called:
A) Respiration 142. The greenhouse gas with the highest concentra-
B) Photosynthesis tion in the Earth's atmosphere is:
C) Decomposition A) Methane
D) Nitrogen fixation B) Carbon dioxide
C) Nitrous oxide
135. The largest biome on Earth, covering most of D) Water vapor
the planet's surface, is the:
A) Desert biome 143. The effect of increased levels of carbon dioxide
B) Forest biome on the Earth's temperature is called:
C) Marine biome A) The greenhouse effect
D) Grassland biome B) The ozone effect
C) The albedo effect
136. The term "biodiversity" refers to: D) The Coriolis effect
A) The number of different species in a given area
B) The rate of plant growth in an area 144. The phenomenon of rising sea levels is primarily
C) The average temperature of an ecosystem caused by:
D) The amount of rainfall in an ecosystem A) Melting glaciers and ice sheets
B) Increased precipitation
137. The process by which one community of organ- C) Changes in ocean currents
isms slowly replaces another in an ecosystem is D) Earthquakes
known as:
A) Evolution 145. The international treaty aimed at reducing
B) Natural selection greenhouse gas emissions is the:
RAHUL SHARMA 71
 A) Montreal Protocol
B) Kyoto Protocol 3. Which branch of economics deals with the perfor-
C) Paris Agreement mance, structure, and behavior of an economy as a
D) Rio Declaration whole?
a) Microeconomics
146. The region of the Earth that is warming the fast- b) Macroeconomics
est is: c) International Economics
A) The tropics d) Development Economics
B) The polar regions
C) The mid-latitudes 4. What is the opportunity cost?
D) The equatorial regions a) Cost of the next best alternative foregone
b) Cost of production
147. The phenomenon where certain gases trap heat c) Cost of living
in the Earth's atmosphere is known as: d) Cost of raw materials
A) Global cooling
B) The greenhouse effect 5. Which of the following is a normative statement?
C) Ozone depletion a) The unemployment rate is 4%.
D) Solar radiation b) The inflation rate increased by 2% last year.
c) The government should reduce taxes to increase
148. The primary source of methane emissions is: disposable income.
A) Fossil fuel combustion d) The GDP growth rate is 6%.
B) Agriculture, such as livestock production
C) Deforestation 6. Which of the following is not a component of
D) Industrial processes Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
a) Consumer spending
149. The measure of the Earth's reflectivity, which b) Business investment
can affect climate, is called: c) Government spending
A) Albedo d) Imports
B) Radiative forcing
C) Solar constant 7. GDP calculated at current prices is known as:
D) Emissivity a) Real GDP
b) Nominal GDP
150. The long-term average of weather patterns in an c) Potential GDP
area is referred to as: d) Per capita GDP
A) Weather
B) Climate 8. What does GNP stand for?
C) Meteorology a) Gross National Product
D) Atmosphere b) Gross National Profit
c) Gross National Potential

Economy
d) Gross National Performance

1. What is the main function of an economy? 9. Which method is used to calculate National In-
a) Production come by adding up all incomes?
b) Distribution a) Expenditure method
c) Consumption b) Output method
d) All of the above c) Income method
d) Value-added method
2. Which economic system is characterized by collec-
tive ownership? 10. Which of the following measures the value of all
a) Capitalism goods and services produced within a country?
b) Socialism a) GDP
c) Communism b) GNP
d) Mixed Economy c) NNP

RAHUL SHARMA 72
 d) NDP b) Floating exchange rate system
c) Pegged exchange rate system
11. The law of demand states that, all else equal: d) Managed exchange rate system
a) As price increases, quantity demanded increases
b) As price increases, quantity demanded decreases 19. What does 'devaluation' of a currency mean?
c) As price decreases, quantity demanded decreases a) Increase in the value of a currency relative to
d) Demand is always constant other currencies
b) Decrease in the value of a currency relative to
12. A movement along the demand curve is caused other currencies
by: c) Maintaining the value of a currency relative to
a) Change in income other currencies
b) Change in tastes and preferences d) Fluctuation of currency value relative to other
c) Change in the price of the good currencies
d) Change in expectations
20. Which organization monitors global exchange
13. What does the supply curve show? rate policies?
a) The relationship between price and quantity sup- a) World Bank
plied b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
b) The relationship between price and quantity de- c) World Trade Organization (WTO)
manded d) European Central Bank (ECB)
c) The relationship between income and quantity
demanded 21. What is economic development?
d) The relationship between cost and profit a) Increase in national income
b) Increase in per capita income
14. In the demand-supply graph, equilibrium is c) Improvement in living standards and reduction of
reached when: poverty
a) Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied d) All of the above
b) Quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded
c) Quantity demanded equals quantity supplied 22. Which index measures the overall development
d) Prices fall continuously of a country?
a) Human Development Index (HDI)
15. What causes a shift in the supply curve? b) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
a) Change in the price of the good c) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
b) Change in technology d) Producer Price Index (PPI)
c) Change in consumer tastes
d) Change in the price of substitutes 23. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a
developing economy?
16. What is foreign exchange? a) High levels of poverty
a) The exchange of goods and services between b) High levels of industrialization
countries c) Low levels of education
b) The exchange of one currency for another d) High population growth rate
c) The exchange of financial assets within a country
d) The exchange of stocks and bonds 24. What is inclusive growth?
a) Economic growth that includes only the rich
17. The rate at which one currency can be exchanged b) Economic growth that benefits all sections of so-
for another is known as: ciety
a) Exchange Rate c) Economic growth that excludes foreign invest-
b) Interest Rate ments
c) Inflation Rate d) Economic growth that focuses on urban areas
d) Discount Rate
25. Sustainable development focuses on:
18. A system where exchange rates are determined a) Economic growth without considering environ-
by supply and demand is called: mental impacts
a) Fixed exchange rate system
RAHUL SHARMA 73
 b) Economic growth with environmental conserva- 33. Which of the following companies is a Maharatna
tion company?
c) Short-term economic gains a) ONGC
d) Increased industrialization b) BHEL
c) Coal India Limited
26. In which year was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) d) All of the above
established?
a) 1935 34. What are the benefits of being a Navratna com-
b) 1947 pany?
c) 1950 a) Greater autonomy in decision-making
d) 1969 b) Higher financial delegation
c) Easier access to capital markets
27. Where is the headquarters of the Reserve Bank d) All of the above
of India (RBI) located?
a) New Delhi 35. When was the Navratna status first introduced in
b) Mumbai India?
c) Kolkata a) 1990
d) Chennai b) 1995
c) 2000
28. Who was the first governor of the Reserve Bank d) 2005
of India?
a) C.D. Deshmukh 36. Who is responsible for formulating the monetary
b) Benegal Rama Rau policy in India?
c) Sir Osborne Smith a) Ministry of Finance
d) Manmohan Singh b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Planning Commission
29. What is the primary function of the Reserve Bank d) NITI Aayog
of India?
a) Issuing currency 37. What is the main goal of monetary policy?
b) Regulating the banking sector a) Control inflation
c) Managing foreign exchange b) Regulate money supply
d) All of the above c) Ensure economic stability
d) All of the above
30. Which of the following is not a function of com-
mercial banks? 38. Fiscal policy involves the use of:
a) Accepting deposits a) Taxation and government spending
b) Providing loans b) Interest rates and credit control
c) Issuing currency c) Exchange rates and foreign trade
d) Investment in government securities d) Money supply and demand

31. Which status is given to the top-performing pub- 39. What does the Balance of Payments (BOP) ac-
lic sector enterprises in India? count for?
a) Navratna a) All economic transactions between residents of a
b) Maharatna country and the rest of the world
c) Miniratna b) Government revenues and expenditures
d) All of the above c) Supply and demand of foreign exchange
d) Internal trade within a country
32. How many public sector enterprises have been
given Maharatna status? 40. Which institution is known as the 'lender of last
a) 3 resort'?
b) 7 a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
c) 11 b) World Bank
d) 15 c) Reserve Bank of India
d) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
RAHUL SHARMA 74
 49. Which Five Year Plan was focused on 'inclusive
41. When was the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in- growth'?
troduced in India? a) 9th Five Year Plan
a) 2015 b) 10th Five Year Plan
b) 2016 c) 11th Five Year Plan
c) 2017 d) 12th Five Year Plan
d) 2018
50. Who is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog?
42. GST in India is a: a) Prime Minister of India
a) Single-stage tax b) President of India
b) Multi-stage tax c) Finance Minister of India
c) Direct tax d) Governor of RBI
d) Indirect tax
51. When is the Union Budget of India traditionally
43. What does IGST stand for in the context of GST? presented?
a) International Goods and Services Tax a) 1st January
b) Integrated Goods and Services Tax b) 1st February
c) Internal Goods and Services Tax c) 1st March
d) Intermediate Goods and Services Tax d) 1st April

44. Which tax is levied on the income of individuals? 52. Who was the first Finance Minister of independ-
a) GST ent India to present the budget?
b) Income Tax a) C.D. Deshmukh
c) Corporate Tax b) R.K. Shanmukham Chetty
d) Service Tax c) Morarji Desai
d) Manmohan Singh
45. What is the highest tax slab for individual income
tax in India as per recent tax laws? 53. What does the term 'Fiscal Deficit' mean?
a) 10% a) Excess of government expenditure over revenue
b) 20% b) Excess of government revenue over expenditure
c) 30% c) Balance between government revenue and ex-
d) 40% penditure
d) Excess of imports over exports
46. When was the first Five Year Plan launched in In-
dia? 54. Which document is presented along with the Un-
a) 1947 ion Budget to provide detailed information on gov-
b) 1950 ernment finances?
c) 1951 a) Economic Survey
d) 1956 b) Finance Bill
c) Appropriation Bill
47. Which body was replaced by NITI Aayog? d) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Re-
a) Planning Commission port
b) Finance Commission
c) National Development Council 55. What is the primary objective of the Union
d) Economic Advisory Council Budget?
a) Economic stability and growth
48. What does NITI Aayog stand for? b) Redistribution of income
a) National Institute for Transforming India c) Resource allocation
b) National Initiative for Transforming India d) All of the above
c) National Institution for Transforming India
d) National Institute for Technical Innovation 56. Which of the following is a primary sector activ-
ity?
a) Manufacturing
b) Fishing
RAHUL SHARMA 75
 c) Banking b) Total national income
d) Transportation c) Income before taxes
d) Savings plus consumption
57. The concept of 'Invisible Hand' was introduced
by: 65. Which sector contributes the most to India's
a) Karl Marx GDP?
b) John Maynard Keynes a) Agriculture
c) Adam Smith b) Industry
d) David Ricardo c) Services
d) Mining
58. What is the term for an economy where the gov-
ernment makes all production decisions? 66. What is 'elasticity of demand'?
a) Market economy a) The change in demand when price changes
b) Command economy b) The responsiveness of quantity demanded to a
c) Mixed economy change in price
d) Traditional economy c) The slope of the demand curve
d) The total demand for a good
59. The circular flow of income in an economy shows
the movement of: 67. Inelastic demand occurs when:
a) Goods and services a) Demand changes significantly with price changes
b) Money b) Demand does not change significantly with price
c) Resources and money changes
d) All of the above c) Supply changes significantly with price changes
d) Supply does not change significantly with price
60. In a free-market economy, prices are determined changes
by:
a) Government policies 68. A decrease in the price of a complementary good
b) Producers' decisions will:
c) Consumers' decisions a) Increase the demand for the good
d) Market forces of demand and supply b) Decrease the demand for the good
c) Have no effect on the demand for the good
61. The term 'Per Capita Income' refers to: d) Increase the supply of the good
a) Total income of the country
b) Income per person 69. When there is a surplus in the market:
c) Income of the top earners a) Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied
d) National savings b) Quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded
c) Prices tend to rise
62. Which of the following is not included in the cal- d) Prices remain stable
culation of GDP?
a) Government expenditure 70. What is 'price ceiling'?
b) Net exports a) Maximum price set by the government
c) Transfer payments b) Minimum price set by the government
d) Investment c) Equilibrium price in the market
d) The price at which quantity supplied equals quan-
63. What does the term 'Value Added' mean in the tity demanded
context of GDP?
a) Total output minus total input 71. A strong currency benefits:
b) Total input minus total output a) Exporters
c) The final market value of goods and services b) Importers
d) The price of intermediate goods c) Domestic producers
d) None of the above
64. Disposable income is defined as:
a) Income after taxes 72. What is 'currency appreciation'?

RAHUL SHARMA 76
 a) Decrease in the value of a currency 80. Which of the following is a feature of a devel-
b) Increase in the value of a currency oped economy?
c) Stability in the value of a currency a) High per capita income
d) Volatility in the value of a currency b) High literacy rates
c) Advanced infrastructure
73. The official currency of Japan is: d) All of the above
a) Yen
b) Yuan 81. The Banking Regulation Act was passed in which
c) Won year?
d) Dollar a) 1935
b) 1949
74. Which of the following is not a function of the c) 1969
foreign exchange market? d) 1980
a) Transfer of purchasing power
b) Provision of credit 82. Which of the following is a function of the RBI?
c) Hedging against exchange rate risks a) Issuing licenses to banks
d) Regulation of domestic markets b) Controlling inflation
c) Supervising financial institutions
75. What is the Bretton Woods Agreement related d) All of the above
to?
a) International monetary system 83. Which bank is known as the 'banker's bank' in In-
b) international trade laws dia?
c) Global environmental policies a) State Bank of India
d) Military alliances b) Reserve Bank of India
c) ICICI Bank
76. Which organization publishes the Human Devel- d) HDFC Bank
opment Report?
a) World Bank 84. What is 'SLR' in the context of banking?
b) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) a) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
c) International Monetary Fund (IMF) b) Standard Lending Rate
d) World Economic Forum (WEF) c) Special Loan Rate
d) Stable Liquidity Ratio
77. Which country has the highest Human Develop-
ment Index (HDI)? 85. Which of the following banks was nationalized in
a) Norway 1969?
b) India a) Punjab National Bank
c) China b) ICICI Bank
d) United States c) Axis Bank
d) Kotak Mahindra Bank
78. Which of the following is an indicator of eco-
nomic development? 86. Which Navratna company is the largest producer
a) Increase in per capita income of iron ore in India?
b) Increase in life expectancy a) NMDC Limited
c) Increase in literacy rates b) SAIL
d) All of the above c) ONGC
d) BHEL
79. The concept of 'Green GDP' includes:
a) Environmental costs of production 87. When did the government first start awarding the
b) Only the monetary value of goods and services Navratna status?
c) Costs of healthcare and education a) 1985
d) Military expenditure b) 1995
c) 2000
d) 2005

