CIVIL

B. Long columns
C. Intermediate columns
D. Slender beams
1. The strain energy stored in a body is 8. Poisson’s ratio for most materials lies
called: between:
A. Kinetic energy A. 0 to 1
B. Potential energy B. 0 to 0.5
C. Resilience C. 0.2 to 0.4
D. Proof resilience D. 0.25 to 0.33

2. Rankine’s theory is valid for: 9. The impact test on metals determines:

A. Brittle materials A. Hardness
B. Ductile materials B. Toughness
C. Wood C. Stiffness
D. Wrought iron D. Creep

3. The section modulus for a rectangular 10. A ductile material fails in:
section (b × d) is: A. Compression
A. bd³/6 B. Tension
B. bd²/6 C. Torsion
C. bd³/12 D. Shear
D. bd²/8
11. Minimum cover for RCC footing as per
4. Torsion equation is valid when: IS 456 is:
A. Shear stress is uniform A. 20 mm
B. Cross-section is circular B. 25 mm
C. Shaft is solid only C. 50 mm
D. Shaft is short D. 75 mm

5. In a simply supported beam, max 12. As per IS 456, max % of tensile steel in
deflection occurs at: slab is:
A. Support A. 2%
B. Midspan B. 4%
C. 1/3 of span C. 1%
D. Near loading point D. 0.5%

6. Shear force is maximum where: 13. Effective length of a column with both
A. Bending moment is zero ends fixed:
B. Load is zero A. 0.5L
C. Load is maximum B. 0.7L
D. Bending moment is max C. L
D. 2L
7. Euler’s formula is used for:
A. Short columns 14. Bond stress is resisted by:
A. Hooks 21. Cement gains strength due to:
B. Concrete A. Hydration of C2S
C. Shear stirrups B. Hydration of C3S
D. Bearing C. Setting of C3A
D. Cooling of C4AF
15. The minimum diameter of main bars in
slabs: 22. Soundness of cement is tested using:
A. 6 mm A. Le Chatelier test
B. 8 mm B. Blaine’s test
C. 10 mm C. Vicat’s apparatus
D. 12 mm D. Rebound hammer

16. Lacing is used in steel columns to: 23. Fly ash improves:
A. Improve strength A. Bleeding
B. Reduce weight B. Durability
C. Reduce buckling C. Shrinkage
D. Improve aesthetics D. None

17. A beam is called over-reinforced if: 24. Quick setting cement is obtained by:
A. Ast < Ast,balanced A. Increasing gypsum
B. Ast = Ast,balanced B. Decreasing gypsum
C. Ast > Ast,balanced C. Adding lime
D. Ast < 0.5 Ast,balanced D. Adding fly ash

18. Slenderness ratio in columns is: 25. Bitumen is tested for:

A. L/r A. Abrasion
B. r/L B. Softening point
C. L²/r C. Compressive strength
D. r²/L D. Porosity

19. As per IS 800, rivet diameter for 16 mm 26. Fineness modulus of fine aggregate
thick plate: typically:
A. 12 mm A. 1.0 to 2.0
B. 14 mm B. 2.0 to 3.5
C. 18 mm C. 3.5 to 5.0
D. 20 mm D. 5.0 to 6.0

