Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.

 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI

A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
SEC: Sr. Super60 NUCLEUS-BT JEE-MAIN Date: 28-06-2025
Time: 09.00Am to 12.00Pm WTM-34 Max. Marks: 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION:
1. Immediately fill in the Admission number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point
Pen only.
2. The candidates should not write their Admission Number anywhere (except in the specified space) on
the Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each subject and subject having two sections.
(I) Section –I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
(II) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only, if more than
5 questions attempted, First 5 attempted questions will be considered.
∎ The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest
Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from
10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
To cancel any attempted question bubble on the question number box.
For example: To cancel attempted question 21. Bubble on 21 as shown below

.
Question Answered for Marking Question Cancelled for Marking @
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue / Black Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any
electron device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Hall.
However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold of make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet
Name of the Candidate (in Capital): ________________________________________________

Admission Number:
Candidate’s Signature:________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ________________
 SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 28-06-2025_Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS-BT_Jee-Main-WTM-34_Q.P

28-06-2025_Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS-BT_Jee-Main-WTM-34_Test Syllabus
MATHEMATICS : Conditional probability, Multiplication theorem, Independent events
PHYSICS : NUCLEI: Nuclear notation, Composition of nucleus, Mass of nucleus, Mass-energy
equivalence relation, Size of nucleus, Density of nucleus, Charge of nucleus, Nuclear
shapes, Isotopes, Isobars and Isotones, Nuclear binding energy and mass defect, Binding
energy curve, Nuclear force and its comparison with gravitational and electrostatic
forces, Nature of nuclear force, Variation of nuclear force with distance, NUCLEI: Packing
fraction (Optional), Nuclear Stability, Radioactivity, Three types of radiations,
Radioactivity decay law, Half-life period: Half life, T1/2, Average life: Mean life, Decay
rate: Activity, Alpha decay, Theory and energy distribution, Velocity of alpha-particle
emitted during radioactivity decay (Optional), Beta decay: Theory and energy
distribution, Positron emission, Electron capture, Gamma decay: Theory and energy
distribution (Deleted pertaining to JEE MAINS but still in JEE ADV Syllabus),
Radioactivity decay series, Radioactivity dating (Deleted pertaining to JEE MAINS but
still in JEE ADV Syllabus), Nuclear reactions, Discovery of neutron, Mass of neutron, Pair
production and Pair annihilation, Artificial radioactivity, Nuclear energy, Nuclear fission,
Nuclear fusion processes, Nuclear power reactor
CHEMISTRY : Tests for Amines and nitro compounds, Principles of separation of organic compounds
by solvent extraction method, BIOMOLECULES: Carbohydrates: Classification; Mono-
and di saccharides (glucose and sucrose); Oxidation; Reduction;, Glycoside formation
and hydrolysis of disaccharides (sucrose, maltose, lactose); Anomers. Tests for
carbohydrates, Reactions of glucose with HIO4, PhNHNH2,

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MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1. A fifteen digit number is formed at random by using all the digits 1, 1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3,
4, 4, 4, 4, 4, 4. If the number so formed is a palindrome, then the probability that it
contains no two 4’s adjacent is:
5 3 4 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
21 14 35 7
2. A wooden cube whose faces are painted same colour red and with volume 64 cubic units
is divided into 64 unit cubes by cutting the cube along planes parallel to its faces. Out of
64 units cubes obtained one is chosen at random and one of its faces is found painted red
then the probability that none of the remaining faces of it, is painted is ……..
2 1 3 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 4 7 7
3. Four standard, six faced dice are rolled. If the product of their values turns out to be an
even number then the probability that their sum is odd, is :
1 3 8 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 15 15
1 1 E  1
4. If E1 , E 2 are two events such that P  E1   , P  E 2 / E1   and P  1   then
4 2  E2  4
which of the following is not true?
1) E1 and E 2 are independent
2) E1and E 2 are exhaustive
3) E 2 is twice as likely to occur as E1
4) Probabilities of the events E1  E 2 , E1 , E 2 are in G.P

