Professional Engineers Registration Examination

PRACTICE
of
Professional
Engineering
Examination
2025

professional engineers board Singapore

52 Jurong Gateway Road #07-03 Singapore 608550
024
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Professional Engineers Registration Examination

Practice of Professional Engineering Examination 2025
Information for Applicants

Contents Page

1 Introduction.......................................................................................... 2
2 Description of Examination .................................................................... 2
3 Eligibility to Sit for Examination .............................................................. 2
4 Fees ..................................................................................................... 3
5 Date of Examination .............................................................................. 3
6 Venue .................................................................................................. 3
7 Application ........................................................................................... 3
8 Structure of Examination ....................................................................... 4
9 Passing Requirements Final Results and Notification................................ 4
10 Examinations Appeals……………………………………………………………………….. 5
11 Review Courses …………………………………………………..………..5
12 Refund of Fees ……………………………………………………………..5
13 Request for Accommodation ………………………………………………………………5

Annex A: FORMAT, SYLLABUS AND SAMPLE QUESTIONS

I Practice of Professional Engineering Examination - Part 1 (Common)………….6
II Practice of Professional Engineering Examination - Part 2 (Civil) ................ 14
III Practice of Professional Engineering Examination - Part 2 (Electrical) ......... 34
IV Practice of Professional Engineering Examination - Part 2 (Mechanical) ...... 49
V Practice of Professional Engineering Examination – Part 2 (Chemical)…..….. 66

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Professional Engineers Registration Examination

Practice of Professional Engineering Examination 2025
Information for Applicants

1 INTRODUCTION

The mission of the Professional Engineers Board is to safeguard life, property, and
welfare of the public by setting and maintaining high standards for registering
professional engineers and by regulating and advancing the practice of professional
engineering.

The Professional Engineers Board registers professional engineers in the branches of

civil, electrical, mechanical and chemical engineering. A person applying for
registration as a professional engineer to the Professional Engineers Board is required
to hold an approved degree or qualification listed in the Professional Engineers
(Approved Qualifications) Notification and acquired not less than 4 years of relevant
practical experience. He is also required to sit and pass examinations prescribed by
the Board. In addition, the applicant is required to attend an interview.

The following sections set out the requirements and details for the Practice of
Professional Engineering Examination 2025 while details on other application
requirements are available on the PEB website at www.peb.gov.sg.

2 DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION

The Practice of Professional Engineering Examination tests the applicant’s ability to

apply his knowledge and experience in professional engineering practice, and his
knowledge of the rules and regulations regulating the practice of professional
engineering in civil, electrical, mechanical or chemical engineering.

3 ELIGIBILITY TO SIT FOR EXAMINATION

A person may apply to sit for the Practice of Professional Engineering Examination
after he has-

(a) obtained not less than 2 years 6 months of practical experience in

engineering work relevant to the branch of engineering that he seeks to
be registered in; and

(b) sat for and passed the Fundamentals of Engineering Examination.

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4 FEES

The fee for an application to sit for the Practice of Professional Engineering
Examination is $450.

5 DATE OF EXAMINATION

The dates for the Practice of Professional of Engineering Examination 2025 are:

a) Chemical Engineering – 10 September 2025

b) Civil Engineering – 10 September 2025
c) Electrical Engineering – 10 September 2025
d) Mechanical Engineering – 10 September 2025

6 VENUE

The venue would be determined by PEB and successful applicants would be informed
of the details of the venue.

7 APPLICATION

Application and payment shall be made online at PEB’s website by 20 June 2025. Refer
to the Application Guide for submission of application. Applicants are advised to send
in their applications early to allow time for processing.

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8 STRUCTURE OF EXAMINATION

A summary of the structure of the Practice of Professional Engineering Examination

2025 is shown in the table below. The examination is ‘open book’ and further details
are given in Annex A: Format, Syllabus and Sample Questions.

Subjects Time Allocated Format

• Answer 10 compulsory
Multiple Choice
PPE Part 1
2 hours 10 mins Questions
Common paper
• Answer 3 out of 5 essay
questions

PPE Part 2
• Answer 1 compulsory
Civil/mechanical/
4 hours 10 mins question plus 4 out of 7
electrical/chemical
questions
engineering

(Note: For PPE 2025 Part 2 Civil, only answers based on Eurocodes will be accepted.
Answers based on Singapore/British Standards will not be accepted.)

9 PASSING REQUIREMENTS, FINAL RESULTS AND NOTIFICATION

(a) A candidate is required to take both Parts 1 and 2 when he sits for the
examination unless he qualifies for an exemption as described in (b)
below. Examination results will be given to candidates on a Pass/Fail
basis and no scores or marks will be given to candidates. To obtain a
‘Pass’ in the examination, a candidate is required to obtain a pass score
in both Parts 1 and 2 respectively.

(b) A candidate who has taken both parts when he sits for the examination
and obtains a pass score in only one of the two parts is deemed to have
failed the examination. However, if he sits for the examination again, he
would be granted an exemption from the part for which he has obtained
a pass score. This exemption shall be granted provided the candidate
sits for the examination again within a 3-year period from the date of
result. With the exemption, he would only need to take the part of the
examination for which he did not obtain a pass score. No exemption shall
be granted if he sits for the examination again after the exemption
period, in which case he is required to take both Parts 1 and 2.

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(c) Examination results will be mailed to the candidates around mid-

December 2025.

10 EXAMINATION APPEALS

A candidate who has failed the examination may submit a written appeal in hard copy
to request a review of his/her performance. The appeal is to be received by PEB within
2 weeks after the date of results notification letter and late appeals would not
be considered. The result of the appeal/review will be sent by written mail to the
appeal candidate. The appeal candidate would not be able to review his examination
paper.

11 REVIEW COURSES

The Board does not endorse any review course or material provided as study aids.

12 NO REFUND OF FEES FOR ACCEPTED CANDIDATES

The application fee for the examination is non-refundable for candidates who have
been accepted to sit for the examination.

13 REQUEST FOR ACCOMODATION

A candidate who has disabilities may submit a written request for accommodation.
The request is to be received by PEB not later than 6 weeks before the date of
examination and late request would not be considered. PEB’s decision will be
conveyed to the applicant by written mail not later than one week before the
examination date.

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Annex A: FORMAT, SYLLABUS AND SAMPLE QUESTIONS

I Practice of Professional Engineering Examination Part 1

(Common)

Professional conduct and ethics are important areas because most of the
disciplinary actions taken by the Professional Engineers Board are in the area of
ethics and not technical matters. Professionalism and ethics are closely related
and inseparably bound as professional status and recognition are based on public
interest. A professional engineer’s judgment and decisions can have great impact
on public health and safety. He is expected to uphold the dignity, standing and
reputation of the profession. He shall practise ethically in relation to his clients,
employers, fellow professionals and the public at large.

Format

This is a common paper which has two sections on the Professional Engineers
Act and Professional Conduct and Ethics. The paper comprises 10 multiple choice
questions (MCQs) and 5 essay type questions based on hypothetical case studies.
The candidates must answer all the 10 compulsory MCQs (25 marks) and can
choose to answer any 3 out of the 5 essay questions (75 marks) during the 2
hours 10 mins examination period.

Syllabus

The paper will focus on the latest revisions of the following Professional Engineers
Act and Rules:

- Professional Engineers Act

- Professional Engineers (Code of Professional Conduct and Ethics) Rules

- Professional Engineers Rules

References will also be made to past disciplinary actions taken by the Professional
Engineers Board arising from complaints against professional engineers.

Questions will be set to test the candidates’ understanding and interpretation of

the provisions in the act and rules as well as how they will tackle hypothetical
cases involving the clients, the employers, fellow professionals and the public at
large.

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Sample Questions From Past Year Papers for Practice of Professional

Engineering Examination Part 1 (Common)

Section A - Answer 10 Multiple Choice Questions – each at 2.5 marks

(COMPULSORY)

1 Under what circumstances shall a professional engineer advise the client

to engage the services of experts and specialists?

(a) The professional engineer shall give the advice when in his opinion
and judgment such services are in the interest of his client.
(b) The professional engineer shall give the advice when he feels such
services will pass the responsibility to others.
(c) The professional engineer shall give the advice when he can indirectly
benefit from the appointment of experts and specialists.
(d) The professional engineer shall give the advice when he considers
that in doing so the cost input of his company will be reduced.

2 A professional engineer may publicise his practice. However, in doing so,

the professional engineer shall ensure that the publicity —

(a) contains information that is related to all the projects undertaken by

him or his company but without the consent of the clients.
(b) contains only information beneficial to his business even though it is
likely to diminish public confidence in the engineering profession or
to otherwise bring the profession into disrepute.
(c) contains only justifiable claims to expertise or specialization; makes
no reference to past project information which constitutes a breach
of confidentiality to the client; and does not compare or criticise the
quality of services provided by any other professional engineer or
allied professional.
(d) contains information with material facts even if it may create an
unjustified expectation about the results that can be achieved by him.

3 Engineer A provides design, plans and specifications for a commercial

building to Developer P who submits them to the authority for approval
but fails to pay Engineer A for the work performed. Thereafter, Developer
P asks Engineer B to review, endorse and resubmit the plans to the
authority for approval. Shall Engineer B agree to undertake the project?

(a) Engineer B shall not agree to undertake the project as he has an

ethical obligation to recognise and give credit to the creative works
of other engineers.
(b) Engineer B shall agree to undertake the project as long as Engineer
A does not complain.
(c) Engineer B shall agree to undertake the project as Engineer A does
not know.

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(d) Engineer B shall agree to undertake the project as he is employed by

the Developer.

4 Engineer C comes from overseas and is not a registered professional

engineer in Singapore. If he uses the abbreviation “Er.” or “Engr” as a title
before his name in Singapore, he is guilty of an offence and will be liable
on conviction to —

(a) a fine not exceeding $2,000 and, in the case of a second or

subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding $5,000.
(b) a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not
exceeding 6 months or to both.
(c) a fine not exceeding $5,000 and, in the case of a second or
subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
(d) a fine not exceeding $10,000 and, in the case of a second or
subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding $20,000.

5 Engineer D is a Professional Engineer specialising in structural engineering

design and has just inherited a plot of land from his uncle. He plans to
build 6 units of terrace houses on the plot of land and engages an architect
to proceed with the design. He intends to play the role of structural
engineer himself. Is it in order for Engineer D to provide structural design
for his own housing project?