20. Web buckling in steel beam occurs due 27. The IS code for concrete mix design is:
to: A. IS 456
A. Shear B. IS 269
B. Axial tension C. IS 10262
C. Bending D. IS 383
D. Bearing
28. Initial setting time of OPC should not be B. It has never been subjected to pressure
less than: greater than present pressure
A. 30 min C. It is fully saturated
B. 45 min D. It is dry
C. 60 min 35. Unconfined compression test is
D. 90 min performed on:
A. Gravel
29. Timber used for doors should have B. Sand
minimum density: C. Clay
A. 400 kg/m³ D. Rock
B. 500 kg/m³
C. 600 kg/m³ 36. The most effective method for improving
D. 700 kg/m³ sandy soil:
A. Grouting
30. Most commonly used bricks in India: B. Drainage
A. Class I C. Compaction
B. Class II D. Preloading
C. Class III
D. Class IV 37. Bearing capacity of soil increases with:
A. Decrease in water table depth
31. The specific gravity of soil solids lies B. Increase in depth of foundation
between: C. Reduction in density
A. 1.0 – 1.5 D. Increase in plasticity index
B. 2.0 – 3.0
C. 3.5 – 4.5 38. Active earth pressure is exerted when:
D. 0.8 – 1.8 A. Retaining wall moves away from the soil
B. Retaining wall moves into soil
32. Liquid limit is determined using: C. Wall remains stationary
A. Triaxial test D. Water pressure is high
B. Casagrande apparatus
C. Hydrometer test 39. Skempton’s pore pressure parameter 'A'
D. Proctor test depends on:
A. Type of soil
33. Coefficient of permeability is highest in: B. Type of test
A. Clay C. Temperature
B. Silty clay D. Moisture content
C. Gravel
D. Silt 40. The critical hydraulic gradient is given
by:
34. The soil is called normally consolidated A. (G - 1)/(1 + e)
if: B. (1 + e)/G
A. It has been subjected to pressure less C. (G + 1)/e
than present pressure D. G/(1 + e)
41. One degree equals how many gons B. Compensating error
(grads)? C. Instrumental error
A. 100 D. Observational error
B. 90
C. 1.111 48. Least count of a prismatic compass is:
D. 0.9 A. 0.1°
B. 0.5°
42. The method of plane table surveying C. 15′
where only plotting is done on field: D. 30′
A. Intersection
B. Radiation 49. Parallax error occurs in leveling due to:
C. Traversing A. Improper focusing of objective
D. Resection B. Uneven ground
C. Incorrect centering
43. Theodolite is used for measuring: D. Instrumental error
A. Horizontal angles only
B. Vertical angles only 50. Curvature correction is applied to:
C. Both horizontal and vertical angles A. Plane surveying
D. Level difference only B. Small areas
C. Precise leveling over long distances
44. The RL of BM is 100.00 m and back D. Short sight distances only
sight is 1.65 m. The HI is:
A. 101.65 m 51. The unit of dynamic viscosity is:
B. 98.35 m A. N·s/m²
C. 100.65 m B. N/m²
D. 99.65 m C. m²/s
D. N·m/s
45. Tacheometry is mainly used to
determine: 52. Bernoulli's equation is based on:
A. Distances only A. Energy conservation
B. Angles only B. Momentum
C. Distances and elevations C. Mass
D. Bearings only D. Thermodynamics

46. The horizontal angle measured 53. Flow through a Venturimeter is based
clockwise from north is: on:
A. Bearing A. Conservation of energy
B. Azimuth B. Conservation of mass
C. Deflection C. Momentum
D. Gradient D. Pressure

47. Type of error in chain surveying due to 54. Critical Reynolds number for pipe flow
temperature change is: is:
A. Cumulative error A. 1000
B. 2000 B. Chlorine
C. 3000 C. Alum
D. 5000 D. Copper sulfate

55. Mach number is defined as: 62. BOD is the measure of:
A. Viscous force / inertia force A. Chemical pollution
B. Inertia / gravitational B. Bacterial count
C. Flow velocity / speed of sound C. Oxygen required by bacteria
D. Pressure / velocity D. Chlorine demand

56. The CBR value of subgrade soil in 63. The pH of drinking water should be:
flexible pavements is used to: A. 6.5–8.5
A. Determine modulus B. 4.0–6.0
B. Design slab thickness C. 2.0–4.0
C. Design pavement thickness D. 8.5–10.5
D. Estimate drainage
64. Coliform organisms are tested in water
57. Bitumen is graded based on: to detect:
A. Softening point A. Pathogens
B. Ductility B. Taste
C. Penetration test C. Turbidity
D. Flash point D. Hardness