RAHUL SHARMA 77
 b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
88. Which criteria is not considered for awarding Ma- c) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
haratna status? d) BRICS Development Bank
a) Annual turnover
b) Annual net worth 96. Which of the following is not a type of GST?
c) Profit for the last three years a) CGST
d) Market share b) SGST
c) IGST
89. What is the maximum investment limit for Nav- d) OGST
ratna companies without government approval?
a) ₹100 crore 97. Under the GST regime, which tax is collected by
b) ₹500 crore the state governments?
c) ₹1000 crore a) CGST
d) ₹5000 crore b) SGST
c) IGST
90. Which of the following is a Miniratna company? d) UTGST
a) ONGC
b) Hindustan Copper Limited 98. Which of the following items is exempted from
c) NTPC GST?
d) GAIL a) Alcoholic liquor for human consumption
b) Electricity
91. Which of the following is a monetary policy tool? c) Petrol and diesel
a) Taxation d) All of the above
b) Government spending
c) Open market operations 99. What is the due date for filing annual GST re-
d) Public debt turns?
a) 31st March
92. What is 'repo rate'? b) 31st December
a) Rate at which the RBI borrows money from com- c) 30th June
mercial banks d) 31st July
b) Rate at which commercial banks borrow money
from the RBI 100. Which form is used for filing monthly GST re-
c) Rate at which commercial banks lend to each turns?
other a) GSTR-1
d) Rate at which the government borrows from the b) GSTR-3B
RBI c) GSTR-4
d) GSTR-9
93. Which fiscal policy measure would be used to
combat inflation? 101. The concept of Five-Year Plans was borrowed
a) Increasing taxes from which country?
b) Increasing government spending a) United States
c) Reducing interest rates b) United Kingdom
d) Increasing money supply c) Soviet Union
d) Germany
94. The capital account in the Balance of Payments in-
cludes: 102. Which Five Year Plan aimed at the 'Garibi Hatao'
a) Trade in goods and services (Remove Poverty) slogan?
b) Transfer payments a) First Five-Year Plan
c) Investments and loans b) Third Five Year Plan
d) Remittances c) Fourth Five Year Plan
d) Fifth Five Year Plan
95. Which institution provides short-term loans to
countries to manage their balance of payments? 103. The main focus of the Twelfth Five Year Plan
a) World Bank was:
RAHUL SHARMA 78
 a) Agriculture b) Individual and business decision-making
b) Industry c) Economic growth
c) Infrastructure d) Inflation and unemployment
d) Education
112. The production possibility frontier (PPF) repre-
104. NITI Aayog was established in which year? sents:
a) 2010 a) Maximum possible output combinations of two
b) 2012 goods
c) 2015 b) The level of unemployment in the economy
d) 2017 c) The level of inflation in the economy
d) None of the above
105. Which of the following is not a feature of NITI
Aayog? 113. What is 'Consumer Surplus'?
a) Top-down approach a) The difference between what consumers are will-
b) Bottom-up approach ing to pay and what they actually pay
c) Cooperative federalism b) The excess supply in the market
d) Decentralized planning c) The total revenue from sales
d) The total cost of production
106. What is 'Revenue Deficit'?
a) Excess of total expenditure over total revenue 114. Which of the following is an example of a public
b) Excess of revenue expenditure over revenue re- good?
ceipts a) Bread
c) Excess of capital expenditure over capital receipts b) Clothing
d) Excess of total receipts over total expenditure c) National defense
d) Private healthcare
107. Which part of the budget includes government's
income and expenditure? 115. What does 'Ceteris Paribus' mean in economics?
a) Capital Budget a) All other things being equal
b) Revenue Budget b) Change in quantity supplied
c) Expenditure Budget c) Change in demand
d) Financial Budget d) Cost of production

108. What is 'Capital Expenditure'? 116. The difference between Gross National Product
a) Spending on day-to-day operations (GNP) and Net National Product (NNP) is:
b) Spending on fixed assets a) Depreciation
c) Spending on salaries and pensions b) Taxes
d) Spending on subsidies c) Subsidies
d) Imports
109. The Finance Bill is passed by:
a) Lok Sabha 117. Which of the following is not a measure of na-
b) Rajya Sabha tional income?
c) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha a) GDP
d) President of India b) GNP
c) NNP
110. Which committee examines the budget pro- d) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
posals in the Parliament?
a) Public Accounts Committee 118. 'Real GDP' is adjusted for:
b) Estimates Committee a) Inflation
c) Finance Committee b) Population growth
d) Departmentally Related Standing Committees c) Interest rates
d) Exchange rates
111. What is the primary focus of microeconomics?
a) National income 119. The 'base year' in national income accounting is
used for:
RAHUL SHARMA 79
 a) Calculating real GDP d) All of the above
b) Measuring population
c) Calculating national debt 127. What is a 'currency swap'?
d) Measuring inflation rates a) Exchanging one currency for another at a fixed
rate
120. Which organization is responsible for calculating b) Agreement to exchange currency between two
national income in India? parties at a predetermined rate
a) Ministry of Finance c) Purchasing foreign currency at current exchange
b) Reserve Bank of India rates
c) Central Statistics Office (CSO) d) None of the above
d) NITI Aayog
128. Which of the following is a major participant in
121. What is the 'Law of Supply'? the foreign exchange market?
a) As price increases, quantity supplied increases a) Commercial banks
b) As price decreases, quantity supplied increases b) Central banks
c) Supply remains constant regardless of price c) Corporations
d) None of the above d) All of the above

122. A 'price floor' leads to: 129. The 'real exchange rate' is adjusted for:
a) Surplus a) Inflation
b) Shortage b) Interest rates
c) Equilibrium c) Trade balance
d) Market efficiency d) Foreign direct investment

123. The term 'Market Equilibrium' refers to: 130. What is 'exchange rate regime'?
a) A situation where quantity demanded equals a) The system governing the exchange rate of a
quantity supplied country's currency
b) A situation where quantity demanded exceeds b) The rate at which currency is exchanged for gold
quantity supplied c) The policy for controlling inflation
c) A situation where quantity supplied exceeds d) The policy for regulating international trade
quantity demanded
d) A situation where prices are constantly changing 131. Which of the following is a measure of inequal-
ity?
124. What is 'cross-price elasticity of demand'? a) Gini Coefficient
a) The responsiveness of the demand for a good to b) GDP
a change in the price of another good c) CPI
b) The responsiveness of the demand for a good to d) PPP
a change in consumer income
c) The responsiveness of the supply of a good to a 132. Sustainable development aims to:
change in its price a) Meet the needs of the present without compro-
d) The responsiveness of the supply of a good to a mising the ability of future generations to meet their
change in consumer income own needs
b) Increase economic growth at any cost
125. What does a perfectly inelastic demand curve c) Reduce environmental regulations
look like? d) Promote industrialization over agriculture
a) A horizontal line
b) A vertical line 133. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
c) An upward sloping line a developing economy?
d) A downward sloping line a) High population growth
b) Low per capita income
126. The 'Forex Reserves' of a country include: c) Advanced technological infrastructure
a) Gold reserves d) High unemployment rates
b) Foreign currency assets
c) Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) 134. The term 'brain drain' refers to:
RAHUL SHARMA 80
 a) Migration of skilled workers from developing 142. Which criteria is used to classify a company as a
countries to developed countries 'Navratna'?
b) Loss of natural resources a) Financial performance
c) Depletion of financial resources b) Market share
d) Decline in educational standards c) Export performance
d) Innovation and R&D
135. What does 'HDI' stand for?
a) Human Development Index 143. The government disinvestment in PSUs aims to:
b) Human Development Indicator a) Reduce the fiscal burden
c) Health and Development Index b) Increase public participation in PSUs
d) Humanitarian Development Indicator c) Improve efficiency and competitiveness
d) All of the above
136. 'CRR' in the banking sector stands for:
a) Cash Reserve Ratio 144. Which ministry is responsible for the admin-
b) Credit Reserve Ratio istration of public sector enterprises in India?
c) Capital Reserve Ratio a) Ministry of Finance
d) Currency Reserve Ratio b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
c) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enter-
137. Which committee recommended the establish- prises
ment of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India? d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
a) Narasimham Committee
b) Kelkar Committee 145. What is the primary difference between 'Navrat-
c) B.Sivaraman Committee na' and 'Maharatna' companies?
d) Urjit Patel Committee a) financial autonomy
b) Market capitalization
138. What is the main purpose of the 'Priority Sector c) Number of employees
Lending' by banks? d) Geographic presence
a) To provide loans to large industries
b) To ensure adequate credit to the most vulnerable 146. What does 'monetary policy' primarily aim to
sectors of the economy control?
c) To stabilize the stock market a) Taxation
d) To promote foreign trade b) Government expenditure
c) Money supply and interest rates
139. Which of the following is not a function of NAB- d) Foreign trade
ARD?
a) Providing refinance support to rural banks 147. An expansionary fiscal policy involves:
b) Supervising cooperative banks and RRBs a) Increasing taxes
c) Regulating the stock market b) Reducing government spending
d) Supporting agricultural development c) Increasing government spending and/or reducing
taxes
140. The first Indian bank to open a branch outside d) Reducing money supply
India was:
a) State Bank of India 148. The current account in the Balance of Payments
b) Bank of Baroda includes:
c) Punjab National Bank a) Foreign investments
d) Indian Bank b) Exports and imports of goods and services
c) Loans and borrowings
141. Which of the following is a Maharatna com- d) Foreign exchange reserves
pany?
a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) 149. What is the role of the World Bank?
b) Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL) a) Provide short-term loans to manage balance of
c) Container Corporation of India Limited (CONCOR) payments
d) Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Limited (KIOCL) b) Provide long-term loans for development pro-
jects
RAHUL SHARMA 81
 c) Regulate international trade policies d) The force of gravity decreases with the square of
d) Control global interest rates the distance

150. What does 'FDI' stand for? 8. The momentum of an object is the product of its
a) Foreign Domestic Investment mass and:
b) Foreign Direct Investment a) Velocity
c) Foreign Development Initiative b) Acceleration
d) Fiscal Development Index c) Force
d) Displacement

Physics 9. Work done by a force is zero when the angle be-

1. Which of the following is not a unit of force? tween the force and displacement is:
a) Newton a) 0 degrees
b) Dyne b) 45 degrees
c) Joule c) 90 degrees
d) Pound d) 180 degrees

2. What is the SI unit of work? 10. The law of conservation of energy states that:
a) Watt a) Energy can be created and destroyed
b) Newton b) Energy cannot be created or destroyed
c) Joule c) Kinetic energy is always conserved
d) Erg d) Potential energy is always conserved

3. The law of inertia is also known as: 11. The first law of thermodynamics is also known as:
a) Newton's First Law a) Law of conservation of mass
b) Newton's Second Law b) Law of conservation of energy
c) Newton's Third Law c) Law of entropy
d) Hooke's Law d) Law of heat exchange

4. Which of the following quantities is a vector? 12. Which process involves no change in tempera-
a) Speed ture?
b) Distance a) Isothermal
c) Work b) Adiabatic
d) Displacement c) Isochoric
d) Isobaric
5. What is the acceleration due to gravity on the sur-
face of the Earth? 13. Which law states that the entropy of an isolated
a) 8.9 m/s² system always increases?
b) 9.8 m/s² a) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
c) 10.2 m/s² b) First Law of Thermodynamics
d) 11.5 m/s² c) Second Law of Thermodynamics
d) Third Law of Thermodynamics
6. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
a) Velocity 14. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on:
b) Force a) The amount of work done
c) Speed b) The temperature of the reservoirs
d) Acceleration c) The pressure of the gas
d) The volume of the gas
7. Newton's third law states:
a) Every action has an equal and opposite reaction 15. Which quantity is conserved in a thermodynamic
b) Force is equal to mass times acceleration process?
c) Energy cannot be created or destroyed a) Entropy
b) Temperature

RAHUL SHARMA 82
 c) Internal energy c) Dispersion
d) Pressure d) Interference

16. Heat transfer by conduction occurs primarily in: 24. The bending of waves around obstacles is known
a) Solids as:
b) Liquids a) Reflection
c) Gases b) Refraction
d) Plasma c) Diffraction
d) Polarization
17. The unit of entropy is:
a) Joules 25. The principle that explains the behavior of waves
b) Joules per Kelvin encountering obstacles and openings is:
c) Kelvin a) Huygens' Principle
d) Watts b) Snell's Law
c) Doppler Effect
18. Which gas law relates pressure and volume at d) Fourier Transform
constant temperature?
a) Boyle's Law 26. The wavelength of visible light ranges approxi-
b) Charles's Law mately from:
c) Gay-Lussac's Law a) 400 nm to 700 nm
d) Avogadro's Law b) 100 nm to 300 nm
c) 800 nm to 1000 nm
19. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on d) 200 nm to 500 nm
its:
a) Pressure 27. Which optical instrument is used to observe very
b) Volume small objects?
c) Temperature a) Microscope
d) Number of molecules b) Telescope
c) Periscope
20. In an isobaric process, which quantity remains d) Spectroscope
constant?
a) Volume 28. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of re-
b) Pressure flection in:
c) Temperature a) Refraction
d) Entropy b) Total internal reflection
c) Reflection
21. The speed of light in a vacuum is approximately: d) Diffraction
a) 2.99 x 10⁸ m/s
b) 3.00 x 10⁸ m/s 29. What type of lens is thicker at the center than at
c) 3.01 x 10⁸ m/s the edges?
d) 3.10 x 10⁸ m/s a) Concave lens
b) Convex lens
22. Which type of wave requires a medium to propa- c) Cylindrical lens
gate? d) Plano-concave lens
a) Electromagnetic wave
b) Sound wave 30. Light travels fastest in:
c) Light wave a) Air
d) X-ray b) Water
c) Glass
23. The phenomenon of splitting of light into its con- d) Diamond
stituent colors is called:
a) Refraction 31. Which of the following is a unit of electric
b) Diffraction charge?
a) Ampere
RAHUL SHARMA 83
 b) Volt b) Weber
c) Coulomb c) Gauss
d) Ohm d) Ampere

