1. Which AWS services should be used for read/write of constantly changing data? (Choose two.

)
A. Amazon Glacier
B. Amazon RDS
C. AWS Snowball
D. Amazon Redshift
E. Amazon EFS

2. What is one of the advantages of the Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)?
A. It simplifies relational database administration tasks.
B. It provides 99.99999999999% reliability and durability.
C. It automatically scales databases for loads.
D. It enabled users to dynamically adjust CPU and RAM resources.

3. A customer needs to run a MySQL database that easily scales. Which AWS service should they use?
A. Amazon Aurora
B. Amazon Redshift
C. Amazon DynamoDB
D. Amazon Elastic Cache

4. Which of the following components of the AWS Global Infrastructure consists of one or more discrete
data centers interconnected through low latency links?
A. Availability Zone
B. Edge location
C. Region
D. Private networking

5. Which of the following is a shared control between the customer and AWS?
A. Providing a key for Amazon S3 client-side encryption
B. Configuration of an Amazon EC2 instance
C. Environmental controls of physical AWS data centers
D. Awareness and training

6. How many Availability Zones should compute resources be provisioned across to achieve high
availability?
A. A minimum of one
B. A minimum of two
C. A minimum of three
D. A minimum of four or more

7. One of the advantages to moving infrastructure from an on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud is:
A. it allows the business to eliminate IT bills.
B. it allows the business to put a server in each customer's data center.
C. it allows the business to focus on business activities.
D. it allows the business to leave servers unpatched.

8. What is the lowest-cost, durable storage option for retaining database backups for immediate
retrieval?
A. Amazon S3
B. Amazon Glacier
C. Amazon EBS
D. Amazon EC2 Instance Store
9. Which of the following is a fast and reliable NoSQL database service?
A. Amazon Redshift
B. Amazon RDS
C. Amazon DynamoDB
D. Amazon S3

10. What is an example of agility in the AWS Cloud?

A. Access to multiple instance types
B. Access to managed services
C. Using Consolidated Billing to produce one bill
D. Decreased acquisition time for new compute resources

11. Which service should a customer use to consolidate and centrally manage multiple AWS accounts?
A. AWS IAM
B. AWS Organizations
C. AWS Schema Conversion Tool
D. AWS config

12. What approach to transcoding a large number of individual video files adheres to AWS architecture
principles?
A. Using many instances in parallel
B. Using a single large instance during off-peak hours
C. Using dedicated hardware
D. Using a large GPI-J instance type

13. For which auditing process does AWS have sole responsibility?
A. AWS IAM policies
B. Physical security
C. Amazon S3 bucket policies
D. AWS CloudTrail Logs

14. Which feature of the AWS Cloud will support an international company's requirement for low latency
to all of its customers?
A. Fault tolerance
B. Global reach
C. Pay-as-you-go pricing
D. High availability

15. Which of the following is the customer's responsibility under the AWS shared responsibility model?
A. Patching underlying infrastructure
B. Physical security
C. Patching Amazon EC2 instances
D. Patching network infrastructure

16. A customer is using multiple AWS accounts with separate billing. How can the customer take
advantage of volume discounts with minimal impact to the AWS resources?
A. Create one global AWS account and move all AWS resources to the account.
B. Sign up for three years of Reserved Instance pricing up front.
C. Use the consolidated billing feature from AWS Organizations.
D. Sign up for the AWS Enterprise support plan to get volume discounts.
17. Which of the following are features of Amazon CloudWatch Logs? (Choose two.)
A. Summaries by Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
B. Free Amazon Elasticsearch Service analytics
C. Provided at no charge
D. Real-time monitoring
E. Adjustable retention

18. Which of the following is an AWS managed Domain Name System (DNS) web service?
A. Amazon Route 53
B. Amazon Neptune
C. Amazon SageMaker
D. Amazon Lightsail

19. A customer is deploying a new application and needs to choose an AWS Region. Which of the
following factors could influence the customer's decision? (Choose two.)
A. Reduced latency to users
B. The application's presentation in the local language
C. Data sovereignty compliance
D. Cooling costs in hotter climates
E. Proximity to the customer's office for on-site visits

20. Which storage service can be used as a low-cost option for hosting static websites?
A. Amazon Glacier
B. Amazon DynamoDB
C. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)
D. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)

21. Which Amazon EC2 instance pricing model can provide discounts of up to 90%?
A. Reserved Instances
B. On-Demand
C. Dedicated HOSES
D. Spot Instances

22. Web servers running on Amazon EC2 access a legacy application running in a corporate data center.
What term would describe this model?
A. Cloud-native
B. Partner network
C. Hybrid architecture
D. Infrastructure as a service
23. What is the benefit of using AWS managed services, such as Amazon Elastic Cache and Amazon
Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)?
A. They require the customer to monitor and replace failing instances.
B. They have better performance than customer-managed services.
C. They simplify patching and updating underlying OSS.
D. They do not require the customer to optimize instance type or size selections.

