Multiple Choice Questions (1 mark each)

1. Which of the following is an example of directional selection?

o A) The increasing number of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.

o B) The evolution of dark-colored peppered moths in polluted areas.

o C) The development of a variety of beak shapes in Darwin's finches.

o D) The evolution of different color morphs in a species of frogs.

2. The Hardy-Weinberg principle assumes that the gene pool of a population is not affected
by which of the following?

o A) Natural selection

o B) Mutations

o C) Non-random mating

o D) Large population size

3. Which of the following supports the theory of convergent evolution?

o A) Similarity in the bones of the forelimbs of humans and bats.

o B) The development of similar traits in unrelated species living in similar

environments.

o C) The divergence of species from a common ancestor.

o D) Fossils of extinct species that resemble modern species.

4. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of evolution?

o A) Gene flow

o B) Genetic drift

o C) Mutation

o D) Environmental factors

5. The fossil of Archaeopteryx is significant because it shows evidence of:

o A) Evolution of mammals from reptiles

o B) Transitional forms between reptiles and birds

o C) Evolution of amphibians from fish

o D) Co-evolution of predator and prey

6. Which of the following statements best describes adaptive radiation?

o A) The gradual development of similar traits in different populations of a species.

o B) The rapid diversification of an ancestral species into different forms.

 o C) The survival of the fittest individuals in a population.

o D) The accumulation of minor genetic changes over time.

7. In which process do new species form due to geographical isolation?

o A) Sympatric speciation

o B) Allopatric speciation

o C) Adaptive radiation

o D) Artificial selection

8. The concept of 'survival of the fittest' is most associated with:

o A) Lamarck

o B) Mendel

o C) Darwin

o D) Wallace

9. Which of the following would most likely lead to speciation in a population of frogs?

o A) A new predator in the environment.

o B) A geographical barrier forming between two groups of frogs.

o C) A change in the climate that affects food availability.

o D) A mutation in the gene controlling the color of the skin.

10. Which is the primary cause of genetic variation in sexually reproducing populations?

o A) Mutation

o B) Gene flow

o C) Genetic recombination during meiosis

o D) Natural selection

11. The concept of ‘punctuated equilibrium’ was proposed by which scientist(s)?

o A) Charles Darwin

o B) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

o C) Niles Eldredge and Stephen Jay Gould

o D) Alfred Wallace and Charles Darwin

12. The homologous structures in different species provide evidence for:

o A) Convergent evolution

o B) Divergent evolution

o C) Co-evolution
 o D) Adaptive radiation

13. The mutation rate of a gene in a population is affected by:

o A) Environmental conditions

o B) The size of the gene pool

o C) Genetic drift

o D) Both A and C

14. Which of the following factors can cause a bottleneck effect?

o A) A small group of individuals establishing a new population

o B) A sudden decrease in the population size due to a catastrophic event

o C) Non-random mating within the population

o D) Gene flow between populations

15. Which of the following would be an example of stabilizing selection?

o A) The long neck of giraffes allowing them to reach tall trees.

o B) The reduction in the frequency of an extreme trait in a population over time.

o C) The color variation in the peppered moth population during the Industrial
Revolution.

o D) The increasing size of seeds in a population of plants due to environmental

factors.

16. Which of the following is a major limitation of Lamarck's theory of evolution?

o A) It does not account for the inheritance of acquired characteristics.

o B) It does not recognize the role of natural selection in evolution.

o C) It does not explain genetic variation.

o D) It overlooks the role of mutations in genetic variation.

17. The modern synthesis of evolutionary theory combines Darwinian natural selection with
which of the following?

o A) Lamarck’s theory of use and disuse

o B) Genetic principles of inheritance

o C) Paleontological evidence

o D) The concept of acquired traits

18. Which of the following would most likely result in an increase in genetic diversity in a
population?

o A) Gene flow
 o B) Genetic drift

o C) Artificial selection

o D) Directional selection

19. What is the primary difference between gradualism and punctuated equilibrium?

o A) Gradualism proposes that species change slowly over time, while punctuated
equilibrium suggests that evolution occurs in rapid bursts.

o B) Gradualism occurs only in small populations, while punctuated equilibrium

happens in large populations.

o C) Gradualism involves natural selection, while punctuated equilibrium involves

genetic drift.

o D) There is no significant difference between the two concepts.

20. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of genetic drift?

o A) The change in allele frequency due to natural selection.

o B) The random change in allele frequencies due to chance events.

o C) The transfer of genes between populations due to migration.

o D) The process by which individuals with advantageous traits survive and reproduce
more.

21. A population of rabbits has two fur color alleles: brown (B) and white (b). The allele for
brown fur is dominant over white. If a population of 100 rabbits has 36 brown and 64
white rabbits, what is the allele frequency of the brown fur allele (B) in the population?

o A) 0.36

o B) 0.44

o C) 0.64

o D) 0.76

22. Which of the following best explains the fossil record's role in understanding evolutionary
history?

o A) Fossils demonstrate the presence of all species that ever lived on Earth.

o B) Fossils provide a direct cause-and-effect relationship for evolutionary events.

o C) Fossils show the progression of life forms from simple to complex organisms over
time.

o D) Fossils are static and do not provide insight into evolutionary processes.

