LL.
B ENTRANCE COACHING-KOTTAKKAL
NAME : MOCK TEST DATE:
1. Retirement age of a Supreme Court judge is:
A. 66 Years B. 63 Years C. 65 Years D. 67 Years
2. Special Leave Petitions to Supreme Court can be filed under:
A. Article 1324 B. Article 133 C. Article 136 D. Article 138
3.The need for Separation of Judiciary from executive is mentioned under:
A. Article 48 B. Article 49 C. Article 50 D. Article 51
4.For appointment of a Governor of State, he must have completed:
A. 21 years of Age B. 25 years of Age C. 30 years of Age D. 35 years of
Age
5. The Parliament cannot legislate on the State subjects on the ground of:
A. National Interest B. Consent of State C. During Emergency D. On request of a State
6.Government of India may be sued in the name of:
A. President B. Union of India C. Prime Minister D. Lok Sabha Speaker
7. The principle of eminent domain is associated with:
A. Acquisition of Property C. Detention of Person B. Arrest of Person D. Cancellation of
Law
8. Appointment of Election Commission is provided under:
A. Article 323 B. Article 324 C. Article 325 D. Article 326
9.Right to Work in India is:
A. Fundamental Right B. Protected under Directive Principle
C. Statutory Right D. Fundamental Right as well as Statutory Right
10.Right to Strike in India is:
A. Fundamental Right B. Protected under Directive Principle
C. Statutory Right D. Fundamental Right as well as Statutory Right
11. Right to Food in India is:
A. Fundamental Right B. Protected under Directive Principle
C. Statutory Right D. None of these
12. Which of the following article deals with the amendment of the Constitution?
A. Article 362 B. Article 364 C. Article 366 D. Article 368
13. A member of a State Public Service Commission can removed by:
A. Supreme Court B. President C. Governor D. High Court
14. How long a advocate should have practiced in a High Court to be eligible to be appointed
as a Judge of Supreme Court of India?
A. 8 years B. 10 years C. 12 years D.15 years
15. Among the following which article empowers the High Court to issue writs for
enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
A. Article 224 B. Article 225 C. Article 226 D. Article 227
16. The functions of State Legislature is
A. Legislative as well as Executive B. Legislative as well as Administrative
C. Legislative, Executive and Judicial D. Legislative as well as judicial
17. Sarkaria Commission is related to
A. Centre - State Relationship B. Administrative Reforms
C. Judicial Reforms D. Lok Pal
18. Panchayath Raj is a subject on the:
a) Concurrent List b) Union List c) State List d) Residual List
19. The President of India can be removed from office by:
a) The Prime Minister of India c) The Chief Justice of India
b) The Lok Sabha d) The Parliament
19. The Planning, Commission is:
a) A Ministry b) A Government department
c) An Advisory body d) An Autonomous corporation
20. The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to:
a) Rajya Sabha b) Lok Sabha c) President d) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
21. What is the term of the members of Rajya Sabha?
a) 6 years b) 5 years c) 4 years d) 2 years
22. What is the age at which an Indian can become a candidate for Presidentship?
a) 45 b) 65 c) 60 d) 35
23. Which of the following languages was last added to the Eighth Schedule of Constitution?
a) Sindhi b) Santhali c) Urdu d) Kannada
24. To whom are Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution guaranteed?
a) Everybody in India c) All legal entities
b) Indian citizens everywhere d) All adult humans in India.
25. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President
of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
a) Lok Sabha b) Raiya Sabha
c) State Legislative Council's d) State Legislative Assemblies.
26. Identify the Article of the Constitution which abolished untouchability?
a) Article 16 b) Article 17 c) Article 19 d) Article 32
27. Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself
without permission from the sessions for:
a) 30 days b) 60 days c) 90 days d) 120 days
28. The President of India can proclaim National Emergency
a) On the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
b) On the advice of the Speaker
c) On the advice of the leader of the ruling party or set of parties in power
d) At his own discretion
29. No Money Bill can be introduced in the legislative assembly without the recommendations
of the:
a) Governor b) Chief Minister c) Finance Minister d) Speaker
30. The number of seats in Lok Sabha allotted to different states is determined on the basis
of the
a) population. b) size c) resources. d) location.
31. As per Indian Constitution, in the event of any conflict in the concurrent list between
the union laws and state laws
a) The matter is referred to the Supreme Court
b) The state laws shall prevail
c) The union laws shall prevail
d) The matter is referred to the Parliamentary Committee specifically constituted to resolve
the dispute.
32. The 42nd Amendment Act is notable because it gives:
a) Special treatment to J and K
b) Special status to Sikkim
c) Primacy to Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles
d) Primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
33. If the Speaker of the State legislative assembly decides to resign, he should submit
resignation to the:
a) Chief Minister b) Deputy Speaker c) Judge of the High Court d) President
34. 'Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
the:
a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights
b) Preamble and Directive Principles
c) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
d) preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
35. The Constitution of India provides for the nomination of two members of Lok Sabha by the
President to represent:
a) Persons of eminence in arts, letters, science, etc.
b) Parsis
c) The business community
d) The Anglo-Indian community
36.A political party is recognised as a national party:
a) When it contests elections in all the States of the country.
b) When it. secures at least five per cent of the total votes cast in a national election
c) If it captures power at least in three States
d) If it is recognised as a political party in four or more States.