32. The SI unit of electrical resistance is: 40. Which of the following materials is not ferromag-
a) Ampere netic?
b) Volt a) Iron
c) Coulomb b) Nickel
d) Ohm c) Cobalt
d) Copper
33. Ohm's Law states the relationship between:
a) Voltage, current, and resistance 41. The photoelectric effect was explained by:
b) Current, power, and resistance a) Isaac Newton
c) Voltage, resistance, and power b) Albert Einstein
d) Current, voltage, and power c) Niels Bohr
d) James Clerk Maxwell
34. The unit of electric power is:
a) Watt 42. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to
b) Joule its:
c) Coulomb a) Wavelength
d) Volt b) Amplitude
c) Frequency
35. A device that converts chemical energy into elec- d) Speed
trical energy is:
a) Generator 43. The rest mass of a photon is:
b) Motor a) Zero
c) Battery b) Equal to that of an electron
d) Transformer c) Equal to that of a proton
d) Equal to that of a neutron
36. The magnetic field around a straight current-car-
rying conductor is: 44. In the Bohr model of the atom, electrons orbit
a) Linear the nucleus in:
b) Circular a) Elliptical orbits
c) Elliptical b) Circular orbits
d) Parabolic c) Spiral orbits
d) Random orbits
37. Which rule is used to determine the direction of
the magnetic field around a current-carrying conduc- 45. Which of the following particles is not a fermion?
tor? a) Electron
a) Right-hand rule b) Proton
b) Left-hand rule c) Neutron
c) Fleming's left-hand rule d) Photon
d) Maxwell's rule
46. The half-life of a radioactive substance is:
38. The force experienced by a charged particle mov- a) The time taken for half of the substance to decay
ing in a magnetic field is called: b) The time taken for the substance to completely
a) Electrostatic force decay
b) Lorentz force c) The time taken for the substance to double its
c) Gravitational force mass
d) Nuclear force d) The time taken for the substance to reach ther-
mal equilibrium
39. The unit of magnetic flux is:
a) Tesla 47. Which isotope is commonly used in nuclear reac-
tors for fission?
RAHUL SHARMA 84
 a) U-235 55. Which of the following is a type of nuclear reac-
b) U-238 tion?
c) C-14 a) Combustion
d) H-2 b) Oxidation
c) Fusion
48. The process by which nuclei of low atomic num- d) Reduction
ber fuse to form a heavier nucleus is called:
a) Fission 56. The discovery of the neutron is credited to:
b) Fusion a) J.J. Thomson
c) Radioactive decay b) Ernest Rutherford
d) Ionization c) James Chadwick
d) Niels Bohr
49. In a semiconductor, the conduction band is sepa-
rated from the valence band by: 57. The critical mass of a fissile material is the:
a) A conductor a) Maximum mass needed for a sustained chain re-
b) An insulator action
c) A band gap b) Minimum mass needed for a sustained chain re-
d) A dielectric action
c) Exact mass needed for a nuclear explosion
50. The principle behind the laser is: d) Amount of mass that makes the material stable
a) Spontaneous emission
b) Stimulated emission 58. The process by which a radioactive nucleus emits
c) Natural emission radiation and transforms into a different nucleus is
d) Random emission called:
a) Transmutation
51. The most stable nucleus is: b) Fusion
a) Helium-4 c) Fission
b) Carbon-12 d) Ionization
c) Iron-56
d) Uranium-235 59. The unit of radioactive decay is:
a) Hertz
52. Which type of radiation is the most penetrating? b) Becquerel
a) Alpha particles c) Tesla
b) Beta particles d) Gauss
c) Gamma rays
d) Neutrons 60. Which of the following elements is commonly
used in smoke detectors due to its radioactive proper-
53. The binding energy of a nucleus is the energy re- ties?
quired to: a) Uranium
a) Bind the electrons to the nucleus b) Thorium
b) Separate the nucleus into its individual protons c) Americium
and neutrons d) Plutonium
c) Hold the nucleus together against electrostatic re-
pulsion 61. The image formed by a plane mirror is:
d) Ionize the atom a) Real and inverted
b) Real and upright
54. In beta decay, a neutron is converted into a: c) Virtual and inverted
a) Proton and an electron d) Virtual and upright
b) Proton and a neutron
c) Electron and a positron 62. The focal length of a concave mirror is:
d) Proton and a neutrino a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Infinite
RAHUL SHARMA 85
 71. The uncertainty principle was formulated by:
63. In a convex lens, parallel rays of light after refrac- a) Albert Einstein
tion: b) Niels Bohr
a) Converge at the focal point c) Werner Heisenberg
b) Diverge away from the focal point d) Erwin Schrödinger
c) Travel parallel to the principal axis
d) Reflect back along their path 72. The wave function in quantum mechanics repre-
sents:
64. The power of a lens is measured in: a) The exact location of a particle
a) Meters b) The probability amplitude of finding a particle
b) Diopters c) The energy of a particle
c) Joules d) The momentum of a particle
d) Candela
73. The dual nature of light refers to its:
65. The phenomenon of total internal reflection oc- a) Wave and particle properties
curs when light travels from: b) Electric and magnetic properties
a) A denser medium to a rarer medium c) Reflective and refractive properties
b) A rarer medium to a denser medium d) Emission and absorption properties
c) Air to glass
d) Water to air 74. The Planck constant is denoted by:
a) c
66. Which type of mirror is used in a car's rear-view b) h
mirror? c) k
a) Concave mirror d) λ
b) Convex mirror
c) Plane mirror 75. Quantum tunneling is the phenomenon where
d) Parabolic mirror particles:
a) Travel faster than the speed of light
67. The unit of luminous intensity is: b) Escape from a potential barrier they classically
a) Lumen couldn't surmount
b) Lux c) Are created and destroyed spontaneously
c) Candela d) Maintain constant energy levels
d) Watt
76. The ground state of an atom refers to:
68. The change in direction of light as it passes from a) The highest energy state
one medium to another is called: b) The state with no electrons
a) Reflection c) The lowest energy state
b) Refraction d) The state with the most electrons
c) Diffraction
d) Interference 77. In quantum mechanics, an eigenvalue is associ-
ated with:
69. The principle of superposition is applied to: a) A measurable quantity of a system
a) Reflection b) The speed of a particle
b) Refraction c) The mass of a particle
c) Interference d) The charge of a particle
d) Dispersion
78. The Schrödinger equation describes:
70. Light waves are: a) The motion of classical objects
a) Longitudinal waves b) The energy levels in an atom
b) Transverse waves c) The wave function of quantum systems
c) Stationary waves d) The decay of radioactive substances
d) Mechanical waves

RAHUL SHARMA 86
79. In the context of quantum mechanics, superposi-
tion means: 87. The magnetic permeability of a material is a
a) A particle can be in multiple states at once measure of:
b) A particle has a fixed position a) Its ability to conduct electricity
c) A particle has a fixed momentum b) Its ability to become magnetized
d) A particle follows a deterministic path c) Its resistance to magnetic fields
d) Its dielectric constant
80. The concept of quantization in quantum mechan-
ics refers to: 88. The right-hand rule is used to determine:
a) Continuous energy levels a) The direction of the electric field
b) Discrete energy levels b) The direction of the magnetic field
c) Infinite divisibility of particles c) The direction of the force on a moving charge in a
d) Classical trajectories of particles magnetic field
d) The magnitude of the electric force
81. Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction states
that: 89. The device used to measure electric current is
a) A changing magnetic field induces an electric cur- called:
rent a) Voltmeter
b) A constant magnetic field produces an electric b) Ammeter
current c) Galvanometer
c) A magnetic field is created by a stationary charge d) Ohmmeter
d) Electric current flows only in closed loops
90. The phenomenon where a material generates a
82. Lenz's Law is a consequence of the law of: voltage when subjected to a changing magnetic field
a) Conservation of charge is called:
b) Conservation of energy a) Electromagnetic induction
c) Conservation of momentum b) Electrostatic induction
d) Conservation of mass c) Photoelectric effect
d) Thermoelectric effect
83. The unit of magnetic field strength is:
a) Newton ### Atomic Physics
b) Tesla
c) Joule 91. The nucleus of an atom consists of:
d) Volt a) Protons and electrons
b) Electrons and neutrons
84. A solenoid is a coil of wire that: c) Protons and neutrons
a) Produces a uniform electric field d) Protons, neutrons, and electrons
b) Produces a uniform magnetic field
c) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy 92. The atomic number of an element is equal to the
d) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy number of:
a) Protons in the nucleus
85. The direction of the induced current in a closed b) Neutrons in the nucleus
loop is given by: c) Electrons in the atom
a) Faraday's Law d) Protons and neutrons in the nucleus
b) Lenz's Law
c) Ohm's Law 93. Isotopes of an element differ in the number of:
d) Coulomb's Law a) Protons
b) Neutrons
86. The phenomenon where a magnetic field is pro- c) Electrons
duced by an electric current is called: d) Positrons
a) Electromagnetic induction
b) Electromagnetism 94. The energy levels of electrons in an atom are:
c) Electrostatics a) Continuous
d) Electrodynamics
RAHUL SHARMA 87
 b) Discrete a) Ionic bond
c) Infinite b) Covalent bond
d) Random c) Metallic bond
d) Van der Waals bond
95. The emission spectrum of an element is:
a) A continuous spectrum 103. A semiconductor's electrical conductivity in-
b) A line spectrum creases with:
c) An absorption spectrum a) Decreasing temperature
d) A blackbody spectrum b) Increasing temperature
c) Increasing pressure
96. The ionization energy is the energy required to: d) Decreasing pressure
a) Add an electron to an atom
b) Remove an electron from an atom 104. The band gap of an insulator is:
c) Excite an electron to a higher energy level a) Large
d) Combine two atoms b) Small
c) Zero
97. The Bohr model of the atom successfully ex- d) Negative
plained the spectra of:
a) Helium 105. The term "doping" in semiconductor physics re-
b) Lithium fers to:
c) Hydrogen a) Adding impurities to a semiconductor
d) Neon b) Heating a semiconductor
c) Applying a voltage to a semiconductor
98. The quantum number that determines the shape d) Cooling a semiconductor
of an electron's orbital is:
a) Principal quantum number 106. A p-type semiconductor is created by doping
b) Azimuthal quantum number with:
c) Magnetic quantum number a) Donor atoms
d) Spin quantum number b) Acceptor atoms
c) Neutral atoms
99. The Pauli exclusion principle states that: d) Metal atoms
a) Electrons in the same orbital must have opposite
spins 107. The Hall effect is used to measure:
b) Electrons in the same orbital must have the same a) Magnetic field strength
spin b) Electric field strength
c) No two electrons can have the same set of quan- c) Charge carrier density
tum numbers d) Resistance
d) Electrons cannot occupy the same energy level
108. Superconductivity is a phenomenon where a
100. The phenomenon of electron diffraction demon- material:
strates that: a) Loses all electrical resistance
a) Electrons have particle properties b) Becomes magnetic
b) Electrons have wave properties c) Conducts electricity better at high temperatures
c) Electrons have no mass d) Becomes an insulator
d) Electrons are positively charged
109. The crystal structure of common table salt
101. A crystal lattice is a: (NaCl) is:
a) Random arrangement of atoms a) Body-centered cubic
b) Periodic arrangement of atoms b) Face-centered cubic
c) Non-repeating arrangement of atoms c) Hexagonal close-packed
d) Disordered arrangement of atoms d) Simple cubic

102. The type of bond that holds together the atoms

in a solid metal is:
RAHUL SHARMA 88
110. The main difference between crystalline and 118. The law of conservation of linear momentum
amorphous solids is: states that:
a) The type of atoms present a) The total momentum of a closed system is con-
b) The arrangement of atoms stant
c) The density b) The total energy of a closed system is constant
d) The electrical conductivity c) The total force on a closed system is constant
d) The total acceleration of a closed system is con-
111. The center of mass of an object is the point: stant
a) Where the mass is concentrated
b) Around which the object's mass is evenly distrib- 119. Hooke's Law describes the relationship be-
uted tween:
c) Where gravitational force acts a) Stress and strain
d) Where the object's volume is maximum b) Force and displacement
c) Pressure and volume
112. In circular motion, the centripetal force acts: d) Temperature and pressure
a) Along the tangent to the circle
b) Towards the center of the circle 120. The work-energy theorem states that:
c) Away from the center of the circle a) Work done is equal to the change in kinetic en-
d) Along the radius ergy
b) Work done is equal to the change in potential en-
113. The moment of inertia of an object depends on: ergy
a) Its mass and shape c) Work done is equal to the change in thermal en-
b) Its velocity ergy
c) Its acceleration d) Work done is equal to the change in total energy
d) Its density
121. Sound waves are:
114. The angular momentum of a rotating body is a) Longitudinal waves
conserved if: b) Transverse waves
a) The net external force is zero c) Surface waves
b) The net external torque is zero d) Electromagnetic waves
c) The net internal force is zero
d) The net internal torque is zero 122. The speed of sound is highest in:
a) Air
115. In a simple harmonic motion, the restoring force b) Water
is: c) Steel
a) Proportional to the displacement d) Vacuum
b) Proportional to the velocity
c) Proportional to the acceleration 123. The pitch of a sound is determined by its:
d) Constant a) Amplitude
b) Frequency
116. The period of a simple pendulum depends on: c) Speed
a) Its mass and length d) Wavelength
b) Its mass and gravity
c) Its length and gravity 124. The Doppler effect occurs when:
d) Its length and amplitude a) A sound source moves relative to an observer
b) A sound wave reflects off a surface
117. The kinetic energy of a rotating object is given c) A sound wave refracts through a medium
by: d) A sound wave diffracts around an obstacle
a) 1/2 mv²
b) 1/2 Iω² 125. The unit of sound intensity is:
c) Iω a) Decibel
d) mgh b) Hertz
c) Pascal
d) Joule
RAHUL SHARMA 89
 134. The equivalence of mass and energy is ex-
126. The phenomenon of beats in acoustics occurs pressed by the equation:
due to: a) E = mc²
a) Interference of two waves of slightly different fre- b) E = mv²
quencies c) E = ma
b) Reflection of sound waves d) E = mc
c) Refraction of sound waves
d) Diffraction of sound waves 135. Length contraction in special relativity means
that:
127. The frequency range of human hearing is ap- a) Objects appear longer in the direction of motion
proximately: b) Objects appear shorter in the direction of motion
a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz c) Length is absolute
b) 2 Hz to 200 Hz d) Length is independent of velocity
c) 200 Hz to 2000 Hz
d) 2 kHz to 20 kHz 136. General relativity primarily deals with:
a) The behavior of light
128. The resonance frequency of an object is: b) The motion of objects at high speeds
a) The frequency at which it vibrates naturally c) The influence of gravity on space and time
b) The frequency at which it does not vibrate d) The interaction between electric and magnetic
c) The frequency at which sound is absorbed fields
d) The frequency at which sound is reflected
137. The curvature of space-time around a massive
129. An echo is heard when sound waves: object causes:
a) Refract through a medium a) Gravitational waves
b) Reflect off a surface b) Electromagnetic waves
c) Diffract around an obstacle c) Gravitational lensing
d) Interfere with each other d) Quantum fluctuations

130. The loudness of a sound is related to its: 138. The precession of the perihelion of Mercury's
a) Frequency orbit was explained by:
b) Wavelength a) Newton's Law of Gravitation
c) Amplitude b) Einstein's General Theory of Relativity
d) Speed c) Maxwell's Equations
d) Bohr's Model of the Atom
131. The theory of special relativity was proposed by:
a) Isaac Newton 139. A black hole is an object with:
b) Niels Bohr a) Infinite mass
c) Albert Einstein b) Infinite volume
d) James Clerk Maxwell c) Infinite density
d) Infinite temperature
132. According to special relativity, the speed of light
in a vacuum is: 140. The event horizon of a black hole is:
a) Dependent on the motion of the observer a) The point where light cannot escape
b) Dependent on the motion of the source b) The center of the black hole
c) Constant for all observers c) The region with infinite density
d) Variable with time d) The region where time stops

133. Time dilation in special relativity means that: 141. The zeroth law of thermodynamics deals with:
a) Time runs faster for moving clocks a) Energy conservation
b) Time runs slower for moving clocks b) Entropy
c) Time is absolute c) Thermal equilibrium
d) Time is independent of velocity d) Heat engines

RAHUL SHARMA 90
142. The first law of thermodynamics is a statement 149. The concept of absolute zero temperature im-
of: plies:
a) The conservation of momentum a) Minimum entropy
b) The conservation of energy b) Maximum entropy
c) The increase of entropy c) Zero internal energy
d) The equivalence of mass and energy d) Zero kinetic energy of particles