(a) It is in order for Engineer D to provide structural design for the

project since he is a qualified structural PE.
(b) It is in order for Engineer D to provide structural design for the
project since he can save cost.
(c) It is not in order for Engineer D to provide structural design for the
project since other structural engineers will be deprived a chance to
get involved.
(d) It is not in order for Engineer D to provide structural design for the
project since he is acting as a housing developer as well.

6 Which one of the following categories of engineer is not permitted to

supply or offer to supply professional engineering services in Singapore?

(a) A registered professional engineer who has in force a practising

certificate authorising him to engage in such profession engineering
work.

(b) An engineer under the direction or supervision of a registered

professional engineer who has in force a practising certificate.

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(c) An engineer authorised by the Professional Engineers Board to work

in collaboration with a registered professional engineer who has in
force a practising certificate.

(d) Just any registered professional engineer.

7 When the Investigation Committee appointed by the PE Board to

investigate a complaint against a registered professional engineer finds
that the complaint to be valid, it shall report its findings to the Board and
recommend to the Board to order that a formal inquiry be held by a
Disciplinary Committee. Under the provisions of the Professional Engineers
Act, the Disciplinary Committee shall consist of —

(a) 3 registered professional engineers with at least 10 years’ standing

who are not the chairman or member of the Investigation Committee
and at least 2 shall be members of the Board.

(b) 5 registered professional engineers with at least 15 years’ standing

who are not the chairman or member of the Investigation Committee
and at least 2 shall be members of the Board.

(c) 5 registered professional engineers with at least 10 years’ standing

who are not the chairman or member of the Investigation Committee
and at least 3 shall be members of the Board.

(d) 3 registered professional engineers with at least 15 years’ standing

who are not the chairman or members of the Investigation
Committee and at least 2 shall be members of the Board.

8 A professional engineer whose application for registration as a specialist

professional engineer has been refused by the PE Board may appeal to the
Minister within —

(a) 60 days after being notified of such refusal.

(b) 30 days after being notified of such refusal.

(c) 20 days after being notified of such refusal.

(d) 50 days after being notified of such refusal.

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9 Under the Professional Engineers Act, every registered professional

engineer who has in force a practising certificate on the day of election of
candidates as members of the Professional Engineers Board must vote for
the election of such members at such time and in such manner as
prescribed by the Board. Any PE who fails to do so shall face the penalty
of

(a) not entitled to apply for a practising certificate unless he has good
reason for not voting or pay a fine of $3,000.

(b) not entitled to apply for a practising certificate unless he has good
reason for not voting or pay a fine of $300.

(c) not entitled to apply for a practising certificate for one year and pay
a fine of $300.

(d) not entitled to apply for a practising certificate for one year.

10 Engineer F, who performed an environmental impact study on a new

project for Developer Q, utilised some of the same raw data earlier
developed and owned by him for Contractor P at a nearby location. The
conclusion of the environmental impact study was essentially the same in
both studies. Engineer F billed Developer Q for a complete study but did
not inform Developer Q the use of raw data developed for another client
and that he invoiced Contractor P for the complete study. Was it ethical
for Engineer F to charge Developer Q for the complete environmental
impact study and was it ethical for him not to disclose the use of raw data
developed for another client?

(a) It was unethical for Engineer F to charge Developer Q for the

complete environmental impact study and it was unethical for him
not to disclose the use of raw data developed for another client.

(b) It was ethical for Engineer F to charge Developer Q for the complete
environmental impact study and it was ethical for him not to disclose
the use of raw data developed for another client.

(c) It was ethical for Engineer F to charge Developer Q for the complete
environmental impact study and it was unethical for him not to
disclose the use of raw data developed for another client.

(d) It was unethical for Engineer F to charge Developer Q for the

complete environmental impact study and it was ethical for him not
to disclose the use of raw data developed for another client.

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Section B - Answer 3 Out Of 5 Essay Questions (each at 25 marks)

Question 1

Engineer A, on behalf of the engineering firm of which he is a principal, submitted

a statement of qualifications to a developer for a mega project.

In due course he was notified that his firm was on the "short list" for consideration
along with several other firms, but it was indicated to him that his firm did not
appear to have qualifications in some specialised aspects of the requirements,
and that it might be advisable for the firm to consider a joint venture with another
firm with such capabilities.

Engineer A thereupon contacted Engineer B, a principal of a firm with the

background required for the specialised requirements, and inquired if Engineer
B’s firm would be interested in a joint venture if Engineer A was awarded the job.
Engineer B’s firm responded in the affirmative.

Thereafter, Engineer C, a principal in a firm which was also on the "short list,"
contacted Engineer B and indicated the same requirement for a joint venture for
specialised services, and also asked if B’s firm would be willing to engage in a
joint venture if the C’s firm was selected for the assignment. Engineer B also
responded in the affirmative to Engineer C but did not notify Engineer A of his
response to Engineer C.

Is it ethical for Engineer B to agree to participate in a joint venture arrangement

with more than one of the several since he did not make a full disclosure to all of
the firms?

Discuss the issues and comment on Engineer B‘s conduct with reference to
relevant sections of the Professional Conduct and Ethics rules where applicable.

Question 2

Engineer A was retained by an architect to provide mechanical engineering

services in connection with the design of an office building. Engineer A performed
his services and thereafter a dispute arose between Engineer A and the architect
as to Engineer A's compensation for his services. The issue was never resolved.

Several months later, the owner, who retained the architect on the project,
requested that Engineer A provide him with a copy of the air-conditioning
drawings in order to perform certain work on the building project which did not
involve issues of safety or health. The owner offered to pay Engineer A the cost
of reproduction and any administrative staff costs and to mediate the dispute
between Engineer A and the architect. Engineer A refused to provide the owner
with a copy of the drawings and declined owner's offer to mediate the dispute.

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Was it ethical for Engineer A to refuse to provide the owner with a copy of the
drawings and to decline owner's offer to mediate the dispute between Engineer
A and the architect?

Discuss the issues and comment on Engineer A’s conduct with reference to
relevant sections of the Professional Conduct and Ethics rules where applicable.

Question 3

Engineer A was employed by an transportation agency to supervise and inspect

the signals and communication systems of a public transportation system. The
systems were supplied and installed by Company B under a design-and-build
contract. Close to the completion of the project, in one of his site inspection
rounds, Engineer A discovered that part of the signals cables installed were
undersized, untidy and would likely lead to failure in the train signals.

He called for a meeting with the agency’s management and Company B’s
representatives. The representatives disputed Engineer A’s claim and argued that
as the systems were part of a design-and-build package, Engineer A did not have
the right to question what Company B did. Engineer A considered that following
the discussions at the meeting initiated by him, he had fulfilled his duties in
informing the agency’s management and Company B’s representatives even
though his opinions were ignored. He then left the matter as it was and took no
further follow-up actions.

Discuss the issues and comment on Engineer A’s conduct with reference to
relevant sections of the Professional Conduct and Ethics rules where applicable.

Question 4

Code of Professional Conduct and Ethics - Part I

2.- (5) A professional engineer shall —

(a) exercise due restraint in criticising the work of another professional

engineer; and
(b) not maliciously or recklessly injure or attempt to injure, directly or
indirectly, the professional reputation, prospects or business of another
professional engineer.

Explain how a professional engineer can exercise restraint in criticising the work
of another professional engineer when he is supporting a contractor in a tender
bid and proposing an alternative to a design that is already completed and issued
by the other professional engineer as part of the tender documents. Please give
at least 4 unique points.

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When there is an incident, reporters will approach professional engineers to

comment on the incident. Highlight the clause in the Code of Professional
Conduct and Ethics which these professional engineers should be aware of, when
they are not aware of the full facts of the incident.

How then can the professional engineer who was approached provide comments
without contravening the above clause. Please give at least 3 unique points.

Question 5

A newly registered professional engineer, Engineer A, currently under

employment of a large consulting engineering firm has intention to set up a firm
to engage in professional engineering works and provide professional engineering
services for submission to public authorities for the purpose of obtaining permit
/ license / approval. To have a head start while in his current salaried position,
Engineer A’s strategy is to publicise his service offer to his current firm’s business
associates for a much lower service fee as his initial startup overhead cost is
much lower than his current firm. To further broaden his reach, he also offers to
pay his current firm’s business associates introduction fees if they help to canvass
for jobs on his behalf.

Discuss the issues, comment on Engineer A’s conduct, explore any alternate ways
Engineer A can consider for his start-up business with reference to relevant
applicable sections of the Code of Professional Conduct and Ethics.

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II Practice of Professional Engineering Examination Part 2 (Civil)

The paper aims to examine the candidates on their proficiency in the practice of
civil/structural engineering at a professional level. Candidates are expected to
have a good working knowledge and experience of civil/structural engineering
design and practices in Singapore. In particular knowledge is required in the areas
of regulatory framework, submission and approval procedures, statutory acts and
regulations, practices guidelines and codes of practice.

The examination will place emphasis on the Professional Engineer’s role in building
projects in the local context either acting as the Qualified Person for the project
or Professional Engineer for the civil and structural engineering works.

Format

This is a 4 hours 10 mins paper and a candidate is required to answer 1

compulsory question covering the design of concrete and steel structures and
choose 4 out of 7 questions covering areas of design, codes of practice, acts and
regulations, submission/approval procedures & site supervision. The candidates
may bring along their own reference materials and calculators as necessary.

(Note: For PPE 2025 Part 2 Civil, only answers based on Eurocodes will be
accepted. Answers based on Singapore/British Standards will not be accepted.)

Syllabus

The list of reference literature, codes, acts, regulations, etc., appended below is
meant as a guide and is not exhaustive. The latest Acts and Regulations,
Publications and Civil Engineering Codes /Standards will apply.