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5. Two cubes have each of their faces painted either red or blue. The first cube has five red
faces and one blue face. When the two cubes are rolled simultaneously, the probability
that the two top faces show the same colour is (1/2). Number of red faces on the second
cube, is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
6. For any two elements E and F in a sample space and if P(A) denote probability of event
A, then
E E 1 E E
1) P    P    2) P    P    1
F F 2 F F
E E E E
3) P    P    1 4) P    P    1
F F F F
7. One ticket is selected at random from 50 tickets numbered 00, 01, 02 ,…….,49. Then the
probability that the sum of the digits on the selected ticket is 4, given that product of
digits is zero, equals
1 1 1 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
50 7 4 14
8. A 4-digit number is chosen at random. If it is known that its digits (from 1000’s place to
unit place) are in strictly decreasing order then the probability that the number is divisible
by 4 is
3 2 5 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 7 7 2
9. A bag contains 4 black, 5 white and 6 red balls. If 4 balls are drawn one by one with
replacement the probability that none is red is
81 27 81 27
1) 2) 3) 4)
625 125 125 625
10. From the set of all positive integral divisors of  23. 34. 52.71  one number ‘x’ is selected at

random. If ‘x’ is even, then the probability that it is a multiple of 10 is

1 1 2 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2 3 4

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11. Two persons A, B and 8 others are arranged in a row at random. In the arrangement if A
is not at the starting place or the ending place, then the probability that A, B are adjacent
to each other is …..
2 1 4 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 5 5 9
12. Two balls are selected at random one by one without replacement from a bag containing
4 white and 6 black balls. If the probability that the first selected ball is black, given that
m
the second selected ball is also black, is , where gcd (m,n) = 1, then m + n is equal to :
n
1) 14 2) 4 3) 11 4) 13
13. Let the sum of two positive integers be 24. If the probability, that their product is not less
3 m
than times their greatest possible product, is , where gcd(m, n) = 1, then n – m
4 n
equals
1) 10 2) 9 3) 11 4) 8
14. Let A and B be two events. Suppose P  A   0.4, P  B   p and P  A  B   0.7. The
value of ‘p’ for which A and B are independent is
1) 1/3 2)1/4 3)1/2 4)1/5
1  cos x
2
sin 2 2x
15. A, B are two events such that P  A   Lt , P  B   Lt ,
x 0 9x 2 x 0 3x tan 4x

x
 x 1 
P  A  B   Lt   then A, B are
x  2x  1
 
1) Independent 2) mutually exclusive
3) equally likely 4) none
16. A card from a pack of 52 cards is lost. From the remaining 51 cards, n cards are drawn
11
and are found to be spades. If the probability of the lost card to be a spade is , then
50
‘n’ is equal to
1) 5 2) 7 3) 3 4) 2
17. If A and B are two events such that P(A) = 0.7, P(B) = 0.4 and P  A  B   0.5, where B
 
denotes the complement of B, then P B |  A  B  is equal to : ….
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 2 6 3
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18. A speaks truth in 75% of the cases and B in 80% of the cases. The percentage of cases
they are likely to contradict each other in making the same statement is
1) 25% 2) 35% 3) 50% 4) 65%
19. Statement – I : If A and B are two events such that
1 1 1 5
P  A   , P  B   and P  A  B   then P  A / BC   P  B / A C  is equal to
3 5 2 8
Statement – II : If A and B are two events such that P  A  B   0.1 and P(A/B) and
P  A  B 9
P(B/A) are the roots of the equation 12x 2  7x  1  0, then the value of is
P  A  B 4
1) Both Statement – I and Statement – II are true
2) Both Statement – I and Statement – II are false
3) Statement – I is false and Statement – II is true
4) Statement – I is true and Statement – II is false
20. If E1 and E 2 are two events of a random experiment such that
1 1 1
P  E1   , P  E1 / E 2   , P  E 2 / E1   then match the items of List – I with the items
8 3 4
of List – II :
List – I List – II
3
A) P  E 2  I)
16
3
B) P  E1  E 2  II)
29
3
C) P  E1 / E 2  III)
32
26
D) P  E1 / E 2  IV)
29
13
V)
32
The correct match is:
1) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II 2) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – V
3) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II 4) A – I; B – II; C – V; D – IV
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SECTION-II
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in
Decimal then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10
and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
21. From a box containing 3 red ball, 4 white ball and 5 blue balls, 3 balls are drawn together
at random. Out of the 3 balls drawn, it is found that one is blue. Then the probability that
1 
all the 3 balls drawn are of different colours is equal to ‘p’ then 18   1 
p 
22. A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. Two subsets P, Q are chosen from the power set of A, one by one
 n P  Q  1    
with replacement. Then the value of the conditional probability P   is  
 n  P  Q   4   
where  ,   N are coprime. Then the sum of all positive integral divisors of      is