143. Entropy is a measure of: 150. Heat capacity is defined as the:

a) Energy a) Amount of heat required to raise the tempera-
b) Work ture of a substance by one degree Celsius
c) Disorder b) Amount of heat required to melt a substance
d) Temperature c) Amount of heat required to vaporize a substance
d) Amount of heat required to cool a substance
144. The second law of thermodynamics states that:
a) Energy cannot be created or destroyed
b) Heat flows from a colder body to a hotter body
Chemistry
c) The total entropy of an isolated system always in- 1. What is the most abundant gas in the Earth's at-
creases mosphere?
d) The total energy of an isolated system always in- a) Oxygen
creases b) Carbon Dioxide
c) Nitrogen
145. The efficiency of a heat engine is defined as: d) Hydrogen
a) The ratio of work done to heat absorbed
b) The ratio of work done to heat rejected 2. Which element is represented by the symbol 'Na'?
c) The ratio of heat rejected to heat absorbed a) Nitrogen
d) The ratio of heat absorbed to work done b) Sodium
c) Nickel
146. A reversible process in thermodynamics is one d) Neon
that:
a) Happens quickly 3. Which of the following elements is a noble gas?
b) Happens spontaneously a) Oxygen
c) Can be reversed without leaving any change in b) Hydrogen
the system or surroundings c) Argon
d) Can be reversed but leaves changes in the system d) Nitrogen
or surroundings
4. What is the chemical formula for table salt?
147. The Carnot cycle is: a) KCl
a) A theoretical model of a perfect heat engine b) NaCl
b) A practical model of an internal combustion en- c) MgCl2
gine d) CaCl2
c) A cycle involving only adiabatic processes
d) A cycle involving only isothermal processes 5. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
a) Nitrogen
148. The change in internal energy of a system is b) Oxygen
equal to: c) Carbon Dioxide
a) The heat added to the system minus the work d) Helium
done by the system
b) The heat added to the system plus the work done 6. What is the pH value of pure water?
by the system a) 6
c) The work done by the system minus the heat b) 7
added to the system c) 8
d) The work done by the system plus the heat d) 9
added to the system
7. Who is known as the father of modern chemistry?
RAHUL SHARMA 91
 a) Albert Einstein c) NO3
b) Isaac Newton d) NO2
c) Antoine Lavoisier
d) Dmitri Mendeleev 16. Which type of reaction is characterized by the ex-
change of ions between two compounds?
8. What is the molecular formula of methane? a) Decomposition
a) CH3 b) Synthesis
b) CH4 c) Combustion
c) C2H4 d) Double displacement
d) C2H6
17. Which of the following is a common use of sulfu-
9. Which type of bond is formed by the sharing of ric acid?
electrons between atoms? a) Fertilizer production
a) Ionic bond b) Plastic manufacturing
b) Covalent bond c) Food preservation
c) Metallic bond d) Textile dyeing
d) Hydrogen bond
18. What is the atomic number of carbon?
10. Which element has the highest electronegativity? a) 6
a) Oxygen b) 8
b) Fluorine c) 12
c) Chlorine d) 14
d) Nitrogen
19. Which element is liquid at room temperature?
11. What is the primary component of natural gas? a) Mercury
a) Ethane b) Sodium
b) Propane c) Calcium
c) Butane d) Aluminum
d) Methane
20. What is the main component of limestone?
12. Which element is essential for the production of a) Calcium carbonate
thyroid hormones? b) Sodium carbonate
a) Iron c) Magnesium carbonate
b) Iodine d) Potassium carbonate
c) Zinc
d) Calcium 21. Which of the following substances is an acid?
a) NaOH
13. What is the chemical name for rust? b) HCl
a) Iron sulfide c) KOH
b) Iron oxide d) NH3
c) Iron hydroxide
d) Iron nitrate 22. What is the main element found in diamonds?
a) Carbon
14. Which gas is produced when an acid reacts with a b) Silicon
metal? c) Iron
a) Carbon dioxide d) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Oxygen 23. What is the chemical formula for water?
d) Nitrogen a) H2O2
b) H2O
15. What is the chemical formula for ammonia? c) HO
a) NH3 d) OH2
b) NH4

RAHUL SHARMA 92
24. Which of the following is an example of a chemi- a) Oxygen
cal change? b) Carbon dioxide
a) Melting of ice c) Nitrogen
b) Boiling of water d) Methane
c) Rusting of iron
d) Dissolving of salt in water 33. What is the symbol for the element gold?
a) Au
25. Which element is used as a semiconductor in b) Ag
electronic devices? c) Pb
a) Copper d) Pt
b) Silicon
c) Lead 34. Which chemical is commonly known as baking
d) Iron soda?
a) Sodium carbonate
26. What is the common name for H2SO4? b) Sodium bicarbonate
a) Nitric acid c) Sodium hydroxide
b) Hydrochloric acid d) Sodium sulfate
c) Sulfuric acid
d) Acetic acid 35. What is the chemical formula for sulfur dioxide?
a) SO2
27. Which gas is commonly known as laughing gas? b) SO3
a) Nitrogen c) H2SO4
b) Nitrous oxide d) H2S
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen 36. Which element is known for its high conductivity
of electricity?
28. What is the chemical formula for glucose? a) Lead
a) C6H12O6 b) Copper
b) C12H22O11 c) Iron
c) C2H5OH d) Aluminum
d) CH3COOH
37. What is the primary ingredient in glass?
29. Which of the following elements is a halogen? a) Calcium oxide
a) Helium b) Sodium carbonate
b) Hydrogen c) Silicon dioxide
c) Fluorine d) Potassium oxide
d) Lithium
38. Which gas is used in neon signs?
30. What is the primary use of chlorine in water a) Helium
treatment? b) Argon
a) To add color c) Neon
b) To remove hardness d) Krypton
c) To disinfect
d) To balance pH 39. What is the chemical name for lime?
a) Calcium carbonate
31. Which element is used in the production of steel? b) Calcium oxide
a) Zinc c) Calcium hydroxide
b) Copper d) Calcium sulfate
c) Iron
d) Aluminum 40. What is the main function of hemoglobin in the
blood?
32. What is the main gas produced by plants during a) Transport nutrients
photosynthesis? b) Transport oxygen

RAHUL SHARMA 93
 c) Fight infection
d) Clot blood 49. What is the chemical name for washing soda?
a) Sodium chloride
41. Which of the following elements is the lightest? b) Sodium bicarbonate
a) Helium c) Sodium carbonate
b) Hydrogen d) Sodium sulfate
c) Oxygen
d) Lithium 50. Which gas is used in the process of making mar-
garine from vegetable oils?
42. What is the primary gas used in welding? a) Oxygen
a) Oxygen b) Hydrogen
b) Nitrogen c) Nitrogen
c) Acetylene d) Helium
d) Carbon dioxide
51. Which of the following is an example of an alloy?
43. What is the common name for the compound a) Copper
CH3COOH? b) Bronze
a) Methanol c) Iron
b) Acetic acid d) Zinc
c) Acetone
d) Ethanol 52. What is the common name for sodium chloride?
a) Baking soda
44. Which metal is known to be the most reactive? b) Table salt
a) Iron c) Epsom salt
b) Sodium d) Washing soda
c) Calcium
d) Potassium 53. Which element is known as the king of chemi-
cals?
45. What is the chemical formula for ethanol? a) Sulfur
a) C2H4O2 b) Chlorine
b) C2H5OH c) Nitrogen
c) CH3OH d) Hydrogen
d) C3H7OH
54. What is the chemical formula for acetic acid?
46. Which element is essential for the formation of a) CH3COOH
bones and teeth? b) HCOOH
a) Magnesium c) C2H5OH
b) Calcium d) CH3OH
c) Potassium
d) Iron 55. Which of the following compounds is used as an
antifreeze?
47. What is the main gas found in the bubbles of car- a) Ethylene glycol
bonated drinks? b) Methanol
a) Oxygen c) Acetone
b) Nitrogen d) Benzene
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen 56. What is the main component of the natural gas
used in homes?
48. Which of the following is an alkaline earth metal? a) Butane
a) Sodium b) Methane
b) Calcium c) Ethane
c) Aluminum d) Propane
d) Iron

RAHUL SHARMA 94
57. What is the chemical formula for ozone? d) Aluminum and magnesium
a) O2
b) O3 66. Which of the following is an acid?
c) H2O2 a) NaOH
d) H2O b) H2SO4
c) NH3
58. Which of the following is a noble metal? d) CH4
a) Iron
b) Copper 67. What is the common name for HCl?
c) Gold a) Sulfuric acid
d) Aluminum b) Hydrochloric acid
c) Nitric acid
59. What is the main element used in pencil leads? d) Acetic acid
a) Graphite
b) Charcoal 68. Which of the following is an example of a base?
c) Carbon a) HCl
d) Lead b) NaOH
c) H2SO4
60. What is the primary use of nitrogen in the food d) CH3COOH
industry?
a) As a refrigerant 69. What is the chemical formula for hydrogen perox-
b) As a preservative ide?
c) As a flavor enhancer a) H2O
d) As a colorant b) H2O2
c) HO
61. Which element is commonly used in batteries? d) OH
a) Sodium
b) Lithium 70. Which element is used in the production of
c) Magnesium matches?
d) Calcium a) Sulfur
b) Phosphorus
62. What is the chemical formula for sulfuric acid? c) Chlorine
a) HCl d) Sodium
b) H2SO4
c) HNO3 71. Which gas is known as marsh gas?
d) H3PO4 a) Ethane
b) Methane
63. Which of the following is a metalloid? c) Propane
a) Carbon d) Butane
b) Silicon
c) Sulfur 72. What is the common name for NaOH?
d) Phosphorus a) Baking soda
b) Washing soda
64. Which gas is used in fire extinguishers? c) Caustic soda
a) Carbon dioxide d) Epsom salt
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen 73. Which element is used in the production of nu-
d) Nitrogen clear energy?
a) Uranium
65. What is the main component of brass? b) Plutonium
a) Copper and zinc c) Thorium
b) Copper and tin d) Radium
c) Iron and carbon

RAHUL SHARMA 95
74. What is the chemical formula for sodium bicar- 82. Which element is used in the production of glass?
bonate? a) Sodium
a) NaCl b) Silicon
b) Na2CO3 c) Aluminum
c) NaHCO3 d) Iron
d) NaOH
83. What is the main component of cement?
75. Which of the following is a synthetic polymer? a) Calcium oxide
a) Cellulose b) Sodium oxide
b) Nylon c) Potassium oxide
c) Wool d) Magnesium oxide
d) Silk
84. Which gas is commonly used in balloons?
76. What is the main use of chlorine in industry? a) Helium
a) Bleaching agent b) Hydrogen
b) Fertilizer c) Oxygen
c) Fuel d) Nitrogen
d) Lubricant
85. What is the chemical formula for magnesium sul-
77. Which element is used in the production of light- fate?
weight alloys? a) MgCl2
a) Iron b) MgSO4
b) Aluminum c) MgO
c) Copper d) Mg(OH)2
d) Zinc
86. Which element is used as a catalyst in the hydro-
78. What is the chemical formula for calcium hydrox- genation of oils?
ide? a) Nickel
a) CaCO3 b) Iron
b) CaO c) Copper
c) Ca(OH)2 d) Zinc
d) CaSO4
87. What is the main use of ammonia in industry?
79. Which gas is released during the process of respi- a) As a fuel
ration in humans? b) As a fertilizer
a) Oxygen c) As a solvent
b) Nitrogen d) As a disinfectant
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Methane 88. What is the chemical formula for potassium ni-
trate?
80. Which of the following is a non-metal? a) KCl
a) Sodium b) K2CO3
b) Carbon c) KNO3
c) Calcium d) K2SO4
d) Aluminum
89. Which of the following is an organic compound?
81. What is the common name for the compound a) NaCl
H2O? b) CO2
a) Hydrogen peroxide c) CH4
b) Water d) H2O
c) Hydrochloric acid
d) Sulfuric acid 90. What is the primary component of bone?
a) Calcium carbonate

RAHUL SHARMA 96
 b) Calcium phosphate b) As a solvent
c) Calcium oxide c) As a food additive
d) Calcium chloride d) As a fertilizer

91. Which element is used in the production of solar 99. Which element is commonly used in the produc-
cells? tion of fertilizers?
a) Silicon a) Phosphorus
b) Copper b) Iron
c) Iron c) Aluminum
d) Aluminum d) Copper

92. What is the chemical formula for sodium sulfate? 100. What is the chemical formula for hydrochloric
a) NaCl acid?
b) Na2SO4 a) HCl
c) NaHCO3 b) H2SO4
d) Na2CO3 c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
93. Which of the following is an example of a carbo-
hydrate? 101. Which of the following is a transition metal?
a) Protein a) Sodium
b) Fat b) Iron
c) Starch c) Calcium
d) Vitamin d) Potassium

94. What is the primary gas found in Earth's atmos- 102. What is the main component of natural pearls?
phere? a) Calcium carbonate
a) Oxygen b) Sodium carbonate
b) Nitrogen c) Magnesium carbonate
c) Carbon dioxide d) Potassium carbonate
d) Hydrogen
103. Which gas is known as the "silent killer" due to
95. Which element is known for its ability to conduct its toxicity?
electricity and heat? a) Carbon monoxide
a) Lead b) Methane
b) Copper c) Hydrogen sulfide
c) Iron d) Nitrogen dioxide
d) Zinc
104. What is the primary use of calcium in the hu-
96. What is the chemical formula for calcium car- man body?
bonate? a) Energy production
a) CaO b) Bone and teeth formation
b) CaCO3 c) Oxygen transport
c) Ca(OH)2 d) Blood clotting
d) CaCl2
105. Which element is known as "liquid metal"?
97. Which of the following is a noble gas? a) Mercury
a) Hydrogen b) Gallium
b) Nitrogen c) Cesium
c) Argon d) Bromine
d) Oxygen
106. What is the chemical formula for phosphoric
98. What is the main use of ethanol in industry? acid?
a) As a fuel a) H2SO4

RAHUL SHARMA 97
 b) H3PO4 c) Oxygen
c) HNO3 d) Hydrogen
d) HCl
115. What is the main use of hydrogen peroxide?
107. Which gas is produced by the combustion of fos- a) As a solvent
sil fuels? b) As a disinfectant
a) Oxygen c) As a fuel
b) Nitrogen d) As a refrigerant
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen 116. Which of the following elements is a metal?
a) Carbon
108. What is the primary use of sulfur in industry? b) Nitrogen
a) As a fuel c) Iron
b) As a disinfectant d) Oxygen
c) In the production of sulfuric acid
d) In the manufacture of plastics 117. What is the chemical formula for baking soda?
a) NaHCO3
109. What is the chemical formula for ammonia? b) NaCl
a) NH3 c) NaOH
b) NH4 d) Na2CO3
c) NO3
d) NO2 118. Which gas is released during photosynthesis?
a) Carbon dioxide
110. Which of the following is a characteristic of ac- b) Oxygen
ids? c) Nitrogen
a) Bitter taste d) Methane
b) Slippery feel
c) Sour taste 119. What is the main component of sand?
d) Neutral pH a) Sodium oxide
b) Calcium oxide
111. What is the main gas responsible for the green- c) Silicon dioxide
house effect? d) Potassium oxide
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen 120. Which element is used in the production of bat-
c) Carbon dioxide teries?
d) Methane a) Sodium
b) Lithium
112. Which element is used in the production of light c) Calcium
bulbs? d) Magnesium
a) Mercury
b) Sodium 121. What is the chemical formula for potassium
c) Tungsten chloride?
d) Calcium a) K2CO3
b) KCl
113. What is the chemical formula for nitric acid? c) KNO3
a) HNO3 d) K2SO4
b) H2SO4
c) HCl 122. Which of the following is an example of a chem-
d) H3PO4 ical reaction?
a) Melting ice
114. Which gas is commonly used in refrigeration? b) Boiling water
a) Methane c) Burning wood
b) Ammonia d) Dissolving sugar

