IMPORTANT QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Note: Correct answers are “Yellow” high lighted

1. On a Wye-Delta starting motor, a surge current will occur if transfer time is:

A. Short (correct answer)

B. Long
C. More than 10 Sec
D. Less than 10 Sec

2. Pipe falls on a cable tray with 60 m long cable and cable damaged. How to fix it?

A. Twist the cable and heat shrink

B. Compress the cable and heat shrink

C. Replace 3 m cable on both ends (correct answer)

D. Peel the cable and weld it

3. When you increase the volume of pager system, what happens?

A. Voltage increases, current decreases

B. Voltage increases, current increases (correct answer)

C. Voltage decreases, current decreases

D. Voltage increases, current remains same

4. Three 600/208/120 volts transformers need to be connected in delta. What will we

see at last two connections on secondary before we connect them?

A. 600V

B. 208V (Seems correct answer) (Secondary line to line=208V)

C. 120V
 D. 347V??

5. A Solar Photovoltaic Module needs to be removed. What should NOT change?

A. Voltage (Correct)

B. Current

C. Bond

D. Impedance

6. What torque range you will use for ½” hexagonal Socket Screw?

A. 50-56.53 (Correct) (Table D7)

B. 30-39.33

C. 55-56.54

D. 32-39.33

7. The lumens of a luminaire are deteriorated. What is the cause?

A. Aged lamp & dirty cover

B. Voltage is set to low for HID

C. Voltage is set to low for Transformer

D. Draws more current

8. In the following diagram there is a Full Wave Rectifier with Load controlled by an
SCR. If D4 is open, what will be the power on load?
 A. Half Wave (my answer)

B. Full Wave

C. No power to load (Correct answer because SCR won’t trigger on Half Wave)

9. In the figure below, what would happen if C is shorted?

A. Light would be off

B. Light would be on
C. The circuit board would fry up
D. Light would pulse on and off (Correct answer)

10. In which cable the short can damage the conductor while termination?

A. Armourd Cable

B. Coaxial Cable

C. Mineral insulated cable

D. Teck
11. In the following Diagram of DC Motor Speed control with three resistors and three
relays if relay A failed, what would happen to Motor M?

A. Motor will speed up

B. Motor will slow down

C. The speed will stay the same (correct answer)

D. The motor will stop

12. Diagram of a Tank with FS1 and FS2, and an oil pump drawing oil out of Tank. The
oil level does not go down of FS1. What is causing the problem?
 A. FS1

B. FS2 (Correct answer)

C. Both FS1 and FS2

D. The pump

13. A DCS system has a thermocouple to control the temperature range from 0 to 2000
degrees Fahrenheit. The thermocouple is type k with 0 to 45 mV output. The Temp
Transmitter’s output is 0-10V. The DCS system displays 1350 degrees Fahrenheit
when the actual temperature is 1500 degrees Fahrenheit. What to do?

A. Replace Thermocouple (Correct answer)

B. Recalibrate the transmitter

C. Replace the DCS

D. Repair the display

14. Repair work orders are kept in record files to:

A. Calculate work hours

B. Determine maintenance schedule (Correct answer)

C. Calculate labor

D. So that the supervisor knows who performed the work

15. What will be the resistance of High Voltage Substation if Fault Current is 100kA?

A. 0.05 ohms (Correct answer)(R=V/I = 5000/100000 = 0.05 ohm)

B. 500 ohms

C. 50 Kohms

D. 10 Kohms

16. In the following Ladder Diagram, which combination of INPUT switches will ensure
that the light is ON?

A. IN00/01 & IN00/02 ON and IN00/03 & IN00/04 OFF

B. IN00/01 or IN00/03 OFF and IN00/02 or IN00/04 ON (Correct answer)

C. IN00/01 & IN00/03 ON and IN00/02 & IN00/04 OFF

 D. IN00/01 & IN00/03 ON or IN00/02 & IN00/04 OFF

17. On PLC’s Input Card one of the terminal’s light is ON. But the data verification
reveals the relevant bit is OFF. What could be the problem?

A. Addressed wrong point in program

B. The fuse of Input card is blown

C. The Input card is not adjusted properly

D. The back plane is faulty

18. Burner in a Steam Generating System has yellow and smoky flame. What is the
cause?

A. Fuel Pump Faulty

B. Draft Fan Faulty

C. Problem with Supply Air Composition

D. Burner pilot doesn’t work

19. PLC program was edited online. What should be done before closing the computer?

A. Backup the program (Correct answer)

B. Disconnect from computer

C. Save the file

D. Do nothing

20. What size of the Copper Bonding Conductor is needed for a circuit of RW90 400A
conductors?

A. #6AWG

B. #3AWG (Correct answer) (Table 16)

 C. #000AWG

D. #8AWG

21. What would be the temperature rating of CRM Cable used in plenum?

A. 60 degrees (Correct answer) (Table 19)

B. 70

C. 90

D. 75

22. In a hydraulic robot control, the yaw arm moves left & right after robot is stopped.
What could be the problem?

A. Hydraulic filter (Correct answer)

B. Motor

C. Corrupt program

D. Electrical signal

23. Boiler’s burner goes off just after the ignition starts. What is the cause?

A. Fuel pump faulty (Correct answer)

B. Igniter faulty

C. No air supply

D. Exhaust fan faulty

24. How many binary inputs needed for 3 digit BCD display?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 9

D. 12 (Correct answer)
25. What is the FLA of a 3-phase, 10hp, 208 V Squirrel cage motor?

A. 30.8A (Correct answer)

B. 28A

C. 32.2A

D. 24A

Note: (Table 44, see note 1 under Table 44, 230v=28A208v=28+10%=30.8A)

26. What is Additive Control System?

➢ Additive Manufacturing (AM) is an appropriate name to describe the technologies that

build 3D objects by adding layer-upon-layer of material, whether the material is plastic,
metal, concrete or one day…..human tissue.

➢ A system satisfies the property of additivity, if a sum of inputs results in a sum of

outputs.

27. Installation of disconnect means in a Fire Alarm System is done as per:

A. No device capable of interrupting the fire pump circuit, other than a circuit breaker
labelled in a conspicuous, legible, and permanent manner identifying it as the fire
pump disconnecting means, shall be placed between the service box and a fire pump
transfer switch or a fire pump controller (answer) (CEC INDEXFIRE PUMP32-
206-1)

B. CEC 2012-22.1-12 (could be this answer) (This is the answer if statement in A is not
exactly same as given in 32-206-1)

28. One of the phases of a 3-phase 3-wires, Delta-connected transformer is shorted to

ground, how the system will work?

A. Normal
 B. Work on two phases

C. Unbalanced load

D. Will not work

29. What is required to go in slum pit?

A. Take sample and monitor the air

B. Wear environmental suit

C. Go with security

D. Wear mask

30. Three battery banks of 240v, 10A are parallel to each other. Two of the cells of one
bank opened, what will be VA of banks?

A. 2400VA

B. 4800VA (Correct answer)

C. 3600VA

D. 7200VA

31. Which of the following prevents Scaffolding from falling?

A. Outriggers

B. Cross Braces (Correct Answer)

C. Toe boards

D. Hand rails

32. What will be the ampacity of a #8 RW90 conductor at 45 degrees ambient

temperature?

A. 48A
B. 32.5A

C. 25A

D. 47.85A (Correct answer)

NOTE: Table 2: 55A (at 30 degrees), Then Table 5A: 0.87 x 55 = 47.85A (at 45 degrees)

33. In radio communication, the receiver and transmitter can communicate if:

A. Signal frequency is same (Correct answer)

B. The bandwidth is same

C. Voltage level is same

D. Current level is same

34. What is the current on the neutral conductor of a three-wire, 120/240 V circuit that
carries 1.8kW on phase A and 7.2kW on phase B?

