CCNA Exam Preparation Questions

1. Which Logical Port is used by OSPF?

A. OSPF uses Port 89 (UDP) for Transport

B. OSPF uses IP Protocol 89 for Transport
C. OSPF uses Port 80 (TCP) for Transport
D. OSPF uses IP Protocol 80 for Transport

Answer: B

2. Which router is not an OSPF router type?

A. Backbone
B. ASBR
C. Core
D. ABR

Answer: C

3. Which Networking device is used to connect multiple hosts together (end devices) to
create a Network?

A. Layer-3 Router
B. Layer-1 Server
C. Layer-4 Firewall
D. Layer-2 Switch

Answer: D

4. Switches are usually cheap devices while Routers are usually costly:

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A (True)

5. Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.)

A. to enable intra-enterprise communication

B. to implement NAT

C. to connect applications
D. to conserve global address space

E. to manage routing overhead

Answer: AD

6. Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source
and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?

A. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2

B. source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1
C. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10
D. source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2
Answer: C
 7. What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

• A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

• B. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module
• C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
• D. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

Answer : C

8. What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.)

• A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

• B. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
• C. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client achieves
redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
• D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other
servers
• E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make
requests

Answer : AE

9. Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

• A. enforcing routing policies

• B. marking interesting traffic for data policies
• C. applying security policies
• D. attaching users to the edge of the network

Answer : A

10. What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

 • A. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts
• B. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet
• C. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain
• D. to pass traffic between different networks

Answer: D
7. Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier
architecture? (Choose two.)

• A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service

• B. Inspect packets for malicious activity
• C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers
• D. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices
• E. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network

Answer: AC

8. What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while

installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

• A. different nonoverlapping channels

• B. one overlapping channel
• C. one nonoverlapping channel
• D. different overlapping channels

Answer: A

9. A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are
used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and
updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does
the engineer recommend?

• A. infrastructure-as-a-service
• B. platform-as-a-service
• C. business process as service to support different types of service
• D. software-as-a-service
Answer: D

10. What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

• A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers

• B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN
• C. moves packets within a VLAN
• D. moves packets between different VLANs
• E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

Answer: CE

11.Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary
transmission protocols on the right.
Select and Place:
Answer:

12. An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage
on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to
preferentially use
5GHz access points?

• A. Client Band Select

• B. Re-Anchor Roamed Clients
• C. OEAP Spilt Tunnel
• D. 11ac MU-MIMO

Answer: A
13. Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

• A. processing inbound SSH management traffic

• B. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets
• C. facilitates spanning-tree elections
• D. forwarding remote client/server traffic

Answer: D

14. Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?

• A. UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is
tolerable.
• B. TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used
when data is accepted out-of-order.
• C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing
packets are acceptable.
• D. UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is
time-sensitive.

Answer: C

15. Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new
single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues
with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent
connectivity issue?
 • A. Interface errors are incrementing.
• B. High usage is causing high latency.
• C. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA.
• D. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type.

Answer: A

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host
10.10.13.10/32?
 • A. default route
• B. network route
• C. host route
• D. floating static route

Answer: B

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?
 • A. 10.10.10.0/28
• B. 10.10.13.0/25
• C. 10.10.13.144/28
• D. 10.10.13.208/29

Answer: D

18. Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto
the correct protocols on the right.
Select and Place:
Answer:
19. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two
interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)

• A. input errors
• B. frame
• C. giants
• D. CRC
• E. runts

Answer: AD

20. Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct
usable host ranges on the right.
Select and Place:
Answer:

21. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection
between two endpoints?

• A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee
message delivery.
 • B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment
packets.
• C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless
protocol.
• D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses
SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.

Answer: A

22. Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?

• A. management
• B. protected frame
• C. action
• D. control

Answer: A

23. In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a

network when additional access ports are required?

• A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant

connections between them.
• B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.
• C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
• D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine
switch.

Answer: C

24. What identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

 • A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional
resources.
• B. Each hypervisor supports a single virtual machine and a single software
switch.
• C. The hypervisor virtualizes physical components including CPU, memory,
and storage.
• D. Virtualized servers run efficiently when physically connected to a switch
that is separate from the hypervisor.

Answer: C

25. Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified

IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

• A. ipv6 address dhcp

• B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64
• C. ipv6 address autoconfig
• D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

Answer: C

26. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are
joined? (Choose two.)

• A. 2000::/3
• B. 2002::5
• C. FC00::/7
• D. FF02::1
• E. FF02::2

Answer: DE
27. Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left
onto the correct values on the right.
Select and Place:

Answer:
28. What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an
unknown destination MAC address is received?

• A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC
address to its MAC address table.
• B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC
address learning.
• C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in
the given VLAN.
• D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.

Answer: C

29. An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable
IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

• A. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 10.2.1.3

255.255.255.252
• B. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 192.168.1.1
255.255.255.248
• C. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 172.16.1.4
255.255.255.248
 • D. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2
225.255.255.252

Answer: D

30. Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access
the Internet?