24. Which service provides a virtually unlimited amount of online highly durable object storage?
A. Amazon Redshift
B. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)
C. Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)
D. Amazon S3
25. Which of the following Identity and Access Management (IAM) entities is associated with an access
key ID and secret access key when using AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI)?
A. IAM group
B. IAM user
C. IAM role
D. IAM policy
26. Which of the following security-related services does AWS offer? (Choose two.)
A. Multi-factor authentication physical tokens
B. AWS Trusted Advisor security checks
C. Data encryption
D. Automated penetration testing
E. Amazon S3 copyrighted content detection

27. Which AWS managed service is used to host databases?

A. AWS Batch
B. AWS Artifact
C. AWS Data Pipeline
D. Amazon RDS

28. Which AWS service provides a simple and scalable shared file storage solution for use with Linux-
based AWS and on-premises servers?
A. Amazon S3
B. Amazon Glacier
C. Amazon EBS
D. Amazon EFS

29. When architecting cloud applications, which of the following are a key design principle?
A. Use the largest instance possible
B. Provision capacity for peak load
C. Use the Scrum development process.
D. Implement elasticity

30. Which AWS service should be used for long-term, low-cost storage of data backups?
A. Amazon RDS
B. Amazon Glacier
C. AWS Snowball
D. AWS EBS

31. Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following is a shared control between a customer
and AWS?
A. Physical controls
B. Patch management
C. Zone security
D. Data center auditing

32. Which AWS service allows companies to connect an Amazon VPC to an on-premises data center?
A. AWS VPN
B. Amazon Redshift
C. API Gateway
D. Amazon Direct Connect
33. A company wants to reduce the physical compute footprint that developers use to run code. Which
service would meet that need by enabling serverless architectures?
A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)
B. AWS Lambda
C. Amazon DynamoDB
D. AWS CodeCommit

34. Which task is AWS responsible for in the shared responsibility model for security and compliance?
A. Granting access to individuals and services
B. Encrypting data in transit
C. Updating Amazon EC2 host firmware
D. Updating operating systems

35. Where should a company go to search software listings from independent software vendors to find,
test, buy and deploy software that runs on AWS?
A. AWS Marketplace
B. Amazon Lumberyard
C. AWS Artifact
D. Amazon CloudSearch

36. Which of the following is a benefit of using the AWS Cloud?

A. Permissive security removes the administrative burden.
B. Ability to focus on revenue-generating activities.
C. Control over cloud network hardware.
D. Choice of specific cloud hardware vendors.

37. When performing a cost analysis that supports physical isolation of a customer workload, which
compute hosting model should be accounted for in the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)?
A. Dedicated Hosts
B. Reserved Instances
C. On-Demand Instances
D. No Upfront Reserved Instances

38. Which AWS service provides the ability to manage infrastructure as code?
A. AWS CodePipeline
B. AWS CodeDeploy
C. AWS Direct Connect
D. AWS CloudFormation

39. If a customer needs to audit the change management of AWS resources, which of the following AWS
services should the customer use?
A. AWS config
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. Amazon CloudWatch
D. Amazon Inspector
40. Which service allows a company with multiple AWS accounts to combine its usage to obtain volume
discounts?
A. AWS Server Migration Service
B. AWS Organizations
C. AWS Budgets
D. AWS Trusted Advisor
41. Which of the following services could be used to deploy an application to servers running on-
premises? (Choose two.)
A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
B. AWS OpsWorks
C. AWS CodeDeploy
D. AWS Batch
E. AWS x-Ray

42. Which Amazon EC2 pricing model adjusts based on supply and demand of EC2 instances?
A. On-Demand Instances
B. Reserved Instances
C. Spot Instances
D. Convertible Reserved Instances

43. Which design principles for cloud architecture are recommended when re-architecting a large
monolithic application? (Choose two.)
A. Use manual monitoring.
B. Use fixed servers.
C. Implement loose coupling.
D. Rely on individual components.
E. Design for scalability.
44. Which is the MINIMUM AWS Support plan that allows for one-hour target response time for support
cases?
A. Enterprise
B. Business
C. Developer
D. Basic

45. Where can AWS compliance and certification reports be downloaded?

A. AWS Artifact
B. AWS Concierge
C. AWS Certificate Manager
D. AWS Trusted Advisor

46. Which of the following is an advantage of consolidated billing on AWS?

A. Volume pricing qualification
B. Shared access permission
C. Multiple bills per account
D. Eliminates the need for tagging

47. Which of the following AWS features enables a user to launch a pre-configured Amazon Elastic
Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance?
A. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
B. Amazon Machine Image
C. Amazon EC2 Systems Manager
D. Amazon AppStream 2.0

48. How would an AWS customer easily apply common access controls to a large set of users?
A. Apply an IAM policy to an IAM group.
B. Apply an IAM policy to an IAM role.
C. Apply the same IAM policy to all IAM users with access to the same workload.
D. Apply an IAM policy to an Amazon Cognito user pool.
49. What technology enables compute capacity to adjust as loads change?
A. Load balancing
B. Automatic failover
C. Round robin
D. Auto Scaling

50. Which AWS services are defined as global instead of regional? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon Route 53
B. Amazon EC2
C. Amazon S3
D. Amazon CloudFront
E. Amazon DynamoDB