A. 30A

B. 45A

C. 60A

D. 15A

35. Fuse blows before the disconnect means of 30A. What is next size of fuse to be
chosen?

A. 40A (Refer to Table 13)

B. 50A

C. 100A

D. 60A
36. Emergency standby generator starts but at rated speed it doesn’t develop any
voltage, what to do?

A. Replace exciter

B. Replace compensation coil

C. Replace prime mover

D. Fix the voltage regulator

37. While the generator was coming to speed, there was a big shake. What was the
problem?

A. Over-Excitation

B. Under-Excitation

C. Bearing problem

D. Shaft problem

38. Which one of the following is the symbol of Dangerously Reactive material?

A. (Correct answer)

B.

39. What is the material for heat sink?

A. Aluminum (Correct answer)

 B. Copper

C. Iron

D. Wood

40. A conduit has six #4AWG R90 cables. Two of them need to be replaced with
#4AWG TW. What will be the Ampacity of all conductors in the conduit?

A. 60

B. 70

C. 80

D. 105

Note:  TW has lower temp of 60, Table 2  Table 5c

41. A pneumatic valve connected to the air damper doesn’t work properly. How to
check it in field?

A. Compare the valve with other

B. Disconnect pneumatically and test with regulated air supply

C. Replace the actuator

D. Replace the damper

42. 125A compressor motor draws 19A. The locked rotor fuse is rated at 60A but it
keeps tripping. What is rated protection for this motor?

A. 60A

B. 70A

C. 75A

D. 80A (Correct answer)

Note: 125 x 0.65 =81.25A

43. Static Transfer Switch on UPS is used:

A. For Inverter Maintenance

B. To by-pass the power

C. To charge the batteries

D. Transfer AC to DC

44. What is maximum Bending Radius for a High Voltage Smooth Aluminum-Sheathed
cable with 27mm diameter?

A. 324mm

B. 405mm (Correct answer) (27x15) (Table 15)

C. 486mm

D. 500mm

45. Minimum Escalator Control signal Conductor size? (CEC)

A. #16AWG

B. #18AWG

C. #20AWG

D. #26AWG (Correct answer)

Note: (38-012 (2)) (CEC INDEX Elevator Wiring method

46. Which of following Binary number is equal to hexa-decimal 5F?

A. 0101100

B. 0001110

C. 1001101

D. 1011111 (Correct answer)

47. A motor’s name plate shows Service Factor of 1.15. Which of the following is true?

A. The Overload protection will be 125% of FLA

B. The overload protection will be 115% of FLA

C. The overcurrent protection will be 125% of FLA

D. The overcurrent protection will be 115% of FLA

48. A generator’s speed is 3000RPM and it has 8 poles on it. What will be the
frequency?

A. 150 Hz

B. 200 Hz (Correct answer)

C. 60 Hz

D. 50 Hz

Note: Ns=120f/P (Where Ns= Synchronous Speed in RPM)

49. A motor has 2 poles and 60Hz frequency. What will be the speed of motor?

A. 3000 RPM

B. 1800 RPM

C. 3600 RPM (Correct answer)

D. 900 RPM

Note: Ns=120f/P (Where Ns= Synchronous Speed in RPM)

50. A system has lagging power factor. A synchronous motor is added to the system for
power factor improvement. What is true?
 A. The synchronous motor should run on Unity power factor

B. The synchronous motor should run on Leading power factor

C. The synchronous motor should run on Lagging power factor

D. The synchronous motor cannot improve the power factor

51. A delta transformer has phase current of 10A. What will be the line current?

A. 10A

B. 5.78A

C. 17.3A (Correct answer) (1.73 x 10)

D. 20A

52. A direct acting proportional valve fails to close properly when fully forced. What
should be done?

A. Adjust zero (Correct answer)

B. Adjust span

C. Replace the valve

D. Replace the actuator

53. What will be the length of a straight pull box if the 27.3mm conduit has #4RW90
cable?

A. 163.8mm

B. 218.4mm (Correct answer)

C. 64.4mm

D. 27.3mm

Note: (8 x largest conduit) = 8 x 27.3 = 218.4mm

54. A pressure transmitter’s output is 4-20mA when input range is 425-875 bars. What
will be the output at 560 bars?

Calculation: (X-4)/ (20-4) = (560-425)/ (875-425)

(X-4)/16 = (560-425) / 450

X=8.8mA

55. In the following diagram of Bridge Rectifier, what signal Oscilloscope will show at
points A and B?

A. Diagram A

B. Diagram B (Correct answer)

C. Diagram C

D. None of the above

56. An air conditioner is installed on roof top. Where should the disconnect mean be
installed?

A. At 3m from the unit (Correct answer)

B. Outdoor close to the unit

C. Anywhere inside

D. At 9m from the unit

 Note: Code Book: 28-604 Location of disconnecting means

57. PLC is connected to computer through RS232 cable. Which type of communication
is this?

A. Parallel communication

B. Serial Communication (Correct answer)

C. Telecommunication

D. LAN communication

58. In the following diagram, what is the symbol?

A. Lower the boom

B. Raise the boom

C. Emergency stop

D. Don’t move

59. The motor starter chatters. What is the problem?

A. Motor overloaded

B. No shading coil

C. Loose contacts

D. Contacts are heated

60. If ratio is set to 1:500, what will be 200mm length in meters?

 A. 2000m

B. 200m

C. 100m (correct answer)

D. 10m

Note: 200mm x 500=100000mm=100m

61. The purpose of a lock-out/tag-out procedure is to:

A. Reduce time spent doing the job

B. Eliminate expenses related to maintenance

C. Prevent unauthorized personnel from entering an area

D. Secure all energy sources in a system

62. In the following diagram, what is being checked by CRs?

A. Phase loss

B. Phase balance
 C. Ground

D. Overcurrent

63. In the following P&ID for hot water level control, the temperature is not being
controlled properly. Which component needs to be replaced?

A. LIC

B. TIC

C. LT

D. TT

64. What is true for the following PLC Ladder Diagram:

A. When R is ON, S is OFF

B. When R is ON, S is ON
 C. When R is OFF, S is ON

D. When R is OFF, S is OFF

65. In the following four wiring diagrams of PLC Input Cards, which wiring circuit is
correct?

A. Diagram 1

B. Diagram 2 (correct answer)

66. Given the Ladder Diagram with four answer circuits. Which answer circuit needs to
be replaced in order to start the motor M?
 A. Diagram A

B. Diagram B

67. A map of an industrial warehouse building is given below. Where the Pull Station
should be installed?

A. At storage

B. At mechanical room

C. At the entrance

D. Outside

68. In following diagram, R1 to be replaced with two parallel resistors. What will be the
value of each resistor?

R1 D

12v 10mA

A. 1 Kohms

B. 2 Kohms (correct answer)

C. 3 Kohms

D. 5 Kohms

NOTE: Voltage Drop at Diode=0.7v  so total Voltage at R1=12-0.7=11.3v

 Two parallel resistors R2 & R3 with I=5mA each and V=11.3v

Therefore R2=R3=v/I = 11.3/5mA = 2.26Kohm ~2Kohm

69. One of the phases of a 3-phase 4-wires, Y-connected system is shorted to ground,
how the system will work?

A. Normally

B. Work on two phase (Correct)

C. Unbalanced load

D. Will not work at all

70. Due to a fault, one phase of a 600 V, three-phase, three-wire system was grounded.
The voltage of the remaining two phases to ground should be:
A. 0 V
B. 300 V
C. 345 V
D. 600 V

71. On a 600 V, three-phase, four wire (wye) star connected system, the approximate
normal voltage to ground would be
A. 0 V
B. 220 V
C. 347 V
D. 600 V

72. Which cable to be used from Joint to Patch in Plenum for Cat5e wire?

A. SOP

B. CMX (Table 19)

C. FCC

D. SO

Note: Cat5e is a communication cable. So in Table 19, look for communication cable
used in plenum, which is CMX on page 340 on Table 19.
73. What type of cable will be used in Class 1, Zone 1 area?