• A. 172.9.0.0/16
• B. 172.28.0.0/16
• C. 192.0.0.0/8
• D. 209.165.201.0/24

Answer: B

31.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error

message that is received?

• A. It belongs to a private IP address range.

• B. The router does not support /28 mask.
• C. It is a network IP address.
• D. It is a broadcast IP address.

Answer: D

32.Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and

cannot route on the Internet?
 • A. link-local
• B. unique local
• C. multicast
• D. global unicast

Answer: B

33.Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a
single address?

• A. 2000::/3
• B. FC00::/7
• C. FE80::/10
• D. FF00::/8

Answer: D

34.What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet
interface? (Choose two.)

• A. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

• B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
• C. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame
again
• D. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been
transmitted
• E. when the cable length limits are exceeded

Answer: BE

35.What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

• A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.

• B. Central AP management requires more complex configurations.
• C. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method.
• D. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs.
Answer: A

36.Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification
override?

• A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for

power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled.
• B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a
syslog message is generated.
• C. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the
connected device is temporarily paused.
• D. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum
configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it.

Answer: A

37.What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

• A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other
VLANs.
• B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in
MAC address table.
• C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except
from the originating port.
• D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

Answer: C

38.Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

 • A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without
conflicts
• B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise
network
• C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the Internet with private range
addressing
• D. enables secure communications to the Internet for all external hosts

Answer: A

39.Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an

interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

• A. explicitly assign a link-local address

• B. disable the EUI-64 bit process
• C. enable SLAAC on an interface
• D. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network

Answer: C

40.Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an
organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)

• A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping

channels.
• B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.
• C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping
channels.
• D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.
• E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set
adjacent access points to the channel.
41. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of
packets?

• A. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is
no corruption of data, UDP provides message acknowledgement and
retransmits data if lost.
• B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending
too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a
continuous stream without checking.
• C. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of
data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to
provide reliable delivery.
• D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable
message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake.

Answer: B

42. What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling?
(Choose two.)

• A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

• B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding
• C. The data can pass through the cladding
• D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
• E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections

Answer: BD

43. How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode
and a WLC?
 • A. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it
would create a loop
• B. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC
• C. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable
• D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network,
assuming connectivity to the WLC

Answer: D

44. Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather
than a unicast address?

• A. 2000::/3
• B. FC00::/7
• C. FE80::/10
• D. FF00::/12

Answer: D

45. What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type

between TCP and UDP?

• A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is

a connection-oriented protocol.
• B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is
a connection-oriented protocol.
• C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable
and is a connectionless protocol.
• D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable
and is a connectionless protocol.
Answer: D

46. What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)

• A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

• B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when
devices fail
• C. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains
• D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host
• E. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

Answer: AB

47. Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4
public addresses?

• A. multicast
• B. unique local
• C. link-local
• D. global unicast

Answer: D

48. What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

• A. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

• B. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of
the interface
• C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
 • D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without
modification

Answer: C

49. A corporate office uses four floors in a building.

✑ Floor 1 has 24 users.
✑ Floor 2 has 29 users.
Floor 3 has 28 users.

✑ Floor 4 has 22 users.

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP
addresses for the router configuration?

• A. 192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor

• B. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor
• C. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor
• D. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

Answer: C

50. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will
add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination
does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
 • A. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240
• B. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240
• C. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224
• D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

Answer: D

51. What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

• A. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

• B. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.
• C. It provides variable latency.
• D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.

Answer: D

52. An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. One subnet
must be used. Which command must be configured on the router Switched
Virtual
Interface to use address space efficiently?

• A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

• B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0
 • C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128
• D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

Answer: B

53. Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left
onto the IP traffic types on the right.
Select and Place:

Answer:
54. A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This
condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface
counter increments?

• A. runt
• B. collision
• C. late collision
• D. CRC

Answer: C
 • A. The source MAC address is changed.
• B. The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.
• C. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.
• D. The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its
own.

Answer: C
56. Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are
used to limit collisions?

• A. 5, 6, 7
• B. 1, 2, 3
• C. 1, 6, 11
• D. 1, 5, 10

Answer: C

57. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

• A. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgment, and parity checks, and UDP

uses cyclic redundancy checks only
• B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic
redundancy checks, and UDP uses retransmissions only
• C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP
uses checksums only
• D. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses
acknowledgements only

Answer: C

58. A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need
access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. Which action
must be taken to meet the requirement?

• A. enable Band Select

• B. enable DTIM
• C. enable RX-SOP
• D. enable AAA override

Answer: A
59. What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?

• A. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01
• B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
• C. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c
• D. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08
• E. 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff

Answer: B

60. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?

• A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2

• B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
• C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
• D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit
first
• E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
• F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is
unknown

Answer: AE

61. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left on to the correct
values on the right.
Select and Place:
Answer:
62. Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is
coming?

• A. start of frame delimiter

• B. Type field
• C. preamble
• D. Data field

Answer: C

63. You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for
Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service
provider dynamically.
Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?