• Acts and Regulations

▪ Professional Engineers Act and Regulations

▪ Building Control Act and Regulations

• Publications

▪ SCDF
- Code of Practice for Fire Precautions in Buildings
- Handbook on Fire Precautions in Buildings
- FSSD Fire Safety Handbooks

▪ LTA
- Guidelines & Publications on Rapid Transit Systems
- Building Works & Restricted Activities in Railway Protection Zone
- Street Proposals
- Vehicle Parking

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- Other Guidelines and Standards

▪ NEA
- Code of Practice on Environmental Health
- Code of Practice on Pollution Control

▪ PUB
- Code of Practice on Surface Water Drainage
- Standard Specifications for Drainage Works
- Code of Practice on Sewerage and Sanitary Works
- Sewerage and Drainage Standard Drawings

▪ NParks
- Procedures and Guidelines for Plan Submissions

▪ MOM
- Workplace Safety & Health Act and Subsidiary Legislations

▪ BCA
- Guidelines and Handbooks on Civil Defence Shelters
- Code of Practice on Buildable Design

▪ Civil Engineering Codes/Standards

- Codes and Standards under Building Control Act and Regulations
- Codes and Standards for Roads and Transit Systems to LTA's
Requirements

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Sample Questions From Past Year Papers for Practice of Professional

Engineering Examination Part 2 (Civil)

Section 1- Question 1 (20 marks) is COMPULSORY

Question 1

A segment of a long pipe rack system is shown in Figure Q1-1. The main
structural system comprises portal frames spaced at 6m centre to centre with
intermediate pipe support at 3m centre-to-centre and connected with two tie
beams. The structural steel beams that support the eight (8) numbers of 8-inch
water pipes are spaced at minimum 150mm edge-to-edge. The 8-inch diameter
water pipes have a loading of 1.45kN/m run when the pipe rack system is in
operation. The frictional force at frame is 15% of the pipe load and the pipes will
be operated under an anchor force of 5 kN/m2 at stressed condition at frame
only. The maintenance load is 0.75 kN/m2 .

The arrangement of pipe rack system with dimensions is shown in Figure Q1-1.
The section of the pipe supporting beams are UB203×165×36 kg/m and columns
UC203×203×60 kg/m of 5m height. The columns are pin connected via
baseplates to pile caps. The main pipe supporting beams are welded to the
column. The intermediate pipe supporting beams are pin-connected to the tie
beams. The specification states that the pipe rack system shall be designed to
cater for any configurations in the use of the pipes during operation, testing and
maintenance periods. All steel sections are grade 355 N/mm2. Steel section
properties are provided in Annex.

a) Sketch the ultimate bending moment diagram of the portal frame under
operation loading, both in vertical and horizontal action separately.

(2 marks)

b) Calculate the value of sway imperfection due to the combination of vertical

action only and determine if the global imperfection is required to be
considered in the design.
(6 marks)

c) Check using conservative method for general use, the adequacy of the
intermediate beam supporting the water pipes to SS EN 1993 considering the
most critical vertical load combination when the pipes are in operation.

(12 marks)

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Question 1 (Cont’d)

3m
Intermediate
support beam

5m

8” water pipe

column

6m

Figure Q1-1

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Section 2 – Answer 4 Out Of 7 Questions (each at 20 marks)

Question 2

The existing ground condition at a site that was reclaimed many years ago is
shown in Figure Q2-1. The water table is 4m below the ground surface. The
marine clay is fully consolidated.

4m

8m Sand Fill
 = 18kN/m3

Marine Clay
10m
 = 16kN/m3

20m ‘A’

Old Alluvium
SPT N 25
Figure Q2-1

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Question 2 (Cont’d)

(a) Estimate the total stress, pore-water pressure, effective stress and
undrained shear strength at Point ‘A’ of the marine clay.
(4 marks)

(b) There is a proposal to lower the ground level by 2m for a new development.
Estimate the pore-water pressure and undrained shear strength at Point ‘A’
for the following conditions:

(i) immediately after the lowering of the ground level, and

(ii) in the long-term.

(4 marks)

(c) Due to threats of climate change, the proposal in (b) is aborted. The new
proposal is to raise the existing ground level with 2m of fill. The density of
the fill material is 18 kN/m3. Estimate the pore-water pressure and
undrained shear strength at Point ‘A’ for the following conditions:

(i) immediately after raising the ground level, and

(ii) in the long-term.

(4 marks)

Note: You may assume one-dimensional consolidation theory. The proposed

lowering and raising of the ground level in (b) and (c) are instantaneous.

A braced excavation was carried out at another site. The typical section of the
excavation is illustrated in Figure Q2-2. The marine clay is normally consolidated.
A water standpipe is installed into the dense sand layer next to the excavation.
The water level in the standpipe is shown in Figure Q2-2.

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Question 2 (Cont’d)

Figure Q2-2

(d) Estimate the water pressures acting on both sides of the retaining wall
(earth and excavation faces). Illustrate your answer by plotting the water
pressure diagrams with values on both sides of the retaining wall.
(5 marks)

(e) Compute the effective stress at Point ‘B’ of the Marine Clay. Comment on
your answer.
(3 marks)

You may assume steady-state flow condition in your calculations for (d) and (e).

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Question 3

a) A building has tilted over time, as it sits on an uneven layer of thick marine
clay below the ground surface as shown in Figure Q3-1. The tilt is currently
slightly in excess of 1:200.

i) Do you think the building is structurally safe? Substantiate your answer

with assumption, if any.
(2 marks)

ii) What are the criteria and measures taken to determine whether the
building is structurally safe or unsafe?
(2 marks)

iii) If your study has shown the building is not safe, suggest engineering
solutions to make it safe.
(3 marks)

Figure Q3-1

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Question 3 (Cont’d)

(b) The 2nd storey floor slabs of an 8 storey steel building linked to the lift and
staircase RC wall is to be removed for more headroom (See Figure Q3-2).

How will the removal of dead load affect the existing building? Does it
make the building safer?
(8 marks)

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Question 3 (Cont’d)

Figure Q3-2

(c) In Singapore’s changing landscape, the introduction of complex building is

not unexpected. BCA has revised criteria for early pre-consultation of
structural concept for complex buildings. The intent is to ensure the
structural robustness of complex buildings, where specific considerations
need to be given to the design and construction of such complex buildings.
In this context, what is deemed to be a complex building?
(5 marks)

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Question 4

You have been appointed as the engineer for Project Alpha, a re-development
project whereby the existing entrance is to be retained. Refer to Figure Q4-1.
The site area is 2,363m2. The various catchments are shown in Table Q4-1.

Table Q4-1

Catchment Area
(m2)
Planting strip
(through 200
ground)
Ramp to 82.5
carpark
All other areas 2,080.5
(paved)

(a) Calculate the peak runoff for the development at discharge to the roadside
drain using Rational Formula (with a weighted runoff coefficient) based on
Code of Practice guidelines. Time of concentration is 60 min for a return
period of 10 years. Round up to the nearest whole number in m3/hr.

(5 marks)

(b) Does the development meet the maximum allowable peak runoff based on
Code of Practice?
(2 marks)

(c) Compute the maximum allowable peak runoff at discharge to roadside drain
based on the Code of Practice. Round up to the nearest whole number in
m3/hr.
(3 marks)

(d) The roadside drain is a box culvert. The clear dimensions of the box culvert
are 1.070m depth by 1.5m wide with a gradient of 1:300. Using Manning’s
equation, does the culvert satisfy the peak runoff computed in Part (a)?

(5 marks)

(e) Sketch the longitudinal section of the box culvert from Chainage 1450 to
1468 with details according to PUB submission standard.
(5 marks)

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Question 4 (Cont’d)

Figure Q4-1

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Question 4 (Cont’d)

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Question 5

Figure Q5-1 illustrates the details of an interior span in a continuous slab design.
In the serviceability limit state, the maximum bending moments under gravity
loads at the supports and mid-span from the analysis are tabulated.

ne way slab (300thk)

Span

Support Support

Mid span

Bending Moment Envelope

Dead oad 100 75

Imposed oad 0 30

igure Q2Q5-1
Figure 1

(a) Determine the steel reinforcement required to resist the bending moment
at the support for the ultimate limit state. The slab is 300 mm thick. The
concrete grade is C32/40 and the cover to the centroid of the steel
reinforcement is 50 mm. Yield strength of steel reinforcement is 500 N/mm2.

(3 marks)

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Question 5 (Cont’d)

(b) Based on the answers in (a), it is decided that the continuous slab will be
post-tensioned. List four (4) benefits of post-tensioning.
(2 marks)

(c) Determine the effective prestress force required to balance 75% of the
bending moment at the support due to dead load only. The centroid of the
tendons is 40 mm from the top of the slab.
(3 marks)

(d) Nominal 12.7 mm diameter strands with a cross sectional area of 100 mm2
is proposed for the tendons. The yield stress of the strand is 1860 N/mm 2.
If the initial prestressing force is 75% of the breaking load and with a long-
term prestress loss of 20%, propose a tendon configuration for the slab
based on your design in (c). Assume there are 5 strands in one tendon.

(3 marks)

(e) With the tendon configuration proposed in (d), determine the eccentricity
of the tendons required at the mid-span to balance 75% of the bending
moment due to dead load. Calculate the resulting ultimate bending moment
capacity at mid-span and comment on the answer.
(4 marks)

(f) There are some doubts over the tendon stressing records for a localised bay
of slab after construction. Explain with reasons the implications if the
tendons are not stressed to the specified forces? How would you verify the
performance of the as-built slab condition?
(3 marks)

(g) If one of the strands broke during stressing, propose an immediate remedial
measure that can be taken on site to mitigate the situation before the ducts
are grouted. The broken strand is blocked and is not replaceable.

(2 marks)

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Question 6

Referring to a PPVC concrete module of approximately 40 ton as shown in figure

Q6a & Q6b.

(a) Propose the number of lifting points required and indicate the proposed
location of the lifting points.
(3 marks)

(b) Provide a sketch of the proposed type of lifting points and its anchorage
details.
(3 marks)

(c) Provide calculation of the forces on each lifting point for the module and the
safety factor required for the lifting point.
(5 marks)

(d) Describe the considerations and give a sketch of the proposed lifting frame
used and how to ensure the lateral stability of the module during lifting.

(5 marks)

(e) Describe in detail how to ensure the vertical and horizontal alignment of the
modules during installation.
(4 marks)

Figure Q6a 3D View of PPVC module

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Question 6 (Cont’d)

Figure Q6b Plan View of PPVC Module

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Question 7

You are appointed as the engineer for the Infrastructure Work by the Land
Transport Authority, LTA. The scope of work involves building a cantilever linkway
connecting to the existing bus stop and an overhead pedestrian bridge.

(a) The preferred alignment has been determined as shown by the ‘green’ line
in Figure Q7-1. The Work falls within the road reserve. Write a report to the
Client, advising on the feasibility of the preferred alignment of the proposed
linkway based on the site condition. The 1.8m Reinforced Concrete U-Drain
(RCU), Telco manhole and 900mm NEWater pipe are existing services.

(5 marks)

(b) Assuming the final accepted alignment by all agencies has been refined and
as shown in Figure Q7-2.