A. STOW

B. SO

C. CXM

D. STO

Note: CEC 18-122 Flexible cords, Class I, Zone 1

Flexible cords shall be permitted to be used only for connection between a portable lamp
or other portable utilization equipment and the fixed portion of its supply circuit and,
where used, shall
(a) Be of a type approved for extra-hard usage;

Table 11: STOW is for extra hard usage but for outdoor use

SO is also for extra hard usage but for indoor use, so this is our answer

74. A conduit has six #3AWG RW75 cables. Two of them need to be replaced with
#3AWG RW90. What will be the Ampacity of all conductors in the conduit?

A. 80A

B. 84A

C. 100A

D. 105A

Note: RW75 has lower temp of 75 (Table 19)

Table 2  100A for each conductor. As there are 6 conductors, go to Table 5C

Table 5c  100 x 0.8 = 80A

75. Three battery banks of 240v, 10A with 3 cells in each bank. One cell of two banks
opened, what will be VA of banks?

A. 2400VA

B. 4800VA

C. 7200VA
 D. 1200VA

76. Output from a pneumatic transmitter is 4-20mA and input is 0-15000PSI. What is
output signal if input signal is 11500PSI?

A. 12.60mA

B. 16.26mA

C. 8.92mA

D. 18.00mA

Calculation: (X-4)/16 = (11500-0)/15000, X = 16.266

77. What is required to go in confined space?

a. Take sample and monitor the air

b. Wear environmental suit

c. Wear safety glasses

d. Wear mask

78. What will be the distance of a Dry-Core type transformer from non-combustible
surface?

A. 150mm

B. 200mm

C. 300mm

HINT: Read whole CEC 26-248 section

79. A Transformer of the Dry-Core type rated at less than 750V and sitting on a
concrete floor must be separated a distance of how many mm from a block wall?

A. 50mm

B. 5m
 C. 150mm

D. 4.5m

80. Dry type transformers mounted on a wall shall be this many mm from the wall if it
is noncombustible?
A. 6mm
B. 8mm
C. 10mm
D. 4mm

81. The distance of separation between the dry core type open ventilated transformer
and the wall on which it is mounted is to be?

A. 12mm

B. 10mm

C. 8mm

D. 6mm

82. When multiple short switches are used in a ladder logic, they must be:

A. In parallel to each other

B. In series to each other

C. Connected to each other

D. Cannot use multiple switches in ladder logic

83. On a PLC output Card one output point’s light was ON, and while checking in the
program, the relevant bit was also ON, but the output device was not turning ON.
What was the problem?

A. Output card is faulty

B. Output device not working

C. PLC is faulty
 D. Fuse is blown

84. Due to dirt the centrifugal switch of a single phase motor fails to close when power is
supplied. What will happen?

A. The start winding will burn

B. The run winding will be energized but motor will not start

C. The bearing will break

85. Which circuit breaker is needed for 10HP, 3-phase, 230 V motor?

A. 28A

B. 70A

C. 80A

D. 100A

NOTE Table 44, then Table 29, then Table 13

86. Two heaters of 1200W and 1500W are connected adjacent with 4AWG cable. What
should be the distance of heaters from panel? (TABLE D3 & D4)

A. 12M

B. 25M

C. 19M

D. 50M

87. Where we can get the authentic firmware for our computer?

A. Third party supplier

B. Manufacturer’s web

C. Vender of computer

D. Microsoft
88. The old timing module needs to be replaced with Electronic timing module. How it
will be installed?

A. Cutout should be same

B. Power should be same

C. The wiring should be of same length

89. What will be the number of pairs of poles for a generator having speed of 3000 rpm
and 100 Hzs?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 12

D. 2 (correct answer)

 S = 60xf / p (pair of poles)

90. On power failure, trouble light on emergency panel remains ON for two minutes
and then the power goes OFF. What is the problem?

A. The battery is almost died

B. The transfer doesn’t work

C. The circuit problem

D. Light is faulty

91. The circuit breaker, after maintenance, needs to be brought into service. What to
do?

A. Test & reset

B. Set & power up

C. Reset & test

92. How to perform the “Battery Test”?

A. Fill & check gravity

B. Check gravity & fill

C. Fill, charge & check voltage

D. Unload, fill, check float voltage

93. After replacing the circuit breaker, what is marked on it?

A. Maximum Current Capacity

B. Voltage rating

C. Maximum power

D. Overload current

94. In a sound system, one speaker’s volume is less than the other. What is the cause?

A. Low voltage

B. Low power

C. Smaller size of speaker

95. What is done to keep noise level low in communication cable?

A. Keep more distance from power circuit

B. Use better insulation cable

C. Run parallel to power cable

D. Use filters

96. Cool-freeze switch was replaced from compressor. Where should it be placed now?
 A. On compressor

B. On evaporator

C. On condenser

97. How many straps are needed to support a 29.5m trade metal conduit of 21?

A. 14

B. 15

C. 16

D. 18 (correct)

98. When running two PVC conduit sized 1” & ½” (27 & 16) mounted together on
supports along a rooftop, what is the maximum distance between the conduit
straps?

A. 300mm

B. 750mm

C. 1.2m

D. 1.5m

(CEC INDEX, Conduit Support (12-1114))

99. A pneumatic valve connected to the air damper doesn’t work properly. How to
check it in field?

E. Compare the valve with other

F. Disconnect pneumatically and test with regulated air supply

G. Change the valve

100. A motor’s start / stop circuit causes intermittent problem, what could be done?

A. Replace buttons and contacts

 B. Replace contactor

C. Replace motor

101. Before forcing an instruction in PLC, we should consider:

A. The impact on input devices

B. The impact on output devices

C. The impact on input card

D. The impact on output card

102. Which end of instrument voltage transformer is grounded?

A. Primary

B. Secondary (Correct)

C. None is grounded

Note: CEC--10-116 Instrument transformer circuits

(1) Where primary windings of current and voltage instrument transformers are
connected to circuits of 300 V or more to ground, the secondary circuits of the
transformer shall be grounded.
(2) Where the transformers are on switchboards, the secondary circuits shall be grounded
irrespective of the
voltage of circuits.

103. A liquid filled transformer needs maintenance. How is done?

A. Replace the transformer

B. Clean the transformer

C. Take the oil sample

D. Change the oil

104. How are Fire Alarm System’s stranded conductors terminated?

A. Compression (CEC 32-100 (2)

B. Welding

C. Tapped

105. Which cable type we need for Fire Alarm Pull Station?

A. SOP

B. FAS (TABLE D1)

C. CFC

D. MI

106. What is the minimum voltage level for the wiring serving an addressable smoke
detector device installed in industrial site?
A. 600V
B. 300V
C. 208V
D. 115V

Rules 32-100(3), 32-110(3): OR See Table D1300 V, FAS wire.

107. Which of the following is the voltage rating and use of TEW equipment wire?
a. 340V hard usage
b. 600V wet location
c. 600V not for hard usage
d. 640V wet location
Ans. C (Table 11)

108. What is temperature rating of Communication Cable?

A. 60 degrees (Table 19)

B. 75 degrees

C. 90 degrees
 D. 105 degree

109. What type of raceway is used to install Fiber Optic cable in vertical conduit?

A. Has to be Non-combustible

B. Any raceway

C. PVC

110. Convert 28 to Binary.

A. 11100

B. 01101

C. 11110

D. 00011

111. A Ladder is 5 Meter high and you need to replace the lamp, what type of safety
needed?

A. Safety Harness

B. No harness needed

C. Safety Belt

112. A 60 AH, 24V battery is supplying a 200W load. How many hours it’s going to last?

A. 7.2 Hrs.

B. 16.2 Hrs.

C. 14.4 Hrs.

D. 60 Hrs.

SOLUTION: Load draws 200/24 = 8.33A  Battery will last 60AH/8.33A = 7.2Hrs
113. What should be done to replace the emergency power AC load with a DC load in the
circuit?