• A. ip default-gateway
• B. ip route
• C. ip default-network
• D. ip address dhcp
• E. ip address dynamic

Answer: D

64. Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate?
(Choose two.)

• A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer

• B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a
network
• C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer
• D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach
Answer: AB

65. Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.)

• A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device

must have a unique MAC address
• B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address
• C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a
user with administrative privileges
• D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which
identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which
uniquely identifies the hardware
• E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90
• F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which
identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which
uniquely identifies the host on the network

Answer: ADE

66. Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4
infrastructure?

• A. NAT
• B. 6 to 4 tunneling
• C. L2TPv3
• D. dual-stack

Answer: B
67. Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0
255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)

• A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network.

• B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network.
• C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to
the 172.16.3.0 network.
• D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination
out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4.
• E. It uses the default administrative distance.
• F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same
destination exist.

Answer: AE

68. What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)

• A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.

• B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
• C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
• D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
• E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.

Answer: BC

69. Which option about JSON is true?

A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup
text
B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays
C. used for storing information
 D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML
Answer: B

70. What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic?
(Choose two.)

• A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic

• B. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets
• C. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake
to establish the connection
• D. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections
than TCP
• E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application
data

Answer: AE

71. Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your
network? (Choose two.)

• A. Comply with PCI regulations

• B. Conserve IPv4 address
• C. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers
• D. Reduce the risk of a network security breach
• E. Comply with local law

Answer: BD

72. Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office
architecture?
 • A. broadband cable access
• B. frame-relay packet switching
• C. dedicated point-to-point leased line
• D. Integrated Services Digital Network switching

Answer: A

73. Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and
reliability for the network? (Choose two.)

• A. asychronous routing
• B. single-homed branches
• C. dual-homed branches
• D. static routing
• E. dynamic routing

Answer: CE

74. What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?

• A. 00000000
• B. 11111100
• C. 11111111
• D. 11111101

Answer: B
75. Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?
(Choose two.)

• A. to enable intra-enterprise communication

• B. to implement NAT
• C. to connect applications
• D. to conserve global address space
• E. to manage routing overhead

Answer: AD

76. What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP
modules?

• A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

• B. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module
• C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
• D. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

Answer: C
77. What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.)

• A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

• B. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
• C. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client achieves
redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
• D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other
servers
• E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make
requests

Answer: AE

78. Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier

architecture?

• A. enforcing routing policies

• B. marking interesting traffic for data policies
• C. applying security policies
• D. attaching users to the edge of the network

Answer: A

79. What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

• A. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

• B. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet
• C. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain
• D. to pass traffic between different networks
Answer: D

80. Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier
architecture? (Choose two.)

• A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service

• B. Inspect packets for malicious activity
• C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers
• D. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices
• E. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network

Answer: AC

81. What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while

installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

• A. different nonoverlapping channels

• B. one overlapping channel
• C. one nonoverlapping channel
• D. different overlapping channels

Answer: A

82. A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models
are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and
updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model
does the engineer recommend?

• A. infrastructure-as-a-service
• B. platform-as-a-service
 • C. business process as service to support different types of service
• D. software-as-a-service

Answer: D

83. What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

• A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers

• B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN
• C. moves packets within a VLAN
• D. moves packets between different VLANs
• E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

Answer: CE

84. An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage
on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to
preferentially use
5GHz access points?

• A. Client Band Select

• B. Re-Anchor Roamed Clients
• C. OEAP Spilt Tunnel
• D. 11ac MU-MIMO

Answer: A

85.Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

 • A. processing inbound SSH management traffic
• B. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets
• C. facilitates spanning-tree elections
• D. forwarding remote client/server traffic

Answer: D

86. Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?

• A. UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is
tolerable.
• B. TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used
when data is accepted out-of-order.
• C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing
packets are acceptable.
• D. UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is
time-sensitive.

Answer: C

87. Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new
single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues
with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent
connectivity issue?
 • A. Interface errors are incrementing.
• B. High usage is causing high latency.
• C. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA.
• D. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type.

Answer: A

88. A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1

interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the
configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued
on the interface?

• A. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B

• B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::500:a:4F:583B
• C. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B
• D. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5:a:4F:583B
Answer: C

89. What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine
whether the packet is legitimate?

• A. Layer 2 switch
• B. LAN controller
• C. load balancer
• D. firewall

Answer: D

90. What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

• A. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

• B. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network
• C. connect wireless devices to a wired network
• D. support secure user logins to devices on the network

Answer: C

91. An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual

machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between
hardware and virtual machines?

• A. router
• B. hypervisor
• C. switch
• D. straight cable
Answer: B

92. How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel
overlap?

• A. It allows the administrator to assign the channels on a per-device or per-

interface basis.
• B. It segregates devices from different manufactures onto different
channels.
• C. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a
channel.
• D. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent
access points.

Answer: C

93. Which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on
the network of an organization?

• A. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the
number of broadcasts.
• B. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the Internet for web
services.
• C. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will
stay local within the organization.
• D. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside
organization.

Answer: C
94. Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left
onto the type of architecture on the right.
Select and Place:

Answer:
95. Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client
sends a probe request?