58. Transition curve used in highways is: 65. The most efficient method of house
A. Spiral drainage is:
B. Parabola A. One-pipe system
C. Circle B. Two-pipe system
D. Ellipse C. Single stack system
D. Partially ventilated one-pipe
59. Sight distance on road is influenced by:
A. Pavement width 66. Activated sludge process is used for:
B. Gradient only A. Primary treatment
C. Reaction time and braking distance B. Secondary treatment
D. Camber C. Tertiary treatment
D. Coagulation
60. The camber on road helps in:
A. Acceleration 67. Most dangerous pollutant in water
B. Drainage causing blue baby syndrome:
C. Traction A. Fluoride
D. Steering B. Nitrate
C. Sulphate
61. The most common coagulant used in D. Chloride
water treatment is:
A. Lime
68. In oxidation pond, the BOD removal
efficiency is: 75. Kor depth refers to:
A. 20–30% A. Full irrigation depth
B. 50–60% B. Minimum water needed
C. 70–90% C. Optimum water depth
D. >95% D. Seasonal irrigation

69. The maximum permissible turbidity in 76. A weir is used to measure:

drinking water is: A. Pressure
A. 1 NTU B. Velocity
B. 5 NTU C. Discharge
C. 10 NTU D. Depth
D. 25 NTU
77. A canal is a:
70. Disinfection of water is done to remove: A. Natural channel
A. Hardness B. Artificial waterway
B. Turbidity C. Drain
C. Pathogens D. Spillway
D. Odour
78. Consumptive use of water includes:
71. The main cause of rainfall is: A. Only evaporation
A. Condensation B. Evaporation and transpiration
B. Transpiration C. Seepage
C. Infiltration D. Return flow
D. Runoff
79. Wilting point is the:
72. The unit hydrograph theory is based on: A. Max water soil can hold
A. Infiltration capacity B. Water at field capacity
B. Constant rainfall C. Water plant cannot extract
C. Linear response D. Gravitational water
D. Constant time base
80. Delta of a crop is expressed in:
73. Duty is defined as: A. m
A. Area irrigated per cumec B. mm
B. Volume of water per area C. m³/s
C. Yield per unit volume D. hectares
D. Flow per hectare
81. The earliest start time of an activity
74. The pan coefficient typically ranges depends on:
from: A. Latest finish of predecessor
A. 0.1–0.2 B. Earliest finish of predecessor
B. 0.3–0.5 C. Duration
C. 0.5–0.8 D. Critical path
D. 0.8–1.2
82. Critical path is the: B. Maximum
A. Shortest duration path C. Negative
B. Longest duration path D. Equal to activity time
C. Minimum slack path
D. Dummy path 90. Free float is always:
A. Greater than total float
83. In PERT, the expected time is: B. Equal to total float
A. (O + M + P)/3 C. Less than or equal to total float
B. (O + 4M + P)/6 D. Negative
C. (O + 3M + 2P)/6
D. (O + 2M + P)/4 91. The unit of measurement for RCC work
is:
84. Slack is defined as: A. m
A. LS – ES B. m²
B. EF – LF C. m³
C. EF – ES D. lump sum
D. LF – EF
92. For earthwork in excavation, the usual
85. Bar chart is also known as: method used is:
A. Network diagram A. Crossing method
B. Milestone chart B. Mid-section method
C. Gantt chart C. Simpson’s rule
D. Float chart D. Prismoidal formula

86. Dummy activity in a network: 93. In estimate, contingency is usually:

A. Consumes time A. 1%
B. Consumes resources B. 2–3%
C. Maintains logic C. 5%
D. Always critical D. 10%

87. Time estimates in PERT are: 94. Plinth area includes:

A. Deterministic A. Basement
B. Probabilistic B. Superstructure only
C. Fixed C. Covered area at floor level
D. Calculated D. Roof only

88. In CPM, time is: 95. Brickwork in foundation is measured in:

A. Flexible A. m
B. Fixed B. m²
C. Optimistic C. m³
D. Statistical D. cm

89. The total float for critical path is: 96. The deduction for a door opening in
A. Zero brick wall is:
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. No deduction