ANSWER
Remove jumper at 3-4 and put on 1-2, and put load on 3-4.

NOTE: Load is connected to AC at 1&2. To connect the load to DC, just swap the load
(1&2) with Jumper (3&4).

114. Which symbol is for compressed gases?

115. There was too much vibration in generator at rated speed. What is the problem?

A. Increased Excitation

B. The prime mover and rotor shafts are misaligned

C. Decreased Excitation

116. Emergency standby generator starts but at rated speed it doesn’t develop any
voltage, what to do?

A. Decrease Excitation

B. Increase Field Current

 C. Increase Prime Mover’s speed

117. When troubleshooting an alternator, it does not build voltage. A possible cause is:

a) Rheostat shorted
b) Exciter drained
c) Open field winding
d) Shorted diode

118. While checking the resistance of Generator winding, the megger first shows
low resistance then reading rises to acceptable limit. What is the problem?

A. Short winding

B. Wet winding

C. Burnt winding

119. When troubleshooting with a mega-ohm meter the megger starts to climb
upscale and then jumps back downscale. What is wrong?

a) Nothing
b) Meggar has internal short
c) Insulation breakdown
d) Voltage being used to low

Similar Question from Handouts:

120. How inspection of VFD panel is done with Infrared Thermographic camera?

A. Turn the load off, take picture

B. Open the door, wait for 15 minutes, take the picture, close the door

B. Open the door, on full load immediately take the picture, and then close the door

121. What should be done before a thermographic test is carried out?

ANSWER
 All panels should be opened and then energized at full load operation.

122. Motor Control Circuit Diagram- (4 diagrams-had to find correct one).

Connect the Start-Stop-Push Button portion of circuit with NO,NC, motor circuit
though transformer secondary

HINT: To solve this question, better to draw the ladder diagram first, as given below.

123. A 0-3A Current Transformer needs to be replaced with a 0-9A CT. How will
it be done?

A. Wrap 0-9A CT’s coil 3 turns

B. Wrap 0-9A CT’s coil 9 turns

C. Cannot use 0-9A CT

Note: If, for example, a window CT has a ratio of 100:5, placing two primary conductor
wraps (two primary turns) through the window will change the ratio to 50:5. Some types
of equipment employ this method to calibrate the equipment or to permit a single ratio
CT to be utilized for several different sizes (ampacities) of equipment.

124. UVPROM of DCS is showing problem, what is the cause?

A. System power problem

 B. Backup Battery is low

C. Memory is exposed to ambient light

125. What is exact sequence of UPS Power?

A. Rectifier-Battery-Inverter-AC

B. Rectifier-Ac-Inverter-battery

C. Ac-Battery-Inverter-Rectifier

126. What is maximum Bending Radius for a High Voltage Smooth Aluminum-
Sheathed cable with 27mm diameter? (Table 15)

E. 324mm (27x12)

F. 405mm (27x15)(correct answer)

G. 486mm

H. 500mm

(Table 15)

127. A conduit has six #4 RW90 conductors. If two of them are to be replaced
with #4 TEW, what will be the ampacity of each conductor in the conduit?

A. 95A

B. 70A

C. 76A (correct answer)

D. 56A

Note: Since TEW = 1050 C (Table 11) & RW90 = 900 C (Table 19), we will take the
lower temp rating of RW90.

Table 2: 95A (each conductor in conduit)

Table 5C: Six conductors, 0.8 x 95 = 76A

128. Five #14AWG R90 conductors are in Conduit. Two of them got damaged and
are to be replaced with two #14 AWG TW75. What is the Ampacity in Conduit?

A. 25A

B. 80A (Correct Answer) (Ampacity of 5 conductors-20Ax5=100x0.8=80A)

C. 68A

D. 100A

Table 2 (Two types of cables, R90 and TW75. Code says take the ampacity of lower
temperature cable. Temp rating of TW75 is 75C (in conduit) (table 19). So 20A for one
conductor of 75 degrees, 20x5=100A.

Table 5C: Because there are 5 conductors in conduit, so deration correction factor=0.8

Therefore Ampacity of 5 conductors=100x0.8=80A

129. Which of the following prevents Scaffolding from falling?

E. Outriggers

F. Cross Braces

G. The floor

SIMILAR QUESTION

ANSWER: A (Cross braces)

130. A delta connected transformer has one phase grounded. What will be the
outcome?

A. It will work on two phases (Correct)

B. It will work normally

C. Unbalanced loads

131. A UPS has three parallel banks of 240V, 10A each. If two cells of one of the
banks are open, what will be the VA of UPS?

A. 2400VA

B. 3600VA

C. 4800VA

D. 7200VA

Batteries in Series and Parallel Combination

In series-parallel batteries combination, one pack of batteries connected in series is joined

in parallel with another pack of batteries connected in series. Therefore, the overall output
voltage of series packs remains the same. But charge storage capacity is increased.
132. The standby generator does not show any voltage on the output terminals.
What could be the possible cause?

A. Exciter problem

B. Voltage regulator faulty

C. Bad output terminals

133. A delta transformer has line current of 10A. What will be the phase current?

A. 10A

B. 5.78A (10/1.73)

C. 15.78A

134. In an industrial system, the communication signal is being disturbed by

power cables. This is because:

A. The comm. cables are run parallel to the power cables

B. The comm. cables are run 90degrees to power cables

C. Harmonics are causing this problem

D. The comm. cables have week insulation

135. On a Wye Delta starting motor, if transfer time is less than required, what
will occur?

A. Nothing
B. A surge current will occur
C. The motor will not start
D. The ampere/hour rating specified on the motor name plate must be changed

136. What will be the resistance of High Voltage Substation if Fault Current is
200kA?

A. 0.05 ohms
 B. 500 ohms

C. 50 Kohms

D. 10 Kohms

(From CEC)(R=V/I = 5000/200000 = 0.25 ohm)

NoteCEC 36-304 1) The maximum permissible resistance of the station ground

electrode shall be determined by the maximum available ground fault current injected
into the ground by the station ground electrode or by the maximum fault current in the
station, and the ground resistance shall be such that under all soil conditions that exist in
practice (e.g., wet, dry, and frozen conditions), the maximum ground fault current
conditions shall limit the potential rise of all parts of the station ground grid to 5000 V;

137. What safety measures will be taken to go in Slum Pit?

A. Use high voltage protection

B. Take sample of gases

C. Use non-conductive ladder

138. How many straps needed for 17 meter long 16 size raceway?

A. 12

B. 11

C. 13

D. 10

 CEC INDEX See Conduit Support & Cable Support

In this question if raceway (conduit) size is 16 or 21, then the straps needed for 17 meter
long raceway = 17/1.5 = 11.33 (Segments) = 12-1=11

139. When running two PVC conduit sized 1” & ½” (27 & 16) mounted together
on supports along a rooftop, what is the maximum distance between the conduit
straps?

E. 300mm
F. 750mm

G. 1.2m

H. 1.5m

(CEC INDEX, Conduit Support (12-1114))

SEE THE FOLLOWING CODES

12-510 Running of cable between boxes and fittings (see Appendices B and G)
(1) Where the cable is run between boxes and fittings, it shall be supported by straps or
other devices located
(a) Within 300 mm of every box or fitting; and
(b) At intervals of not more than 1.5 m throughout the run.