RAHUL SHARMA 98
 131. Which gas is commonly used in anesthesia?
123. What is the main function of chlorophyll in a) Nitrogen
plants? b) Nitrous oxide
a) Water absorption c) Carbon dioxide
b) Nutrient transport d) Methane
c) Photosynthesis
d) Reproduction 132. What is the chemical formula for hydrogen sul-
fide?
124. Which gas is used in the production of ammo- a) H2SO4
nia? b) HCl
a) Nitrogen c) H2S
b) Oxygen d) HNO3
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide 133. Which of the following is an alkali metal?
a) Magnesium
125. What is the chemical formula for calcium chlo- b) Calcium
ride? c) Sodium
a) CaCO3 d) Iron
b) CaCl2
c) CaSO4 134. What is the primary use of hydrogen in indus-
d) CaO try?
a) As a fuel
126. Which of the following is a non-metal? b) In the production of ammonia
a) Sodium c) As a refrigerant
b) Sulfur d) As a solvent
c) Magnesium
d) Calcium 135. What is the chemical formula for carbon monox-
ide?
127. What is the primary use of argon in industry? a) CO
a) As a fuel b) CO2
b) As a refrigerant c) CH4
c) In welding d) C2H6
d) In fertilizers
136. Which of the following is a characteristic of ba-
128. What is the chemical formula for ethylene? ses?
a) C2H2 a) Sour taste
b) C2H4 b) Slippery feel
c) C3H6 c) Neutral pH
d) C2H6 d) Bitter taste

129. Which element is used in the production of 137. What is the main gas used in welding?
stainless steel? a) Hydrogen
a) Zinc b) Nitrogen
b) Nickel c) Acetylene
c) Lead d) Carbon dioxide
d) Silver
138. What is the chemical formula for potassium hy-
130. What is the main component of bone ash? droxide?
a) Calcium oxide a) KCl
b) Calcium carbonate b) K2CO3
c) Calcium phosphate c) KOH
d) Calcium sulfate d) KNO3

RAHUL SHARMA 99
139. Which of the following is a noble gas? a) Methanol
a) Hydrogen b) Acetic acid
b) Oxygen c) Ethanol
c) Neon d) Acetone
d) Nitrogen
148. Which element is used in the production of so-
140. What is the primary use of helium in industry? lar panels?
a) In welding a) Copper
b) As a refrigerant b) Silicon
c) In balloons c) Iron
d) In fertilizers d) Aluminum

141. What is the chemical formula for methane? 149. What is the chemical formula for calcium sul-
a) CH4 fate?
b) C2H6 a) CaO
c) C2H4 b) CaCO3
d) CH3OH c) CaSO4
d) CaCl2
142. Which of the following elements is a halogen?
a) Sulfur 150. Which of the following is a characteristic of ac-
b) Fluorine ids?
c) Oxygen a) Bitter taste
d) Nitrogen b) Slippery feel
c) Sour taste
143. What is the main use of sulfuric acid in indus- d) Neutral pH
try?
a) In the production of fertilizers

Biology
b) As a fuel
c) As a refrigerant
d) As a solvent
1. What is the basic unit of life?
144. Which gas is released during the combustion of a) Atom
fossil fuels? b) Molecule
a) Oxygen c) Cell
b) Nitrogen d) Tissue
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Methane 2. Which part of the cell contains the genetic mate-
rial?
145. What is the chemical formula for sodium sul- a) Cytoplasm
fate? b) Nucleus
a) NaCl c) Mitochondria
b) Na2SO4 d) Ribosomes
c) NaHCO3
d) Na2CO3 3. What is the powerhouse of the cell?
a) Nucleus
146. Which of the following is an example of an exo- b) Mitochondria
thermic reaction? c) Ribosome
a) Melting ice d) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Boiling water
c) Combustion of wood 4. Which organ system is responsible for transporting
d) Dissolving salt in water blood throughout the body?
a) Respiratory system
147. What is the primary component of vinegar? b) Digestive system

RAHUL SHARMA 100

 c) Circulatory system
d) Nervous system 13. Which system in the human body controls hor-
mones?
5. What is the functional unit of the kidney? a) Digestive system
a) Neuron b) Nervous system
b) Alveoli c) Endocrine system
c) Nephron d) Circulatory system
d) Lymphocyte
14. What is the genetic material found in most living
6. Which blood cells are responsible for clotting? organisms?
a) Red blood cells a) RNA
b) White blood cells b) DNA
c) Platelets c) ATP
d) Plasma cells d) Protein

7. What is the main organ of the respiratory system? 15. Which organ is responsible for filtering blood and
a) Heart producing urine?
b) Brain a) Liver
c) Liver b) Kidney
d) Lungs c) Stomach
d) Heart
8. What is the process by which plants make their
food? 16. What type of joint is found in the shoulder and
a) Respiration hip?
b) Digestion a) Hinge joint
c) Photosynthesis b) Ball-and-socket joint
d) Fermentation c) Pivot joint
d) Gliding joint
9. Which pigment is responsible for the green color in
plants? 17. Which part of the cell is responsible for protein
a) Chlorophyll synthesis?
b) Hemoglobin a) Nucleus
c) Melanin b) Mitochondria
d) Carotene c) Ribosomes
d) Lysosomes
10. What is the largest organ in the human body?
a) Heart 18. What is the term for a group of similar cells per-
b) Liver forming a specific function?
c) Skin a) Organ
d) Brain b) Tissue
c) Organ system
11. Which part of the brain controls balance and co- d) Organism
ordination?
a) Cerebrum 19. Which vitamin is produced by the skin in re-
b) Cerebellum sponse to sunlight?
c) Medulla a) Vitamin A
d) Hypothalamus b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
12. What is the primary function of red blood cells? d) Vitamin D
a) Fight infections
b) Transport oxygen 20. What is the main function of the small intestine?
c) Clot blood a) Absorb nutrients
d) Digest food b) Produce bile
c) Store waste
RAHUL SHARMA 101
 d) Filter blood
29. Which part of the flower produces pollen?
21. Which type of muscle is found in the heart? a) Pistil
a) Skeletal muscle b) Stamen
b) Smooth muscle c) Sepal
c) Cardiac muscle d) Petal
d) Voluntary muscle
30. What type of blood vessel carries blood away
22. Which hormone regulates blood sugar levels? from the heart?
a) Insulin a) Vein
b) Thyroxine b) Artery
c) Adrenaline c) Capillary
d) Estrogen d) Venule

23. What is the term for a plant that lives for more 31. Which organ is primarily responsible for detoxify-
than two years? ing the blood?
a) Annual a) Kidney
b) Biennial b) Liver
c) Perennial c) Spleen
d) Deciduous d) Pancreas

24. What is the function of white blood cells? 32. What is the smallest unit of life that can replicate
a) Carry oxygen independently?
b) Clot blood a) Organelle
c) Fight infections b) Cell
d) Provide energy c) Tissue
d) Atom
25. Which organ produces bile?
a) Stomach 33. Which macronutrient is the main source of en-
b) Pancreas ergy for the body?
c) Liver a) Proteins
d) Gallbladder b) Fats
c) Carbohydrates
26. What is the main component of the cell mem- d) Vitamins
brane?
a) Carbohydrates 34. What is the primary function of the large intes-
b) Lipids tine?
c) Proteins a) Absorb nutrients
d) Nucleic acids b) Store bile
c) Absorb water
27. Which part of the brain regulates body tempera- d) Digest proteins
ture?
a) Cerebrum 35. Which of the following is a non-renewable energy
b) Cerebellum resource?
c) Hypothalamus a) Solar power
d) Medulla oblongata b) Wind power
c) Fossil fuels
28. What is the process of cell division in somatic d) Hydropower
cells called?
a) Meiosis 36. Which organ is responsible for regulating blood
b) Mitosis pressure?
c) Binary fission a) Heart
d) Budding b) Kidney
c) Liver
RAHUL SHARMA 102
 d) Brain c) Glycogen
d) Chitin
37. What is the term for an organism that can make
its own food? 45. What is the primary function of the skeletal sys-
a) Heterotroph tem?
b) Autotroph a) Produce hormones
c) Decomposer b) Transport nutrients
d) Parasite c) Provide support and protection
d) Generate heat
38. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
a) Vitamin A 46. Which protein in red blood cells carries oxygen?
b) Vitamin B12 a) Hemoglobin
c) Vitamin C b) Myoglobin
d) Vitamin K c) Collagen
d) Keratin
39. What is the main function of the pancreas?
a) Produce bile 47. What type of tissue connects muscle to bone?
b) Store glycogen a) Ligament
c) Produce insulin b) Tendon
d) Filter blood c) Cartilage
d) Epithelium
40. Which part of the eye is responsible for control-
ling the amount of light that enters? 48. Which part of the brain is responsible for volun-
a) Retina tary movements?
b) Cornea a) Medulla
c) Lens b) Cerebellum
d) Iris c) Cerebrum
d) Thalamus
41. What is the term for the maintenance of a stable
internal environment in an organism? 49. What is the role of ribosomes in a cell?
a) Metabolism a) Energy production
b) Homeostasis b) Protein synthesis
c) Adaptation c) Lipid synthesis
d) Evolution d) DNA replication

42. Which type of blood vessel has the thinnest 50. Which organ filters waste products from the
walls? blood?
a) Arteries a) Liver
b) Veins b) Lungs
c) Capillaries c) Kidneys
d) Arterioles d) Heart

43. Which cell organelle is responsible for photosyn- 51. What type of macromolecule are enzymes?
thesis in plants? a) Carbohydrates
a) Mitochondria b) Lipids
b) Chloroplast c) Proteins
c) Ribosome d) Nucleic acids
d) Nucleus
52. Which part of the digestive system is responsible
44. What is the main structural component of plant for nutrient absorption?
cell walls? a) Stomach
a) Starch b) Small intestine
b) Cellulose c) Large intestine

RAHUL SHARMA 103

 d) Esophagus c) Vacuole
d) Ribosome
53. What is the process by which plants lose water
vapor through their leaves? 61. What is the term for a change in the DNA se-
a) Transpiration quence?
b) Photosynthesis a) Mutation
c) Respiration b) Transcription
d) Condensation c) Translation
d) Replication
54. Which hormone is responsible for regulating me-
tabolism? 62. Which type of organism breaks down dead or-
a) Insulin ganic matter?
b) Thyroxine a) Producer
c) Adrenaline b) Consumer
d) Estrogen c) Decomposer
d) Parasite
55. What type of cells are involved in the immune re-
sponse? 63. What is the main function of the respiratory sys-
a) Red blood cells tem?
b) Platelets a) Transport nutrients
c) White blood cells b) Produce hormones
d) Epithelial cells c) Exchange gases
d) Regulate temperature
56. Which part of the human skeleton protects the
brain? 64. Which part of the plant is responsible for photo-
a) Rib cage synthesis?
b) Pelvis a) Roots
c) Skull b) Stems
d) Spine c) Leaves
d) Flowers
57. What is the main component of hair and nails?
a) Collagen 65. What is the smallest blood vessel in the human
b) Keratin body?
c) Elastin a) Arteries
d) Actin b) Veins
c) Capillaries
58. Which process describes the division of a single d) Venules
cell into two identical daughter cells?
a) Meiosis 66. Which hormone controls the sleep-wake cycle?
b) Mitosis a) Insulin
c) Fertilization b) Melatonin
d) Differentiation c) Adrenaline
d) Thyroxine
59. What is the role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?
a) Absorb light energy 67. What is the primary function of the lymphatic
b) Produce glucose system?
c) Release oxygen a) Transport oxygen
d) Absorb water b) Filter blood
c) Produce hormones
60. Which structure in a plant cell stores water and d) Maintain fluid balance
nutrients?
a) Nucleus 68. Which part of the human ear is responsible for
b) Mitochondria hearing?
a) Cochlea
RAHUL SHARMA 104
 b) Eustachian tube c) Transport oxygen
c) semicircular canals d) Produce hormones
d) Tympanic membrane
77. Which part of the plant anchors it in the soil?
69. What is the process by which cells obtain energy a) Leaves
from glucose? b) Stems
a) Photosynthesis c) Roots
b) Cellular respiration d) Flowers
c) Fermentation
d) Glycolysis 78. What is the main function of the integumentary
system?
70. What type of joint is found in the elbow and a) Support and protection
knee? b) Transport and circulation
a) Ball-and-socket joint c) Sensory perception
b) Hinge joint d) Temperature regulation
c) Pivot joint
d) Gliding joint 79. Which type of reproduction involves the fusion of
gametes?
71. Which molecule carries genetic information? a) Asexual reproduction
a) RNA b) Binary fission
b) DNA c) Budding
c) ATP d) Sexual reproduction
d) Protein
80. What is the primary pigment involved in photo-
72. What is the primary function of the liver? synthesis?
a) Filter waste from blood a) Hemoglobin
b) Produce bile b) Melanin
c) Store glycogen c) Chlorophyll
d) Regulate temperature d) Carotene

73. Which part of the nervous system controls invol- 81. Which organ in the human body is responsible for
untary actions? detoxification?
a) Somatic nervous system a) Heart
b) Autonomic nervous system b) Kidney
c) Central nervous system c) Liver
d) Peripheral nervous system d) Spleen

74. What is the term for a symbiotic relationship 82. What type of blood do veins carry?
where both organisms benefit? a) Oxygen-rich
a) Parasitism b) Oxygen-poor
b) Commensalism c) Carbon dioxide-rich
c) Mutualism d) Nutrient-rich
d) Predation
83. What is the main function of the excretory sys-
75. Which organ produces red blood cells in adults? tem?
a) Heart a) Digest food
b) Liver b) Filter blood
c) Bone marrow c) Remove waste
d) Spleen d) Regulate temperature

76. What is the function of hemoglobin? 84. Which part of the neuron receives signals from
a) Clot blood other neurons?
b) Fight infections a) Axon

RAHUL SHARMA 105

 b) Dendrite a) Energy production
c) Synapse b) Protein synthesis
d) Cell body c) Lipid synthesis
d) DNA replication
85. What is the term for an organism's ability to
maintain stable internal conditions? 93. Which part of the human brain is responsible for
a) Homeostasis vision?
b) Metabolism a) Frontal lobe
c) Adaptation b) Temporal lobe
d) Evolution c) Parietal lobe
d) Occipital lobe
86. Which cell organelle is known as the "control
center" of the cell? 94. What is the role of white blood cells?
a) Mitochondria a) Transport oxygen
b) Nucleus b) Fight infections
c) Ribosome c) Clot blood
d) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Produce hormones

87. What is the main function of red blood cells? 95. Which type of joint is found in the wrist?
a) Carry oxygen a) Hinge joint
b) Fight infections b) Ball-and-socket joint
c) Clot blood c) Pivot joint
d) Produce hormones d) Gliding joint

88. Which organ is part of both the digestive and en- 96. What is the term for the process by which plants
docrine systems? convert sunlight into energy?
a) Liver a) Respiration
b) Pancreas b) Photosynthesis
c) Stomach c) Fermentation
d) Kidney d) Transpiration

89. What is the primary function of the skeletal sys- 97. Which organ is responsible for pumping blood
tem? throughout the body?
a) Produce red blood cells a) Lungs
b) Protect internal organs b) Liver
c) Store minerals c) Heart
d) Support the body d) Kidney

90. Which macromolecule is the main source of en- 98. What is the main function of the small intestine?
ergy for the body? a) Absorb nutrients
a) Carbohydrates b) Produce bile
b) Proteins c) Filter blood
c) Lipids d) Store waste
d) Nucleic acids
99. Which vitamin is essential for vision?
91. Which hormone is responsible for regulating a) Vitamin A
blood sugar levels? b) Vitamin B12
a) Thyroxine c) Vitamin C
b) Insulin d) Vitamin D
c) Adrenaline
d) Estrogen 100. What is the basic unit of heredity?
a) Gene
92. What is the main function of the ribosome? b) Chromosome