 1 
23. A1, A 2 , .....,A10 are independent events where P  Ai     1  i  10, i  N. If the
1 i 
1
probability that none of A1 , A 2 , ........., A10 occurs, except A5 is equal to   ,
p
then p = …
24. Three distinct numbers are selected randomly from the set {1, 2, 3,……,40}. If the
m
probability, that the selected numbers are in an increasing G.P. is , gcd(m, n) = 1, then
n
m + n is equal to …….
25. All five letter words are made using all the letters A, B, C, D, E and arranged as in an
English dictionary with serial numbers. Let the word at serial number ‘n’ be denoted by
Wn . Let the probability P  Wn  of choosing the word Wn satisfy

2
P  Wn   2P  Wn 1  , n  1. If P  CDBEA    ,  ,    then    is equal to : …
2 1

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PHYSICS Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. A radionuclide A1 with decay constant 1 transform into a radionuclide A2 with decay
constant 2 . Assuming that at the initial moment the preparation contained only the
radionuclide A1 , then the time interval after which the activity of the radionuclide A2
reaches its maximum value is
ln  2 / 1  ln  1 / 2  ln  2 / 1 
1) 2) 3) ln  2  1  4)
2  1 2  1 22  1

27. If the binding energy per nucleon in 37 Li and 24 He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV

respectively, then in the reaction p 37 Li  2 24 He energy of proton must be

1) 28.24 MeV 2) 17.28 MeV 3) 1.46 MeV 4) 39.2 MeV
27
28. If radius of the 13 Al nucleus is estimated to be 3.6 fm, then the radius of 125
52 Te nucleus
be nearly
1) 6 fm 2) 8 fm 3) 4 fm 4) 5 fm
29. A nucleus initially of rest disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their velocities
in the ratio 2 : 1. The ratio of their nuclear sizes will be

1) 21/3 :1 2) 1:31/2 3) 31/2 :1 4) 1: 21/3

30. In the nuclear fusion reaction, 12 H  13 H 42 He  n given that the repulsive potential

energy between the two nuclei is 20.7  1014 J , the temperature at which the gases must

be heated to initiate the reaction is nearly [Boltzmann's constant, k  1.38  1023 J / K ]

1) 109 K 2) 105 K 3) 103 K 4) 1010 K

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31. A star initially has 1040 deuterons. It produces energy via the process
2 2 3 2 3 4
1 H 1 H  1 H  p and 1 H 1 H  2 He  n Where the masses of the nuclei are

m 2
 H   2.014 amu, m  p   1.007 amu, m  n  1.008 amu and m  He  4.001 amu .
4

If the average power radiated by the star is 1016W , the deuteron supply of the star is
exhausted in a time of the order of
1) 106 s 2) 108 s 3) 1012 s 4) 1016 s
32. What is the probability of a radioactive nucleus to survive one mean life?
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 1  4)  1
e e 1 e e
33.    
The binding energy per nucleon for deuteron 12 H and helium 42 He are 1.1 MeV and
7.0 MeV respectively. The energy released when two deuterons fuse to form a helium
nucleus is
1) 47.12 MeV 2) 23.6 MeV 3) 11.8 MeV 4) 34.4 MeV
34. A radioactive sample of mass number A is undergoing alpha decay. Its initial activity is
A0 and decay constant for this decay is  . Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1) The ratio of kinetic energies of the alpha particle and the daughter product is
 A  4
4
A0
2) Initially present number of radioactive nuclei is

ln  n 
3) At time t, the activity is reduced to 1/n times the initial activity then t 