Sketch a typical section of the linkway at Section A-A, reflecting the linkway
structure clear height and width as per LTA Architectural Requirement, the
existing RCU, NEWater pipe and the Telco manhole.

Asbuilt information on RCU:

Depth, 1500mm
Top slab thickness, 150mm
Wall thickness, 150mm
(5 marks)

(c) Based on the accepted alignment, the linkway is supported on the existing
1.8m RCU.

i) Sketch the bending moment and shear force diagrams at the base of
the linkway column due to vertical action.
(2 marks)

ii) Draw the forces that you will consider in order to check the stability of
the structure.
(3 marks)

(d) List the procedure and requirement to seek approval from PUB on works
near the NEWater pipe.
(5 marks)

Question 7 (Cont’d)

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Figure Q7-1
Scale: NTS
Question 7 (Cont’d)

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Figure Q7-2
Scale: NTS

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III Practice of Professional Engineering Examination Part 2

(Electrical)

The paper aims to examine the candidates on their proficiency in the practice of
electrical engineering at a professional level. Candidates are expected to have a
good working knowledge and experience of electrical engineering design and
practices in Singapore. In particular knowledge is required in the areas of
regulatory framework, submission and approval procedures, statutory acts and
regulations, practices guidelines and codes of practice.

The examination will place emphasis on the Professional Engineer’s role in building
projects in the local context in relation to electrical engineering works.

Format

This is a 4 hours 10 mins paper that examines candidates on technical

competency and understanding of standards and codes that are applicable in
Singapore for the discipline of electrical engineering.

The paper consists of 2 Sections and 8 questions. Candidates must answer

questions in both sections (Section 1 and Section 2). Section 1 consists of a
compulsory question on SS 638, statutory acts and regulations. Candidate is
required to answer this compulsory question. Section 2 consists of 7 questions.
Candidates shall choose to answer 4 out of 7 questions. The latest Acts and
Regulations, Publications and Engineering Codes /Standards will apply.

Syllabus

• Codes of Practice

▪ SS 638: Code of practice for electrical installations

▪ SS 626: Code of practice for design, installation and maintenance

of escalators and moving walks

▪ SS 650 - 1 : Code of practice for temporary electrical installations -

Construction and building sites

▪ SS 650 - 2 : Code of practice for temporary electrical installations -

Festive lighting, trade-fairs, mini-fairs and exhibition sites

▪ CP 88 - 3 : Code of practice for temporary electrical installations -

Shipbuilding and ship-repairing yards

▪ SS 530: Code of practice for energy efficiency standard for building

services and equipment.

▪ SS 531-1: Code of practice for lighting of work places – Indoor.

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▪ SS 531-2: Code of practice for lighting of work places – Outdoor.

▪ SS 531-3: Code of practice for lighting of work places - Lighting

requirements for safety and security of outdoor work places.

▪ SS 532: Code of practice for the storage of flammable liquids.

▪ SS 535: Installation, operation, maintenance, performance and

construction requirements of mains failure and standby generating
system.

▪ SS 538: Code of practice for maintenance of electrical equipment

of electrical installations.

▪ SS 546: Emergency voice communication system in building.

▪ SS 550: Installation, operation and maintenance of electric

passengers and goods lifts.

▪ SS 551: Code of practice for earthing.

▪ SS 555-1 : Code of practice for protection against lightning –

General requirement.

▪ SS 555-2 : Code of practice for protection against lightning – Risk

management.

▪ SS 555-3 : Code of practice for protection against lightning –

Physical damage to structures and life hazard.

▪ SS 555-4 : Code of practice for protection against lightning –

Electrical and electronic systems within structures.

▪ SS 558: Code of practice for construction, installation, operation

and maintenance of intruder alarm systems.

▪ SS 563-1: Code of practice for the design, installation and

maintenance of emergency lighting and power supply systems in
buildings. Part 1 : Emergency lighting.

▪ SS 563-2: Code of practice for the design, installation and

maintenance of emergency lighting and power supply systems in
buildings. Part 2 : Installation requirements and maintenance
procedures.

▪ SS 564-1: Green data centres - Part 1 : Energy and environmental

management systems

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▪ SS 564-2: Green data centres - Part 2 : Guidance for energy and

environmental management systems

▪ SS 576: Code of practice for earthworks in the vicinity of electricity

cables.

▪ SS 601: Code of practice for maintenance of grid-tied solar

photovoltaic (PV) power supply system

▪ SS 645: Code of practice for the installation and servicing of

electrical fire alarm systems

▪ TR 25: Technical Reference for electric vehicle charging system

▪ TR 100: Technical Reference for Floating photovoltaic power plants

- Design guidelines and recommendations

▪ Electricity Act

▪ Electricity (Electrical Installations) Regulations

▪ Handbook for Application of Installation Licence, published by EMA

▪ Fire Code & Fire Code Handbook

▪ BCA Green Mark Assessment Criteria published by BCA

▪ Code on Accessibility in the Built Environment published by BCA

▪ Handbook for solar photovoltaic system (PV) Systems, published by

BCA and EMA

▪ How to Apply for Electricity Connection, published by SP Group

▪ Code of Practice for Info-communication Facilities in Buildings

(COPIF) published by IMDA

▪ Transmission Code

• Electrical Power Supplies, Tariffs and Design

▪ Electricity market

▪ Generation, transmission and distribution in Singapore

▪ Electricity bill calculation for HT and LT consumers

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▪ Design of electrical installations

▪ Load estimation

▪ Power factor correction

▪ Power quality and power system harmonics

▪ Consumer Substation, Switchboards and Switchgears

▪ Maintenance of electrical equipment, switchgears and cables

▪ Design for energy efficiency and sustainability

• Lighting requirement for workplace, indoor and outdoor

▪ Visual needs for safety and security

▪ Determine the lighting requirements for indoor and outdoor work

places.

• Energy efficiency and accessibility requirement for buildings

▪ Minimum energy-efficiency requirements for new installation and

replacement of systems and equipment in buildings

▪ Replacement of components of systems and equipment in buildings

▪ Criteria for determining compliance with energy efficiency in

building with regards to air-conditioning and heat rejection
equipment, water heaters, motor drives and lighting used in
buildings.

▪ Requirement and guidelines for buildings to be designed or

retrofitted to provide accessibility and safety to persons with
disabilities and families with young children.

• Protection for Safety

▪ Measures in protection against electric shock (basic and fault)

▪ Principle of operation of protective devices

▪ Maximum demand and diversity factors

▪ Protection against over-current and short circuits

▪ Protective devices and circuit conductors

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▪ Discrimination in protection of electrical circuits

• Cables, Busways, and Distribution Boards

▪ Type and characteristic of cables

▪ Method of installation

▪ Sizing of conduit and trunking

▪ Factors affecting the current carrying capacity of cables

▪ Sizing of cables and busways for use under different types of

conditions

▪ Connected load, maximum demands and circuit breakers ratings for

a electrical distribution board

• Earthing

▪ Purpose of earthing

▪ Methods of earthing

▪ Earth fault loop impedance and earth fault current

▪ Suitable sizes of circuit protective conductor

▪ Testing of earthing

• Lightning Protection Systems

▪ Rolling sphere technique of determining zones of protection

▪ Spacing of air terminations and types of air termination

▪ Down conductors for building below 45 m and those exceeding 45

m

▪ Earth electrodes, earth resistance values and hazards of a rise in

ground potential caused by lightning strike

▪ Selection of appropriate materials and installation methods

▪ Prevention of side flashing

▪ Design requirement of complete lightning protection system

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▪ Transients and surge suppression

▪ Effect of lightning on system and structure

▪ Source and type of damages due to lightning

▪ Risk assessment aspect in lightning protection

• Emergency Lighting

▪ Exit and emergency lighting requirements for evacuation of

occupants

▪ Types of back-up power supplies

▪ Exit and directional Signs

• Standby Power Generator System

▪ Types of essential and critical loads

▪ Sizing of generator with considerations for maximum demand of

essential load, transient or motor starting loads and voltage dip

▪ Voltage regulation and its effects on generator sizing

▪ Protection for alternator and prime mover

▪ Installation of standby generator system including day-tank, battery

and charger, fuel supply, engine cooling system, plant room
ventilation, exhaust and fresh air intake, control and
instrumentation panel and automatic transfer switch.

▪ Underground fuel storage system

▪ Grounding/Earthing arrangement

▪ Maintenance

• Automatic Fire Alarm System

▪ Requirement for automatic and manual fire detection system and

purpose of compartmentation as required by the Fire Code

▪ Interaction with other building services such as emergency voice

communication system, lifts, AHUs, pressurization fans and auto-
doors during alarm activation

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• Emergency Voice Communication System

▪ Requirements for public address system for building above 24 m

but less than 60 m

▪ Requirements for emergency voice communication for building

above 60 m

▪ Requirements for fireman intercom

• Inspection, Testing and Common Violation In Electrical

Installation

▪ Mandatory requirements for inspection and testing of electrical

installation prior to energisation of electrical supply

▪ Types of test instruments and standard methods of testing

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Sample Questions From Past Year Papers for Practice of Professional

Engineering Examination Part 2 (Electrical)

Section 1 - Question 1 (28 marks) is COMPULSORY

Question 1

(a) Explain the difference and purpose of bonding and earthing as required
for an electrical installation in Singapore.

You are checking the lightning protection system for a building for
compliance to the new code, what is the minimum size of stranded copper
bonding conductor allowed to connect the non-ferrous connector point to
the earth termination system?

(b) You are the LEW responsible for the electrical installation in a newly built
mixed development. The main switchboard is ready for turn on. Identify
the certificate(s) to be submitted to SP Services Ltd (SPS) when you
request for an energisation appointment.

(c) An electrical installation with an approved load of 1000 KVA is taking direct
supply from PowerGrid’s network. The low voltage main switchboard
(MSB) with air circuit breaker (ACB) had passed the factory acceptance
test and was delivered to site; feeder cables were laid and terminated to
the MSB. Identify the tests to be carried out on site before requesting for
the turn-on by SP Services Ltd (SPS).

(d) Explain the purpose of the primary injection test.

(e) Refer to the distribution board shown in Figure Q1(e). A new load, an air
handling unit (AHU) rated at 11 kW 3-phase 400V at 0.8 pf, will be added
to the distribution board.

(i) Is there a need to upgrade the incoming breaker size and the bus
bar ratings of the distribution board? State the reason(s) for your
answer.

