1)The process by which organisms produce offspring is called:

a) Respiration
b) Reproduction
c) Digestion
d) Excretion
Answer: b) Reproduction
Explanation: Reproduction ensures the continuation of a species by producing new
individuals.

2.Binary fission is a mode of reproduction in:

a) Humans
b) Amoeba
c) Frogs
d) Flowering plants
Answer: b) Amoeba
Explanation: Binary fission is an asexual reproduction method where a single cell divides
into two identical cells.

3.The production of gametes occurs in:

a) Asexual reproduction
b) Sexual reproduction
c) Vegetative propagation
d) Budding
Answer: b) Sexual reproduction
Explanation: Sexual reproduction involves the formation and fusion of male and female
gametes.

4.Vegetative propagation is seen in:

a) Yeast
b) Potato
c) Hydra
d) Paramecium
Answer: b) Potato
Explanation: Potato reproduces asexually through tubers, a form of vegetative
propagation.

5.The lifespan of an organism is determined by:

a) Its reproductive capacity
b) Its genetic makeup
c) Environmental factors
d) Both b and c
Answer: d) Both b and c
Explanation: Lifespan depends on genetics and environmental conditions like food and
habitat.
6.The female reproductive part of a flower is:
a) Stamen
b) Pistil
c) Petal
d) Sepal
Answer: b) Pistil
Explanation: The pistil (or carpel) consists of stigma, style, and ovary, housing female
gametes.

7.The transfer of pollen from anther to stigma is called:

a) Fertilization
b) Pollination
c) Germination
d) Syngamy
Answer: b) Pollination
Explanation: Pollination is the process of pollen transfer, essential for plant
reproduction.

8.Wind-pollinated flowers are generally:

a) Brightly colored
b) Scented
c) Small and inconspicuous
d) Nectar-producing
Answer: c) Small and inconspicuous
Explanation: Wind-pollinated flowers (anemophilous) lack showy features and produce
light pollen.

9.The embryo sac in flowering plants is located in:

a) Anther
b) Ovule
c) Stigma
d) Filament
Answer: b) Ovule
Explanation: The ovule contains the embryo sac, where female gametes are formed.

10.Double fertilization in plants involves:

a) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
b) Fusion of one male gamete with egg and another with polar nuclei
c) Fusion of two eggs with one male gamete
d) Fusion of pollen with stigma
Answer: b) Fusion of one male gamete with egg and another with polar nuclei
Explanation: Double fertilization results in a zygote (egg + sperm) and endosperm (polar
nuclei + sperm).
11.The endosperm in angiosperms is:
a) Diploid
b) Triploid
c) Haploid
d) Tetraploid
Answer: b) Triploid
Explanation: Endosperm forms from the fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
(3n).

12.The structure that develops into a fruit is:

a) Ovary
b) Ovule
c) Anther
d) Stigma
Answer: a) Ovary
Explanation: After fertilization, the ovary develops into a fruit enclosing the seeds.

13.Apomixis in plants refers to:

a) Sexual reproduction
b) Asexual reproduction through seeds
c) Pollination by insects
d) Formation of gametes
Answer: b) Asexual reproduction through seeds
Explanation: Apomixis produces seeds without fertilization, mimicking sexual
reproduction.

14.The male gonad in humans is:

a) Testis
b) Ovary
c) Uterus
d) Prostate
Answer: a) Testis
Explanation: Testes produce sperm and male hormones like testosterone.

15.Spermatogenesis occurs in:

a) Vas deferens
b) Seminiferous tubules
c) Epididymis
d) Seminal vesicles
Answer: b) Seminiferous tubules
Explanation: Seminiferous tubules are the site of sperm production in the testes.

16.The female hormone responsible for secondary sexual characters is:

a) Progesterone
b) Estrogen
c) Testosterone
d) FSH
Answer: b) Estrogen
Explanation: Estrogen promotes female secondary sexual characteristics like breast
development.

17.The site of fertilization in humans is:

a) Ovary
b) Uterus
c) Fallopian tube
d) Cervix
Answer: c) Fallopian tube
Explanation: Fertilization occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.