97. Analysis of rates includes:

A. Materials
B. Labour
C. Tools
D. All of these

98. Standard width of a foundation trench

for 1st class brickwork:
A. 30 cm
B. 45 cm
C. 60 cm
D. 75 cm

99. The number of standard bricks in 1 cu.m

brickwork (with mortar):
A. 400
B. 450
C. 500
D. 550

100. The volume of 1 bag of cement is:

A. 0.01 m³
B. 0.025 m³
C. 0.035 m³
D. 0.05 m³

ANSWERS:
1–10: C, A, A, B, B, A, B, C, B, D
11–20: C, C, A, B, B, C, C, A, C, D
21–30: B, A, B, B, B, B, C, A, C, A
31–40: B, B, C, B, C, C, B, A, A, A
41–50: C, C, C, A, C, A, A, D, A, C
51–60: A, A, A, B, C, C, C, A, C, B
61–70: C, C, A, A, A, B, B, C, B, C
71–80: A, C, A, C, B, C, B, B, C, B
81–90: B, B, B, A, C, C, B, B, A, C
91–100: C, B, C, C, C, A, D, C, C, B
REASONING 8. Find the odd one:
A. Eagle
1. ADO : BEP :: CFQ : ? B. Crow
A. DGR C. Parrot
B. DHR D. Bat
C. DEQ
D. DRG 9. Which number is different?
A. 144
2. 25 : 5 :: 49 : ? B. 121
A. 14 C. 169
B. 6 D. 162
C. 7
D. 9 10. Which number is different?
A. 6
3. CUP : LIP :: BIRD : ? B. 9
A. GRASS C. 15
B. BEAK D. 18
C. BUSH
D. FOREST 11. If in a certain code, CAT = XZG, then
DOG = ?
4. Book : Pages :: Wall : ? A. WLT
A. Bricks B. WLT
B. Cement C. WLF
C. Room D. WLX
D. Roof
12. If TABLE = GZOVO, then CHAIR = ?
5. 5, 11, 23, 47, ? A. XSZRI
A. 94 B. XZSRH
B. 95 C. XZSRH
C. 96 D. XSZRH
D. 97
13. If Z = 1, Y = 2, ..., A = 26, then CAT = ?
6. 2, 6, 12, 20, ? A. 24 + 1 + 20
A. 25 B. 3 + 1 + 20
B. 28 C. 26 + 1 + 20
C. 30 D. 3 + 26 + 1
D. 32
14. If 2 + 3 = 13, 3 + 4 = 25, then 4 + 5 = ?
7. Find the odd one: A. 41
A. Pen B. 37
B. Pencil C. 29
C. Eraser D. 27
D. Paper
15. A is the son of B. B is the sister of C. C C. South
is the father of D. How is A related to D? D. North
A. Brother
B. Cousin 21. A person walks 4 km north, then turns
C. Nephew right and walks 3 km, then right again and
D. Son walks 4 km. How far is he from starting
point?
16. X is the father of Y. Y is the brother of Z. A. 3 km
Z is the husband of M. What is M to X? B. 7 km
A. Daughter C. 4 km
B. Daughter-in-law D. 5 km
C. Sister-in-law
D. Wife 22. Statements: All dogs are animals. All
animals are living beings. Conclusions:
17. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a I. All dogs are living beings.
class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is 28th, what is II. All living beings are dogs.
Ravi’s rank? A. Only I
A. 21 B. Only II
B. 22 C. Both
C. 20 D. Neither
D. 23
23. Statements: All chairs are tables. Some
18. Introducing a girl, Raj said, “She is the tables are pens. Conclusions:
wife of the only son of my grandfather.” How I. Some pens are chairs.
is the girl related to Raj? II. Some chairs are pens.
A. Sister A. Only I
B. Sister-in-law B. Only II
C. Aunt C. Neither
D. Mother D. Both