(ii) Determine the current rating of the MCB and the cable size for the
new AHU. Assume that the cable length from the distribution
board to the new AHU is 20m and the permitted Line-Line voltage
drop is 8V.

(iii) Is there a change in the short-circuit rating of the MCCB in the

distribution board when the new load is added? State the reasons
for your answer.

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Question 1 (Cont’d)

(iv) How would the LEW in-charge of the operation and maintenance of
the electrical installation isolate the distribution board to make it
safe for the modification works to be carried out? Elaborate on the
procedures and safety measures to be taken before physical works
on the distribution board can commence.

Figure Q1(e)

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Section 2 – Answer 4 Out Of 7 Questions (each at 18 marks)

Question 2

(a) You are asked to design an installation where electronic system will be
installed and required to comply with electromagnetic compatibility (EMC)
requirement. Identify the three criteria for your design?

(b) Figure Q2(b) shows the basic decomposition of a typical EMC coupling
problem where EMC is concerned with the generation, transmission and
reception of electromagnetic energy. What are the three ways to prevent
unintended interference?

Source Transfer Receptor

(emitter) (coupling (receiver)
path)

Figure Q2(b)

(c) A vertical electrical riser housed inside an office/commercial complex is

radiating electromagnetic field (EMF) as measured and indicated in Figure
Q2(c). Explain how to remove or reduce the radiated EMF and to protect
the occupants from this exposure?

Figure Q2(c)

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Question 2 (Cont’d)

(d) (i) State the main purpose of the lightning protection system.

(ii) Explain how the main purpose stated in above (i) can be achieved.

(iii) Explain how to reduce the dangerous side-flashes for a building?

Question 3

(a) Before work can commence on a high voltage switchboard, what are the
5 essential steps that need to be carried out to ensure the safety of the
workers? Assume that you can only shut down half of the switchboard.

(b) With the aid of a diagram, describe the protection requirements of the
incoming panel of a 22 kV supply. You should include the type, rating
and accuracy class of various devices where appropriate.

(c) A 22kV/400V 2-MVA transformer is connected directly to the “incoming

mains” air circuit breaker of a V switchboard. The 22 kV cable is
protected by an IDMTL overcurrent relay R1 which is connected to
100/5A current transformers. R1 is set at 50% plug setting and time
multiplier at 0.3. The protection on the LV side is an IDMTL overcurrent
relay R2 which is connected to 3000/5A current transformers. Both the
relays R1 and R2 have the same time-current characteristic which is
given by:

t = 0.14/(M0.02 -1) secs ( for Time Multiplier = 1 )

where M = Plug Setting Multiplier

The symmetrical fault current at the 400-V switchboard is 36,000 A.

Determine a suitable plug setting and a suitable time multiplier for relay R2
if the time discrimination between the two relays R1 and R2 is 0.4 secs.

Available plug settings for the two IDMTL relays are 50%, 75%,
100%,125%,150%,175% and 200%.

Assume the LV circuit breaker does not have direct-acting element.

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Question 4

(a) In your design of the electrical switchroom, you have given thoughts for
future maintenance.

(i) State the requirement for earthing resistance and extraneous

conductive parts when you are conducting the handover inspection.

(ii) Explain and state the purpose on the requirement expected before
the end of defect liability period (DLP) in the interest of your client.

(b) A 630A, 230/400V 50 Hz switchroom distributing energy to a row of

shophouses is disgusted with paper boxes and accumulated dirt over
prolonged period of 3 years. The owner explained to you that the load is
high only during all the festive seasons, such as mid-autumn, Deepavali,
Hari Raya, and the like in Singapore. You are asked by the owner to advise
the frequency of maintenance and any violation.

(c) During a routine check on a switchboard and the stand-by generator for
an electrical installation that is providing supply at 3-phase 4- wire
400/230 V 50 Hz to the mix load of a building. After you have switched
over the mix load from the utility supply to the generator supply, you
noticed that few lamps could be seen to flicker on its brightness; and
decided to measure the voltage. The measured values were:
- L1 to L2 = 406 V
- L2 to L3 = 400 V
- L3 to L1 = 410 V
- L1 to N = 140 V
- L2 to N = 200 V
- L3 to N = 303 V
- N to E = 140 V

You decided to reconnect the mix load back to the utility supply. Those
lamps that flickered, do not flicker any more. You measured the voltage
again and the values were:
- L1 to L2 = 405 V
- L2 to L3 = 401 V
- L3 to L1 = 408 V
- L1 to N = 234 V
- L2 to N = 230 V
- L3 to N = 238 V
- N to E = 3 V

(i) From the results, explain the phenomenon that the lamp flickers.
(ii) What do you deduce from this result and how would you
troubleshoot?

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Question 5

(a) You are the designer of a condominium project, and a lift is required to be
provided between basement 1 & 2 carparks and the 1st storey of the
residential block. The total travel distance of these 3 landings is 6.8m and
you have advised the client to install a lift complying with SS 550 instead
of a platform lift, as it has safety features that a platform lift does not
have. List 6 safety features and explain the purpose of each safety feature.

(b) The Greenmark criteria for new residential buildings require that the
energy performance and energy effectiveness of a building be evaluated.

(i) Name 3 systems where energy performance evaluations must be

carried out and give a brief description of each evaluation.

(ii) For the effective use of energy assessment criteria, energy efficient
features are encouraged. Name any 3 such energy efficient
features.

(c) Data centres are typically lightly occupied and notwithstanding that the
lighting load is a small portion of the total load of a data centre, propose
2 methods of lighting design that will reduce the lighting energy
consumption.

(d) State 2 design considerations for an Emergency Voice Communication

System to comply with the SS Code of Practice and the Fire Code with
respect to:

(i) audibility, and

(ii) fault monitoring.

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Question 6

(a) A 90 sq. m residential unit comprises three bedrooms, one living/dining

room and a kitchen. Design the electrical single-line diagram to provide
electricity to the whole unit with the incoming supply and meters. Indicate
the ratings of the protection devices, cable sizes and circuit labels for each
of the outgoing circuits to serve minimally the following:

(i) lighting,
(ii) switched socket outlets,
(iii) cooker units,
(iv) water heaters, and
(v) air-conditioning units.

State all assumptions made.

(b) A data centre has the following energy consumption profile:

• Overall Energy Usage over 1 year is 13,140 MWhr
• The data centre facility has a PUE of 1.4

(i) What is the ICT energy load consumed over the same period of
time?
(ii) What is the ICT average load rating in kW?

(c) Based on the Singapore Standard SS 550

(i) Describe two things which will happen when a lift overloading device
detected the load exceeds the rated capacity.

(ii) In the absence of standby diesel generator, what is the alternative

means of power supply and the requirement for emergency
operations of the lift?

(iii) Name two locations where a stopping device shall be provided for
stopping, and maintaining the lift out of service, including the power
operated doors.

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Question 7

(a) Based on the Singapore Civil Defence Force Fire Code, identify 3 building
services/ systems in a building where the provisions of secondary power
source are required.

(b) What is the maximum delay between the failure of the electrical supply to
normal lighting and the energization of the

(i) exit lighting and

(ii) emergency lighting?

For a battery-operated emergency lighting system, what is the minimum

back-up period of the battery for continuous operation?

(c) In order to comply with local codes, draw diagrams showing the spacing
between detectors and detectors and wall for installation on a flat ceiling in
an open space for

(i) heat detectors

(ii) smoke detectors.

(d) How long must the battery be able to support the Emergency Voice
Communication (EVC) system in the event of a primary power failure if

(i) no emergency backup generator is provided?

(ii) an emergency backup generator is provided?

(e) Based on the Code of Practice for Info-Communications Facilities in

Buildings (COPIF), conduits can be used to distribute cables in parts of a
building where usage density is low and flexibility in relocating
telecommunication outlets is not required. Name 4 basic considerations for
the installation of these conduits.

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IV Practice of Professional Engineering Examination Part 2

(Mechanical)

The paper aims to examine the candidates on their proficiency in the practice of
mechanical engineering at a professional level. Candidates are expected to have
a good working knowledge and experience of mechanical engineering design and
practices in Singapore. In particular knowledge is required in the areas of
regulatory framework, submission and approval procedures, statutory acts and
regulations, practices guidelines and codes of practice.

The examination will place emphasis on the Professional Engineer’s role in building
projects in the local context in relation to mechanical engineering works.

Format

This is a 4 hours 10 mins paper that examines candidates on technical

competency and understanding of the use and application of standards and codes
that are applicable to the practice of mechanical engineering at a professional
level in Singapore.

The paper consists of 2 Sections comprising a total of 8 questions. Candidates

are required to answer questions in both sections (Section 1 and Section 2).
Section 1 will consist of a compulsory question on principles, codes, and
legislation related to general mechanical engineering practice, safety and
environmental protection. Section 2 will consist of a total of 7 optional questions.
Candidates may choose to answer any 4 out of the 7 questions.