12-1010 Maximum spacing of conduit supports

(1) All rigid metal conduit of one size shall be securely attached to hangers or to a solid
surface with the maximum spacings of the points of support not greater than
(a) 1.5 m for 16 and 21 trade size conduit;
(b) 2 m for 27 and 35 trade size conduit; and
(c) 3 m for 41 trade size conduit and larger.
(2) Where rigid metal conduits of mixed sizes are run in a group, the conduit supports
shall be arranged so that the maximum support spacing will be that shown in Subrule (1)
for the smallest conduit.
(3) When flexible metal conduit is installed, it shall be secured at intervals not exceeding
1.5 m and within 300 mm on each side of every outlet box or fitting, except where
flexible metal conduit is fished and except for lengths of not over 900 mm at terminals
where flexibility is necessary.

12-1114 Maximum spacing of conduit supports

(1) All rigid PVC conduit of one size shall be securely attached to hangers or to a solid
surface with the maximum spacing of the points of supports not greater than
(a) 750 mm for 16, 21, and 27 trade size conduit;
(b) 1.2 m for 35 and 41 trade size conduit;
(c) 1.5 m for 53 trade size conduit;
(d) 1.8 m for 63 and 78 trade size conduit;
(e) 2.1 m for 91, 103, and 129 trade size conduit; and
(f) 2.5 m for 155 trade size conduit.

12-1308 Supports
(1) Liquid-tight flexible conduit shall be supported by straps or other devices
(a) Within 300 mm of every outlet box, junction box, cabinet, or fitting; and
(b) With spacing between supports of not more than 1.5 m.
140. Five #14AWG R90 conductors are in Conduit. Two of them got damaged and
are to be replaced with two #14 AWG TW75. What is the Ampacity in Conduit?

E. 25A

F. 80A

G. 68A

H. 100A

NOTE: Table 2 (Two types of cables, R90 and TW75. Code says take the ampacity of
lower temperature cable. So 20A for one conductor of 75 degrees, 20x5=100A.

Table 5C: Because there are 5 conductors in conduit, so deration correction factor=0.8

Therefore Ampacity of 5 conductors=100x0.8=80A

141. A Transformer of the Dry-Core type rated at less than 750V and sitting on a
concrete floor must be separated a distance of how many mm from a block wall?

E. 50mm

F. 5m

G. 150mm

H. 4.5m

142. What is the temperature rating of Communication Cable “Cat5 e”?

E. 60 degrees (correct answer) (Table 19)

F. 75 degrees

G. 90 degrees

H. 105 degree

143. Which wire type we need for Communication System? (CEC TABLE D1)

A. SOP
 B. FAS

C. CBC

D. CFC

144. pH Meter is calibrated but reads pH very high. What is the possible reason?

A. Alkalinity Very high

B. Process is inclined to Base

C. Process is inclined to Acidity

145. Working on Ladder which is 6 Meter high, what type of safety needed?

A. Full Safety Harness

B. Safety belt

C. Safety jacket

D. No safety equipment needed

146. An electrician changes an HID luminaire lamp located 8 meters above grade.
The safety equipment requirements are:
A. LAN tester
B. Fall arrest harness
C. Meg-ohmmeter
D. Ohm-meter

147. Where is Governor Control installed on a generator?

A. On prime mover

B. On the stator

C. On voltage regulator
148. When troubleshooting a generator, we flash the field to:

A. Check the diode bridge

B. Establish ground potential
C. Establish field polarity
D. Defeat residual magnetism

149. DP Transmitter for Level control is calibrated but still failing. What to do?

A. Change Transmitter

B. Change PLC

C. Check Air Supply

D. Change level sensor

150. PROM memory of computer doesn’t work. What could be the cause?

D. System power problem

E. PROM’s Battery died

F. Circuit problem

151. Connection of Braided Shield of cable of BNC connector to be done with:

A. Conductor

B. Connector

C. Connector & Conductor

152. A motor contactor is being controlled from four different locations, how
many wires used at one location?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4
 D. 5

153. Four start-stop stations are required for one contactor serving a fan system
MCC. What is the minimum number of wires required?

ANSWER
Three.

154. Which combination of voltmeters confirm fuse A is blown?

A. V1 and V2
B. V2 and V3
C. V3 and V4
D. V1 and V4

155. Determine the correct voltmeter combination for checking the fuse if both of
the fuses are blown in the circuit.
 ANSWER
V1 = 240 V, V2 = 0, V3 = 0, and V4 = 0.

156. Referring to the following diagram, which fuses are blown?

a. L1 and L2.
b. L1 only.
c. L3 only.
d. L1 and L3.

157. 4-20mA signal is measured by means of:

A. Wheatstone Bridge

B. Galvanometer

C. Milliammeter

158. A 600V 3-phase 4-wires, Y-connected system. One phase shorted to ground,
what is the voltage on rest of the two phases.

A. Zero volts

B. 600 volts
 C. 480 volts

D. 347 volts (Correct answer)

159. Due to fault, one phase of a 600 V, three-phase, three-wire system was
grounded. The voltage of the remaining two phases to ground should be:
A. 0
B. 300
C. 345
D. 600

160. In an automatic control system, the temperature is controlled by:

A. Dew control

B. Barometer control

C. Taking Difference of temperature between outside and inside

D. Thermocouple

161. After completing the Communicating Equipment’s installation, which

instrument to be used to check whether the circuit functions properly?

A. Voltmeter

B. Megger

C. LAN Tester

D. Ammeter

162. How is the PLC Grounding/Bonding done?

A. Connect Backside of Panel to ground

B. No need to ground the PLC

C. Connect backplane to panel

163. What will be Current on Neutral if same load on both sides in three wire
system (2 live, one neutral)?

A. Zero Amps

B. Full load current

C. 100 %

164. What is the color of commutator after excessive use?

A. Chocolate Brown

B. Red

C. Black

D. Golden

165. What is the length of time for Dielectric Test?

A. 60Sec

B. 90Sec

C. 30Sec

166. Calculate the AH of a battery with 600W load, 110V and it lasts for 2 Hrs.

Solution: Amp. = 600/110 = 5.45 A,

AH=5.45 x 2 =10.9AH

167. In a robotic system, the arm goes too far. What is the cause?

A. Dirty hydraulic filter

B. Low oil level

C. Bad program
168. If fan and Buner are interconnected, what would happen to furnace??

A. Furnace will not start

B. Fan will burn

C. Furnace will burn

169. How the dynamic braking of AC motor is accomplished?

A. Inject low DC supply

B. Introduce more resistance

C. Reverse the terminals

170. Motor trips again and again. What should be checked first?

A. Check overload setting

B. Check contactor

C. Check circuit breaker

171. In a 7-segment LED display, how many wires are used?

A. 7

B. 8

C. 9

D. 4

172. What is the material of heat sink?

A. Aluminum

B. Copper

C. Lead
 173. What is the Symbol for RF control antenna?

174. Where the Tachometer is used?

A. In closed loop control circuits.

B. In open loop control circuit

175. Other than screw drivers and pliers, what other tools are needed to change a
600 V, 25 HP induction motor on the production line?

ANSWER
Tester, wrench, and padlock.

176. Where can a neutral wire be spliced?

Q. Can a receptacle be used as a splicing device? In other words, can we use all four screws (hot
and neutral) on the receptacle?
A. Yes. However, continuity of the neutral conductor of a multiwire branch circuit must not be
interrupted by the removal of a wiring device [300.13(B)]. In these applications, the neutral
conductors must be spliced together and a "pigtail" provided for the wiring device. The opening
of the ungrounded conductors, or the neutral conductor of a 2-wire circuit during the replacement
of a device, doesn't cause a safety hazard, so pig tailing of these conductors isn't required
[110.14(B)].
Caution: If the continuity of the neutral conductor of a multiwire circuit is interrupted (opened),
the resultant over- or under-voltage can cause a fire and/or destruction of electrical equipment.