• A. data
• B. management
• C. control
• D. action

Answer: B
96. What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between
TCP and UDP?

• A. TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP
retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote
end.
• B. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data.
UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.
• C. UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting
data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable
connection.
• D. UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for
unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error
checking.

Answer: B
97. Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network
component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A, verifying the IP
addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

• A. router
• B. Layer 2 switch
• C. load balancer
• D. firewall

Answer: A
98. What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?

• A. 1.544 Mbps
• B. 2.048 Mbps
• C. 34.368 Mbps
• D. 43.7 Mbps

Answer: A

99. What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose
two.)

• A. Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

• B. Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.
• C. Both support runs of up to 55 meters.
• D. Both support runs of up to 100 meters.
• E. Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

Answer: BD

100. What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

• A. onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3
components
• B. wireless connections provide the sole access method to services
• C. physical workstations are configured to share resources
• D. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

Answer: D
101. Which network action occurs within the data plane?

• A. reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

• B. make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC
• C. run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)
• D. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table

Answer: D

102.Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

• A. Run routing protocols.

• B. Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.
• C. Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.
• D. Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.
• E. Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

Answer: CD

103.What are network endpoints?

• A. support inter-VLAN connectivity

• B. a threat to the network if they are compromised
• C. act as routers to connect a user to the service provider network
• D. enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the Internet

Answer: B
104.Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?

• A. conserve public IPv4 addressing

• B. support the NAT protocol
• C. preserve public IPv6 address space
• D. reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses

Answer: A

105.Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

• A. small and needs to reduce networking costs

• B. large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails
• C. large and requires a flexible, scalable network design
• D. currently small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

Answer: A

106.A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit
address 2001:0EB8:00C1:2200:0001:0000:0000:0331/64. To simplify the
configuration, the administrator has decided to compress the address. Which IP
address must the administrator configure?

• A. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

• B. ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64
• C. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64
• D. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64
Answer: D

107. What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

• A. to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts

outside the organization
• B. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources
• C. on the public-facing interface of a firewall
• D. on hosts that communicate only with other internal hosts

Answer: D

108.Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6

address configuration must be applied to the router fa0/1 interface for the
router to assign a unique 64-bit IPv6 address to itself?
 • A. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64
• B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64
• C. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64
• D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:800F:7/64

Answer: B
109.What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

• A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats.

• B. Both cable types support RJ-45 connectors.
• C. Both support up to 550 meters between nodes.
• D. Both cable types support LR connectors.

Answer: A

110.Which function forwards frames to ports that have a matching destination

MAC address?

• A. frame flooding
• B. frame filtering
• C. frame pushing
• D. frame switching

Answer: D

111.Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to

multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

• A. global unicast address

• B. link-local address
• C. anycast address
• D. multicast address

Answer: C
112.What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

• A. composed of up to 65,536 available addresses

• B. issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number
• C. used without tracking or registration
• D. traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

Answer: C

113.What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

• A. provides wireless services to users in a building

• B. connects server and client device to a network
• C. allows users to record data and transmit to a file server
• D. forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

Answer: C

114.What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

• A. It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture

• B. It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus
• C. It centralizes the data plane for the network
• D. It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a
campus.

Answer: A

115.How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-responsible model?

• A. TCP avoids using sequencing and UDP avoids using acknowledgments

 • B. TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends
immediately
• C. TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-
ordering
• D. TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery.

Answer: B

116.What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming in an

enterprise network?

• A. a lightweight access point

• B. a wireless LAN controller
• C. a firewall
• D. a LAN switch

Answer: B

117.Which set of 2 4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the

United States?

• A. channels 1, 6, 11, and 14

• B. channels 2, 7, 9, and 11
• C. channels 2, 7, and 11
• D. channels 1, 6, and 11

Answer: D
118.A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has
requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal
network.
Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

• A. IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

• B. unique local address
• C. link-local address
• D. aggregatable global address

Answer: C

119.What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

• A. different security settings

• B. discontinuous frequency ranges
• C. unique SSIDs
• D. different transmission speeds

Answer: B

120.A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000
interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked
from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer
apply?

• A. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address ff00:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

• B. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64
• C. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address fe80:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64
• D. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address
fc00:0000:aaaa::a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64
Answer: D

121.What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose two.)

• A. It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN.

• B. It is at most 32 characters long
• C. It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN
• D. It provides secured access to a WLAN.
• E. It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN.

Answer: CD

122.hen a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is
the frame handled?

• A. flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

• B. forwarded to the first available port
• C. sent to the port identified for the known MAC address
• D. broadcast to all ports

Answer: C

123.What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?

• A. Core and distribution

• B. access and WAN
• C. distribution and access
• D. core and WAN
Answer: A

124.What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

• A. includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and

redundancy
• B. connects each switch to every other switch in the network
• C. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection
• D. provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users

Answer: C

125.What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?

• A. It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.

• B. It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform
either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions
• C. It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the
network topology
• D. It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a
star network

Answer: A

126.What is a function performed by a web server?