Syllabus

The scope of professional engineering work covered by Professional Engineers

(Mechanical) may include the following fields: -

• Piped Services

Cold and Hot Water Services; Sanitary Plumbing Systems within

buildings; Town Gas Incoming Supply and Distribution; Liquefied
Petroleum Gas (LPG) Multi-Cylinder Systems; Swimming Pool Filtration
System

• Air Conditioning & Mechanical Ventilation

Indoor Air Quality Comfort / Environmental Control / Fire Safety

Requirements

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• Fire Safety in Buildings

Wet and Dry Rising mains/Hydrant Systems; Fire Hose reel System;
Automatic Fire Sprinkler System; Fire Detection and Alarm System; Gas
Flooding System

• Lift and Hoisting Systems

Lifting / Hoisting Equipment

• Other Major Mechanical Systems and Services

Boiler Plants, Calorifiers, Pressure Vessels, Pressure Piping

• Energy Conservation for Mechanical Building Services /

Buildings

• Relevant Codes of Practices, Standards and Acts (Based on

latest applicable Codes of Practices, Standards and Acts)

All relevant regulations, by-laws, Acts and accepted codes of practice

of:-

▪ National Environment Agency

▪ Public Utilities Board

▪ PowerGas Ltd

▪ PowerGrid Ltd

▪ Singapore Civil Defence Force

▪ Ministry of Manpower

▪ Building and Construction Authority

▪ Energy Market Authority

• Singapore Standards – Codes of Practice (Based on latest

applicable Codes)

▪ SS 497: Code of practice for design, safe use and maintenance

of gantry cranes, overhead travelling cranes and monorail hoists

▪ SS 536: Code of Practice for safe use of mobile cranes

▪ SS 559: Code of Practice for safe use of tower cranes

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▪ SS 567: Code of Practice for Factory Layout – Safety, Health and

Welfare Considerations

▪ SS 595: Singapore Standard for steel wire ropes for hoisting - Part
3: Code of practice for the care, inspection and maintenance of
steel wire ropes for hoisting

▪ SS 617: Code of practice for the lifting of persons in work platforms

suspended from cranes

▪ SS 532: Code of Practice for the Storage of Flammable Liquids

▪ SS 597: Code of practice for bulk liquid oxygen storage

installations on user premises

▪ SS 636: Code of Practice for Water Services

▪ CP 52: Code of Practice for Automatic Fire Sprinkler System

▪ SS 530: Code of Practice for Energy Efficiency Standard for Building

Services and Equipment

▪ SS 553: Code of Practice For Air-Conditioning And Mechanical

Ventilation In Buildings

▪ SS 554: Code of practice for indoor air quality for air-conditioned

buildings

▪ SS 575: Code of practice for fire hydrant, rising mains and hose reel
systems

▪ SS 578: Code of Practice for Use and Maintenance of Portable Fire

Extinguishers

▪ SS 591: Code of practice for long term measurement of central

chilled water system energy efficiency

▪ SS 608: Code of practice for gas installation

▪ CP 10: Code of Practice for The Installation and Servicing of

Electrical Fire Alarm Systems

▪ SS 550: Code of Practice for Installation, Operation and

Maintenance of Electric Passengers and Goods Lifts.

▪ SS 626: Code of practice for design, installation and maintenance

of escalators and moving walks

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▪ SS 564 - 1: Singapore Standard for Green data centres - Part 1:

Energy and environmental management systems

▪ SS 564 - 2: Singapore Standard for Green data centres - Part 2:

Guidance for energy and environmental management systems

• Other Standards and Codes (Based on latest applicable

Standards and Codes)

▪ NFPA 2001: Standard for Clean Agent Fire Extinguishing systems

(FM200)

▪ American Society of Mechanical Engineers codes on pressure

vessels and piping

▪ American Petroleum Institute codes on pressure vessels and piping

▪ British Standards on pressure vessels and piping

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Sample Questions From Past Year Papers for Practice of Professional

Engineering Examination Part 2 (Mechanical)

Section 1 (28 marks) - Compulsory

Question 1
(All TEN parts in Q1 carry equal marks)

1.1 (a) When is pressurization required for staircases? What are the
performance criteria that must be achieved in pressurization?

(b) For duct penetrations, when are fire dampers not permitted?

(c) Describe how you should design a mechanical ventilation system

for a smoke free lobby.

1.2 (a) Where passenger lifts are installed in a building with manual or
automatic fire alarm system as required in the code, describe how
the lifts should function when the fire alarm is activated.

(b) Also describe how the lifts should function in the event of normal
power failure or interruption.

(c) In a building without standby generator what should you provide

for the safe operation of the passenger lifts in the event of main
power failure or interruption?

1.3 Town gas is to be provided for food and beverage outlets in a new
commercial building development.

(a) What are the requirements if the gas piping is to be routed through
a naturally ventilated basement car park?

(b) Describe the interlocking system to be provided if the kitchen of a

food and beverage outlet is not naturally ventilated and is located
in the basement.

(c) What are the requirements if the gas piping is routed within the
false ceiling of an air conditioned corridor which is 30 m long at
storey 1?

1.4 (a) What is hot-tapping as practiced in process plant operation?

(b) Under what considerations can hot tapping technique be used?

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1.5 Discuss the purpose of pressure testing? Write short notes on the
following pressure testing methods:

(a) Leak testing;

(b) Pneumatic testing; and

(c) Proof testing.

1.6 (a) Explain the meaning of “design point” in the design of an rdinary
Hazard sprinkler system.

(b) A circular duct is located more than 150 mm from the wall. What is
the maximum width this can be before a sprinkler must be installed
underneath it?

(c) What is the maximum distance below a non-combustible ceiling that

a sprinkler may be installed?

1.7 (a) State the density of discharge (mm/min) for OHII design.

(b) Explain briefly the operation of a pre-action sprinkler system.

1.8 In air-conditioning cooling load calculations for the purpose of sizing

systems, what are the indoor and outdoor design conditions to be used?
Support your answers with recommendations from the relevant code of
practice.

1.9 In designing an air-conditioning system to handle out-gassing from

furnishings and other works what provisions must be made to the system?

1.10 (a) What is the definition of “ actor of Safety” as associated with the
use of steel wire ropes for hoisting?

(b) What are the respective minimum Factor of Safety for stationary
and running wire ropes used for winches and cranes?

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Section 2 – Answer 4 Out 7 Questions (each at 18 marks)

Question 2

(a) What are the primary objectives in maintaining swimming pool water in a
safe and pleasant condition?

(b) Calculate the minimum volume of a storage sump (m³) and the pump flow
rate in l/s for a pumped drainage system with a catchment area of 800m².
You may use the data in Table 1 below.

Table 1

Duration (hrs) 3 4 5 6 12 24
Total Rainfall (mm) 151.4 210.6 253.4 281.9 376.7 533.2

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Question 3

A 9-Storey Commercial Office Development comprises of the following:

- 1st storey retail, restaurants & cafe, toilets and bin centre;
- Typical floor - 2nd to 9th storey office, pantry, toilets and AHU room;
- Roof.

Refer to the answer sheets for 1st storey plan, typical 2nd to 9th storey plan, roof
plan, and the typical (enlarged) toilet layout.

The three eateries at the 1st storey shall be designed for independent operation
/ maintenance from each other. The bin centre and AHU rooms shall be provided
with a floor gully / trap each.

Design a sanitary works for the proposed development complying with the
relevant Code of Practice on Sewage & Sanitary. Your design shall comprise of

(i) the complete sanitary layout plan on every floor including the typical
(enlarged) toilet layout.
(8 marks)

(ii) the schematic diagram tallying with the sanitary layout plans
(6 marks)

(iii) calculation of the estimated sewerage discharge according to the appliances/

fittings provided; the calculation shall base on the tables and formula in the
Reference Sheet
(4 marks)

State all your design considerations.

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Question 3 (Cont’d)

Reference Sheet - tables and formula

Table 1

Tabulation of Appliance used in the development

WB: Wash Basin, GT / FT: Floor gully, UR: Urinal w flush valve, KS: Kitchen Sink

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Question 3 (Cont’d)

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Question 3 (Cont’d)

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Question 3 (Cont’d)

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Question 3 (Cont’d)

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Question 4

Use the isometric design of an Ordinary Hazard Group II sprinkler system as

shown in Figure Q4, to design according to the pre-calculated method.

(a) Determine the water supply requirements and show them on Figure Q4.

(b) Size all range points.

(c) Insert the Design Point.

(d) Size all distribution pipes downstream of the Design Point.

(e) Complete the Statement of Distribution Pipe Losses.

Submit the answer sheets provided with the rest of your answers in the
answer book.

Figure Q4. Isometric design of an Ordinary Hazard Group II sprinkler system

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Question 5

A pressure vessel consisting of a shell and two hemispherical heads is constructed

from SA 516-70 carbon steel material (Tensile Strength – 70 ksi). The self-
reinforced nozzles in the vessel are made from type SA 213-316 stainless steel
material (Tensile Strength – 75 ksi). The vessel is shut down eight times a year
for maintenance. At start-up, the full pressure of 300 psi and full temperature of
50° are reached in two hours. The maximum ΔT between any two points
during start-up is 300°F. At normal operation, the ΔT is negligible. At shutdown,
the maximum ΔT is 100° . Determine the maximum number of years that this
vessel can be operated if a fatigue evaluation is not performed.

You may use the following information:

(i) In accordance with ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code, Section VIII
Division 1, paragraph UG-22 or U-2(g), fatigue analysis is not required for
materials with a tensile strength of less than 80 ksi when the total number
of cycles in (a) through (d) below is less than 1000.

(a) The design number of full range pressure cycles including startup
and shutdown.

(b) The number of pressure cycles in which the pressure fluctuation

exceeds 20% of the design pressure.

(c) Number of changes in metal temperature between two adjacent

points. These changes are multiplied by a factor obtained from
Table 2 in order to transform them to equivalent cycle number.
Table 2

Metal Temperature Factor

Differential, °F
50 or less 0
51 to 100 1
101 to 150 2
151 to 250 4
251 to 350 8
351 to 450 12
Higher than 450 20

(d) Number of temperature cycles in components that have two

different materials where a difference in the value (α1 — α2)  ΔT
exceeds 0.0003 . Where, α is the coefficient of thermal expansion
and ΔT is the difference in temperature.

(ii) The coefficient of expansion for carbon steel is 6.5 X 10-6 in./in./°F and
that for stainless steel is 9.5 X 10-6 in./in./°F.

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Question 6

Figure Q6 below shows a single basement carpark, 60m x 30m, in area. Two void
openings, each 10m x 4.5m, are provided at the 1st storey above the car park,
and is open to the sky. Two opposite walls in the basement carpark are provided
with 1.2m deep openings throughout the length of the wall, as shown.

(a) Calculate the mechanical ventilation requirements for the Basement

Carpark.

(b) In what type of buildings would such carpark ventilation system be

permitted?

Figure Q6: Single basement carpark

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Question 7

The design data from a chilled water plant are as follows:

Chiller cooling capacity 1760 kW

Chiller COP 7.0
Chilled water supply temperature 6.5 °C
Chilled water return temperature 12.2 °C
Chilled water pump head 300 kPa
Chilled water pump efficiency 75 %
Chilled water pump motor efficiency 92 %
Condenser water supply temperature 29.5 °C
Condenser water return temperature 35.0 °C
Condenser water pump head 200 kPa
Condenser water pump efficiency 75 %
Condenser water pump motor efficiency 92 %
Cooling Tower fan power 35 kW

(a) Calculate the volume flow rates for chilled and condenser water.
Do the pumps meet the power limitation requirements of the code?
Suggest a remedy if the conditions are not met.

Show that by the use of variable speed pumping control the pumps
will be able to meet the part load performance requirements of the
code. Water density and specific heat may be assumed to be 1000
kg/m3 and 4.18 kJ/kg·K, respectively.