18.The layer of the uterus that undergoes cyclic changes is:

a) Myometrium
b) Endometrium
c) Perimetrium
d) Cervix
Answer: b) Endometrium
Explanation: The endometrium thickens and sheds during the menstrual cycle.

19.The process of release of an ovum from the ovary is called:

a) Menstruation
b) Ovulation
c) Implantation
d) Fertilization
Answer: b) Ovulation
Explanation: Ovulation is triggered by a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH).

20.The placenta is formed by:

a) Maternal and fetal tissues
b) Fetal tissues only
c) Maternal tissues only
d) Amniotic fluid
Answer: a) Maternal and fetal tissues
Explanation: The placenta connects maternal and fetal blood supplies for nutrient
exchange.

21.The hormone secreted by the placenta is:

a) FSH
b) LH
c) hCG
d) Testosterone
Answer: c) hCG
Explanation: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) maintains pregnancy and is detected
in pregnancy tests.

22.The number of chromosomes in a human sperm is:

a) 46
b) 23
c) 22
d) 44
Answer: b) 23
Explanation: Sperm are haploid (n = 23), contributing half the genetic material to the
zygote.

23.The amniotic fluid primarily functions to:

a) Provide nutrients
b) Protect the fetus
c) Produce hormones
d) Form the placenta
Answer: b) Protect the fetus
Explanation: Amniotic fluid cushions the fetus against physical shocks.

24.A barrier method of contraception is:

a) Oral pill
b) Condom
c) IUD
d) Tubectomy
Answer: b) Condom
Explanation: Condoms physically prevent sperm from reaching the ovum.

25.The permanent contraceptive method for females is:

a) Vasectomy
b) Tubectomy
c) Copper-T
d) Diaphragm
Answer: b) Tubectomy
Explanation: Tubectomy involves cutting and tying the fallopian tubes.

26.HIV primarily affects the:

a) Nervous system
b) Immune system
c) Digestive system
d) Respiratory system
Answer: b) Immune system
Explanation: HIV targets T-helper cells, weakening immunity and causing AIDS.

27.The technique used to assist infertile couples is:

a) Vaccination
b) IVF
c) Antibiotics
d) Surgery
Answer: b) IVF
Explanation: In vitro fertilization (IVF) helps infertile couples conceive by fertilizing eggs
outside the body.

28.The ideal contraceptive method is one that is:

a) Expensive
b) User-friendly and reversible
c) Permanent
d) Harmful to health
Answer: b) User-friendly and reversible
Explanation: Ideal contraceptives are safe, effective, and allow future fertility.

29.The father of genetics is:

a) Darwin
b) Mendel
c) Morgan
d) Watson
Answer: b) Mendel
Explanation: Gregor Mendel established the principles of inheritance through pea plant
experiments.

30.The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is:

a) 1:2:1
b) 3:1
c) 9:3:3:1
d) 1:1
Answer: b) 3:1
Explanation: For a monohybrid cross (e.g., Tt × Tt), the phenotypic ratio is 3 dominant : 1
recessive.

31.Incomplete dominance is observed in:

a) Pea plant height
b) Snapdragon flower color
c) Human blood groups
d) Mendelian traits
Answer: b) Snapdragon flower color
Explanation: In snapdragons, red (RR) and white (rr) produce pink (Rr) flowers, showing
incomplete dominance.

32.The condition where both alleles are expressed equally is:

a) Dominance
b) Codominance
c) Incomplete dominance
d) Recessiveness
Answer: b) Codominance
Explanation: In codominance, both alleles are fully expressed, e.g., AB blood group
(IAIB).

33.A sex-linked disorder in humans is:

a) Sickle-cell anemia
b) Hemophilia
c) Phenylketonuria
d) Cystic fibrosis
Answer: b) Hemophilia
Explanation: Hemophilia is caused by a recessive gene on the X chromosome.

34.The chromosome number in a human somatic cell is:

a) 23
b) 46
c) 22
d) 44
Answer: b) 46
Explanation: Somatic cells are diploid (2n = 46), with 23 pairs of chromosomes.