RAHUL SHARMA 106

 c) Protein b) Nucleus
d) RNA c) Mitochondria
d) Ribosome
101. Which part of the plant is responsible for repro-
duction? 109. Which hormone regulates metabolism?
a) Root a) Insulin
b) Stem b) Adrenaline
c) Leaf c) Thyroxine
d) Flower d) Estrogen

102. What type of tissue connects bone to bone? 110. What is the role of the pancreas in digestion?
a) Muscle a) Produce bile
b) Tendon b) Store glycogen
c) Ligament c) Produce digestive enzymes
d) Cartilage d) Filter blood

103. What is the term for a group of organs that work 111. Which type of blood vessel carries blood back to
together to perform a specific function? the heart?
a) Tissue a) Arteries
b) Organ system b) Veins
c) Cell c) Capillaries
d) Organism d) Arterioles

104. Which part of the human body contains the vo- 112. What is the main function of chloroplasts?
cal cords? a) Energy production
a) Larynx b) Protein synthesis
b) Pharynx c) Photosynthesis
c) Trachea d) Cellular respiration
d) Bronchi
113. Which part of the human body is primarily re-
105. What is the primary function of the large intes- sponsible for detoxification?
tine? a) Kidney
a) Absorb nutrients b) Liver
b) Store bile c) Spleen
c) Absorb water d) Pancreas
d) Digest proteins
114. What is the basic structural unit of the nervous
106. Which organ system is responsible for transport- system?
ing nutrients and oxygen to cells? a) Axon
a) Respiratory system b) Neuron
b) Digestive system c) Dendrite
c) Circulatory system d) Synapse
d) Nervous system
115. Which hormone is produced by the adrenal
107. What is the term for the process by which cells glands?
release energy from food? a) Insulin
a) Photosynthesis b) Thyroxine
b) Cellular respiration c) Adrenaline
c) Fermentation d) Melatonin
d) Digestion
116. What is the term for an organism that feeds on
108. Which part of the plant cell is responsible for dead organic matter?
storing genetic information? a) Producer
a) Chloroplast
RAHUL SHARMA 107
 b) Consumer a) Organ
c) Decomposer b) Tissue
d) Parasite c) Organ system
d) Organism
117. Which part of the cell is responsible for packag-
ing and distributing proteins? 125. Which part of the digestive system is primarily
a) Ribosome responsible for water absorption?
b) Golgi apparatus a) Stomach
c) Endoplasmic reticulum b) Small intestine
d) Mitochondria c) Large intestine
d) Esophagus
118. What is the primary function of red blood cells?
a) Fight infections 126. Which organ system is responsible for producing
b) Transport oxygen hormones?
c) Clot blood a) Digestive system
d) Produce hormones b) Nervous system
c) Endocrine system
119. Which organ in the human body is responsible d) Circulatory system
for regulating blood sugar levels?
a) Liver 127. What is the primary function of the small intes-
b) Kidney tine?
c) Pancreas a) Absorb nutrients
d) Heart b) Produce bile
c) Filter blood
120. What is the term for a symbiotic relationship d) Store waste
where one organism benefits and the other is
harmed? 128. Which macromolecule is primarily used for long-
a) Parasitism term energy storage in the body?
b) Commensalism a) Carbohydrates
c) Mutualism b) Proteins
d) Predation c) Lipids
d) Nucleic acids
121. Which part of the brain controls voluntary
movements? 129. Which part of the cell is responsible for cellular
a) Cerebrum respiration?
b) Cerebellum a) Nucleus
c) Medulla b) Mitochondria
d) Thalamus c) Ribosomes
d) Chloroplasts
122. What type of blood cells are responsible for
fighting infections? 130. What is the term for the process by which cells
a) Red blood cells obtain energy from glucose?
b) White blood cells a) Photosynthesis
c) Platelets b) Cellular respiration
d) Plasma cells c) Fermentation
d) Glycolysis
123. Which organ produces bile?
a) Stomach 131. Which type of tissue is responsible for connect-
b) Liver ing bones at joints?
c) Pancreas a) Muscle
d) Gallbladder b) Tendon
c) Ligament
124. What is the term for a group of similar cells that d) Cartilage
perform a specific function?
RAHUL SHARMA 108
132. What is the primary pigment involved in photo-
synthesis? 140. What is the term for a symbiotic relationship
a) Hemoglobin where one organism benefits and the other is
b) Melanin harmed?
c) Chlorophyll a) Parasitism
d) Carotene b) Commensalism
c) Mutualism
133. Which organ in the human body is primarily re- d) Predation
sponsible for detoxification?
a) Kidney 141. Which part of the brain controls voluntary
b) Liver movements?
c) Spleen a) Cerebrum
d) Pancreas b) Cerebellum
c) Medulla
134. What is the basic structural unit of the nervous d) Thalamus
system?
a) Axon 142. What type of blood cells are responsible for
b) Neuron fighting infections?
c) Dendrite a) Red blood cells
d) Synapse b) White blood cells
c) Platelets
135. Which hormone is produced by the adrenal d) Plasma cells
glands?
a) Insulin 143. Which organ produces bile?
b) Thyroxine a) Stomach
c) Adrenaline b) Liver
d) Melatonin c) Pancreas
d) Gallbladder
136. What is the term for an organism that feeds on
dead organic matter? 144. What is the term for a group of similar cells that
a) Producer perform a specific function?
b) Consumer a) Organ
c) Decomposer b) Tissue
d) Parasite c) Organ system
d) Organism
137. Which part of the cell is responsible for packag-
ing and distributing proteins? 145. Which part of the digestive system is primarily
a) Ribosome responsible for water absorption?
b) Golgi apparatus a) Stomach
c) Endoplasmic reticulum b) Small intestine
d) Mitochondria c) Large intestine
d) Esophagus
138. What is the primary function of red blood cells?
a) Fight infections 146. Which organ system is responsible for producing
b) Transport oxygen hormones?
c) Clot blood a) Digestive system
d) Produce hormones b) Nervous system
c) Endocrine system
139. Which organ in the human body is responsible d) Circulatory system
for regulating blood sugar levels?
a) Liver 147. What is the primary function of the small intes-
b) Kidney tine?
c) Pancreas a) Absorb nutrients
d) Heart b) Produce bile
RAHUL SHARMA 109
 c) Filter blood a) Respiration
d) Store waste b) Photosynthesis
c) Transpiration
148. Which macromolecule is primarily used for long- d) Fermentation
term energy storage in the body?
a) Carbohydrates 6. Which layer of the Earth's atmosphere contains
b) Proteins the ozone layer?
c) Lipids a) Troposphere
d) Nucleic acids b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere
149. Which part of the cell is responsible for cellular d) Thermosphere
respiration?
a) Nucleus 7. What is the primary function of wetlands?
b) Mitochondria a) Source of fossil fuels
c) Ribosomes b) Habitat for marine life
d) Chloroplasts c) Water purification and flood control
d) Mineral extraction
150. What is the term for the process by which cells
obtain energy from glucose? 8. Which of the following is an example of a renewa-
a) Photosynthesis ble energy source?
b) Cellular respiration a) Coal
c) Fermentation b) Natural gas
d) Glycolysis c) Solar power

Environment & Ecology d) Nuclear power

1. What is the primary cause of global warming? 9. What is the main cause of acid rain?
a) Deforestation a) Greenhouse gases
b) Greenhouse gas emissions b) Deforestation
c) Overfishing c) Emissions of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
d) Urbanization d) Overfishing

2. Which gas is the most significant contributor to the 10. Which type of biodiversity refers to the variety of
greenhouse effect? species within a habitat or region?
a) Methane a) Genetic diversity
b) Nitrous oxide b) Species diversity
c) Carbon dioxide c) Ecosystem diversity
d) Ozone d) Functional diversity

3. What is the primary purpose of the Kyoto Proto- 11. What is the primary threat to coral reefs world-
col? wide?
a) To reduce deforestation a) Overfishing
b) To reduce greenhouse gas emissions b) Coral bleaching due to rising sea temperatures
c) To protect endangered species c) Oil spills
d) To manage freshwater resources d) Tourism

4. Which ecosystem is known for its high biodiversity 12. Which international agreement focuses on the
and dense tree canopy? conservation of biological diversity?
a) Desert a) Kyoto Protocol
b) Grassland b) Paris Agreement
c) Tundra c) Convention on Biological Diversity
d) Tropical rainforest d) Montreal Protocol

5. What is the process by which plants absorb carbon

dioxide and release oxygen?
RAHUL SHARMA 110
13. What term describes a species that is native to a a) Provisioning services
specific geographic location and found nowhere b) Regulating services
else? c) Cultural services
a) Endangered d) Supporting services
b) Endemic
c) Invasive 21. What is the term for the practice of planting trees
d) Migratory to restore a forested area?
a) Afforestation
14. Which biogeochemical cycle involves the move- b) Reforestation
ment of water through the environment? c) Deforestation
a) Carbon cycle d) Agroforestry
b) Nitrogen cycle
c) Water cycle 22. Which of the following best describes an invasive
d) Phosphorus cycle species?
a) A species that is native to an ecosystem
15. What is the main purpose of a marine protected b) A species that has been introduced to a new eco-
area (MPA)? system and causes harm
a) Mining resource management c) A species that migrates seasonally
b) Military training d) A species that is endangered
c) Biodiversity conservation and habitat protection
d) Tourism development 23. What is the primary cause of ocean acidification?
a) Oil spills
16. Which of the following is a key indicator of cli- b) Increased atmospheric carbon dioxide
mate change? c) Overfishing
a) Decrease in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels d) Plastic pollution
b) Increase in global average temperature
c) Decrease in ocean acidity 24. Which gas is released in significant quantities by
d) Increase in polar bear populations agricultural activities, especially from livestock?
a) Methane
17. What is the term for the variety of life in a partic- b) Carbon dioxide
ular habitat or ecosystem? c) Nitrous oxide
a) Biomass d) Ozone
b) Biotic factor
c) Biodiversity 25. What is the term for the gradual increase in the
d) Biosphere Earth's surface temperature?
a) Global warming
18. Which of the following pollutants is most com- b) Climate variability
monly associated with the depletion of the ozone c) Greenhouse effect
layer? d) Weathering
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Methane 26. Which organization publishes the "Red List" of
c) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) threatened species?
d) Nitrous oxide a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
b) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
19. What is the main goal of sustainable develop- c) International Union for Conservation of Nature
ment? (IUCN)
a) Maximizing economic growth d) Greenpeace
b) Minimizing environmental protection
c) Balancing economic growth with environmental 27. What is the primary objective of the Paris Agree-
protection and social equity ment?
d) Limiting technological advancement a) Reduce deforestation
b) Combat climate change by limiting global warm-
20. Which type of ecosystem service includes pollina- ing
tion of crops and natural pest control? c) Protect endangered species
RAHUL SHARMA 111
 d) Promote renewable energy b) Genetic diversity
c) Ecosystem diversity
28. Which ecosystem is characterized by permafrost? d) Functional diversity
a) Desert
b) Tropical rainforest 36. What is the primary purpose of the Ramsar Con-
c) Grassland vention?
d) Tundra a) Protecting coral reefs
b) Conserving wetlands
29. What is the term for the introduction of harmful c) Managing fisheries
substances into the environment? d) Regulating climate change
a) Conservation
b) Pollution 37. Which renewable energy source uses the heat
c) Erosion from the Earth's interior?
d) Biodiversity a) Solar energy
b) Wind energy
30. Which renewable energy source is derived from c) Biomass energy
organic materials such as plant and animal waste? d) Geothermal energy
a) Solar energy
b) Wind energy 38. What is the main effect of deforestation on the
c) Biomass energy carbon cycle?
d) Geothermal energy a) Increase in oxygen production
b) Decrease in atmospheric carbon dioxide
31. What is the term for the reduction of oxygen lev- c) Increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide
els in water bodies, often caused by excessive nutri- d) Decrease in soil erosion
ent pollution?
a) Eutrophication 39. Which term refers to the movement of individu-
b) Salinization als into a population?
c) Desertification a) Emigration
d) Acidification b) Immigration
c) Dispersal
32. Which practice helps in reducing soil erosion? d) Migration
a) Overgrazing
b) Deforestation 40. What is the primary cause of the hole in the
c) Contour plowing ozone layer?
d) Urbanization a) Carbon dioxide emissions
b) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
33. Which of the following best describes the con- c) Methane emissions
cept of "ecological footprint"? d) Nitrous oxide emissions
a) The total number of species in an ecosystem
b) The amount of land and water area required to 41. Which of the following is an example of a key-
sustain a person's lifestyle stone species?
c) The impact of pollution on an ecosystem a) Human
d) The energy consumption of a household b) Blue whale
c) Sea otter
34. What is the main cause of biodiversity loss in d) Housefly
tropical rainforests?
a) Pollution 42. What is the main source of mercury pollution in
b) Overfishing the environment?
c) Deforestation a) Agricultural runoff
d) Urbanization b) Industrial processes and coal combustion
c) Deforestation
35. Which term refers to the variety of ecosystems d) Vehicle emissions
within a given region?
a) Species diversity
RAHUL SHARMA 112
43. Which international agreement aims to reduce a) Tropical rainforest
the production and use of persistent organic pollu- b) Temperate deciduous forest
tants (POPs)? c) Boreal forest
a) Kyoto Protocol d) Chaparral
b) Stockholm Convention
c) Paris Agreement 51. What is the main threat to the survival of polar
d) Montreal Protocol bears?
a) Habitat destruction due to deforestation
44. What is the term for the network of living and b) Overhunting
non-living components interacting in a particular en- c) Loss of sea ice habitat due to climate change
vironment? d) Pollution
a) Community
b) Population 52. Which of the following is a non-renewable re-
c) Ecosystem source?
d) Biome a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
45. Which species is considered an indicator of air c) Coal
pollution? d) Biomass
a) Lichen
b) Cactus 53. What is the term for the variety of genes within a
c) Oak tree species?
d) Polar bear a) Species diversity
b) Genetic diversity
46. What is the primary purpose of the Convention c) Ecosystem diversity
on International Trade in Endangered Species d) Functional diversity
(CITES)?
a) Regulate trade in endangered species 54. Which pollutant is primarily responsible for the
b) Promote sustainable forestry formation of smog?
c) Manage global fisheries a) Carbon monoxide
d) Combat climate change b) Methane
c) Ozone
47. Which of the following ecosystems is known for d) Sulfur dioxide
its high productivity and nutrient-rich waters?
a) Coral reef 55. What is the primary goal of conservation biology?
b) Open ocean a) Increase agricultural yields
c) Estuary b) Preserve biodiversity
d) Desert c) Promote industrial growth
d) Enhance urban development
48. What is the main cause of desertification?
a) Overgrazing 56. Which process converts atmospheric nitrogen
b) Industrial pollution into a form usable by plants?
c) Urbanization a) Nitrogen fixation
d) Climate change b) Nitrification
c) Denitrification
49. What is the primary function of the carbon cycle d) Ammonification
in the environment?
a) Transport nutrients 57. What is the main cause of eutrophication in wa-
b) Regulate temperature ter bodies?
c) Store energy a) Oil spills
d) Circulate carbon through the biosphere, atmos- b) Excessive nutrients from agricultural runoff
phere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere c) Overfishing
d) Deforestation
50. Which type of forest is found in regions with a
Mediterranean climate?
RAHUL SHARMA 113
58. What is the term for species that are at risk of ex- d) Tundra
tinction in the near future?
a) Endemic species 66. What is the term for a non-native species that
b) Invasive species spreads rapidly and causes harm to native species
c) Endangered species and ecosystems?
d) Keystone species a) Endangered species
b) Endemic species
59. Which energy source is considered the most envi- c) Invasive species
ronmentally friendly? d) Migratory species
a) Coal
b) Nuclear 67. Which process describes the breakdown of dead
c) Wind organic matter by microorganisms?
d) Natural gas a) Photosynthesis
b) Decomposition
60. What is the primary function of the hydrologic cy- c) Nitrogen fixation
cle? d) Respiration
a) Distribute heat
b) Regulate climate 68. What is the primary source of energy for the
c) Circulate water through the environment Earth’s climate system?
d) Transfer nutrients a) Geothermal heat
b) Ocean currents
61. Which ecosystem is characterized by low rainfall c) Solar radiation
and extreme temperature variations? d) Wind patterns
a) Tundra
b) Grassland 69. What is the main cause of habitat fragmentation?
c) Desert a) Overhunting
d) Temperate forest b) Invasive species
c) Human activities such as agriculture and urban
62. What is the primary purpose of the Montreal Pro- development
tocol? d) Natural disasters
a) Protecting endangered species
b) Reducing greenhouse gas emissions 70. Which gas is primarily responsible for the green-
c) Phasing out the production of substances that de- house effect?
plete the ozone layer a) Oxygen
d) Promoting sustainable agriculture b) Methane
c) Carbon dioxide
63. Which type of biodiversity refers to the genetic d) Nitrogen
variation within a population?
a) Species diversity 71. What is the main threat to marine biodiversity?
b) Genetic diversity a) Acid rain
c) Ecosystem diversity b) Overfishing and habitat destruction
d) Functional diversity c) Urbanization
d) Deforestation
64. What is the main cause of soil erosion?
a) Industrial pollution 72. Which biome is characterized by having four dis-
b) Deforestation and overgrazing tinct seasons and moderate rainfall?
c) Urbanization a) Tropical rainforest
d) Climate change b) Desert
c) Temperate deciduous forest
65. Which ecosystem is known for its nutrient-poor d) Tundra
soil but high species diversity?
a) Desert 73. What is the term for the ability of an ecosystem
b) Grassland to recover from disturbances?
c) Tropical rainforest a) Resilience
RAHUL SHARMA 114
 b) Resistance 81. What is the term for the process by which plants
c) Redundancy release water vapor into the atmosphere?
d) Stability a) Respiration
b) Evaporation
74. Which of the following practices helps to con- c) Transpiration
serve soil and water? d) Condensation
a) Monoculture farming
b) Contour plowing 82. Which of the following is a consequence of over-
c) Clear-cutting fishing?
d) Overgrazing a) Increased biodiversity
b) Depletion of fish stocks
75. What is the primary goal of the Endangered Spe- c) Enhanced water quality
cies Act? d) Reduced pollution
a) Promote renewable energy
b) Protect and recover imperiled species and their 83. What is the primary cause of algal blooms in wa-
ecosystems ter bodies?
c) Increase agricultural productivity a) High oxygen levels
d) Reduce greenhouse gas emissions b) Low nutrient levels
c) Excessive nutrients from agricultural runoff
76. Which term refers to the maximum population d) Overfishing
size that an environment can sustain indefinitely?
a) Biotic potential 84. Which type of forest is known for having ever-
b) Carrying capacity green trees and a cold climate?
c) Population density a) Tropical rainforest
d) Growth rate b) Deciduous forest
c) Boreal forest
77. What is the main cause of coral bleaching? d) Mangrove forest
a) Overfishing
b) Pollution from oil spills 85. What is the main purpose of habitat corridors?
c) Increased sea temperatures due to climate a) To connect fragmented habitats and allow wildlife
change movement
d) Coastal development b) To provide areas for agriculture
c) To create urban development zones
78. Which of the following is a major source of air d) To prevent soil erosion
pollution in urban areas?
a) Agricultural runoff 86. Which international agreement aims to combat
b) Industrial emissions and vehicle exhaust desertification and mitigate the effects of drought?
c) Deforestation a) Kyoto Protocol
d) Overfishing b) Paris Agreement
c) United Nations Convention to Combat Desertifi-
79. What is the primary role of decomposers in an cation (UNCCD)
ecosystem? d) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
a) Produce oxygen
b) Fix nitrogen 87. What is the main source of plastic pollution in the
c) Break down dead organic material oceans?
d) Pollinate plants a) Industrial waste
b) Agricultural runoff
80. Which of the following best describes an estuary? c) Improper disposal of plastic waste
a) A freshwater ecosystem with high nutrient levels d) Natural disasters
b) A marine ecosystem with coral reefs
c) A coastal area where freshwater from rivers 88. Which type of ecosystem service includes the
meets and mixes with saltwater from the ocean production of food and fresh water?
d) A dry, desert-like region a) Regulating services
b) Provisioning services
RAHUL SHARMA 115
 c) Cultural services 96. What is the main cause of the loss of biodiversity
d) Supporting services in freshwater ecosystems?
a) Overfishing
89. What is the primary objective of the Clean Air b) Acid rain
Act? c) Habitat destruction and pollution
a) Reduce water pollution d) Climate change
b) Protect endangered species
c) Control air pollution 97. Which of the following is an example of a provi-
d) Promote renewable energy sioning ecosystem service?
a) Pollination
90. What is the term for the variety of ecosystems in b) Climate regulation
a specific area? c) Freshwater supply
a) Species diversity d) Soil formation
b) Genetic diversity
c) Ecosystem diversity 98. What is the primary purpose of the United Na-
d) Habitat diversity tions Framework Convention on Climate Change (UN-
FCCC)?
91. Which of the following is a consequence of defor- a) Promote sustainable agriculture
estation? b) Combat climate change
a) Increased biodiversity c) Protect endangered species
b) Soil erosion d) Conserve wetlands
c) Reduced greenhouse gas emissions
d) Improved air quality 99. What is the term for the gradual increase in the
Earth’s average surface temperature?
92. What is the main purpose of the Intergovernmen- a) Climate variability
tal Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)? b) Global warming
a) Regulate global trade c) Ozone depletion
b) Provide scientific assessments on climate change d) Acid rain
c) Promote renewable energy
d) Protect endangered species 100. Which of the following is a major contributor to
deforestation?
93. Which type of biome is characterized by high a) Urbanization
temperatures and high rainfall year-round? b) Sustainable forestry
a) Desert c) Wildlife conservation
b) Tundra d) Soil conservation
c) Tropical rainforest
d) Grassland 101. What is the main purpose of the CITES agree-
ment?
94. What is the primary source of water pollution in a) Reduce greenhouse gas emissions
agricultural areas? b) Regulate the trade of endangered species
a) Industrial emissions c) Protect wetlands
b) Household waste d) Combat desertification