• A. send and retrieve email from client devices

• B. securely store files for FTP access
 • C. authenticate and authorize a user‫ג‬€™s identity
• D. provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP

Answer: D

127.Refer to the exhibit. Site A was recently connected to site B over a new
single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report intermittent connectivity issues
with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
 • A. Physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.
• B. Heavy usage is causing high latency.
• C. The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.
• D. An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the
link

Answer: D

128.Which protocol uses the SSL?

• A. SSH
• B. HTTPS
• C. HTTP
 • D. Telnet

Answer: B

129.Why is UDP more suitable than TCP for applications that require low latency
such as VoIP?

• A. UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets: TCP drops packets under
heavy load
• B. UDP uses sequencing data for packets to arrive in order TCP offers the
capability to receive packets in random order
• C. TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery: UDP uses flow
control mechanisms for the delivery of packets
• D. TCP sends an acknowledgement for every packet received: UDP operates
without acknowledgments

Answer: D

130.What are the two functions of SSIDs? (Choose two.)

• A. uses the maximum of 32 alphanumeric characters

• B. controls the speed of the Wi-Fi network
• C. used exclusively with controller-based Wi-Fi networks
• D. supports a single access point
• E. broadcasts by default

Answer: AD
131.Which two characteristics describe the access layer in a three-tier network
architecture? (Choose two.)

• A. serves as the network aggregation point

• B. physical connection point for a LAN printer
• C. designed to meet continuous redundant uptime requirements
• D. layer at which a wireless access point connects to the wired network
• E. provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications

Answer: BD

132.Which PoE mode enables powered-devices detection and guarantees power

when the device detected?

• A. auto
• B. static
• C. dynamic
• D. active

Answer: A

133.Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with a super net to
accommodate the requirements for 380 users on a Subnet. The requirement
already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet
on router R4?
 • A. Subnet: 10.7.54.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.128.0 Broadcast address:
10.5.55.255 Usable IP address range: 10.7.54.1 10.7.55.254 "€‫ג‬
• B. Subnet: 10.7.54.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Broadcast address:
10.7.54.255 Usable IP address range: 10.7.54.1 10.7.55.254 "€‫ג‬
• C. Subnet: 10.7.54.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.254.0 Broadcast address:
10.7.54.255 Usable IP address range: 10.7.54.1 10.7.55.254 "€‫ג‬
• D. Subnet: 10.7.54.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.254.0 Broadcast address:
10.7.55.255 Usable IP address range: 10.7.54.1 10.7.55.254 "€‫ג‬

Answer: D

134.How is RFC 1918 addressing used in a network?

• A. They are used to access the Internet from the internal network without
conversion.
• B. They are used in place of public addresses for Increased security.
• C. They are used with NAT to preserve public IPv4 addresses.
• D. They are used by Internet Service Providers to route over the Internet.

Answer: C

135.Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?

• A. point-to-point
• B. router-on-a-stick
• C. full mesh
• D. hub-and-spoke

Answer: C
136.What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

• A. nothing plugged into the port

• B. link flapping
• C. latency
• D. shutdown command issued on the port

Answer: B

137. Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the
right.
Select and Place:

Answer:
138.A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address
10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to
11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the
engineer use?

• A. /29
• B. /30
• C. /27
• D. /28

Answer: A

139.Which two IP addressing schemes provide internet access to users on the

network while preserving the public IPv4 address space? (Choose two.)

• A. IPv6 addressing
• B. PAT with private internal addressing
 • C. single public Class A network
• D. private networks only
• E. custom addresses from ARIN

Answer: AB

• A. no switchport mode trunk ip address 192.168.32.97 255.255.255.224

• B. switchport ip address 192.168.32.65 255.255.255.240
• C. no switchport ip address 192.168.32.30 255.255.255.224
• D. no switchport mode access ip address 192.168.32.62 255.255.255.240

Answer: C

141.What are two reasons to deploy private addressing on a network? (Choose

two.)

• A. to subnet addresses in an organized hierarchy

• B. to reduce network maintenance costs
• C. to segment local IP addresses from the global routing table
• D. to hide sensitive data from access users within an enterprise
• E. to route protected data securely via an Internet service provider

Answer: AC
142. Drag and drop the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description
on the right.
Select and Place:

Answer:

143.Which property is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interfaces?

 • A. Both use the single-mode fiber type.
• B. Both require UTP cable media for transmission.
• C. Both require fiber cable media for transmission.
• D. Both use the multimode fiber type.

Answer: C

144. Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding
address types on the right.
Select and Place:

Answer:
145.Which device permits or denies network traffic based on a set of rules?

• A. switch
• B. firewall
• C. wireless controller
• D. access point

Answer: B

146. What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?

• A. determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to

secured networks
• B. processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure
segments of the network
• C. forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection
• D. explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain
Answer: A

147. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client

workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers
from the left onto the network parameters on the right.
Select and Place:
Answer:

148. Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the
functions on the right.
Select and Place:
Answer:
149.Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification
override?