(b) What is the overall energy efficiency ratio (EER) of the cooling plant
expressed as kW of electric power consumed per kW of cooling?

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V Practice of Professional Engineering Examination Part 2

(Chemical)

The paper aims to examine the candidates’ proficiency in the practice of chemical
engineering at a professional level. Candidates are expected to have a good
working knowledge and experience in process safety, process design & operations
and related chemical engineering practices in Singapore.

Candidates are also expected to have a good understanding and knowledge of

regulatory framework, including safety case regime, statutory acts & regulations
and legislative requirements on chemical safety management, fire safety and
environmental pollution control.

The examination will place emphasis on the Professional Engineers’ roles in the
practical application of standards, codes of practice, technical guidance,
recommended practices relevant to the chemical & process industries and
chemical engineering works to support the industries.

Format

This is a 4 hours 10 mins paper that examines candidates on technical competency

and understanding of the use and application of legislation, standards and codes
that are relevant to the practice of chemical engineering at a professional level in
Singapore.

The paper consists of 2 sections comprising a total of 8 questions. Candidates

are required to answer questions in both sections (Section 1 and Section 2).
Section 1 will consist of a compulsory question on principles, process safety
management, general chemical engineering practices, codes & standards and
legislations, including safety case, environmental protection and management.
Section 2 will consist of 7 optional questions. Candidates may choose to answer
any 4 out of the 7 questions.

Syllabus

The scope of professional engineering work covered by Professional Engineers

(Chemical) may include the following fields: -

• Plant & Process Design

Process Design; Process Equipment Sizing and Design; Plot Plan /
Equipment Siting; Instrumentation & Control Schemes; Materials of
Construction (material properties and selection, corrosion considerations
Etc.); Equipment Design Life.

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• Process Safety Management (PSM)

Process Safety Management Elements; Process Safety Performance
Indicators (CCPS Process Safety Leading and Lagging Metrics); WSH
Guidelines on Process Safety Performance Indicators; OSHA 1910.119
Process Safety management of highly hazardous chemicals; Singapore
Standard SS 651:2019 Safety and Health Management System for the
Chemical Industry; API RP 754 for Process Safety Performance Indicators
for the Refining and Petrochemical Industries.

• Process Hazard Analysis

Hazard Identifications and Evaluation Techniques [What-If / HAZOP
Terminology and Methodology / Failure Mode Effect Analysis (FEMA)];
Logic Tree - Fault Tree Analysis; Bow-Tie Concept.

• Functional Safety SIL Classification and Verification

Functional Safety (IEC 61508 / IEC 61511 / SIS Safety Life Cycle); Basic
Process Control System to HIPS/SIS, SIF, SIL; from HAZOP to Layer of
Protection (LOPA); Estimating Consequences & Risk Tolerant Criteria;
Failure Types; Hardware Fault Tolerance and Redundancy; Common Cause
Failures – ß factor; calculating Probability of Failure on Demand.

• Fundamental of Hazardous Area Zone Classification

Standards for Hazardous Area Zone Classification [IEC System; American
System (NEC)]; Principles of Hazardous Area Zone Classification; Explosive
Dusts Classification; Material Classification; Temperature Classification;
Explosion Protection Type for Electrical Equipment; Equipment Protection
Level (EPL) Symbols.

• Chemical Runaway Reactions and Auto-refrigeration

Characteristics of Chemical Runaway Reactions; Hazard Assessment of
Chemical Reactions; Selecting and Specifying a Basis of Safety [Factors to
be Considered / Preventive Measures (Temperature; Addition; Agitation;
Scrubber System / Vents; Safe Time; Instrumentation & Control) /
Protective Measures (Emergency Relief System; Inhibiting Runaway
Reaction; Quenching & Dumping; Containment)]; Inherent Safer Design
(Minimize; Substitute; Moderate / Attenuate; Simplify / Limit Effects – Plant
Layout & Equipment Spacing); Auto-refrigeration, controls and materials
selection.

• Pressure Relief System

Overpressure Scenarios and Identification; Pressure Relief Valve Type;
Effects of Backpressure on Pressure Relief Valve; Pressure Relief Valve
Selection; Rupture Disk Devices and Application; ASME Boiler & Pressure
Vessel Code Section VIII Requirements [References: Sizing Pressure Relief

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Valve Back to Basic; API 520 Sizing, Selection, and Installation of Pressure-
relieving Devices in Refineries Part I – Sizing and Selection; API 521
Pressure-relieving and Depressuring Systems; Safety Blowdown and Flare
system.

• Safe Plant Operations

Common Hazards Associated with Process Plant to Avoid; Start-up
Preparation & Procedures (Elimination of Air / Tightness Testing /
Elimination of Water Etc.); Shut Down for Maintenance (De-inventory /
Hydrocarbon Freeing / Positive Isolations Etc.); Dust Explosion; Electrical
Safety; Management of Change (MOC); Pre-Start-up Safety Review
(PSSR); Standard Operating Procedures (SOP); Static-Electricity,
Pyrophoric Materials; Auto-ignitions plus control measures; Confined Space
safe entry requirements.

• Quantitative Risk Analysis

Consequences estimation for fire, explosion [TNO multi-energy model] and
gas dispersion; Source term calculations; Frequency estimation using Event
Tree Analysis; Common Preventive and Mitigation Measures to Reduce the
Failure Frequencies; Concept of risk calculations [Individual Risk (IR),
Location Specific Individual Risk (LSIR), Potential Loss of Life (PLL)] and
Risk Criteria.

• Safety Case
Concept of safety case; Identification of major accident hazards;
Determination of major accident scenarios and safety critical events;
Barrier and mitigation measures; ALARP demonstration.

• Energy Conservation for Chemical, Process & Utilities Plants

Environmental Consideration (Emissions Evaluation and Permitting;
Pollution Prevention and Mitigation; Waste Determination and
Management); Energy Efficiency Assessment, Evaluation and Mitigation
Measures for Carbon Emission Reduction; Process Optimization including
Optimal Energy Consumption.

• Relevant Legislation, Standards, Codes of Practices, Guidelines

(Based on latest applicable Legislation, Standards, Codes,
Guidelines)

▪ Legislation
- Workplace Safety and Health Act

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- Workplace Safety and Health (Major Hazard Installations)

Regulations
- Workplace Safety and Health (General Provisions)
Regulations
- Environment Protection and Management Act
- Fire Safety Act
- Gas Act

▪ Standards and Code of Practices

- Singapore Standard CP 75 – Code of Practice for Gas
Cylinders – Procedures for change of gas services
- Singapore Standard SS 532 – Code of Practice for the
storage of flammable liquids
- Singapore Standard SS 537 – Code of Practice for the Safe
Use of Machinery
- Singapore Standard SS 568 – Code of Practice for Confined
Spaces
- Singapore Standard SS 586 – Specification for hazard
communication for hazardous chemicals and dangerous
goods
- Singapore Standard SS 634 – Fire Safety for Open Plant
Processing Facilities in Oil, Chemical and Process Industries
- Singapore Standard SS 639-1 – Code of practice for the
filling, inspection, testing and maintenance of gas cylinders
for the storage and transport of compressed gases – Part 1:
Seamless steel and aluminium alloy cylinders (excluding
dissolved acetylene) – Inspection at the time of filling,
periodic maintenance and testing
- Singapore Standard SS 639-2 Code of practice for the filling,
inspection, testing and maintenance of gas cylinders for the
storage and transport of compressed gases – Part 2:
Acetylene cylinders – Filling conditions and filling inspection
- Singapore Standard SS 639-3 Code of practice for the filling,
inspection, testing and maintenance of gas cylinders for the

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storage and transport of compressed gases – Part 3:

Acetylene cylinders – Periodic inspection and maintenance
- Singapore Standard SS 651 – Safety and Health
Management System for the Chemical Industry
- Singapore Standard SS 667– Code of Practice for handling,
storage and processing of combustible dust
- IP 15 – Hazardous Area Classification Guide
- IEC 61508 – Functional Safety of
electrical/electronic/programmable electronic safety-related
systems
- IEC 61511 – Functional Safety – Safety Instrumented
Systems for the process industry sector
- API RP 505 – Recommended Practice of Classification of
Location for Electrical Installations at Petroleum Facilities
classified as Class 1, Zone 0, Zone 1 and Zone 2
- API RP 520 Part 1 & 2 - Sizing, Selection, and Installation of
Pressure-Relieving Devices in Refineries
- API RP 521 - Guide for Pressure-Relieving and –
Depressuring Systems
- API 580 - Risk-based Inspection
- API 610 - Centrifugal Pumps for Petroleum, Heavy Duty
Chemical and Gas Industry Services
- API 617 - Centrifugal Compressor for Petroleum, Chemical
and Gas Service Industries
- API 618 - Reciprocating Compressors for Petroleum,
Chemical and Gas Industry Services
- API 619 - Rotary type Positive Displacement Compressors for
Petroleum, Chemical, and Gas Industry Services
- API 650 - Welded Tanks for Oil Storage
- API RP 751- Recommended Practice for Safe Operation of
Hydrofluoric Acid Alkylation Units
- API RP 754 – Recommended Process Safety Performance
Indicators for the Refining and Petrochemical Industries

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- API RP 2003 - Protection Against Ignitions Arising Out of

Static, Lightning, and Stray Currents
- API RP 2219 – Safe Operation of Vacuum Trucks in
Petroleum Service

▪ Guidelines
- Safety Case Technical Guide
- Safety Case Assessment Guide
- ALARP Demonstration Guidelines: Single Scenario Risk
Tolerability and Adequacy of Barriers
- Guidelines on Safety Instrumented Systems in Major Hazards
Installations
- Guidelines on managing human factors in Major Hazards
Installations
- QRA Criteria Guidelines
- QRA Technical Guidance
- WSH Guidelines – Process Safety Performance Indicators

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Sample Questions from Past Year Papers for Practice of Professional

Engineering Examination Part 2 (Chemical)

Section 1 – Question 1 (28 marks) is COMPULSORY

(a) Safety Case for a Major Hazard Installation (MHI) is regulated under the
Workplace Safety and Health (Major Hazard Installations) Regulations.

(i) List two circumstances where the occupier of an MHI is required to

review the Safety Case.

(ii) List four minimum information that must be included in a Safety Case.

(iii) A factory stores 40 tonnes of ammonia gas and 10 tonnes of propylene

oxide gas. Determine if the factory should be registered as an MHI.
Show your working.