37. Right to Education became a Fundamental Right on
a) Oct. 10, 2010 b) July 17, 2010 c) Apr. 1, 2010 d) Mar. 15, 2010
38. 7th Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
a) Oaths and affirmations c) 3 lists of subjects of legislation
b) 15 Indian languages d) None of the above
39. Which of the following Acts included Indians in the Legislature for the first time?
a) Act of 1909 b) Act of 1919 c) Act of 1935 d) Act of 1861
40. The citizenship, provided by the Constitution of India, is
a) Dual citizenship. b) Single citizenship c) Both of the above. d) None of the above.
41. Supreme Court of India gave the verdict that the 'original structure' of the Constitution
could not be changed in whatever circumstances in the following case:
a) Sajjan case b) Golaknath case
c) Keshavanand Bharti case d) Minerva Mills case
42. Deputy-Chairman of Rajya Sabha can be removed by the members of:
a) Rajya Sabha only b) Lok Sabha only c) Both Houses jointly d) None of the above
43. Eighth Schedule of the Constitution contains:
a) Fundamental Rights b) List of religions
c) Laws placed beyond the jurisdiction of Courts d) List of languages
44. Centre-State financial distribution takes place on recommendations by the:
a) Finance Minister b) Planning Commission
c) Finance Commission d) Sarkaria, Commission
45. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct supervision of:
a) Ministry of Home Affairs b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha d) President
46. Which of the following is correct?
a) Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years b) Lok Sabha can be extended only upto 6
years
c) Lok Sabha is never dissolved before 5 years d) All members of Lok Sabha are elected
representatives
47. Which of the following is presided over by a non-member?
a) Lok Sabha b) Rajya Sabha c) Vidhan Sabha d) Vidhan Parishad
48. The sitting of the House of the people may be terminated by
a) Adjournment b) Prorogation c) Dissolution d) All of these
49. To whom can a case of dispute in the election of the President be referred?
a) Chief Election Commissioner b) Parliament
c) Supreme Court of India d) None of the above.
50. Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right?
a) Right to strike b) Right against exploitation
c) Right to equality d) Right to freedom of religion
51. Contract is said to have three essentials. Which one among the following is not an
essential in the formation of contract?
a) Offer b) Acceptance c) Consideration d) Damages.
52. A draft is a/an…….instrument.
a) Transferable b) Negotiable c) Inchoate d) Non-refundable.
53.The word "Ltd." after the name of a business enterprise denotes:
a) That it is a limited liability company b) That it is an unlimited liability company
c) That it has issued limited shares d) That it has limited number of members.
54.The world jurisprudence first started in the country
A. Germany B. Rome C. Greek D.Britain
55.Jurisprudence means
A. Knowledge of society B. Knowledge of Science
C. Knowledge of Law D. Knowledge of Country
56.The most prominent philosophy of law in the eighteenth century was
A. Sociological School of Law B.Positive School of Law
C. Analytical School of Law D. Realistic School of Law
57.Co-relatives are
A. Right and duty B. Privilege and no-right
C. Both (a) and (b) D.None of these
58.Opposite are
A. Immunity and liability B. Power and disability
C. Right and Duty D. Power and Liability
59.The greatest disadvantage of legislation is
A. Its flexibility B. Its rigidity C. Its modification D. All the above
60.Torts are grounded in the concept of
A. Law B. Courts C. Rights D. Sincerity
61. How many rights does a consumer have under Consumer Protection Act
A.8 B.6 C.4 D.5
62.The consumer has right to get compensation against unfair trade practices Under right to
A. Right to choose B. Right to Redressal
C. Right to safety D. None of the above
63.What is the time limit to get information under RTI Act 2005
A. 15 days B. 45 days C. 60 days D. 30 days
65. In Which year India's IT Act came into existence
A.2000 B.2001 C. 2002 D.2003
65.Which of the following is an example of intellectual property
A. Patent B. Trademark C. Copyright D. All of the above
66.Ultra Vires
a) With in powers b) Full powers c) Near powers d) Beyond powers
67.Inter pro quo
a) Something for nothing b) something for something
c) Everything for something d) Something foe everything
68.Inter vivos
a) Between two living persons b) Among the living to persons and the dead
c) Between the dead d) Among the dead and the living
69.Corpus juris
a) Body of judges b) Group of jurists c) Body of law d) Knowledge of law
70.The phrase ‘de facto’ means
a) All the facts b) All the facts and figures
c) bona fide d) for all practical purposes
71.When a husband gives gift or ornaments, clothes etc. to his wife, then such transaction is
legally called
a) Dowry b) Paraphernalia c) Bride Property d) Mehr
72. Previous judgement quoted by court to decide on a similar set of facts.
a) Judgement b) Precedent c) Obiter dicta d) res subjudice
73.The term 'Quasi' means
a) Void b) Valid c)As if it were d)Null
74. The reason (or ground) of a judicial decision is known as
a) Rationalism b) Ratio decidendi c)Obiter dicta d) Res judicata
75.Which of the following is an act of parliament.