51. Which AWS service would you use to obtain compliance reports and certificates?
A. AWS Artifact
B. AWS Lambda
C. Amazon Inspector
D. AWS Certificate Manager

52. Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following tasks are the responsibility of the AWS
customer? (Choose two.)
A. Ensuring that application data is encrypted at rest
B. Ensuring that AWS NTP servers are set to the correct time
C. Ensuring that users have received security training in the use of AWS services
D. Ensuring that access to data centers is restricted
E. Ensuring that hardware is disposed of properly

53. Which AWS service can be used to manually launch instances based on resource requirements?
A. Amazon EBS
B. Amazon S3
C. Amazon EC2
D. Amazon ECS

54. A company is migrating an application that is running non-interruptible workloads for a three-year
time frame.Which pricing construct would provide the MOST cost-effective solution?
A. Amazon EC2 Spot Instances
B. Amazon EC2 Dedicated Instances
C. Amazon EC2 On-Demand Instances
D. Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances
55. The financial benefits of using AWS are: (Choose two.)
A. reduced Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
B. increased capital expenditure (capex).
C. reduced operational expenditure (opex).
D. deferred payment plans for startups.
E. business credit lines for stratups.

56. Which AWS Cost Management tool allows you to view the most granular data about your AWS bill?
A. AWS Cost Explorer
B. AWS Budgets
C. AWS Cost and Usage report
D. AWS Billing dashboard
57. Which of the following can an AWS customer use to launch a new Amazon Relational Database Service
(Amazon RDS) cluster? (Choose two.)
A. AWS Concierge
B. AWS CloudFormation
C. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)
D. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
E. AWS Management Console

58. Which of the following is an AWS Cloud architecture design principle?

A. Implement single points of failure.
B. Implement loose coupling.
C. Implement monolithic design.
D. Implement vertical scaling.

59. Which of the following security measures protect access to an AWS account? (Choose two.)
A. Enable AWS CloudTraiI.
B. Grant least privilege access to IAM users.
C. Create one IAM user and share with many developers and users.
D. Enable Amazon CloudFront.
E. Activate multi-factor authentication (MFA) for privileged users.
60. Which service provides a hybrid storage service that enables on-premises applications to seamlessly
use cloud storage?
A. Amazon Glacier
B. AWS Snowball
C. AWS Storage Gateway
D. Amazon Elastic Block Storage (Amazon EBS)
61. Which of the following services falls under the responsibility of the customer to maintain operating
system configuration, security patching, and networking?
A. Amazon RDS
B. Amazon EC2
C. Amazon Elastic Cache
D. AWS Fargate
62. Which of the following is an important architectural design principle when designing cloud
applications?
A. Use multiple Availability Zones.
B. Use tightly coupled components.
C. Use open source software.
D. Provision extra capacity.

63. Which AWS support plan includes a dedicated Technical Account Manager?
A. Developer
B. Enterprise
C. Business
D. Basic

64. Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) offers which of the following benefits over
traditional database management?
A. AWS manages the data stored in Amazon RDS tables.
B. AWS manages the maintenance of the operating system.
C. AWS automatically scales up instance types on demand.
D. AWS manages the database type.
65. Which service is best for storing common database query results, which helps to alleviate database
access load?
A. Amazon Machine Learning
B. Amazon SQS
C. Amazon Elastic Cache
D. Amazon EC2 Instance Store

66. Which of the following is a component of the shared responsibility model managed entirely by AWS?
A. Patching operating system software
B. Encrypting data
C. Enforcing multi-factor authentication
D. Auditing physical data center assets

67. If each department within a company has its own AWS account, what is one way to enable
consolidated billing?
A. Use AWS Budgets on each account to pay only to budget.
B. Contact AWS Support for a monthly bill.
C. Create an AWS Organization from the payer account and invite the other accounts to join.
D. Put all invoices into one Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) bucket, load data into
Amazon Redshift, and then run a billing report.
68. Which AWS services can be used to gather information about AWS account activity? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon CloudFront
B. AWS Cloud9
C. AWS CloudTrail
D. AWS CloudHSM
E. Amazon CloudWatch
69. In which scenario should Amazon EC2 Spot Instances be used?
A. A company wants to move its main website to AWS from an on-premises web server.
B. A company has a number of application services whose Service Level Agreement (SLA) requires
99.999% uptime.
C. A company's heavily used legacy database is currently running on-premises.
D. A company has a number of infrequent, interruptible jobs that are currently using On-
Demand Instances.

70. Which AWS feature should a customer leverage to achieve high availability of an application?
A. AWS Direct Connect
B. Availability Zones
C. Data centers
D. Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

71. Which is the minimum AWS Support plan that includes Infrastructure Event Management without
additional costs?
A. Enterprise
B. Business
C. Developer
D. Basic

72. Which AWS service can serve a static website?

A. Amazon S3
B. Amazon Route 53
C. Amazon Quick Sight
D. AWS x-Ray
73. How does AWS shorten the time to provision IT resources?
A. It supplies an online IT ticketing platform for resource requests.
B. It supports automatic code validation services.
C. It provides the ability to programmatically provision existing resources.
D. It automates the resource request process from a company's IT vendor list.