• A. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the

connected device is temporarily paused
• B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a
syslog message is generated
• C. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum
configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it
• D. Should a monitored port exceed the maximum administrative value for
power, the port is shut down and err-disabled

Answer: D

150.What is a function spine-and-leaf architecture?

• A. Offers predictable latency of the traffic path between end devices.

• B. Exclusively sends multicast traffic between servers that are directly
connected to the spine.
• C. Mitigates oversubscription by adding a layer of leaf switches.
• D. Limits payload size of traffic within the leaf layer.

Answer: A

151.Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

• A. Constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol.

• B. Forwards traffic to the next hop.
• C. Looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base.
• D. Provides CLI access to the network device.
Answer: B

152.What is the function of the control plane?

• A. It exchanges routing table information.

• B. It provides CLI access to the network device.
• C. It looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base.
• D. It forwards traffic to the next hop.

Answer: A

153.Which two cable types must be used to connect an access point to the WLC
when 2.5-Gbps and 5-Gbps upload speeds are required? (Choose two.)

• A. 10GBASE-T
• B. 1000BASE-LX/LH
• C. Cat 5e
• D. Cat 5
• E. Cat 3

Answer: AC

154.What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?

• A. Implemented over a dedicated WAN

• B. All hosted on physical servers
• C. Accessed over the Internet
• D. Located in the same data center as the users
Answer: C

155.An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different
subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP
address
192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask
must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?

• A. 255.255.255.248
• B. 255.255.255.224
• C. 255.255.255.0
• D. 255.255.255.252

Answer: C

156.Which key function is provided by the data plane?

• A. Originating packets
• B. Exchanging routing table data
• C. Making routing decisions
• D. Forwarding traffic to the next hop

Answer: D

157.When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?

• A. Only when using VSS technology

• B. For small networks with minimal need for growth
• C. For large networks that are connected to multiple remote sites
• D. The access and distribution layers must be on the same device
Answer: B

158.VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which
command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected
growth?

• A. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10 Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1

265 255.255.252
• B. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10 Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1
255 255.255.248
• C. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10 Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1
255 255.255.0
• D. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10 Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1
255.255.255.128
Answer: B

159. Client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected
to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on
connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of
the show interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on
the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the
throughput issue?

• A. a physical cable fault

• B. a speed mismatch
• C. high bandwidth usage
• D. a cable that is too long

Answer: A

160.What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX

interfaces?

• A. 1000BASE-LX/LH interoperates with multimode and single-mode fiber,

and 1000BASE-ZX needs a conditioning patch cable with multimode.
• B. 1000BASE-ZX interoperates with dual-rate 100M/1G 10Km SFP over
multimode fiber, and 1000BASE-LX/LH supports only single-rate
• C. 1000BASE-ZX is supported on links up to 1000km, and 1000BASE-LX/LH
operates over links up to 70 km
• D. 1000BASE- LX/LH is supported on links up to 10km, and 1000Base-ZX
operates over links up to 70 km

Answer: D
161.What are two reasons to implement IPv4 private addressing on a network?
(Choose two.)

• A. To enable internal applications to treat the private IPv4 addresses as

unique
• B. To facilitate renumbering when merging networks
• C. To expand the routing table on the router
• D. To provide protection from external denial-of-service attacks
• E. To conserve global unique IPv4 addresses

Answer: DE

162.Which concern is addressed with the use of private IPv4 addressing?

• A. Lack of routing protocol support for CIDR and VLSM

• B. Lack of security protocols at the network perimeter
• C. Lack of available TCP/UDP ports per IPv5 address
• D. Lack of available publicly routable unique IPv4 address

Answer: D

163.What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another
workstation on a separate switch in a three-tier architecture model?

• A. access ‫ג‬€" core ‫ג‬€" access

• B. access ‫ג‬€" distribution ‫ג‬€" distribution ‫ג‬€" access
• C. access ‫ג‬€" core ‫ג‬€" distribution ‫ג‬€" access
• D. access ‫ג‬€" distribution ‫ג‬€" core ‫ג‬€" distribution ‫ג‬€" access

Answer: D
164. What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

• A. An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on

one node, but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces
on multiple nodes.
• B. IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast
address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration.
• C. IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast
address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration.
• D. Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a
group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

Answer: A

165. Refer to the exhibit. Between which zones do wireless users expect to
experience intermittent connectivity?
 • A. between zones 1 and 2
• B. between zones 2 and 5
• C. between zones 3 and 4
• D. between zones 3 and 6

Answer: C

166.Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and

availability?

• A. partial mesh
• B. full mesh
• C. point-to-point
 • D. hub-and-spoke

Answer: C

167.Drag and drop the statements about wireless architectures from the left
onto the architectures on the right.
Select and Place:

Answer:
168. Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the
right.
Select and Place:
Answer:
169.How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

• A. Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches

• B. Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.
• C. Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.
• D. Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a
core spine switch.

Answer: B

170.What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

• A. It immediately enables the port in the listening state.

 • B. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is
reloaded.
• C. It enables BPDU messages.
• D. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.