4) Momentum of the alpha particle will vary from zero to a certain maximum value
35. The positron is the anti-matter counterpart of the electron. It has same mass of the electron,
but has non-zero energy and momentum. Away from all other matter an electron and
positron moving towards each other with equal and opposite velocities,
1) Can annihilate into one photon, conserving both energy and momentum
2) Can annihilate into one photon, because energy and momentum are not conserved in
quantum mechanics
3) Cannot annihilate into one photon because energy cannot be conserved
4) Cannot annihilate into one photon because momentum is to be conserved
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36. In a certain experiment it is found that the ratio of the decay current in an L – R circuit to
the activity of a radio active sample remains constant with respect to time. If the time
constant of the L – R circuit is 0.4 s, then the average life of the radio-active sample is
1) 0.2 s 2) 0.4 s 3) 0.6 s 4) 0.8 s

37. Half lives of two isotopes X and Y of a material are known to be 2  109 years and
4  109 years respectively. If a planet was formed with equal number of these isotopes,
estimate the current age of the planet, given that currently the material has 20% of X and
80% of Y by number.
1) 2  109 years 2) 4  109 years 3) 6  109 years 4) 8  109 years
38.
 
A 
1 B 
2 C
t  0 N0 0 0
t N1 N2 N3
In the above radioactive decay C is stable nucleus. Then
1) number of nuclei of B will first increases and then decreases
2) rate of decay of A will first increases and then decreases
3) if 2  1, then activity of B will always be higher than activity of A.
4) if 1   2 , then number of nucleus of C will always be less than number of nucleus
of B
39. Consider the positions of different nuclei on the binding energy per nucleon graph as
shown

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Column – I Column – II
(Reaction) (Q-Values (Mev))
A) 2B  C P) 0
B) 2B  C  D Q) 102
C) E  C  D R) non-zero
D) 3A  C S) 36
T) 90
1) A – RS; B – P; C – RT; D – QR 2) A – R; B – PS; C – RT; D – QR
3) A – RT; B – PS; C – R; D – QR 4) A – R; B – PQ; C – R; D – SR
40. A heavy nucleus x(A = 180) breaks into two nuclei y(A = 140) and z (A= 40). Energy
released during fission reaction is:

1) 110MeV 2) 220MeV 3) 200MeV 4) Energy is not released

41. In a certain hypothetical radioactive decay process, species A decays into species B and
species B decays into species C according to the reactions
A  2 B  particles  energy : B  3C  particles  energy
The decay constant for the species A is 1 1sec 1 and that for the species B is
2 100sec 1 , initially 104 moles of the species of A were present while there was none
of B and C. It was found that species B reaches its maximum number at a time
t  2ln 10  sec. Then value of the maximum number of moles of B is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 6
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42. The energy released in the fission reaction 92U 236  46 X 117  46Y 117  2 0n1, given

that the binding energy per nucleon of X and Y is 8.5 MeV and that of 92U 236 is 7.6
MeV, is nearly
1) 220 MeV 2) 180 MeV 3) 195 MeV 4) 190 MeV

43. Nuclei of radioactive element A are produced at rate t 2 at an time ‘t’ the element A has
decay constant  . Let N be the number of nuclei of element A at any time ‘t’ at time
dN
t  t0 , is minimum. Then the number of nuclei of element A at time t  t0 is
dt

2t0  t02 t0  t02 2t0  t02t0   t02

1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2  
44. Statement – I: Nuclear forces are strongest in nature and is always attractive
Statement – II: The nuclear force between two neutrons can be repulsive
1) Statement – I and Statement – II are true
2) Statement – I and Statement – II are false
3) Statement – I is true and Statement – II is false
4) Statement – I is false and Statement – II is true
45. Assertion (A): The binding energy per nucleon is practically constant in the range
30 < A < 170 (where A is the mass number)
Reason (R): Nuclear forces are short range forces
1) A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
2) A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false
4) A is false and R is true
SECTION-II
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in
Decimal then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10
and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.

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131
46. I is an isotope of Iodine that  decays to an isotope of Xenon with a half-life of 8

days. A small amount of a serum labelled with 131 I is injected into the blood of a person.

Activity of the amount of 131 I injected was 2.4  105 Becquerel (Bq). It is known that
the injected serum will get distributed uniformly in the blood stream in less than half an
hour. After 11.5 h, 2.5 ml of blood is drawn from the person 's body, and gives an activity
of 115 Bq. The total volume of blood in the person's body, in litres is approximately

(you may use e2  1  x for | x | 1 and ln 2  0.7) .