23. The increase in the number of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of:

o A) Stabilizing selection

o B) Directional selection
 o C) Genetic drift

o D) Sexual selection

24. Which of the following is an example of artificial selection in agriculture?

o A) The breeding of dogs for specific traits like size or coat color.

o B) The survival of the fittest plants in a drought-prone region.

o C) The natural selection of the fastest individuals in a population of gazelles.

o D) The random mutation of genes in a plant species.

25. Which of the following would be the best evidence for the theory of evolution by natural
selection?

o A) Similar structures in unrelated species

o B) Fossil records of extinct organisms

o C) Observable changes in traits of populations over several generations

o D) A variety of species with similar appearances in different regions

26. Which of the following is an example of artificial selection?

 A) The development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria

 B) The breeding of horses for speed

 C) The migration of birds to warmer climates

 D) The adaptation of cheetahs to faster speeds in open plains

27. The presence of vestigial organs in modern species provides evidence of:

 A) Lamarckian inheritance

 B) Evolutionary descent with modification

 C) Adaptive radiation

 D) Artificial selection

28. What is the best definition of ‘speciation’?

 A) The process by which new species are formed due to geographical isolation.

 B) The formation of a new population within a species due to environmental pressure.

 C) The process through which a population of organisms diverges into new species.

 D) The survival of a population due to beneficial mutations.

29. Which of the following is an example of divergent evolution?

 A) Dolphins and sharks developing similar body shapes despite different evolutionary
lineages.

 B) The development of different beak shapes in Darwin’s finches on the Galápagos Islands.
 C) Evolution of wings in bats and insects.

 D) The adaptation of desert plants to conserve water.

30. Which of the following is a consequence of genetic drift in small populations?

 A) Increased genetic variation

 B) Decreased genetic variation

 C) Increased allele frequency in the population

 D) Stabilization of allele frequencies

31. Which of the following is true about the process of genetic recombination?

 A) It occurs during mitosis.

 B) It creates new combinations of alleles, leading to genetic diversity.

 C) It leads to mutations that change the genetic code.

 D) It occurs only in asexual reproduction.

32. Which of the following examples is an application of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in real-

world populations?

 A) Tracking the allele frequencies in a population of cheetahs over generations.

 B) Studying the change in allele frequency due to natural selection in a population of finches.

 C) Monitoring the gene flow between two isolated populations of wolves.

 D) Examining the genetic variation in a population of humans in a stable environment.

33. The concept of "coevolution" refers to:

 A) The independent evolution of similar traits in unrelated species.

 B) Evolution in response to mutual selective pressures between two or more species.

 C) The gradual accumulation of genetic changes in a population over time.

 D) The adaptation of organisms to their environment through genetic drift.

34. The ‘Malthusian theory of population’ is related to which concept in Darwinian evolution?

 A) The theory of survival of the fittest

 B) The concept of natural selection

 C) The role of artificial selection in population growth

 D) The idea that populations grow exponentially while resources grow linearly

35. Which of the following is a characteristic of a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

 A) Allele frequencies change due to natural selection.

 B) There is no migration of individuals in and out of the population.

 C) Mating occurs only between individuals of the same genotype.

 D) Mutations lead to a dramatic change in gene pool over time.

36. In a population of organisms, if a recessive allele causes a lethal disease when

homozygous, what is expected to happen in that population over time?

 A) The allele frequency of the recessive allele will increase over time.

 B) The recessive allele will eventually be eliminated from the population.

 C) The heterozygous individuals will have a selective advantage.

 D) The recessive allele will be maintained in the population due to genetic drift.

37. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for the increase in genetic
variation in a population?

 A) Genetic drift

 B) Natural selection

 C) Gene flow

 D) Stabilizing selection

38. The 'founder effect' refers to:

 A) The increased genetic diversity in a newly formed population.

 B) The loss of genetic variation when a new population is established by a small number of
individuals.

 C) The adaptive radiation of species in an isolated environment.

 D) The genetic differentiation between geographically separated populations.

39. The gradual changes in the size of a population due to environmental pressures are best
explained by:

 A) Genetic drift

 B) Natural selection

 C) Gene flow

 D) Punctuated equilibrium

40. Which of the following is an example of the effect of natural selection in shaping the
evolution of a population?

 A) Increased frequency of a trait that helps in surviving environmental changes, like drought-
resistant plants.

 B) A random fluctuation in the frequency of alleles due to a small population size.

 C) A population migrating from one region to another and interbreeding with another
population.

 D) The introduction of a new mutation that provides an advantage in a specific environment.

41. If a population of birds with two wing color alleles, red (R) and white (r), has a frequency
of 0.4 for the red allele (R), what is the frequency of the heterozygous genotype in the
population?