19. Pointing to a man, Reena said, “He is 24. Statements: Some fruits are vegetables.
the son of my father’s only son.” Who is the All vegetables are plants. Conclusions:
man to Reena? I. All fruits are plants.
A. Cousin II. Some fruits are plants.
B. Nephew A. Only II
C. Brother B. Only I
D. Son C. Both
D. None
20. A direction pole is pointing to East. It
turns 90° clockwise, then 180° 25. 8, 13, 18, 23, ?
anti-clockwise. Now which direction is it A. 28
pointing? B. 29
A. West C. 30
B. East D. 31
 D. N
26. If APPLE is coded as ETTPI, how is
MANGO coded? 33. Find next in series: Z, X, V, T, ?
A. ONGBM A. R
B. MGNOB B. Q
C. ONGBN C. S
D. ONGBQ D. P

27. Which number will complete the series: 34. Odd one out:
3, 6, 11, 18, ? A. 2
A. 27 B. 3
B. 25 C. 5
C. 28 D. 9
D. 26
35. Odd one out:
28. Mirror image of ‘PQB’? A. Square
A. bqp B. Triangle
B. dpq C. Rectangle
C. BDQ D. Cube
D. QBP
36. Which one is different?
29. Water image of ‘MEX’? A. Monday
A. XEW B. Friday
B. XEM C. Sunday
C. XʍM D. Saturday
D. MEʍ
37. Series: 2, 4, 8, 16, ?
30. 6, 11, 21, 36, ? A. 24
A. 56 B. 30
B. 57 C. 32
C. 58 D. 36
D. 55
38. Series: 1, 4, 9, 16, ?
31. If * = +, + = –, – = ×, × = ÷, then what is A. 21
10 * 5 + 3 – 2 × 4 = ? B. 25
A. 20 C. 30
B. 16 D. 36
C. 14
D. 12 39. Which letter is 5th to the left of 17th from
the right end in English alphabet?
32. Find missing letter: A, D, G, J, ? A. P
A. K B. O
B. L C. M
C. M D. N
 B. METER
40. If ‘D’ means ‘+’, ‘E’ means ‘–’, ‘F’ means C. TENT
‘×’, ‘G’ means ‘÷’ then: D. DETAINED
15 F 2 G 5 E 3 = ?
A. 3 47. Unscramble: AARHMC
B. 4 A. CHARMA
C. 5 B. MARCHA
D. 6 C. CHAMAR
D. MACHAR
41. Number of triangles in a triangle divided
into 6 parts 48. Which word will appear second in
A. 10 dictionary?
B. 12 A. Strict
C. 9 B. Stretch
D. 8 C. Stream
D. Strain
42. Which cube can’t be made?
A. Given with dot positions 49. If ‘MANGO’ is 13-1-14-7-15, then
B. Tricky visual reverse code is:
C. Three dots adjacent A. 15-7-14-1-13
D. Opposite dots touching B. 13-7-14-1-15
C. 13-1-7-14-15
43. Which figure will come next? D. 13-7-15-14-1
A. Based on rotation
B. Mirror flip 50. Which number is missing:
C. Dot pattern 4, 16, 36, ?, 100
D. Shadow logic A. 48
B. 56
44. Count number of squares in 3x3 grid C. 64
A. 9 D. 72
B. 14
C. 18
D. 20
ANSWERS:
45. How many straight lines in a pentagon 1. B
with diagonals? 2. C
A. 5 3. B
B. 10 4. A
C. 15 5. B
D. 20 6. C
7. D
46. From given options, select word that 8. D
cannot be made from “DETERMINATION” 9. D
A. MIND 10. C
11. B
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. A
18. B
19. C
20. A
21. A
22. A
23. C
24. A
25. A
26. A
27. A
28. D
29. C
30. B
31. D
32. B
33. C
34. D
35. D
36. C
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. A
44. B
45. C
46. D
47. C
48. D
49. A
50. C