74. What can AWS edge locations be used for? (Choose two.)
A. Hosting applications
B. Delivering content closer to users
C. Running NoSQL database caching services
D. Reducing traffic on the server by caching responses.
E. Sending notification messages to end users
75. Which of the following can limit Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) bucket access to specific
users?
A. A public and private key-pair
B. Amazon Inspector
C. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies
D. Security Groups
76. A solution that is able to support growth in users, traffic, or data size with no drop in performance
aligns with which cloud architecture principle?
A. Think parallel
B. Implement elasticity
C. Decouple your components
D. Design for failure
77. A company will be moving from an on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud. What would be one
financial difference after the move?
A. Moving from variable operational expense (opex) to upfront capital expense (capex).
B. Moving from upfront capital expense (capex) to variable capital expense (capex).
C. Moving from upfront capital expense (capex) to variable operational expense (opex).
D. Elimination of upfront capital expense (capex) and elimination of variable operational expense
(opex)

78. How should a customer forecast the future costs for running a new web application?
A. Amazon Aurora Backtrack
B. Amazon CloudWatch Billing Alarms
C. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator
D. AWS Cost and Usage report

79. Which is the MINIMUM AWS Support plan that provides technical support through phone calls?
A. Enterprise
B. Business
C. Developer
D. Basic

80. Which of the following tasks is the responsibility of AWS?

A. Encrypting client-side data
B. Configuring AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles
C. Securing the Amazon EC2 hypervisor
D. Setting user password policies
81. One benefit of On-Demand Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) pricing is:
A. the ability to bid for a lower hourly cost.
B. paying a daily rate regardless of time used.
C. paying only for time used.
D. pre-paying for instances and paying a lower hourly rate.

82. An administrator needs to rapidly deploy a popular IT solution and start using it immediately. Where
can the administrator find assistance?
A. AWS Well-Architected Framework documentation
B. Amazon CloudFront
C. AWS CodeCommit
D. AWS Quick Start reference deployments

83. Which of the following services is in the category of AWS serverless platform?
A. Amazon EMR
B. Elastic Load Balancing
C. AWS Lambda
D. AWS Mobile Hub

84. Which services are parts of the AWS serverless platform?

A. Amazon EC2, Amazon S3, Amazon Athena
B. Amazon Kinesis, Amazon SQS, Amazon EMR
C. AWS Step Functions, Amazon DynamoDB, Amazon SNS
D. Amazon Athena, Amazon Cognito, Amazon EC2

85. According to the AWS shared responsibility model, what is the sole responsibility of AWS?
A. Application security
B. Edge location management
C. Patch management
D. Client-side data

86. Which AWS IAM feature is used to associate a set of permissions with multiple users?
A. Multi-factor authentication
B. Groups
C. Password policies
D. Access keys

87. Which of the following are benefits of the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)
A. Unlimited uptime
B. Elasticity
C. Agility
D. Colocation
E. Capital expenses

88. Which of the following can a customer use to enable single sign-on (SSO) to the AWS Console?
A. Amazon Connect
B. AWS Directory Service
C. Amazon Pinpoint
D. Amazon Rekognition
89. What are the multiple, isolated locations within an AWS Region that are connected by low-latency
networks called?
A. AWS Direct Connects
B. Amazon VPCs
C. Edge locations
D. Availability Zones
90. Which of the following benefits does the AWS Compliance program provide to AWS customers?
(Choose two.)
A. It verifies that hosted workloads are automatically compliant with the controls of supported
compliance frameworks.
B. AWS is responsible for the maintenance of common compliance framework documentation.
C. It assures customers that AWS is maintaining physical security and data protection.
D. It ensures the use of compliance frameworks that are being used by other cloud providers.
E. It will adopt new compliance frameworks as they become relevant to customer workloads.

91. Which of the following services provides on-demand access to AWS compliance reports?
A. AWS IAM
B. AWS Artifact
C. Amazon Guard Duty
D. KMS

92. When comparing AWS Cloud with on-premises Total Cost of Ownership, which expenses must be
considered?(Choose two.)
A. Software development
B. Project management
C. Storage hardware
D. Physical servers
E. Antivirus software license
93. Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following tasks are the responsibility of the
customer?(Choose two.)
A. Maintaining the underlying Amazon EC2 hardware.
B. Managing the VPC network access control lists.
C. Encrypting data in transit and at rest.
D. Replacing failed hard disk drives.
E. Deploying hardware in different Availability Zones.
94. Which scenarios represent the concept of elasticity on AWS? (Choose two.)
A. Scaling the number of Amazon EC2 instances based on traffic.
B. Resizing Amazon RDS instances as business needs change.
C. Automatically directing traffic to less-utilized Amazon EC2 instances.
D. Using AWS compliance documents to accelerate the compliance process.
E. Having the ability to create and govern environments using code.