(b) The Predictive Aspects of the Safety Case requires the occupier of an MHI
to conduct risk assessment and identify the Major Accident Hazards (MAHs)
and Major Accident Scenarios (MASs) relevant to the installation and select
Safety Critical Events (SCEs) for ALARP demonstration.

(i) Describe the approach to systemically select Safety Critical Events

(SCEs) for ALARP demonstration.

(ii) List and explain 4 parameters which will quantitatively affect the
consequences of MASs.

(c) The requirement for a pollution control study may be imposed on pollutive
industries under the Environmental Protection and Management Act (EPMA).

(i) What are the objectives of carrying out a pollution control study?

(ii) What type of information is required to conduct a pollution control

study?

(iii) State two control measures that are widely used by the industries to
mitigate each of air, water and noise pollution.

Which Singapore Standard should be used as the reference towards fulfilling

the pollution control study requirements?

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Section 2 – Answer 4 Out 7 Questions (each at 18 marks)

Question 2

Chlorine is a highly toxic gas, and its release from a containment poses a
significant risk of a major accident. Acute exposure to chlorine gas can lead to
symptoms such as difficulty breathing (dyspnea), severe coughing, nausea,
vomiting, corneal burns, or in severe cases, death.

Chlorine gas is being manufactured in a process plant. During an incident, 100

kg of chlorine is released from a vessel instantaneously. You may assume the
release occurred at the ground level. A residential area is located 4 km away from
the release source. Answer the following questions. You may refer to the
information given below for this question.

(a) Using the probit correlation, determine the concentration of chlorine gas
(mg m-3) which could cause 8%, 30%, and 73% probability of death to
persons, assuming an exposure duration of 30 minutes. List any other
assumptions used. (The probit constants are: a = -6.35, b = 0.5, n = 2.75)

(b) Using an appropriate model, estimate the ground level centreline

concentration of chlorine (mg m-3) at the residential area under the worst
case weather and stability conditions. Determine the probability of fatality
for the residents using the probit correlation in part (a). State any
assumptions used.

(c) Determine the maximum distance the gas cloud will travel before the
concentration falls below 57 mg m-3. Assume the same conditions as in part
(b).

Additional Information
Probit Equation

𝑃𝑟 = 𝑎 + 𝑏 × ln (Cn × t)

Pr = probit corresponding to the probability of death

a, b, n = constants describing the toxicity of a substance
C = concentration (mg m-3)
t = exposure time (minutes) (limited to around 30 mins)

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Probit Table

Source: Guideline for Quantitative Risk Assessment, Purple Book, 2005

Pasquill-Gifford Dispersion Model (Source: Chemical Process Safety,

Fundamentals with Applications, 2nd Edition, Daniel A. Crowl, Joseph F. Louvar,
2002)

Pasquill-Gifford Dispersion Model for Puff with Instantaneous Point

Source at Ground Level, Coordinates Fixed at Release Point, Constant
Wind Only in x Direction with Constant Velocity u

𝟐
𝑸𝒎 ∗ 𝟏 𝒙−𝒖𝒕 𝟐 𝒚 𝒛 𝟐
𝑪(𝒙, 𝒚, 𝒛, 𝒕) = 𝟑 𝐞𝐱𝐩{− [(
𝟐 𝝈𝒙
) + (𝝈 ) + (𝝈 ) ]}
√𝟐𝝅𝟐 𝝈𝒙 𝝈𝒚 𝝈𝒛 𝒚 𝒛

Where Qm* is the mass release rate (kg)

Atmospheric Stability Classes

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Recommended Equations for Pasquill-Gifford Dispersion Coefficient for

Puff Dispersion (the downwind distance x has units of meters)

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Question 3

The Feyzin disaster occurred when an operator draining water from a 1,200 m 3
pressurised liquified petroleum gas (LPG) spherical tank, accidentally spilled LPG
(taken to be propane). The resultant cloud of propane vapour spread, until it was
ignited by a car on an adjoining road. The pool of propane in the bund caused
the spherical tank to be engulfed in flames. The fire-fighters arrived on site but
did not attempt to cool the burning spherical tank and instead concentrated their
hoses on cooling the surrounding tanks. 90 minutes later, the sphere underwent
a Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapour Explosion (BLEVE) event.

Properties of propane and other useful information

• Transmissivity, ‫ד‬a = 0.812
• Specific weight of propane: 585 kg/m3
• Heat of combustion of propane, Hc = 46,350 kJ/kg
• Ambient Temperature = 298 K
• Ambient Pressure = 1 atm
• Fraction of the combustion energy radiated = 0.3

Note: Information in Annex may be useful in answering the question, refer to

last 2 pages after end of Q8.

(a) Describe how a BLEVE event can occur.

(b) State 3 key hazards posed by a BLEVE event and 3 practical engineering
measures that can be taken to minimise the risk of a BLEVE event occurring.

(c) Using the solid plume fire model, estimate the thermal radiation effects (in
kW/m2) on the fire-fighters standing 50m away from the LPG sphere arising
from the BLEVE fireball.

(d) Determine the percentage lethality for the fire-fighters standing 50m away
using the thermal radiation level obtained in (c) and an appropriate probit
model.

State all assumptions made clearly in your answers.

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Question 4

You are the team leader for a project in your plant expansion and you are
required to verify the works performed by your engineer. One of your engineers
was given a task to design a wastewater treatment sedimentation system to
remove suspended solids from the wastewater and he has 2 sedimentation tank
proposals with the following dimensions:

• Rectangular Tank: 22.8 m long, 7.6 m wide and 3.6 m deep

• Circular Tank: 13.7 m diameter, 3.0 m deep
• The average flow rate for each tank is 10,000 m3/per stream day.
Given terminal velocity equation:

VTSV = terminal velocity, m/s

ρp = density of particle, 1200 kg/m3
ρf = density of fluid, 1000 kg/m3
µf = viscosity of fluid, 0.001 Ns/m2
Dp = particle size (diameter), m
g = gravity acceleration, m/s2 (available from handbooks)

(a) Calculate the overflow rate for both tanks (in m/s).

(b) Find the terminal velocity of a suspended solid with a particle size of 80
micron.

(c) If the suspended solid with the smallest particle size of 80 micron is
introduced into both sedimentation tanks, based on the overflow rates of
both tanks in part (a), discuss briefly which tank is more efficient in
removing the suspended solids from water from the terminal velocity
standpoint.

(d) Calculate the detention/holding time for both tanks (in hours).

(e) One of the major wastewater streams is collected from scrubbing water of
a natural gas processing plant. During the risk assessment exercise of the
wastewater sedimentation unit, 2 potential risks were identified, namely
"Electric Shock - from the presence of high voltage equipment" and
"Presence of Toxic Gases".

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(i) Name 2 potential toxic gases present around the sedimentation tanks.

(ii) Describe 3 safety measures you would propose to the management to

address each of the 2 risks identified.

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Question 5

Businesses continuously evolve and adapt to address various challenges, such as

technology advancements, regulatory shifts, or economic factors. Management
of Change (MOC) provides a systematic approach to navigate these changes
effectively. The primary objective of MOC is to ensure the safety of workers
during transition phases.

(a) A disastrous accident at a cyclohexane plant that led to an explosion on 1

June 1974 is often quoted as a watershed event in process safety that has
long been held as one of the big events that drove the concept of
Management of Change (and Process Safety Management) forward. Briefly
describe the incident and the changes that were made leading up to it.

(b) Name three essential elements necessary to support a successful execution

of MOC?

(c) Describe in detail each of the three elements in part (b).

(d) Describe the workflow of the MOC process. You may use a flowchart to
support your description of the process.

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Question 6

Answer all the questions below.

(a) Voting logic for sensor subsystem and final element is used in the SIS
design. List the hardware fault tolerances for each of the voting
arrangements.

Voting Logic Hardware Fault Tolerance

(b) A company requires a SIL 3 High Integrity Pressure Protection System

(HIPPS) that has a pressure transmitter and a shutdown valve.

The company uses the following elements (sub systems):

Transmitter (model X)
Sensor
IEC 61508 type B, Safe Failure Fraction SSF=80%
Logic
SIL 3 rated Logic Solver
Solver
Final Air controlled shut down valve (model Z)
Element IEC 61508 type A, Safe Failure Fraction SFF=96%

Assumption: dangerous failure rates of all subsystems justify SIL 3

capability.

1. For the configuration of the SIS system (HIPPS) to comply with IEC
61508 Route 1H:

(i) What is the required voting logic for sensors to meet SIL3?

(ii) What is the required voting logic for final elements valve to meet
SIL3?

(iii) Draw the compliant SIF architecture block diagram.

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2. For the configuration of the SIS system (HIPPS) to comply with IEC
61508 Route 2H:
(i) What is the required voting logic for sensors to meet SIL3?

(ii) What is the required voting logic for final elements valve to meet
SIL3?

(iii) Draw the compliant SIF architecture block diagram.

Tables extracted from IEC 61508 for Route 1H

Table 2 – Hardware Safety Integrity Architectural Constraints for Type A Safety

– Related element or subsystem

Table 3 – Hardware Safety Integrity Architectural Constraints for Type B Safety

– Related element or subsystem

Table for Route 2H (IEC 61508)

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Question 7

A spherical tank with a 16 m diameter is to be installed in a refinery tank-farm

with the Bottom Tangent Line (BTL) of the tank held at 1.5 m from ground level.
The tank is designed to store liquid n-butane (C4H10) and has a design pressure
(DP) of 7 barg. A pressure relief valve (PRV) shall be provided on top of the
storage tank for safety relief during fire exposure. The tank is not insulated.

Determine the following:

(i) Estimate the relieving vapour load (kg/h) to the PRV during a fire
contingency.

(ii) Select the PRV type and calculate the orifice size (sq. mm) required of the
PRV for the fire contingency.

(iii) What maximum pressure drop (kPa) is allowed for the inlet piping to the
PRV from the storage tank?

The properties of n-butane are provided below:

Cp/Cv ratio: 1.09

Pcf/P1 ratio: 0.59
Gas compressibility under relieving conditions, Z: 0.80

Notes:

• Candidates can refer to API 520 (Parts I & II) and API 521 to facilitate the
calculations.
• The chart for estimating latent heat of vaporisation of C4H10 and the
emergency temperature under fire exposure conditions are provided
below. Candidates are advised to work using US customary units and
convert the results back to metric units.

Professional Engineers Registration Examination PPE 2025

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Professional Engineers Registration Examination PPE 2025