102. Which type of renewable energy uses the flow

c) Pesticides and fertilizers of water to generate electricity?
d) Oil spills a) Solar power
b) Wind power
95. Which of the following practices helps to con- c) Hydropower
serve water in agriculture? d) Geothermal power
a) Flood irrigation
b) Drip irrigation 103. What is the main consequence of habitat de-
c) Over-irrigation struction?
d) Deforestation a) Increased biodiversity
b) Decreased air pollution
RAHUL SHARMA 116
c) Loss of species and ecosystem services b) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
d) Improved water quality Change (UNFCCC)
c) International Union for Conservation of Nature
104. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas? (IUCN)
a) Nitrogen d) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide 112. What is the main purpose of establishing pro-
d) Argon tected areas like national parks?
a) Promote tourism
105. What is the primary function of wetlands? b) Preserve biodiversity and natural resources
a) Source of timber c) Industrial development
b) Habitat for wildlife and water purification d) Urban expansion
c) Mining area
d) Urban development 113. What is the primary cause of the melting of po-
lar ice caps?
106. What is the main cause of the decline in bee a) Deforestation
populations worldwide? b) Acid rain
a) Habitat loss c) Global warming
b) Acid rain d) Overfishing
c) Overfishing
d) Plastic pollution 114. Which type of renewable energy is harnessed
from the heat within the Earth?
107. Which term describes the loss of soil fertility a) Wind energy
due to overuse and erosion? b) Solar energy
a) Desertification c) Biomass energy
b) Salinization d) Geothermal energy
c) Eutrophication
d) Acidification 115. What is the primary goal of reforestation?
a) Increase urban development
108. What is the main source of nitrogen pollution in b) Restore degraded forests
water bodies? c) Promote industrial growth
a) Industrial waste d) Reduce water pollution
b) Vehicle emissions
c) Agricultural runoff 116. What is the term for the contamination of the
d) Deforestation environment with harmful substances?
a) Conservation
109. Which of the following is an example of a cul- b) Pollution
tural ecosystem service? c) Recycling
a) Food production d) Restoration
b) Water purification
c) Recreational and spiritual benefits 117. Which of the following is a major source of me-
d) Climate regulation thane emissions?
a) Transport sector
110. What is the term for the conversion of fertile b) Agriculture, particularly livestock
land into desert? c) Industrial processes
a) Erosion d) Deforestation
b) Salinization
c) Desertification 118. What is the main purpose of the Marine Pro-
d) Deforestation tected Areas (MPAs)?
a) Promote tourism
111. Which organization is responsible for coordinat- b) Conserve marine biodiversity and ecosystems
ing international efforts to combat climate change? c) Increase fishing yields
a) World Wildlife Fund (WWF) d) Develop coastal infrastructure

RAHUL SHARMA 117

119. What is the primary function of the nitrogen cy- b) Habitat loss and pollution
cle in ecosystems? c) Acid rain
a) Regulate temperature d) Climate change
b) Circulate nitrogen through the biosphere, atmos-
phere, and lithosphere 127. Which term describes a species that has been
c) Store carbon brought to an area where it does not naturally occur?
d) Produce oxygen a) Endemic species
b) Invasive species
120. Which of the following best describes a biome? c) Keystone species
a) A group of interacting species in a specific area d) Migratory species
b) A large area characterized by specific climate, flora,
and fauna 128. What is the primary source of lead pollution in
c) A community of organisms living in the same habi- the environment?
tat a) Plastic waste
d) The variety of life forms within a given ecosystem b) Vehicle emissions
c) Industrial processes and leaded gasoline
121. What is the primary effect of oil spills on marine d) Agricultural runoff
environments?
a) Increase in fish population 129. Which type of ecosystem service includes the
b) Damage to marine life and ecosystems benefits people obtain from ecosystems through rec-
c) Enhanced water quality reation and aesthetic experiences?
d) Reduction in pollution a) Provisioning services
b) Regulating services
122. Which of the following is a consequence of c) Cultural services
global warming? d) Supporting services
a) Decreased sea levels
b) Increased frequency of extreme weather events 130. What is the main cause of soil salinization?
c) Stabilization of global temperatures a) Overgrazing
d) Reduced greenhouse gas emissions b) Acid rain
c) Irrigation in arid areas
123. What is the term for the natural environment in d) Deforestation
which a species lives?
a) Community 131. Which international treaty is aimed at reducing
b) Ecosystem the emissions of greenhouse gases to combat climate
c) Habitat change?
d) Biome a) Stockholm Convention
b) Kyoto Protocol
124. Which type of ecosystem is characterized by c) Ramsar Convention
having low biodiversity but high productivity? d) Montreal Protocol
a) Coral reef
b) Desert 132. What is the primary function of the phosphorus
c) Open ocean cycle?
d) Estuary a) Store nitrogen
b) Circulate phosphorus through the biosphere, litho-
125. What is the primary purpose of the Wildlife Pro- sphere, and hydrosphere
tection Act? c) Regulate temperature
a) Promote industrial development d) Produce oxygen
b) Conserve wildlife and their habitats
c) Increase agricultural productivity 133. Which of the following best describes the con-
d) Regulate urban expansion cept of "carrying capacity"?
a) The maximum reproductive rate of a species
126. What is the main cause of the decline in am- b) The maximum population size an environment can
phibian populations worldwide? sustain
a) Overfishing c) The rate at which a population grows
RAHUL SHARMA 118
d) The diversity of species within an ecosystem
Miscellaneous Topic
134. What is the primary goal of the Convention on 1. Which year was the United Nations founded?
Biological Diversity (CBD)? a) 1942
a) Promote sustainable agriculture b) 1945
b) Protect endangered species c) 1948
c) Conserve biological diversity, use its components d) 1950
sustainably, and share benefits equitably
d) Reduce greenhouse gas emissions 2. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations
located?
135. Which type of pollution is primarily caused by a) Geneva
vehicle emissions and industrial activities? b) New York
a) Water pollution c) Paris
b) Air pollution d) London
c) Soil pollution
d) Noise pollution 3. How many permanent members are there in the
UN Security Council?
136. What is the main purpose of the Paris Agree- a) 3
ment? b) 5
a) Promote international trade c) 7
b) Combat climate change and limit global warming d) 9
c) Protect endangered species
d) Conserve marine resources 4. Which of the following is not an official language
of the United Nations?
137. Which of the following best describes an ecolog- a) English
ical niche? b) French
a) The physical space a species occupies c) German
b) The role and position a species have in its environ- d) Spanish
ment
c) The interaction between different species in an eco- 5. Who is the current Secretary-General of the United
system Nations?
d) The genetic variation within a species a) Ban Ki-moon
b) Kofi Annan
138. What is the primary cause of ocean acidifica- c) António Guterres
tion? d) Boutros Boutros-Ghali
a) Overfishing
b) Increased carbon dioxide absorption by seawater 6. Which is the highest motorable pass in India?
c) Plastic pollution a) Rohtang Pass
d) Oil spills b) Khardung La
c) Nathu La
139. Which of the following ecosystems has the high- d) Zoji La
est net primary productivity?
a) Desert 7. The Atal Tunnel is located in which Indian state?
b) Grassland a) Uttarakhand
c) Tropical rainforest b) Himachal Pradesh
d) Tundra c) Jammu & Kashmir
d) Sikkim
140. What is the main purpose of creating biosphere
reserves? 8. Which pass connects Srinagar to Leh?
a) Promote urban development a) Banihal Pass
b) Conserve biodiversity and support sustainable de- b) Nathu La
velopment c) Zoji La
c) Increase agricultural production d) Khardung La
d) Enhance industrial growth
RAHUL SHARMA 119
9. The Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel is also known as: b) USA, China, Japan, Australia
a) Chenani-Nashri Tunnel c) India, China, Russia, Brazil
b) Atal Tunnel d) India, Japan, Russia, Brazil
c) Jawahar Tunnel
d) Banihal-Qazigund Tunnel 18. Which of the following is a new international eco-
nomic organization established in 2021?
10. Which pass connects India and China in Sikkim? a) BRICS
a) Shipki La b) RCEP
b) Mana Pass c) AUKUS
c) Nathu La d) OPEC
d) Lipulekh Pass
19. The Abraham Accords were signed between
11. Which is the highest waterfall in India? which countries?
a) Jog Falls a) Israel and UAE
b) Kunchikal Falls b) Israel and Saudi Arabia
c) Dudhsagar Falls c) Israel and Qatar
d) Athirappilly Falls d) Israel and Bahrain