95. When is it beneficial for a company to use a Spot Instance?

A. When there is flexibility in when an application needs to run.
B. When there are mission-critical workloads.
C. When dedicated capacity is needed.
D. When an instance should not be stopped.
96. How does AWS charge for AWS Lambda?
A. Users bid on the maximum price they are willing to pay per hour.
B. Users choose a 1-, 3- or 5-year upfront payment term.
C. Users pay for the required permanent storage on a file system or in a database.
D. Users pay based on the number of requests and consumed compute resources.

97. What function do security groups serve related to Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)
instance security?
A. Act as a virtual firewall for the Amazon EC2 instance.
B. Secure AWS user accounts with AWS identity and Access Management (IAM) policies.
C. Provide DDoS protection with AWS Shield.
D. Use Amazon CloudFront to protect the Amazon EC2 instance.

98. Which disaster recovery scenario offers the lowest probability of down time?
A. Backup and restore
B. Pilot light
C. Warm standby
D. Multi-site active-active

99. What will help a company perform a cost benefit analysis of migrating to the AWS Cloud?
A. Cost Explorer
B. AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator
C. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator
D. AWS Trusted Advisor

100. Which of the following provides the ability to share the cost benefits of Reserved Instances across
AWS accounts?
A. AWS Cost Explorer between AWS accounts
B. Linked accounts and consolidated billing
C. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) Reserved Instance Utilization Report
D. Amazon EC2 Instance Usage Report between AWS accounts
101. A company has multiple AWS accounts and wants to simplify and consolidate its billing process.
Which AWS service will achieve this?
A. AWS Cost and Usage Reports
B. AWS Organizations
C. AWS Cost Explorer
D. AWS Budgets
102. A company is designing an application hosted in a single AWS Region serving end-users spread across
the world. The company wants to provide the end-users low latency access to the application data.
Which of the following services will help fulfill this requirement?
A. Amazon CloudFront
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. Amazon Route 53 global DNS
D. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) transfer acceleration
103. Which of the following deployment models enables customers to fully trade their capital IT expenses
for operational expenses?
A. On-premises
B. Hybrid
C. Cloud
D. Platform as a service
104. How is asset management on AWS easier than asset management in a physical data center?
A. AWS provides a Configuration Management Database that users can maintain.
B. AWS performs infrastructure discovery scans on the customer's behalf.
C. Amazon EC2 automatically generates an asset report and places it in the customer's specified
Amazon S3 bucket.
D. Users can gather asset metadata reliably with a few API calls.

105. What feature of Amazon RDS helps to create globally redundant databases?
A. Snapshots
B. Automatic patching and updating
C. Cross-Region read replicas
D. Provisioned IOPS

106. Using AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) to grant access only to the resources needed to
perform a task is a concept known as:
A. restricted access.
B. as-needed access.
C. least privilege access.
D. token access.
107. Which methods can be used to identify AWS costs by departments? (Choose two.)
A. Enable multi-factor authentication for the AWS account root user.
B. Create separate accounts for each department.
C. Use Reserved Instances whenever possible.
D. Use tags to associate each instance with a particular department.
E. Pay bills using purchase orders.
108. Under the AWS shared responsibility model, customer responsibilities include which one of the
following?
A. Securing the hardware, software, facilities, and networks that run all products and services.
B. Providing certificates, reports, and other documentation directly to AWS customers under
NDA.
C. Configuring the operating system, network, and firewall.
D. Obtaining industry certifications and independent third-party attestations

109. Which managed AWS service provides real-time guidance on AWS security best practices?
A. AWS x-Ray
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. Amazon CloudWatch
D. AWS Systems Manager

110. Which feature adds elasticity to Amazon EC2 instances to handle the changing demand for
workloads?
A. Resource groups
B. Lifecycle policies
C. Application Load Balancer
D. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
111. Under the AWS shared responsibility model, customers are responsible for which aspects of security
in the cloud? (Choose two.)
A. Visualization management
B. Hardware management
C. Encryption management
D. Facilities management
E. Firewall management
112. Which AWS hybrid storage service enables on-premises applications to seamlessly use AWS Cloud
storage through standard file-storage protocols?
A. AWS Direct Connect
B. AWS Snowball
C. AWS Storage Gateway
D. AWS Snowball Edge

113. What is a responsibility of AWS in the shared responsibility model?

A. Updating the network ACLs to block traffic to vulnerable ports.
B. Patching operating systems running on Amazon EC2 instances.
C. Updating the firmware on the underlying EC2 hosts.
D. Updating the security group rules to block traffic to the vulnerable ports.

114. Which architectural principle is used when deploying an Amazon Relational Database Service
(Amazon RDS) instance in Multiple Availability Zone mode?
A. Implement loose coupling.
B. Design for failure
C. Automate everything that can be automated.
D. Use services, not servers.

115. What does it mean to grant least privilege to AWS IAM users?
A. It is granting permissions to a single user only.
B. It is granting permissions using AWS IAM policies only.
C. It is granting Administrator Access policy permissions to trustworthy users.
D. It is granting only the permissions required to perform a given task.

116. What is a benefit of loose coupling as a principle of cloud architecture design?

A. It facilitates low-latency request handling.
B. It allows applications to have dependent workflows.
C. It prevents cascading failures betw different components.
D. It allows companies to focus on their physical data center operations.