 A) 0.36

 B) 0.48

 C) 0.32

 D) 0.24

42. Which of the following observations would most likely be considered an example of
evolutionary fitness in a population?

 A) An individual that produces more offspring than others of the same species.

 B) An individual that is the most adapted to surviving environmental challenges.

 C) An individual that exhibits the most traits beneficial for survival and reproduction.

 D) All of the above

43. A population of rabbits exhibits a gene for fur color with two alleles: brown (B) and white
(b). If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, and the frequency of the white
allele is 0.3, what is the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype?

 A) 0.49

 B) 0.36

 C) 0.51

 D) 0.21

44. Which of the following would most likely lead to allopatric speciation?

 A) A sudden climate change causing a geographic barrier that separates two populations of a
species.

 B) The introduction of a new predator into a population.

 C) A new mutation that increases reproductive success in a subset of the population.

 D) A behavior change that results in non-random mating within a population.

45. Which of the following is an example of a homologous structure providing evidence for
common ancestry?

 A) The similar structure of wings in birds and bats.

 B) The presence of gills in fish and amphibians.

 C) The forelimbs of humans, cats, and whales.

 D) The color patterns of different species of butterflies.

46. Which type of natural selection occurs when individuals with extreme traits have higher
reproductive success than those with intermediate traits?

 A) Directional selection

 B) Disruptive selection

 C) Stabilizing selection

 D) Balancing selection

47. Which of the following is the best example of convergent evolution?

 A) The evolution of wings in bats and birds.

 B) The evolution of different beak sizes in a population of finches.

 C) The evolution of long necks in giraffes and camels.

 D) The evolution of similar traits in organisms living in similar environments, such as cacti
and euphorbias.

48. Which of the following best explains the role of fossils in understanding the process of
evolution?

 A) Fossils show exactly how evolution happens in real-time.

 B) Fossils provide evidence of the transitional forms between species.

 C) Fossils give a clear record of all extinct species.

 D) Fossils provide evidence that organisms have always been adapted to their environment.

49. Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between genetic drift and
population size?

 A) Genetic drift has a more significant effect on small populations than large populations.

 B) Genetic drift results in the increase of genetic diversity in large populations.

 C) Genetic drift decreases the frequency of advantageous traits.

 D) Genetic drift does not affect genetic variation in large populations.

50. The idea that evolution occurs in rapid bursts followed by long periods of stability is
referred to as:

 A) Gradualism

 B) Punctuated equilibrium

 C) Adaptive radiation

 D) Convergent evolution

Section A: Multiple Choice Questions (1 mark each)

1. B – The increasing number of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.

2. D – Large population size

3. B – The development of similar traits in unrelated species living in similar environments.

4. D – Environmental factors

5. B – Transitional forms between reptiles and birds

6. B – The rapid diversification of an ancestral species into different forms.

7. B – Allopatric speciation

8. C – Darwin

9. B – A geographical barrier forming between two groups of frogs.

10. C – Genetic recombination during meiosis

11. C – Niles Eldredge and Stephen Jay Gould

12. B – Divergent evolution

13. D – Both A and C

14. B – A sudden decrease in the population size due to a catastrophic event

15. B – The reduction in the frequency of an extreme trait in a population over time.

16. C – It does not explain genetic variation.

17. B – Genetic principles of inheritance

18. A – Gene flow

19. A – Gradualism proposes that species change slowly over time, while punctuated equilibrium
suggests that evolution occurs in rapid bursts.

20. B – The random change in allele frequencies due to chance events.

21. B – 0.44

22. C – Fossils show the progression of life forms from simple to complex organisms over time.

23. B – Directional selection

24. A – The breeding of dogs for specific traits like size or coat color.

25. C – Observable changes in traits of populations over several generations

26. B – The breeding of horses for speed

27. B – Evolutionary descent with modification

28. C – The process through which a population of organisms diverges into new species.

29. B – The development of different beak shapes in Darwin’s finches on the Galápagos Islands.

30. B – Decreased genetic variation

31. B – It creates new combinations of alleles, leading to genetic diversity.

32. A – Tracking the allele frequencies in a population of cheetahs over generations.

33. B – Evolution in response to mutual selective pressures between two or more species.

34. B – The concept of natural selection

35. B – There is no migration of individuals in and out of the population.

36. C – The heterozygous individuals will have a selective advantage.

37. C – Gene flow

38. B – The loss of genetic variation when a new population is established by a small number of
individuals.

39. B – Natural selection

40. C – A population migrating from one region to another and interbreeding with another
population.

41. B – 0.48

42. D – All of the above

43. A – 0.49

44. A – A sudden climate change causing a geographic barrier that separates two populations of
a species.

45. C – The forelimbs of humans, cats, and whales.

46. B – Disruptive selection

47. A – The evolution of wings in bats and birds.

48. B – Fossils provide evidence of the transitional forms between species.

49. A – Genetic drift has a more significant effect on small populations than large populations.

50. B – Punctuated equilibrium