a) Legislation b) Statute c)Policy d)Bill
76."Testament'means
a) a will b) court decision c) documentary evidence d) parole evidence
77. The name and fame of a Trading firm is legally called
a) Trade Name b)Good will c)Trade Secret d)Reputation
78. India's first Child Witness Court Room (CWCR) has been inaugurated at
a) Tis Hazari Court Complex Delhi b) Karkirdooma Court Complex, Delhi
c) Chandini Chawk Court Complex d) Thihar Court Complex, Delhi
79. Qualification for a person to practice as an advocate in India is
a) On obtaining a law degree from a recognised university
b) On obtaining a degree in law and being registered with Bar Council of India
c) On obtaining a degree in law and being registered with a state Bar council
d) On obtaining a law degree and as apprenticeship under a registered legal practitioner
80. 'Contempt of Court' under Contempt of courts Act, 1971,includes
a) Civil Contempt b) Criminal Contempt c) Both (a) & (b) d) Political contempt
81. Maximum term of punishment for contempt of court.
a)1 year b) 3 months c) 6 months d)2 months
82. First Law Commission was set up in the year
a)1954 b)1955 c)1948 d)1950
83. 'SITA' stands for
a) South India Thariff Act b) Suppression of Immoral Traffic Act
c) Soviet-India Trade Activities d) None of the above
84.First Law University in India has been established in August 1987 at
a)Bangalore b) New Delhi c) Ahmedabad d)Pune
85. Find out which is not a principle of natural justice
a) Pacta sunt servanda b) Justice, equality and good conscience
c) Audi Alteram Partem d) Justice must be only be done but also appears to be done
86.'National Law Day' is observed on
a) November 26 b)December 26 c)June 15 d)July 16
87. Which Act was replaced by the Competition Act,2002?
a)MRTP Act 1969 b) Contract Act
c) The Consumer Protection Act 1986 d)The Sale of Goods Act,1967
88. Powers of the Executive is dealt in
a) Civil Law b) Administrative law
c) Public international law d) Constitutional law
89. Due to the negligence on the part of a medical practitioner, the patient suffered huge loss.
The patient meant to seek compensation from the doctor. He can approach
a) Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum b) Criminal Court
c) District Court d) Civil Court
90. Given one word for the meaning ‘by reason of that fact'
a)Ipso facto b)Res ipsa loquitur
c) Factum valent d) Factum probanda
91:-What does the term "locus standi" mean in legal context?
A:-The physical location where a trial takes place.
B:-The right of an individual or party to bring a legal action.
C:-The judge's authority to make decisions in a case.
D:-The process of selecting a jury for a trial.
Correct Answer:- Option-B
92:-What does the term "abettor" mean?
A:-A person who assists in the commission of a crime.
B:-A legal document that grants power of attorney.
C:-A type of legal defense in criminal cases.
D:-A formal accusation or charge brought against an individual.
Correct Answer:- Option-A
93:-What is a characteristic of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
A:-Litigation involving disputes between private individuals.
B:-Litigation focused on personal financial interests.
C:-Litigation initiated for the protection of societal welfare.
D:-Litigation handled exclusively by government entities.
Correct Answer:- Option-C
94:-What does the term "ipso facto" indicate?
A:-Automatic revocation of a contract.
B:-Voluntarily relinquishing one's rights in a legal proceeding.
C:-Direct result of something else that is already known
D:-Asserting a legal claim against a third party.
Correct Answer:- Option-C
95:-What does the Civil Procedure Code lay down?
A:-Rules and procedures to be followed in civil litigation cases.
B:-Guidelines for investigations and prosecutions involving civilians
C:-Principles and regulations for administrative law cases.
D:-Standards and regulations for corporate governance.
Correct Answer:- Option-A
96:-Prosecution is to Accused as ________ is to Defendant?
A:-Munsiff B:-Plaintiff C:-Appellant D:-Witness
Correct Answer:- Option-B
97:-Chief Election Commissioner of India is
A:-Appointed by the Council of Ministers B:-Appointed by the Prime minister
C:-Appointed by the Parliament D:-Appointed by the President of India
Correct Answer:- Option-D
98:-Who was the first woman judge to be elevated directly from the Bar Council of India to the
Supreme Court of India?
A:-Fathima Beevi B:-Sujata Manohar C:-Indu Malhotra D:-B.V. Nagarathna
Correct Answer:- Option-C
99:-Which of the following High Courts of India does not have a common jurisdiction over two
or more states or union territories?
A:-Allahabad High Court B:-Bombay High CourtC:-Kerala High Court D:-Gauhati High Court
Correct Answer:- Option-A
100:-Which of the following words were added to the preamble of the Indian Constitution by
the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976?
A:-Sovereign and Democratic B:-Socialist and Secular
C:-Republic and Fraternity D:-Justice and Liberty
Correct Answer:- Option-B