177. How to change the direction of 3-phase motor?

A. Reverse any two wires

178. How is the proper biasing of transistors done?

Base-EmitterForward Biased & Base-CollectorReverse Biased

179. What is meant by dotted lines on Motor Starter diagram?

A. Mechanical Interlock

B. Pneumatic signal

C. No voltage

180. What will be the clearance between two horizontal cable trays?

A. 600mm

B. 300mm

C. 100mm

D. 50mm

Note: CEC INDEX (12-2200 (6))

(c) 600 mm horizontal clearance on one side of cable trays mounted adjacent to one
another or to walls or other obstructions, where the width of the cable tray installation
does not exceed 1 m; and
 (d) 600 mm horizontal clearance on each side of cable trays mounted adjacent to one
another, where the width of the cable tray installation exceeds 1 m.

181. Wire colors for three way switch.

A. Black (Hot) Red

White (N) Black

182. Clamp-on meter reads 35A but panel ammeter reads low, what to do?

A. Calibrate panel ammeter

B. Replace the panel ammeter

183. What is the size of communication control wire? (See Table D1)

A. CFC 22 TO 30 AWG

CBC 22 TO 26 AWG

PCC 22 TO 26 AWG

184. What type of Time Delay Fuse is required for feeder, 230V of three motors with
10HP, 5HP, 15HP

Table 44: 15HP = 42A

10HP = 28A

5HP = 15.2A

Now Feeder’s Time Delay Fuse (Table 29) = 1.75 x 42 + 28 + 15.2 = 116.7A

Now Table 13: 110A (Low to Fuse, High to Conductor)

185. What is the size of over current protection device in single dwelling unit for
florescent light fitting?

A. 15A

186. Diagram: What type of symbol:

A. Recessed Light

187. How would you change the polarity of a self-excited DC generator?

A. Reverse the Prime Mover

B. Reverse the Field

C. Reverse the Armature

D. Reverse the Brushes

188. If the isolation between the Armature and Armature Winding breaks down, what
will happen to the motor?

A. Pitted bearing

B. Arcing on the shaft

C. Burned brushes

D. Burned motor

Common faults on armatures

Commutators

The most common fault with armatures is worn commutators, caused by the friction of
carbon brushes against the commutator surface. This fault can usually be repaired without
 rewinding the armature by turning the commutator brush surface down below the damage
and then undercutting the insulation between the commutator segments.
Burnt-out

Another common fault is for the armature to burn out. This can be caused by a number of
different problems such as overloading, poor airflow, regulator failure, stalling, insulation
breakdown, earthing etc. If the armature has burned out then it will need to be rewound.

The shorted turns get hot as the voltage generated in them has only the resistance of that
one turn so the current it draws can be high and that high current generates heat. This
heating causes further shorts and more heating until eventually the winding itself burns
out.

189. What is the maximum over current protection allowed on a high voltage potential
transformer (PT)?

A. 1 Amp

B. 3 Amp

C. 5 Amp

D. 10 Amp

Note: 26-262 Overcurrent protection of instrument voltage transformers

(1) Except under the conditions of Subrules (2) and (3), instrument voltage transformers
shall have primary fuses rated not more than
(a) 10 A for low-voltage circuits; and
(b) 3 A for high-voltage circuits.

190. What is the maximum secondary voltage allowed on a potential transformer

(PT)?

A. 12V

B. 30V

C. 60V

D. 120V
191. In a 10KVA, 600V Auto-Transformer, load is connected to the 60% tap of the
Auto-Transformer. What is the calculated line amperes?

A. 17A

B. 12.5A

C. 10A

D. 27.8A

60%=600 X 0.6 = 360V

I=10000/360=27.8A

192. Determine the secondary load current of a 30KVA, 600/240/120V step down
transformer.

(We need to know: Line current or phase current)

Sec. Line current =30k/240=125A

Sec. Phase current=30k/120=250A

600v

A. 50A

B. 250A

C. 75A
 D. 125A (Line current)

193. What is the Fuse size for the primary over-current protection for a 50A
transformer, 3-phase, and 600 V dry type?

A. 50

B. 62.5A (50x1.25 = 62.5A)

C. 100A

D. 150A

Note: CEC 26-256 Overcurrent protection for dry-type transformer circuits rated
750 V or less

194. Wire feeding a 240v, 60 Hz, 20kvar capacitor used to correct a motor’s power
factor is?

A. 1AWG
B. 2AWG
C. 3AWG
D. 4AWG

Note: I=KVAR/V = 20000/240 = 83.33A

CEC INDEXCAPACITORSCONDUCTOR SIZE (26-208):
Conductor for capacitor = 83.33 x 1.35 = 112.5A
Table 1: Column 2, 120A = 3AWG

195. What is the maximum percentage voltage drop allowed on a feeder conductor?
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 5%

 CEC 8-102, Table D3 and D4

196. In a furnace what is the sequence of operation for the blower?

A. Start the fan first and stop the fan first
B. Start the fan last and stop the fan first
C. Start the fan first and stop the fan last
D. Start the fan last and stop the fan last
197. A 120/208V 3-Phase supply is rated at 80KVA. What will be the current in line
under full load conditions?
A. 192A
B. 222A
C. 333A
D. 384A

198. In a furnace what is the sequence of operation for the burner?

Burner: First to turn ON, First to turn OFF (to be confirmed)

Blower Fan: Last to turn ON, Last to turn OFF

199. You reverse the direction of a split phase motor by switching what terminals?

A. T1 & T3

B. T2 & T5

C. T1 & T8

D. T5 & T8
200. How would you change the polarity of a self-excited DC generator?

A. Reverse the Prime Mover

B. Reverse the Field

C. Reverse the Armature

D. Reverse the Brushes

201. On a 12A system a 15A breaker keeps tripping, what could be the problem?

A. Breaker faulty

B. Excessive load

C. EOL resistance low

D. Excessive voltage

202. A circuit breaker to be disconnected for repair. It should be in what state?

A. Test mode

B. Discharged

C. Charged

D. Closed

203. What will be the size of hole for 1/2 inch conduit?

A. 3/8 inches

B. ½ inches

C. 7/8 inches

D. 1 inch
204. Which of the following combinations tells us that phase B is open?

A. AB=0, BC=0, AC=240V

B. AB=240V, BC=240V, AC=0

C. AB=240V, BC=0, AC=0

D. AB=240V, BC=240V, AC=240V

205. A welding machine causes arching on attachment during welding. What to do?

A. Check if welding machine is grounded

B. Check integrity of bonding system

C. Tighten the fasteners on the attachment

D. Check voltage on terminals

206. The generated voltage on a generator’s output terminals was found more than
the regular voltage. What to do?

A. Decrease field current

B. Increase field current

C. Reduce the prime mover speed

D. Increase the prime mover speed

207. A transmitter was replaced with new one on a DCS system. But no signal is
being received at DCS. What to do?

A. DCS program needs to be modified

B. The transmitter is not wired correctly

C. The voltage is low

D. DCS faulty
208. Which rung of a Fiber Glass Ladder we should stand and work from top?

A. 3rd from top

B. 2nd from top

C. 1st from top

D. 4th from top

ALL OCCUPATIONAL SKILLS QUESTIONS
1. A victim of electric shock may likely require what sort of immediate medical
attention?
(A) Bandages over the point of electrical contact

(B) Ice applied to the burned areas

(C) Antibiotics to prevent infection

(D) CPR

(E) An EEG test to record nervous system function

______________________________________________________________________

2. The very first thing you should do if you are the first to witness or discover an
accident on the job site is to:
(A) Provide first-aid to the victim(s)