GENERAL AWARENESS
1. India’s first glass bridge over the sea was B. Energy efficiency & CGD
opened in: C. Edtech
A. Rameswaram D. Agri-tech
B. Kanyakumari
C. Chennai 8. Kho Kho World Cup 2025 in India was
D. Mahabalipuram scheduled for:
A. Jan 5–10
2. The WAVES 2025 Summit was held at: B. Jan 13–19
A. Pragati Maidan C. Feb 1–7
B. Bharat Mandapam D. Feb 15–21
C. India International Centre
D. Vigyan Bhawan 9. Which metals has **veto power** in
UNSC?
3. Which UPI limit was removed for A. USA, UK, Russia, China, France
WhatsApp Pay in Dec 2024? B. USA, India, Germany, Brazil, Japan
A. Transaction cap C. UK, Canada, Australia, France, Germany
B. User onboarding limit D. China, Russia, Japan, Italy, Spain
C. Merchant limit
D. Daily limit 10. DPDP Rules 2025 implement:
A. Digital Data Protection Act, 2025
4. India surpassed 1 billion tonnes of coal B. Digital Personal Data Protection
production in fiscal 2024‑25 on: Act, 2023
A. March 15, 2025 C. IT Data Protection Act, 2024
B. March 22, 2025 D. Data Security Act, 2023
C. April 1, 2025
D. April 15, 2025 11. Who presented India’s Budget 2024‑25
on July 23, 2024?
5. India’s textile exports FY 2023‑24 rose A. Manmohan Singh
by: B. Arun Jaitley
A. 5% C. Nirmala Sitharaman
B. 7% D. Morarji Desai
C. 10%
D. 12% 12. Standard deduction under new tax
regime in 2024‑25 was:
6. In 2025‑26, BIS launched its Annual A. ₹50,000
Programme for: B. ₹60,000
A. Digital standards only C. ₹75,000
B. New and revised standards D. ₹90,000
C. Only electronic goods
D. Construction safety 13. Economic Survey 2023‑24 projected
GDP growth for 2024‑25 as:
7. BPCL’s 'Emerge' cohort supports startups A. 5‑6%
in: B. 6.5‑7%
A. AI finance C. 7‑8%
D. 4.5‑5% C. Ganga–Bhagirathi–Hooghly
D. East Coast Canal
14. Who tabled the Economic Survey
2023‑24? 21. Who currently holds the position of
A. PM Modi President of India (2025)?
B. FM Sitharaman A. Ram Nath Kovind
C. HM Shah B. Droupadi Murmu
D. President Ram Nath Kovind C. Pranab Mukherjee
D. Narendra Modi
15. Who visited Gujarat in July 2024?
A. King Jigme Singye Wangchuck 22. Which country hosted the 2024 Summer
B. King Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck Olympics?
C. King Jigme Dorji Wangchuck A. USA
D. PM Tshering Tobgay B. France
C. Japan
16. IOC awarded Olympic Order in 2024 to: D. China
A. PV Sindhu
B. Abhinav Bindra 23. India’s GDP growth in 2024–25 was
C. Sachin Tendulkar approximately:
D. Saina Nehwal A. 6.2%
B. 7.8%
17. India’s Haj quota for 2025 was fixed at: C. 5.5%
A. 1.36 lakh D. 4.9%
B. 1.50 lakh
C. 1.75 lakh 24. Which country joined BRICS in 2024?
D. 2 lakh A. UAE
B. Argentina
18. IMD forecast for Southwest Monsoon C. Indonesia
2025: D. Turkey
A. Below normal
B. Normal 25. India’s new AI mission launched under
C. Above normal which scheme?
D. No rainfall A. Atmanirbhar Bharat AI
B. Digital India AI Mission
19. Who is the DG of IMD (as of C. National AI Dev Program
April 2025)? D. Make in India AI
A. Dr. M Ravichandran