117. A director has been tasked with investigating hybrid cloud architecture. The company currently
accesses AWS over the public internet. Which service will facilitate private hybrid connectivity?
A. Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) NAT Gateway
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) Transfer Acceleration
D. AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF)

118. Which mechanism allows developers to access AWS services from application code?
A. AWS Software Development Kit
B. AWS Management Console
C. AWS Code PipeIine
D. AWS config

119. Which Amazon EC2 pricing model is the MOST cost efficient for an uninterruptible workload that
runs once a year for 24 hours?
A. On-Demand Instances
B. Reserved Instances
C. Spot Instances
D. Dedicated Instances
120. Which of the following services is a MySQL-compatibIe database that automatically grows storage as
needed?
A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)
B. Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) for MySQL
C. Amazon Lightsail
D. Amazon Aurora
121. Which Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) feature enables users to connect two VPCs
together?
A. Amazon VPC endpoints
B. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) ClassicLink
C. Amazon VPC peering
D. AWS Direct Connect

122. Which service's PRIMARY purpose is software version control?

A. Amazon CodeStar
B. AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI)
C. Amazon Cognito
D. AWS CodeCommit

123. A company is considering migrating its applications to AWS. The company wants to compare the cost
of running the workload on-premises to running the equivalent workload on the AWS platform.Which
tool can be used to perform this comparison?
A. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator
B. AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator
C. AWS Billing and Cost Management console
D. Cost Explorer
124. Which AWS service provides a secure, fast, and cost-effective way to migrate or transport exabvte-
scale datasets into AWS?
A. AWS Batch
B. AWS Snowball
C. AWS Migration Hub
D. AWS Snowmobile
125. Which of the following BEST describe the AWS pricing model? (Choose two.)
A. Fixed-term
B. Pay-as-you-go
C. Colocation
D. Planned
E. Variable cost

126. Why should a company choose AWS instead of a traditional data center?
A. AWS provides users with full control over the underlying resources.
B. AWS does not require Iong -term contracts and provides Pay-as-you-go model.
C. AWS offers edge locations in every country, supporting global reach.
D. AWS has no limits on the number of resources that can be created.

127. Which solution provides the FASTEST application response times to frequently accessed data to users
in multiple AWS Regions?
A. AWS Cloud TraiI across multiple Availability Zones
B. Amazon CloudFront to edge locations
C. AWS CloudFormation in multiple regions
D. A virtual private gateway over AWS Direct Connect
128. Which AWS service provides a self-service portal for on-demand access to AWS compliance reports?
A. AWS config
B. AWS Certificate Manager
C. Inspector
D. AWS Artifact

129. Which of the following AWS services can be used to run a self-managed database?
A. Amazon Route 53
B. AWS x-Ray
C. AWS Snowmobile
D. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)

130. What exclusive benefit is provided to users with Enterprise Support?

A. Access to a Technical Project Manager
B. Access to a Technical Account Manager
C. Access to a Cloud Support Engineer
D. Access to a Solutions Architect

131. How can a user protect against AWS service disruptions if a natural disaster affects an entire
geographic area?
A. Deploy applications across multiple Availability Zones within an AWS Region.
B. Use a hybrid cloud computing deployment model within the geographic area.
C. Deploy applications across multiple AWS Regions.
D. Store application artifacts using AWS Artifact and replicate them across multiple AWS Regions.

132. How does AWS MOST effectively reduce computing costs for a growing start-up company?
A. lt provides on-demand resources for peak usage.
B. It automates the provisioning of individual developer environments.
C. It automates customer relationship management.
D. It implements a fixed monthly computing budget.

133. A startup is working on a new application that needs to go to market quickly. The application
requirements may need to be adjusted in the near future. Which of the following is a characteristic of
the AWS Cloud that would meet this specific need?
A. Elasticity
B. Reliability
C. Performance
D. Agility

134. Which AWS Support plan provides a full set of AWS Trusted Advisor checks?
A. Business and Developer Support
B. Business and Basic Support
C. Enterprise and Developer Support
D. Enterprise and Business Support

135. Which of the following services have Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) mitigation features?
(Choose two.)
A. AWS WAF
B. Amazon DynamoDB
C. Amazon EC2
D. Amazon CloudFront
E. Amazon Inspector
136. When building a cloud Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) model, which cost elements should be
considered for workloads running on AWS? (Choose three.)
A. Compute costs
B. Facilities costs
C. Storage costs
D. Data transfer costs
E. Network infrastructure costs
F. Hardware lifecycle cost
137. What time-savings advantage is offered with the use of Amazon Rekognition?
A. Amazon Rekognition provides automatic watermarking of images.
B. Amazon Rekognition provides automatic detection of objects appearing in pictures.
C. Amazon Rekognition provides the ability to resize millions of images automatically.
D. Amazon Rekognition uses Amazon Mechanical Turk to allow humans to bid on object detection
jobs.