(B) Seek the assistance of the nearest co-worker

(C) Alert professional emergency responders

(D) Report the incident to your supervisor

(E) Go find at least one co-worker to help you so you can work as a team

______________________________________________________________________

3. The purpose of a cartridge-style respirator is to:

(A) Provide a pure oxygen breathing environment where there is insufficient oxygen

in the air

(B) Enhance your personal appearance for maximum social appeal

(C) Convert exhaled carbon dioxide back into oxygen for re-breathing

(D) Reduce the concentration of particulates in the air you breathe

(E) Reduce noxious odors in the air you breathe

______________________________________________________________________

4. Shock is defined as an abnormal condition of the body where:

(A) There is insufficient blood delivered to the body’s cells
(B) The heart stops beating normally, and “quivers” instead

(C) The lungs are unable to process oxygen properly

(D) A broken bone has penetrated the skin

(E) The muscles in the body have “frozen” and will not move

______________________________________________________________________

5. A confined space is deemed ready for employee entry when:

(A) The unit operations foreman declares it ready

(B) A company safety inspector has certified it

(C) Your supervisor assigns you to the job

(D) An independent inspection agency has completed their survey

(E) An engineer has completed the necessary calculations

______________________________________________________________________

6. One of the common signs of a heart attack is:

(A) A sharp pain in the lower area of the spine

(B) Loss of bowel control

(C) A feeling of numbness in the legs

(D) Discomfort in the chest and/or upper body

(E) A general feeling of restlessness and anxiety

______________________________________________________________________

7. Arc blast is caused by:

(A) Poor contact within electrical wire splices

(B) Radio frequency emissions from high-power transmitters

(C) Discharge of high electrical current through open air

(D) Failure to lock-out and tag-out electrical breakers

(E) Ionization of gases near high-voltage electrical conductors

______________________________________________________________________
8. Current measurements are more dangerous to make with a multimeter than voltage
measurements because:

(A) You must use both hands to take the measurement

(B) Most multimeters are unfused

(C) The resulting magnetic fields may be very strong

(D) The circuit must be broken (opened)

(E) A fuse protects the voltage measurement ranges, but not current

9. The purpose of a lock-out/tag-out procedure is to:

(A) Reduce time spent doing the job

(B) Eliminate expenses related to maintenance

(C) Prevent unauthorized personnel from entering an area

(D) Secure all energy sources in a system

(E) Reduce the risk of accidental fire

10. How to lower the speed of the drill press?

A) Longer the belt

B) Shorter the belt

C) Change the big motor

D) Change the small motor

Ans: B

11. Working on Ladder which is 6 Meter high, what type of safety needed:
A-Full Safety Harness

B-etc.

Ans: A
12. To install a new device in a hazardous area!
A) Get permission, verify the place is safe, and install the device

13. After you got permission to repair a defective device---

A) Notify the operator, turn off the power and tag out, and file a report

14. When applying solder to a splice connection, what is the proper procedure you
should do?
a. The solder is applied to the splice after it has been heated for a few seconds.
b. The solder is applied at the instant that the heat is applied.
c. The solder is applied directly to the soldering tip.
d. None of the above

Ans. A

15. What is a class “A” fire?

A. electrical equipment, motors, switches
B. gasoline
C. ordinary combustions like wood, paper, etc.
Ans. C

16. What is the definition of a Class B fire?

A. Fires that involve energized electrical equipment, such as wiring, controls, motors or
appliances.

B. Fires that involve combustible metals such as magnesium and sodium.

C. Fires involving common combustibles such as wood, paper, cloth, rubber and trash.

D. Fires involving flammable liquids, gases, gasoline and synthetic or oil-based

products.

Ans. D

17. What is a class “C” fire?

A. electrical equipment, motors, switches
B. gasoline
C. ordinary combustions like wood, paper, etc.
Ans. A

18. When using a wrench, the safest and most efficient way to use it is by?
A. pushing away from you
B. pulling towards you
C. put a pipe on end and push
D. can be used as a hammer
Ans. B

19. Scaffolding erected this much feet above the ground must have guard rails?
A. 3ft
B. 5ft
C. 7ft
D. 10ft

Ans. D

20. What is the knot below called?

A. granny
B. slip know
C. clove
D. pipe

Ans. A

21. What type of fire extinguisher should be used on electrical fires?

A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D

Ans. C

22. When would WHMIS require the use of a workplace label?

a. When the instructions for use are missing.

b. When a controlled product is shipped from the manufacturer.

c. When a controlled product is transferred from its’ original container.

d. When the MSDS is missing from a controlled product.

Ans. C

23. When using a fire extinguisher to extinguish a fire, it should be?

A. pointed at the top of the flames

B. held within 6 inches of the flame

C. pointed at the base of the fire
D. moved up and down to cool the flame

Ans. C

24. Federal regulation requires that hazardous information about a product be provided
to all users of that product. What is the form used to provide this information?
a. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

b. Hazardous Information Sheet (HIS)

c. Occupational Safety and Hazard Form (OSHF)

d. Safety Information Form (SIF)

Ans. A
25. Which of the following is not an essential element necessary to produce an ordinary
fire?
a. Oxygen

b. Heat

c. Hydrogen

d. Fuel

Ans. C

26. What is the purpose of a class a ground fault circuit interrupter?

A. for short circuit and ground fault only

B. overload short circuit and ground fault

C. overload reverse current and ground fault

D. overload and short circuit only

Ans. A

27. Lockout devices are used to do which of the following?

A. supply air pressure to an air feeder

B. establish the size of container to hold the finished parts

C. keep affected personnel from being injured by machinery that may be activated by
mistake

Ans. C

28. “Source of Energy” is which of the following characteristics?

A. pneumatic

B. hydraulic

C. electrical

D. all of the above

Ans. D
29. Which products do manufacturers have to supply an MSDS for?
A. products that contain chemicals

B. products that have the potential to cause harm

C. products used for sanitation purposes

D. all products sold

Ans. D

30. Which of the following is NOT a legal question that may be asked during an
employment interview?
a. How old are you?

b. Are you over the age of 18?

c. Are you physically able to perform this job?

d. In which languages are you fluent?

Ans. A

31. A product you are planning to use is marked with this symbol?
What personal protective equipment would you expect to wear?

a. Fire resistant clothing.

b. Supplied air respirator and full face mask
c. Dust mask and leather work gloves.
d. Chemically resistant gloves, apron and a face shield.
Ans. D

32. When removing a 129 V DC explosion-proof instrument from service, which

procedure would ensure equipment and personal safety?

a) Lockout and tag, inform operations, open breaker, isolate from process.
b) Inform operations, lockout and tag, open breaker, isolate from process.

c) Lockout and tag, isolate from process, open breaker, inform operations.

d) Inform operations, isolate from process, open breaker, lockout and tag.

Ans. D

33. What is to be done with an oil filled dead weight tester after using to bench check a
pressure signal?

A) Drain the oil and flush the DWT out, return to storage location

B) Clean the weights & fittings, return to storage location.

C) Pressurize the chamber, cap both ends, and return to storage location

D) Disconnect the tubing, send out for recertification

Ans. B

34. What is the proper procedure for working on a hydraulic valve which is part of a
control system? After obtaining all required work approvals.

A) Open oil line equalizer, pull disconnect, lock out disconnect, perform work, return to

service, inform operations

B) Shut off pump, pull disconnect, lock out disconnect, verify zero pressure, perform

work, return to service, inform operations

C) Verify zero pressure, Shut off pump, pull disconnect, lock out disconnect, perform

work

D) Shut off pump, pull disconnect, lock out disconnect, verify zero pressure, perform

work, inform operations

Ans. B
35. A configuration change needs to be completed to a PLC or DCS program, how
would this be done to assure back up for records. Using a laptop computer and proper

cabling.

A) Connect laptop, make copy of program, make changes, and download changes to

process, verify changes, save changes to master disc, disconnect laptop.

B) Connect laptop, make changes, download changes to process, and verify changes,

save changes to master disc, disconnect laptop.