12. In which state is Jog Falls located? 20. Which organization was launched to facilitate co-
a) Maharashtra operation in the Indo-Pacific region in 2021?
b) Kerala a) I2U2
c) Karnataka b) AUKUS
d) Tamil Nadu c) QUAD
d) NATO
13. Dudhsagar Falls is located on which river?
a) Narmada 21. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
b) Mandovi a) Venus
c) Godavari b) Mars
d) Kaveri c) Jupiter
d) Saturn
14. Which waterfall is known as the "Niagara of In-
dia"? 22. Which planet has the most extensive ring sys-
a) Jog Falls tem?
b) Hogenakkal Falls a) Jupiter
c) Dudhsagar Falls b) Saturn
d) Athirappilly Falls c) Uranus
d) Neptune
15. Nohkalikai Falls is located in which Indian state?
a) Assam 23. What is the largest moon of Saturn called?
b) Meghalaya a) Ganymede
c) Arunachal Pradesh b) Titan
d) Mizoram c) Europa
d) Callisto
16. Which of the following organizations was formed
to ensure global cooperation in response to the 24. Which planet is known as the Earth's twin?
COVID-19 pandemic? a) Mars
a) COVAX b) Venus
b) G7 c) Jupiter
c) ASEAN d) Neptune
d) SAARC
25. Which is the hottest planet in the Solar System?
17. The Quad grouping includes which countries? a) Mercury
a) USA, India, Japan, Australia b) Venus

RAHUL SHARMA 120

 c) Mars 34. Who led the revolt of 1857 in Kanpur?
d) Jupiter a) Tantia Tope
b) Rani Lakshmibai
26. Who was the founder of the Brahmo Samaj? c) Bahadur Shah Zafar
a) Swami Vivekananda d) Nana Sahib
b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
c) Dayanand Saraswati 35. The Moplah Rebellion was related to:
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
27. The Arya Samaj was established by: c) Andhra Pradesh
a) Swami Vivekananda d) Karnataka
b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
c) Dayanand Saraswati 36. Which country developed the Predator drone?
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak a) Russia
b) USA
28. Who initiated the Aligarh Movement? c) China
a) Syed Ahmed Khan d) Israel
b) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 37. The Heron drone is primarily used by:
d) Hakim Ajmal Khan a) USA
b) Russia
29. The Theosophical Society in India was founded c) Israel
by: d) China
a) Annie Besant
b) Helena Blavatsky 38. Which is the world's first solar-powered drone?
c) Swami Vivekananda a) Predator
d) Mahatma Gandhi b) Heron
c) Zephyr
30. The Young Bengal Movement was led by: d) Reaper
a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 39. Which Indian drone is known for surveillance and
c) Henry Louis Vivian Derozio reconnaissance?
d) Jyotiba Phule a) Nishant
b) Rustam
31. The Vellore Mutiny occurred in which year? c) Lakshya
a) 1806 d) Netra
b) 1857
c) 1905 40. The MQ-9 Reaper drone is used for:
d) 1921 a) Surveillance only
b) Combat and surveillance
32. The Indigo Rebellion was primarily associated c) Transport
with which region? d) Medical aid
a) Punjab
b) Bengal 41. Which country developed the S-400 air defense
c) Maharashtra system?
d) Gujarat a) USA
b) Russia
33. The Santhal Rebellion took place in: c) China
a) 1831 d) Israel
b) 1855
c) 1875 42. The Iron Dome is an air defense system of:
d) 1890 a) USA
b) Russia

RAHUL SHARMA 121

 c) China b) Narora
d) Israel c) Kaiga
d) Kudankulam
43. The Patriot missile defense system is used by:
a) USA 51. The Sarang team of the Indian Air Force is known
b) Russia for:
c) China a) Fighter aircraft display
d) India b) Helicopter aerobatics
c) Transport aircraft
44. Which country operates the THAAD missile sys- d) Parachute jumps
tem?
a) USA 52. The Surya Kiran team flies which aircraft?
b) Russia a) MiG-21
c) China b) Sukhoi Su-30
d) Israel c) HAL Kiran
d) Jaguar
45. Barak 8 missile defense system is a joint venture
between: 53. Which Indian Air Force aerobatics team uses heli-
a) USA and India copters?
b) Israel and India a) Sarang
c) Russia and China b) Surya Kiran
d) France and Germany c) Thunderbolts
d) Akash Ganga
46. Which is the first nuclear power plant in India?
a) Kakrapar 54. The Surya Kiran team was reactivated in which
b) Narora year?
c) Tarapur a) 2006
d) Kudankulam b) 2010
c) 2015
47. The "Make in India" initiative was launched in d) 2017
which year?
a) 2012 55. Sarang team's helicopters are primarily painted
b) 2014 in:
c) 2016 a) Blue
d) 2018 b) Red and white
c) Green
48. The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is located d) Orange and blue
in which state?
a) Maharashtra 56. The Thar Desert is located in which country?
b) Tamil Nadu a) Pakistan
c) Gujarat b) India
d) Rajasthan c) Saudi Arabia
d) Iran
49. The "Digital India" program was launched by the
Government of India in: 57. Which is the largest freshwater lake in the world
a) 2014 by surface area?
b) 2015 a) Lake Baikal
c) 2016 b) Lake Victoria
d) 2017 c) Lake Superior
d) Caspian Sea
50. Which Indian nuclear power plant uses Russian
technology? 58. The Great Barrier Reef is located off the coast of:
a) Tarapur a) Brazil

RAHUL SHARMA 122

 b) South Africa d) North America
c) Australia
d) India 67. Which volcano is known as the "Lighthouse of
the Mediterranean"?
59. The Andes Mountain range is located in: a) Mount Etna
a) North America b) Mount Vesuvius
b) South America c) Mount Stromboli
c) Europe d) Mount Pelée
d) Asia
68. The Gobi Desert is primarily located in which
60. Which strait connects the Mediterranean Sea to country?
the Atlantic Ocean? a) India
a) Strait of Gibraltar b) China
b) Bosphorus Strait c) Mongolia
c) Strait of Hormuz d) Australia
d) Bering Strait
69. Which is the largest hot desert in the world?
61. The Sahara Desert is located on which continent? a) Arabian Desert
a) Asia b) Gobi Desert
b) Africa c) Sahara Desert
c) Australia d) Kalahari Desert
d) South America
70. The Caspian Sea is bordered by how many coun-
62. Which is the longest river in the world? tries?
a) Amazon a) 3
b) Nile b) 5
c) Yangtze c) 7
d) Mississippi d) 9

63. Mount Everest is part of which mountain range? 71. The Pampas are extensive plains in which coun-
a) Alps try?
b) Andes a) Brazil
c) Rockies b) Argentina
d) Himalayas c) Mexico
d) Canada
64. The Dead Sea is located between which two
countries? 72. Which Lake is known as the "Jewel of the Italian
a) Israel and Jordan Lakes"?
b) Iraq and Iran a) Lake Como
c) Saudi Arabia and Egypt b) Lake Garda
d) Turkey and Syria c) Lake Maggiore
d) Lake Lugano
65. The Yellowstone National Park is famous for
which geological feature? 73. The Kalahari Desert is located in which conti-
a) Waterfalls nent?
b) Deserts a) Asia
c) Volcanoes b) Africa
d) Geysers c) Australia
d) South America
66. The Serengeti grassland is located in:
a) Asia 74. Which is the deepest oceanic trench in the
b) Africa world?
c) South America a) Mariana Trench
b) Tonga Trench
RAHUL SHARMA 123
 c) Philippine Trench b) Spain and Portugal
d) Kuril-Kamchatka Trench c) France and Spain
d) Italy and Switzerland
75. The Rocky Mountains are located in which conti-
nent? 83. Which is the largest island in the world?
a) Europe a) Greenland
b) Asia b) Madagascar
c) North America c) Borneo
d) South America d) New Guinea

76. The Volga River flows through which country? 84. The Great Wall of China is located in which coun-
a) China try?
b) Russia a) Japan
c) Germany b) South Korea
d) India c) China
d) Mongolia
77. The Amazon Rainforest is primarily located in
which country? 85. The Yangtze River flows through which country?
a) Brazil a) India
b) Argentina b) China
c) Peru c) Russia
d) Colombia d) Japan

78. Which Mountain is the highest peak in Africa? 86. Mount Fuji is a famous volcano in which country?
a) Mount Kenya a) Indonesia
b) Mount Kilimanjaro b) Japan
c) Mount Elgon c) Philippines
d) Mount Meru d) Malaysia

79. The Strait of Hormuz connects which two bodies 87. The Arctic Ocean is located at which pole?
of water? a) North
a) Red Sea and Arabian Sea b) South
b) Persian Gulf and Arabian Sea c) East
c) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea d) West
d) Pacific Ocean and Indian Ocean
88. The Black Sea is bordered by how many coun-
80. The Great Victoria Desert is located in which tries?
country? a) 4
a) South Africa b) 5
b) Australia c) 6
c) Namibia d) 7
d) Chile
89. The Great Dividing Range is located in which
81. Which River is known as the "Father of African country?
Rivers"? a) Canada
a) Nile b) USA
b) Congo c) Australia
c) Niger d) Brazil
d) Zambezi
90. Which River is known as the "Lifeline of Egypt"?
82. The Pyrenees Mountain range forms a natural a) Nile
border between which two countries? b) Amazon
a) France and Italy c) Yangtze

RAHUL SHARMA 124

 d) Ganges
99. Which Lake is located at the highest altitude in
91. The island of Sicily belongs to which country? the world?
a) Greece a) Lake Baikal
b) Italy b) Lake Titicaca
c) Spain c) Lake Victoria
d) Turkey d) Lake Superior

92. The Dead Sea Scrolls were found in which coun- 100. The Mount Everest is located on the border be-
try? tween which two countries?
a) Israel a) India and China
b) Jordan b) China and Nepal
c) Egypt c) India and Nepal
d) Iraq d) Bhutan and China

93. Which Lake is the largest saltwater lake in the 101. The term 'Gulf' refers to a:
world? a) Mountain range
a) Dead Sea b) Desert
b) Great Salt Lake c) Large sea inlet
c) Caspian Sea d) Grassland
d) Lake Urmia
102. The largest active volcano in the world is:
94. The Atacama Desert is located in which country? a) Mount Vesuvius
a) Peru b) Mauna Loa
b) Argentina c) Mount St. Helens
c) Chile d) Krakatoa
d) Bolivia
103. Which country is known as the "Land of a Thou-
95. The Ural Mountains separate which two conti- sand Lakes"?
nents? a) Canada
a) Asia and Africa b) Finland
b) Europe and Asia c) Norway
c) North America and South America d) Sweden
d) Europe and Africa
104. The Isthmus of Panama connects which two
96. Which River forms the Grand Canyon? continents?
a) Colorado River a) North America and South America
b) Mississippi River b) Europe and Asia
c) Missouri River c) Africa and Asia
d) Rio Grande d) Europe and Africa

97. The Mediterranean Sea is connected to the Atlan- 105. The Ross Sea is part of which ocean?
tic Ocean by: a) Atlantic Ocean
a) Strait of Gibraltar b) Indian Ocean
b) Bosphorus Strait c) Southern Ocean
c) Strait of Hormuz d) Arctic Ocean
d) Bering Strait
106. Which River is known as the "Yellow River"?
98. The island of Java is part of which country? a) Yangtze
a) Philippines b) Mekong
b) Malaysia c) Huang He
c) Indonesia d) Ganges
d) Thailand

RAHUL SHARMA 125

107. The Danube River flows through how many 115. Which strait separates Australia and New
countries? Guinea?
a) 7 a) Strait of Malacca
b) 9 b) Bass Strait
c) 10 c) Torres Strait
d) 12 d) Sunda Strait

108. The Great Sandy Desert is located in which 116. The Great Rift Valley is located in which conti-
country? nent?
a) USA a) Asia
b) China b) Africa
c) Australia c) South America
d) Saudi Arabia d) Europe

109. Which country has the largest number of volca- 117. Which Lake is known for being the lowest point
noes? on Earth's surface?
a) Japan a) Lake Baikal
b) Indonesia b) Dead Sea
c) USA c) Lake Victoria
d) Philippines d) Great Salt Lake

110. The Sea of Tranquility is located on which celes- 118. The Pyrenees mountains separate which two
tial body? European countries?
a) Earth a) France and Italy
b) Mars b) Spain and Portugal
c) Moon c) France and Spain
d) Venus d) Italy and Switzerland

111. The Blue Nile originates from which lake? 119. Which is the largest coral reef system in the
a) Lake Victoria world?
b) Lake Tana a) Belize Barrier Reef
b) Lake Chad b) New Caledonia Barrier Reef
d) Lake Turkana c) Mesoamerican Barrier Reef
d) Great Barrier Reef
112. Which desert is known as the 'Cold Desert'?
a) Gobi Desert 120. The Sahara Desert is bordered by how many
b) Sahara Desert countries?
c) Kalahari Desert a) 5
d) Atacama Desert b) 7
c) 9
113. The Mariana Trench is located in which ocean? d) 11
a) Atlantic Ocean
b) Indian Ocean 121. The Strait of Malacca separates which two land
c) Southern Ocean masses?
d) Pacific Ocean a) Sumatra and Malay Peninsula
b) Java and Borneo
114. The island of Corsica belongs to which country? c) Borneo and Philippines
a) Spain d) Australia and Tasmania
b) France
c) Italy 122. Which country has the longest coastline in the
d) Greece world?
a) USA
b) Australia
c) Russia
RAHUL SHARMA 126
 d) Canada b) New Zealand and Indonesia
c) Australia and New Zealand
123. The Bay of Bengal is bounded by which three d) Australia and Philippines
countries?
a) India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh 131. The Danakil Depression is located in which
b) India, Bangladesh, Myanmar country?
c) India, Myanmar, Thailand a) Ethiopia
d) India, Thailand, Indonesia b) Sudan
c) Kenya
124. The Atlas Mountains are located in which part d) Egypt
of Africa?
a) North Africa 132. The river that flows through the Grand Canyon
b) East Africa is:
c) West Africa a) Mississippi River
d) Southern Africa b) Missouri River
c) Colorado River
125. The Mekong River flows through how many d) Rio Grande
countries?
a) 3 133. Which Sea is the saltiest in the world?
b) 4 a) Mediterranean Sea
c) 6 b) Red Sea
d) 8 c) Dead Sea
d) Black Sea
126. Which River is known as the "Cradle of Chinese
Civilization"? 134. The Amazon Rainforest produces how much of
a) Yangtze River the world's oxygen?
b) Mekong River a) 10%
c) Huang He River b) 20%
d) Pearl River c) 30%
d) 40%
127. Which volcano destroyed the ancient city of
Pompeii? 135. The ancient city of Troy is located in which coun-
a) Mount Etna try?
b) Mount Vesuvius a) Greece
c) Mount Stromboli b) Turkey
d) Mount Pelée c) Italy
d) Egypt
128. The island of Greenland is an autonomous terri-
tory of which country? 136. Which Lake is known as the 'Pearl of Siberia'?
a) Denmark a) Lake Ladoga
b) Norway b) Lake Baikal
c) Sweden c) Lake Onega
d) Iceland d) Lake Victoria

129. Which Mountain range is known as the "Roof of 137. Which is the largest peninsula in the world?
the World"? a) Arabian Peninsula
a) Andes b) Indian Peninsula
b) Rockies c) Iberian Peninsula
c) Himalayas d) Balkan Peninsula
d) Pamirs
138. The English Channel separates which two coun-
130. The Tasman Sea lies between which two coun- tries?
tries? a) France and Spain
a) Australia and Indonesia
RAHUL SHARMA 127
 b) France and Italy
c) France and UK
d) France and Germany

139. Which Island is located at the mouth of the Am-

azon River?
a) Borneo
b) Greenland
c) Marajó
d) Sumatra

140. The Sierra Nevada Mountain range is located in

which country?
a) Spain
b) USA
c) Mexico
d) Canada

RAHUL SHARMA 128