47. For a radioactive material, its activity A and rate of change of its activity R are defined as
dN dA
A and R   , where N (t ) is the number of nuclei at time ‘t’. Two radioactive
dt dt
source P(mean life  ) and Q (mean life 2 ) have the same activity at t = 0. Their rate of
R n
change of activities at t = 2 are RP and RQ , respectively. If P  , then the value of
RQ e
‘n’ is
48. A sample contains two radio active materials A and B with half life of 51 hours and 2
hours respectively. The nucleus A decays into B and B decays into stable nucleus C. At
t = 0 activities of both samples were equal. The ratio of activity of A to that of B when the
activity of B is maximum is
49. In the fusion reaction 12 H  12 H  32 He  10n, the masses of deuteron helium and neutron
expressed in amu are 2.015, 3.017 and 1.009 respectively. If 1 kg of deuterium undergoes
complete fusion, the amount of total energy released

(1 amu = 931.5 MeV/ c 2 ) is p  1013 J . Find P. (Round off to nearest integer)

50. If mass U 235 = 235.12142 a.m.u., mass of U 236 = 236.123050 a.m.u. and mass of
neutron = 1.008665 a.m.u., then the energy required to remove one neutron from the

nucleus of U 236 is x MeV. Nearly. Find 10x. (1 a.m.u=931MeV)

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CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
51. On oxidation with nitric acid, glucose as well as gluconic acid both yield a product
contains ….
1) Dicarboxylic acid 2) Monocarboxylic acid
3) Tricarboxylic acid 4) Only alcohol group
52. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
1) Glucose 2) Maltose 3) Ribose 4) Fructose
53. Glucose does not
1) React with HNO3 2) React with acetic anhydride
3) Give Schiff’s test 4) Reduce Tollen’s reagent
54. Which of the following gives positive Libermann nitroso test?
1) 2-butanamine 2) N-ethyl-2-pentanamine
3) N-methylpiperdine 4) N,N-dimethyl cyclohexylamine
55. Which of the following option is correct regarding Lactose.
1) Glucose has acetal and galactose has hemiacetal linkage in Lactose.
2) Glucose is forming glycosidic bond from C1 carbon in Lactose.
3)   glycosidic bond is formed by C1 of galactose and C 4 of glucose in Lactose.
4)   glycosidic bond is formed by C1 of galactose and C 4 of glucose in Lactose.
56. Assertion: The carbohydrates are stored in animal body as glycogen. It is also known as
animal starch
Reason: Its structure is similar to amylopectin and is rather more highly branched
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
4) If the assertion is false reason is true
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57. Assertion (A) : D – (+) – sucrose on hydrolysis gives a levorotatory solution
Reason (R) : D – (+) – sucrose on hydrolysis produces one mole of each
D – (+) – glucose and D – (–) – fructose and magnitude of specific rotation is greater for
D – (–) – fructose
1) A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
2) A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false
4) A is false and R is true
58. D-glucose in dilute alkaline or acidic solution contains
1) 50% each of  -D-glucose and  -D-glucose
2) 64% of  -D-glucose and 36% of  -D-glucose
3) 36% of  -D-glucose & 64% of  -D-glucose
4) 33% each of  -D-glucose,  -D-glucose & open structure
59. The incorrect statement regarding following compound (Y) is

(Y)
1) It is a reducing sugar 2) Can show mutarotation
3) Consumes 5 moles of HIO4 4) It is known as maltose

60. L-isomer of a compound A  C 4 H 8O 4  gives a positive test with  Ag  NHL3 2  .

Treatment of ‘A’ with acetic anhydride yield triacetate derivative. Compound ‘A’
produces an optically active compound (B) and an optically inactive compound (C) on
treatment with bromine water and HNO3 respectively, compound (A) is :

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CHO CHO
HO H H OH
HO H HO H
CH 2OH CH 2OH
1) 2)

CHO
CHO
H OH OH H
H OH H OH
CH 2OH CH 2OH
3) 4)
61. Which of the following is correct Haworth projection for   D glucopyranose?