138. When comparing AWS with on-premises Total Cost of Ownership (TCO), what costs are included?
A. Data center security
B. Business analysis
C. Project management
D. Operating system administration

139. According to the AWS shared responsibility model, what is AWS responsible for?
A. Configuring Amazon VPC
B. Managing application code
C. Maintaining application traffic
D. Managing the network infrastructure

140. Which AWS tool will identify security groups that grant unrestricted Internet access to a limited list of
ports?
A. AWS Organizations
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. AWS Usage
D. Amazon EC2 dashboard

141. Which AWS service can be used to generate alerts based on an estimated monthly bill?
A. AWS config
B. Amazon CloudWatch
C. AWS x-Ray
D. AWS CloudTrail

142. Which Amazon EC2 pricing model offers the MOST significant discount when compared to On-
Demand Instances?
A. Partial Upfront Reserved Instances for a I-year term
B. All Upfront Reserved Instances for a I-year term
C. All Upfront Reserved Instances for a 3-year term
D. No Upfront Reserved Instances for a 3-year term

143. Which of the following is the responsibility of AWS?

A. Setting up AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) users and groups
B. Physically destroying storage media at end of life
C. Patching guest operating systems
D. Configuring security settings on Amazon EC2 instances
144. Which of the following is an advantage of using AWS?
A. AWS audits user data.
B. Data is automatically secure.
C. There is no guessing on capacity needs.
D. AWS manages compliance needs.

145. Which AWS service would a customer use with a static website to achieve lower latency and high
transfer speeds?
A. AWS Lambda
B. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator
C. Amazon Route 53
D. Amazon CloudFront
146. Which services manage and automate application deployments on AWS? (Choose two.)
A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
B. AWS Code Commit
C. AWS Data Pipeline
D. AWS CloudFormation
E. AWS Config
147. A user wants guidance on possible sayings when migrating from on-premises to AWS. Which tool is
suitable for this scenario
A. AWS Budgets
B. Cost Explorer
C. AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator
D. AWS Well-Architected Tool
148. Which principles are used to architect applications for reliability on the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)
A. Design for automated failure recovery
B. Use multiple Availability Zones
C. Manage changes via documented processes
D. Test for moderate demand to ensure reliability
E. Backup recovery to an on-premises environment
149. What tasks should a customer perform when that customer suspects an AWS account has been
compromised? (Choose two.)
A. Rotate passwords and access keys.
B. Remove MFA tokens.
C. Move resources to a different AWS Region.
D. Delete AWS Cloud TraiI Resources.
E. Contact AWS Support.

150. What is an example of high availability in the AWS Cloud?

A. Consulting AWS technical support at any time day or night
B. Ensuring an application remains accessible. even if a resource fails
C. Making any AWS service available for use by paying on demand
D. Deploying in any part of the world using AWS Regions

151. Which AWS security service protects applications from distributed denial of service attacks with
always-on detection and automatic inline mitigations?
A. Amazon Inspector
B. AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF)
C. Elastic Load Balancing (ELB)
D. AWS Shield
152. A company wants to monitor the CPU usage of its Amazon EC2 resources. Which AWS service should
the company use?
A. AWS CloudTrail
B. Amazon CloudWatch
C. AWS Cost and Usage report
D. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

153. What is an AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) role?

A. A user associated with an AWS resource
B. A group associated with an AWS resource
C. An entity that defines a set of permissions for use with an AWS resource
D. An authentication credential associated with a multi-factor authentication (MFA) token

154. What are the advantages of Reserved Instances? (Choose two.)

A. They provide a discount over on-demand pricing.
B. They provide access to additional instance types.
C. They provide additional networking capability.
D. Customers can upgrade instances as new types become available.
E. Customers can reserve capacity in an Availability Zone.
155. How do Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling groups help achieve high availability for a web application?
A. They automatically add more instances across multiple AWS Regions based on global demand
of the application.
B. They automatically add or replace instances across multiple Availability Zones when the
application needs it.
C. They enable the application's static content to reside closer to end users.
D. They are able to distribute incoming requests across a tier of web server instances.

156. How can one AWS account use Reserved Instances from another AWS account?
A. By using Amazon EC2 Dedicated Instances
B. By using AWS Organizations consolidated billing
C. By using the AWS Cost Explorer tool
D. By using AWS Budgets

157. A customer runs an On-Demand Amazon Linux EC2 instance for 3 hours, 5 minutes, and 6 seconds.
For how much time will the customer be billed?
A. 3 hours, 5 minutes
B. 3 hours, 5 minutes and 6 seconds
C. 3 hours, 6 minutes
D. 4 hours
158. Which of the following AWS services provide compute resources? (Choose two.)
A. AWS Lambda
B. Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)
C. AWS CodeDepIoy
D. Amazon Glacier
E. AWS
159. Which AWS service enables users to deploy infrastructure as code by automating the process of
provisioning resources?
A. Amazon GameLift
B. AWS CloudFormation
C. AWS Data Pipeline
D. AWS Glue
160. Which of the following is a cloud architectural design principle?
A. Scale up, not out.
B. Loosely couple components.
C. Build monolithic systems.
D. Use commercial database software.