Answer: D

171.What occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to

another switch?

• A. Root port choice and spanning-tree recalculation are accelerated when a

switch link goes down.
• B. After spanning-tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that
receives BPDUs.
• C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch
to switch automatically.
• D. Spanning-tree fails to detect a switching loop increasing the likelihood of
broadcast storms.

Answer: D

172.Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over
WLAN deployment?

• A. Platinum
• B. Bronze
• C. Gold
• D. Silver
Answer: A

173.Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN
750?

• A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38418607

• B. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0
• C. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary
• D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440

Answer: C

174.Refer to the exhibit. After the switch configuration, the ping test fails
between PC A and PC B. Based on the output for switch 1, which error must be
corrected?
 • A. The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN.
• B. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk.
• C. Access mode is configured on the switch ports.
• D. There is a native VLAN mismatch.

Answer: D

175.Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after
losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

• A. local
• B. mesh
• C. flexconnect
• D. sniffer
Answer: C

176.Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?

• A. show ip route
• B. show cdp neighbor
• C. show ip interface
• D. show interface

Answer: B

177.Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two

switches without using a negotiation protocol?

• A. active
• B. on
• C. auto
• D. desirable
Answer: B

179. Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
A. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link
B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in
an authentication app on a mobile device
C. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA
key on a login screen
D. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the
credentials on a second screen
Answer: A
180. Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible?
(Choose two)
A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software
B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment
C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises
D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco
DNA Center
E. modular design that is upgradable as needed
Answer: BD
181. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key
mode?
A. TKIP with RC4
B. RC4
C. AES-128
 D. AES-256
Answer: D
182.Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

A. 10.10.10.0/28
B. 10.10.13.0/25
C. 10.10.13.144/28
D. 10.10.13.208/29
Answer: C
183. In Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a
network when additional access ports are required?
A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections
between them
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks
C. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch
Answer: D
184. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection
mechanism? (Choose two)
A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets
B. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity
C. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets
D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up
E. IT supports protocol discovery
Answer: BD
185. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
A. Configure the version of SSH
B. Configure VTY access.
C. Create a user with a password.
D. Assign a DNS domain name
Answer: B
186. Refer to Exhibit.

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
A. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access
ports.
B. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured
VLANs out all trunk ports
C. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.
 D. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the
network on its trunk ports
Answer: C
187.Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
A. YAML
B. JSON
C. EBCDIC
D. SGML
E. XML
Answer: AE
188. Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the
neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What
is the
administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
A. 20
B. 90
C. 110
D. 115
Answer: B
189. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch
B. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.
C. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted
 D. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address
bindings.
Answer: D
190. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration
is correct. Which IP address is the source IP?
A. 10.4.4.4
B. 10.4.4.5
C. 172.23.103.10
D. 172.23.104.4
Answer: C
191. Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
A. A.-192.168.16.0/21
B. B.192.168.16.0/24
C. C.192.168 26.0/26
D. D.192.168.16.0/27
Answer: B
192. Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

A. The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.
B. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single
broadcast domain.
C. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to
traverse the link.
D. The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.
Answer: C
193. Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to
initialize on any interface?
A. lldp timer
B. lldp holdtimt
C. lldp reinit
D. lldp tlv-select
Answer: D
194. Refer to the exhibit.
The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF
configured?
A. The interface is not participating in OSPF
B. A point-to-point network type is configured
C. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use
D. There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface
Answer: A
195. An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the
default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)
A. Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.
B. Administratively shut down the ports
C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99
D. Configure the ports as trunk ports
E. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol
Answer: AD
196. Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1
interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25
from
the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route
10.10.13.0/25?
A. Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces
B. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from
interface Gi0/1.
C. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmeteical
D. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing
table
Answer: D
197. Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web
server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server
Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
 A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
198. Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN
Controllers?
A. autonomous
B. lightweight
C. bridge
D. mobility express
Answer: B
199. Refer to the exhibit.
Which command provides this output?
A. show ip route
B. show ip interface
C. show interface
D. show cdp neighbor
Answer: D
200. Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct
usable host ranges on the right

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
201. Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access
the Internet?
A. 1729.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24
Answer: D
202. Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two
switches without using a negotiation protocol?
A. on
B. auto
C. active
D. desirable
Answer: D
203. Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct
descriptions on the right.
 A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Explanation:
5:1
1:2
2:4
4:3
3:5
Answer: A
204. Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco
Wireless LAN Controller is true?
A. To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.
B. The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"
C. When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps
D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic
Answer: C

205. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

A. reduced operational costs
B. reduced hardware footprint
C. faster changes with more reliable results
D. fewer network failures
 E. increased network security
Answer: AC

206. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups
are joined? (Choose two)
A. 2000::/3
B. 2002::5
C. FC00::/7
D. FF02::1
E. FF02::2
Answer: DE
207. Which option about JSON is true?
A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text
B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays
C. used for storing information
D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML
Answer: B
208. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and
cannot route on the Internet?
A. global unicast
B. unique local
C. link-local
D. multicast
Answer: B
209. What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )
A. OpenFlow
B. NETCONF
C. Thrift
D. CORBA
 E. DSC
Answer: CD
210. How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
A. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one
route to the same destination m the IP routing table.
B. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all
interfaces configured with the same VLAN.
C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed
links n the data path
D. It uses a shared virtual IMC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers
that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN
Answer: C
211. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two
interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)
A. runts
B. giants
C. frame
D. CRC
E. input errors
Answer: DE

212. When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?
A. It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest
metric.
B. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the
destination to calculate theroute with the lowest bandwidth.
C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of
the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.
 D. It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination
to determine the router with the lowest metric
Answer: A
213. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which
action is taken by the phone?
A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged
B. It drops the traffic
C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN
D. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN
Answer: C
214. What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an
Ethernet interface? (Choose two)
A. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again
B. when the cable length limits are exceeded
C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
D. when Carner Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used
E. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

Answer: CE
215. An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which
state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?
A. Exchange
B. 2-way
C. Full
D. Init
Answer: B
216. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial
interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which
OSPF
network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf
interface on R1 or R2?
A. port-to-multipoint
B. broadcast
C. point-to-point
D. nonbroadcast
Answer: C
217. A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in
OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
A. point-to-multipoint
B. point-to-point
C. broadcast
D. nonbroadcast
Answer: B
218. What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network
management applications and their management of networks?
A. It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield
deployment.
B. It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet
the specific needs of an organization
C. IT abstracts policy from the actual device configuration
D. It does not support high availability of management functions when
operating in cluster mode
Answer: A
219. Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco
Wireless LAN Controller is true?
A. To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.
 B. The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"
C. When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps
D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic
Answer: C
220. Which Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS) command is
used to view the number of Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing
Protocol (EIGRP) packets that are sent and received?

A. show ip eigrp topology

B. show ip eigrp interfaces
C. show ip eigrp packets
D. show eigrp neighbors
E. show ip eigrp traffic
F. show ip route

Answer: E

221. What is the valid host address range for the subnet 172.25.4.0 /23?

A. 172.25.4.10 to 172.25.5.210
B. 172.25.4.21 to 172.25.5.56
C. 172.25.4.35 to 172.25.5.64
D. 172.25.4.1 to 172.25.5.254

Answer: D

222. What will be the effects of executing the following set of commands?
(Choose all that apply.)
router(config)# router eigrp 44
router (config-router)# network 10.0.0.0
router (config-router)# network 192.168.5.0
A. EIGRP will be enabled in AS 44
B. EIGRP instance number 44 will be enabled
C. EIGRP will be activated on the router interface 10.0.0.2/8
D. EIGRP will be activated on the router interface 192.168.5.9/24
E. EIGRP will be activated on the router interface 10.0.5.8/16
F. EIGRP will be activated on the router interface 192.168.6.1/24

A. a,c,e,f
B. a,c,d,e
C. a,b,e,f
D. a,b,c,d

Answer: B

223. Which two statements are TRUE of synchronous serial ports? (Choose
two.)
A. These ports can be used to provide leased-line or dial-up communications.
B. These ports do not support the High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)
encapsulation method.
C. An AUI connector is used with serial ports.
D. These ports can be used to configure high-speed lines (E1 or T1).
E. An RJ-45 connector is used with serial ports.

A. a,b
B. a,e

C. a,c
D. a,d

Answer: D
224. You are the network administrator for your company. You have a Class
B address range and are planning for a network that allows 150 hosts per
subnet and at least 164 subnets.
Which subnet mask should you use to accomplish the task?

A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.252
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.192.0

Answer: C

225. With the following equipment list, which of the following network
scenarios could be supported?
Two IP subnets of 255.255.255.0
Seven 48-port switches
Two router interfaces

A. 300 workstations in a single broadcast domain, each workstation in its own

collision domain
B. 600 workstations, with 300 workstations in two broadcast domains and
each workstation in its own collision domain
C. 300 workstations, with 150 workstations in two broadcast domains and all
workstations in the same collision domain
D. 300 workstations, with 150 workstations in two broadcast domains and
each workstation in its own collision domain

Answer: D

226. Which Cisco IOS command is used on a Cisco Catalyst 6500 series
switch to view the spanningtree protocol (STP) information for a virtual
LAN (VLAN)?
A. show spanning-tree vlan
B. show spantree vlan
C. show spanning tree
D. show spantree

Answer: A

227. Which of the following is a frame tagging method for identifying Virtual
LAN (VLAN) memberships over trunk links?

A. RIP
B. 802.1q
C. CDP
D. STP

Answer: B

228. When packets are transmitted from one host to another across a routed
segment, which two addresses are changed? (Choose two.)

A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. destination IP address
D. destination MAC address

A. a,d
B. a,b
C. c,d
D. b,d
Answer: D

229. What command should you use to quickly view the HSRP state of the
switch for all HSRP groups of which the switch is a member?

A. switch# show standby

B. switch# show ip interface brief
C. switch# show standby brief
D. switch# show hsrp

Answer: C