1) 2)

3) 4)
62. A positive carbyl amine test is given by
1) N, N-dimethylaniline 2) N-methyl benzylamine
3) N-methylaniline 4) p-methyl benzylamine
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63. The given osazone could be obtained from

1) Glucose & galactose 2) Glucose & mannose

3) Galactose & fructose 4) Sucrose & Galactose
64. Identify the correct statement
a) Lactose is reducing sugar
b) In Amylopectin there are 1,4 & 1,6 glycosidic linakages
c) Sucrose is reducing sugar
d) Starch gives Maltose on partial hydrolysis
1) a, b, c 2) a, b, d 3) b, c, d 4) a, c, d
65. Match the following Column – I with Column – II :
Column – I Column – II
A) Glucose/ NaHSO3 /  I) Gluconic acid
B) Glucose/ HNO3 II) No reaction
C) Glucose/ HI /  III) n-hexane
D) Glucose/Bromine water IV) Saccharic acid
Choose the incorrect answer from the options given below :
1) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I 2) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
3) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II 4) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II

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66. L-isomer of tetrose X  C4 H8O 4  gives positive Schiff’s test and has two chiral carbons.
On acetylation X yields triacetate. X also undergoes following reactions
HNO3 NaBH 4
A   X  B
Chiral compound ‘X’ is

H OH
H OH

HO H H OH
O O
H H

CH2OH CH 2OH
1) 2)
CHO CHO

HO H H OH

HO H HO H

CH 2OH CH 2OH
3) 4)
67. An organic compound upon hydrolysis produces two compounds one product gave silver
mirror test, other product reacts with Hinsberg reagent to produce an alkali insoluble
product. The organic compound is
O
1) || 2)  CH 3 2 NCHO
CH 3  CH 2  C  NHCH 3
3) CH 3  CH 2 CONH 2 4) CH 3  CH 2 NH  CHO

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68. Isomeric amines with molecular formula C8 H11N give the following tests
Isomer (P)  can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Isomer (Q)  reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to give solid insoluble in NaOH
Isomer (R)  reacts with HONO followed by  -naphthol in NaOH to given red dye
Isomers (P), (Q) and (R) respectively are :
H
NH 2 NH 2
N

P Q
1) R

NH 2
NHCH3 NH
H
CH 3
P Q
2) R

NH 2
NH 2
NH
CH 3
P
Q R
3)
NH 2
NH NH 2

CH 3

P Q
4) R

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69. Statement 1 : Bromine water changes glucose to gluconic acid.
Statement 2 : Bromine water acts as oxidising agent.
1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for
statement-1.
2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation
for statement-1.
3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
70. Statement 1 : All monosaccharide ketoses are reducing sugars.
Statement 2 : Monosaccharide ketose give positive Tollen's and Fehling's test.
1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for
statement-1.
2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation
for statement-1.
3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
SECTION-II
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in
Decimal then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10
and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
71. Count the number of true statement/s among the following
1) Despite having the aldehyde group, glucose does not give Schiff’s test.
2) Pentacetate of glucose is not reducing in nature.
3) Glucose does not form the bisulphite addition product with NaHSO3 .
4)   glucose has a melting point of 419 k whereas that of   form of glucose is 423 k.
5) D-Fructose is a leavorotatory sugar.
6) Glucose has a specific rotation 52.50
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72. Number of chiral carbons in   D      glucopyranose is

73. A carbohydrate X having molecular weight 180g mol1 has one primary alcoholic group
and four secondary alcoholic groups. It reacts with acetic anhydride to form pentaacetate.
The molecular weight of pentaacetate formed is
74. Aniline and N-methylaniline can be distinguished by using, how many of the following
tests?
I) Tollen's reagent II) Hinsberg reagent
III) Carbylamine test IV) Mulliken Test
V) Azo dye test VI) Bayer's test
VII) Lucas test VIII) Hofmann mustard oil test
75. The incorrect statement among the following is :
1)   D  glucose and   D  glucose are anomers
2)   D  glucose and   D  glucose are enantiomers
3) Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide made up of only   D  glucose units
4) The penta acetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine
5) Amylopectin is a branched polymer of   glucose
6) Cellulose is a linear polymer of   glucose
7) Glycogen is the food reserve of plants

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