161. Under the shared responsibility model; which of the following areas are the customer's
responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. Firmware upgrades of network infrastructure
B. Patching of operating systems
C. Patching of the underlying hypervisor
D. Physical security of data centers
E. Configuration of the security group

162. Which service enables customers to audit and monitor changes in AWS resources?
A. AWS Trusted Advisor
B. Amazon GuardDuty
C. Amazon Inspector
D. AWS Config

163. Which AWS service identifies security groups that allow unrestricted access to a user's AWS
resources?
A. AWS CloudTrail
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. Amazon CloudWatch
D. Amazon Inspector
164. According to the AWS shared responsibility model, who is responsible for configuration
management?
A. It is solely the responsibility of the customer.
B. It is solely the responsibility of AWS.
C. It is shared between AWS and the customer.
D. It is not part of the AWS shared responsibility model.
165. Which AWS service is a content delivery network that securely delivers data, video, and applications
to users globally with low latency and high speeds?
A. AWS CloudFormation
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. Amazon CloudFront
D. Amazon Pinpoint
166. Which benefit of the AWS Cloud supports matching the supply of resources with changing workload
demands?
A. Security
B. Reliability
C. Elasticity
D. High availability
167. A user is running an application on AWS and notices that one or more AWS-owned IP addresses is
involved in a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack. Who should the user contact FIRST about this
situation?
A. AWS Premium Support
B. AWS Technical Account Manager
C. AWS Solutions Architect
D. AWS Abuse team
168. Which of the following are benefits of hosting infrastructure in the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)
A. There are no upfront commitments.
B. AWS manages all security in the cloud.
C. Users have the ability to provision resources on demand.
D. Users have access to free and unlimited storage.
E. Users have control over the physical infrastructure.

169. What AWS service would be used to centrally manage AWS access policies across multiple accounts?
A. AWS Service Catalog
B. AWS config
C. AWS Trusted Advisor
D. AWS Organizations

170. What is AWS Trusted Advisor?

A. It is an AWS staff member who provides recommendations and best practices on how to use
AWS.
B. It is a network of AWS partners who provide recommendations and best practices on how to
use AWS.
C. It is an online tool with a set of automated checks that provides recommendations on cost
optimization, performance, and security.
D. It is another name for AWS Technical Account Managers who provide recommendations on
cost optimization, performance, and security.
171. Which AWS service or feature allows a company to visualize, understand, and manage AWS costs and
usage over time?
A. AWS Budgets
B. AWS Cost Explorer
C. AWS Organizations
D. Consolidated billing

172. Which AWS service offers on-demand access to AWS security and compliance reports?
A. AWS CloudTrail
B. AWS Artifact
C. AWS Health
D. Amazon CloudWatch

173. Which AWS services can host a Microsoft SQL Server database? (Select TWO.)
A. Amazon EC2
B. Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)
C. Amazon Aurora
D. Amazon Redshift
E. Amazon S3
174. Which AWS characteristics make AWS cost effective for a workload with dynamic user demand?
(Select TWO.)
A. High availability
B. Shared security model
C. Elasticity
D. Pay-as-you-go pricing
E. Reliability
175. Which of the following are characteristics of Amazon S3? (Select TWO.)
A. A global file system
B. An object store
C. A local file store
D. A network file system
E. A durable storage system
176. Which services can be used across hybrid AWS Cloud architectures? (Select TWO.)
A. Amazon Route 53
B. Virtual Private Gateway
C. Classic Load Balancer
D. Auto Scaling
E. Amazon CloudWatch default metrics
177. AWS supports which of the following methods to add security to Identity and Access Management
(IAM) users? (Select TWO.)
A. Implementing Amazon Rekognition
B. Using AWS Shield-protected resources
C. Blocking access with Security Groups
D. Using Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
E. Enforcing password strength and expiration
178. Which AWS services should be used for read/write of constantly changing data? (Select TWO.)
A. Amazon Glacier
B. Amazon RDS
C. AWS Snowball
D. Amazon Redshift
E. Amazon EFS
179. Which of the following are features of Amazon CloudWatch Logs? (Select TWO.)
A. Summaries by Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
B. Free Amazon Elasticsearch Service analytics
C. Provided at no charge
D. Real-time monitoring
E. Adjustable retention
180. Which of the following AWS services can be used to serve large amounts of online video content with
the lowest possible latency? (Select TWO.)
A. AWS Storage Gateway
B. Amazon S3
C. Amazon Elastic File System (EFS)
D. Amazon Glacier
E. Amazon CloudFront
181. Which of the following security-related services does AWS offer? (Select TWO.)
A. Multi-factor authentication physical tokens
B. AWS Trusted Advisor security checks
C. Data encryption
D. Automated penetration testing
E. Amazon S3 copyrighted content detection
182. Which of the following are categories of AWS Trusted Advisor? (Select TWO.)
A. Fault Tolerance
B. Instance Usage
C. Infrastructure
D. Performance
E. Storage Capacity
183. Which of the following services could be used to deploy an application to servers running on-
premises?(Select TWO.)
A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
B. AWS OpsWorks
C. AWS CodeDeploy
D. AWS Batch
E. AWS x-Ray