C) Connect laptop, make copy of program, make changes, and download changes to

process, save changes to master disc, disconnect laptop.

D) Connect Laptop, put all loops on manual, make copy of program, and make
changes,

download changes to process, verify changes, save changes to master disc,

disconnect laptop.

Ans. A

36. What is the minimum distance a portable ladder is to extend above a work platform?
A. 36”
B. 28”
C. 12”
D. 24”
Ans. A

37. In a pneumatic drawing, what does an equilateral triangle represent?

a. Direction of fluid flow
b. Air pressure is adjustable
c. Variable fluid pressure
d. GPM rating of the compressor
Ans. A
38. Which of the following symptoms indicates heat stroke?
a. Dizziness, vomiting, cold skin, profuse sweating
b. Hot and dry skin, inability to drink, vomiting, confusion
c. Sudden affinity for country-western music
d. Cold and clammy skin, thirst, vomiting, confusion
Ans. B

39. Which of the following is the normal atmospheric pressure at sea level?
a. 14.7
b. 14.7 psia
c. 14.7 psig
d. 14.7 psi
Ans. D

40. Which of the following is the PSI with a reading of 80 PSIA from?
a. 19.8 PSI
b. 70 PSI
c. 65.3 PSI
d. 82.6 PSI
Ans. C

(As atmosphere pressure at sea level = 14.7 PSI, then 80-14.7 =65.3)

41. Which of the following is authorized to remove a lockout tag out?

a. Only the person who applied the lock

b. Any one in management
c. Only a certified Health and Safety member
d. Any authorized worker
Ans. A

42. Which of the following is the purpose of CPR?

a. Maintain oxygenated blood circulation

b. Dislodge blood clots within the victim’s lungs

c. Build upper body strength

d. Stabilize body temperature to avoid hypothermia

Ans. A
43. Where must an intrinsic safety barrier panel be installed from which of the
following?
A. hazardous area with no grounds.

B. safe area with no grounds.

C. hazardous area with the ground bus bars returned to plant ground.

D. safe area with an isolated ground.

Ans. D

44. Which type of gasket is most frequently used in a high-pressure hydraulic system
assembled with socket weld flanges?
A. spiral flange

B. crush ring

c. “O” ring

d. Split ring

Ans. C

45. Which of the following given below is the correct method to use a tagline?
A. assists the main line in lifting

B. prevent swinging of the load

C. prevent the whip line from coming unraveled

D. secure the snatch block

Ans. B

(Tag Line is a nylon rope which helps the riggers to hold the load on the crane
and avoid swinging).

46. What safe work procedures should be followed when working with PVC solvent
cements and primers inside an enclosed building?
a. Keep containers tightly closed when not in use, open only when brush is to be used
to dispense primer or solvent cement and ventilate area.
b. Wear approved gloves, keep containers tightly closed when not in use, open only
when brush is to be used to dispense primer or solvent cement and ventilate area.

c. Wear leather palmed gloves and only cut a small hole in the lid of the containers large
enough for the brush required to dispense materials.

d. Wear cotton gloves, cut a small hole in the lid of the containers large enough for the
brush required to dispense materials and ventilate area as needed.

Ans. B

47. A key element of a comprehensive safety and health program is one of the
following?
a. Hazard prevention and control.
b. Pre-employment physicals.
c. Record keeping.
d. Drug and alcohol testing.

Ans. A

2.8 OHSA SECTION 73: PORTABLE LADDERS

(e) When not securely fastened, be inclined so that the horizontal distance from the top

support to the foot of the ladder is not less than 1/4 and not more than 1/3 of the length
of the ladder. R.R.O. 1990, Reg. 851, s. 73.

48. Color Coding of a three wire system:

Black Live or Hot

WhiteNeutral

GreenGround
49. In addition to wearing safety boots, which combination of personal protective
equipment should be utilized when working at a switching substation?

a. Safety gloves, face shield and glow stick.

b. Work gloves, anti-glare safety goggles and glow stick.

c. Safety gloves, safety goggles and ear plugs.

d. Work gloves, face shield and ear plugs.

Ans. C

50. When new materials are received on a job site, what is to be done with the material
safety data sheet (MSDS)?

a. Tape it to the container(s)

b. Read and discard

c. Give it to the supervisor

d. Place it in the on-site MSDS file folder

Ans. D

51. The hand signal used to instruct the crane operator to stop is?

a. Arm extended, palm down, move hand right and left

b. Forefinger pointing up, hand moving in small circles

c. Arm extended forward hand open at right angle pointing upward

d. Arm extended downward hand making a fist
Ans. A

52. When setting up a ladder against a wall, which rung is safest to step on before
danger ensues?

a. 2nd from bottom

b. 1st from top

c. 3rd from top

d. 4th from top

Ans C

53.

ANSWER: D

54. Four Diagrams of a man with hand signals (Like Thumb rule):
Question: Which figure shows to “raise the boom”

55. Identify the hand signal in the drawing below?

a. Swing load
b. Travel forward
c. Extend boom
d. Dog everything
Ans. C

(See drawings at the end of this file)

Crane Hand Signals

1. Hoist

With forearm vertical, forefinger pointing up, move hand in small horizontal circles

2. Lower

With arm extended downward, forefinger pointing down, move hand in small horizontal
circles.

3. Use Main Hoist

Tap fist on head; then use regular signals.

4. Use Whip line (Auxiliary Hoist)

Tap elbow with one hand; then use regular signals.

5. Raise Boom

Arm extended, finger closed, thumb pointing upward.

6. Lower Boom

Arm extended, finger closed, thumb pointing downward.

7. Move Slowly
Use one hand to give any motion signal and place other hand motionless in front of
hand giving the motion signal. (Hoist slowly shown as example.)

8. Raise the Boom and Lower the Load

Arm extended, fingers closed, thumb pointing upward, other arm bent slightly with
forefinger pointing down and rotate hand in horizontal circles.

9. Lower the Boom and Raise the Load

Arm extended, fingers closed, thumb pointing downward, other arm with forearm
vertical, forefinger pointing upward and rotate hand in horizontal circles.
Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System

CLASS A: COMPRESSED GAS

This class includes compressed gases, dissolved gases, and gases liquefied by
compression or refrigeration.

CLASS B: FLAMMABLE AND COMBUSTIBLE MATERIAL

This class includes solids, liquids, and gases capable of catching fire in the presence of
a spark or open flame under normal working conditions.

CLASS C: OXIDIZING MATERIAL

These materials increase the risk of fire if they come in contact with flammable or
combustible materials.
CLASS D: POISONOUS AND INFECTIOUS MATERIAL
Division 1: Materials Causing Immediate and Serious Toxic Effects
These materials can cause death or immediate injury when a person is exposed to
small amounts. Examples: sodium cyanide, hydrogen sulphide.

CLASS D: POISONOUS AND INFECTIOUS MATERIAL

Division 2: Materials Causing Other Toxic EFFECTS
These materials can cause life-threatening and serious long-term health problems as
well as less severe but immediate reactions in a person who is repeatedly exposed to
small amounts.

CLASS D: POISONOUS AND INFECTIOUS MATERIAL

Division 3: Bio-hazardous Infectious MATERIAL
These materials contain an organism that has been shown to cause disease or to be a
probable cause of disease in persons or animals.
CLASS E: CORROSIVE MATERIAL
This class includes caustic and acid materials that can destroy the skin or eat through
metals. Examples: sodium hydroxide, hydrochloric acid, nitric acid

CLASS F: DANGEROUSLY REACTIVE MATERIAL

These products may self-react dangerously (for example, they may explode) upon
standing or when exposed to physical shock or to increased pressure or temperature, or
they emit toxic gases when exposed to water.
May react violently causing explosion, fire
or release of toxic gases when exposed to
light, heat, vibration or extreme temperatures.