B. Dr. Ramesh Chand 26. Who won the Freestyle Chess Grand
C. Dr. Mrutyunjay Mohapatra Slam 2025?
D. Dr. G Satheesh Reddy A. Hikaru Nakamura
B. Fabiano Caruana
20. National Waterway‑1 is the: C. Magnus Carlsen
A. Brahmaputra D. Arjun Erigaisi
B. West Coast Canal
27. Which mountain range separates D. 5 Jan 2025
Europe and Asia?
A. Andes 34. Coal production milestone achieved in:
B. Himalayas A. FY 2023‑24
C. Ural B. FY 2024‑25
D. Rocky Rockies C. FY 2022‑23
D. FY 2025‑26
28. The longest river in the world is:
A. Amazon 35. Textile export increase largely due to:
B. Nile A. PLI and PM‑MITRA
C. Yangtze B. Customs reductions
D. Mississippi C. GST benefits
D. Subsidies
29. The smallest continent by area is:
A. Europe 36. BIS digital interface allows:
B. Antarctica A. Uploading proposals
C. Australia B. Trading standards
D. South America C. International compliance
D. Lab accreditation
30. Which commodity tariff was reduced in
Budget 2024? 37. BPCL’s Ankur Fund to date funded how
A. Food grains many startups?
B. Custom duties A. 20
C. Petrol B. 30
D. Steel C. 40
D. 50
31. IMD’s key forecast term includes:
A. Above normal rainfall 38. WV Summit WAVES 2025 focus on:
B. Frequent cyclones A. Clean energy
C. Heatwave B. Audiovisual entertainment
D. Cold wave C. Digital governance
D. Climate change
32. Glass bridge was inaugurated on 30
Dec 2024 by: 39. Kho Kho WC 2025 will be the inaugural
A. CM of TN edition?
B. PM Modi A. Yes
C. President B. No
D. VC of TN C. Cancelled
D. Postponed
33. WhatsApp Pay user limit was removed
on: 40. The permanent UNSC members veto
A. 30 Dec 2024 power started in:
B. 1 Jan 2025 A. 1945
C. 31 Dec 2024 B. 1950
C. 1960 47. Standard deduction increased by
D. 1970 Budget 2024 to:
A. ₹50k → ₹60k
41. IMD DG Mrutyunjay Mohapatra B. ₹50k → ₹75k
predicted: C. ₹60k → ₹75k
A. El Niño-neutral D. ₹60k → ₹90k
B. El Niño
C. La Niña 48. Above‑normal monsoon forecast issued
D. Heatwave by IMD in:
A. April 2025
42. Ganga Waterway NW-1 saw record B. May 2025
cargo in FY 2024‑25 of: C. June 2025
A. 100 MT D. July 2025
B. 145.5 MT
C. 200 MT 49. The glass bridge spans near:
D. 250 MT A. Promenade
B. Lighthouse
43. Digital Personal Data Protection Act C. Cape Comorin
passed in: D. Temple
A. 2021
B. 2023 50. DPDP Rules aim to protect:
C. 2024 A. Personal data
D. 2025 B. Industrial data
C. Government data
44. Economic Survey 2023‑24 was tabled D. Financial data
in:
A. April 2024 ANSWERS:
B. July 2024 1. B
C. Jan 2025 2. B
D. March 2025 3. B
4. B
45. King of Bhutan visited India in July 2024; 5. B
he is: 6. B
A. Jigme Singye 7. B
B. Jigme Dorji 8. B
C. Jigme Khesar Namgyel 9. A
D. Tshering Tobgay 10. B
11. C
46. Abhinav Bindra won his Olympic gold in: 12. C
A. 2004 13. B
B. 2008 14. B
C. 2012 15. B
D. 2016 16. B
17. C
18. C
19. C
20. C
21. B
22. B
23. B
24. B
25. B
26. C
27. C
28. B
29. C
30. B
31. A
32. A
33. C
34. B
35. A
36. A
37. B
38. B
39. A
40. A
41. A
42. B
43. B
44. A
45. C
46. B
47. B
48. C
49. C
50. A