35.A cross between two heterozygous individuals (Aa × Aa) produces:

a) All dominant offspring
b) 25% recessive offspring
c) All recessive offspring
d) 50% recessive offspring
Answer: b) 25% recessive offspring
Explanation: The genotypic ratio is 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa, so 25% are recessive (aa).

36.The law of independent assortment applies to:

a) Genes on the same chromosome
b) Genes on different chromosomes
c) Linked genes
d) Sex-linked genes
Answer: b) Genes on different chromosomes
Explanation: Independent assortment occurs when genes segregate independently
during gamete formation.
37.A test cross involves crossing an individual with:
a) Homozygous dominant
b) Homozygous recessive
c) Heterozygous individual
d) Another test cross
Answer: b) Homozygous recessive
Explanation: A test cross (e.g., Tt × tt) reveals the genotype of the unknown parent.

38.Sickle-cell anemia is caused by:

a) Chromosomal mutation
b) Point mutation
c) Deletion mutation
d) Insertion mutation
Answer: b) Point mutation
Explanation: A single nucleotide change in the hemoglobin gene causes sickle-cell
anemia.

39.The double helix model of DNA was proposed by:

a) Mendel
b) Watson and Crick
c) Morgan
d) Franklin
Answer: b) Watson and Crick
Explanation: Watson and Crick described DNA’s double helix structure in 1953.

40.The backbone of DNA is made of:

a) Sugar and phosphate
b) Nitrogenous bases
c) Amino acids
d) Lipids
Answer: a) Sugar and phosphate
Explanation: DNA’s backbone consists of alternating sugar (deoxyribose) and phosphate
groups.

41.The process of synthesizing RNA from DNA is called:

a) Replication
b) Transcription
c) Translation
d) Transformation
Answer: b) Transcription
Explanation: Transcription produces mRNA from a DNA template.

42.The site of protein synthesis in a cell is:

a) Nucleus
b) Ribosome
c) Mitochondrion
d) Golgi apparatus
Answer: b) Ribosome
Explanation: Translation occurs on ribosomes, where mRNA is read to form proteins.

43.The codon AUG codes for:

a) Stop signal
b) Methionine
c) Phenylalanine
d) Glycine
Answer: b) Methionine
Explanation: AUG is the start codon and codes for methionine in eukaryotes.

44.The enzyme involved in DNA replication is:

a) RNA polymerase
b) DNA polymerase
c) Ligase
d) Helicase
Answer: b) DNA polymerase
Explanation: DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the growing DNA strand.

45.The central dogma of molecular biology states that information flows from:
a) Protein to DNA
b) DNA to RNA to protein
c) RNA to DNA
d) Protein to RNA
Answer: b) DNA to RNA to protein
Explanation: DNA → RNA (transcription) → protein (translation).

46.A mutation that changes a single nucleotide is called:

a) Frameshift mutation
b) Point mutation
c) Deletion mutation
d) Insertion mutation
Answer: b) Point mutation
Explanation: A point mutation involves substitution of one nucleotide, e.g., sickle-cell
anemia.

47.The operon model of gene regulation was proposed for:

a) Eukaryotes
b) Prokaryotes
c) Viruses
d) Fungi
Answer: b) Prokaryotes
Explanation: The lac operon in E. coli is a classic example of prokaryotic gene regulation.

48.The number of base pairs in a typical human DNA molecule is:

a) 3 billion
b) 3 million
c) 3 thousand
d) 3 hundred
Answer: a) 3 billion
Explanation: The human genome contains approximately 3 billion base pairs.

49.The theory of evolution by natural selection was proposed by:

a) Lamarck
b) Darwin
c) Mendel
d) Lyell
Answer: b) Darwin
Explanation: Darwin’s theory explains evolution through natural selection.

50.Analogous structures indicate:

a) Common ancestry
b) Divergent evolution
c) Convergent evolution
d) Genetic drift
Answer: c) Convergent evolution
Explanation: Analogous structures (e.g., wings of birds and insects) have similar
functions but different origins.

51.Fossils are most commonly found in:

a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Metamorphic rocks
d) Volcanic rocks
Answer: b) Sedimentary rocks
Explanation: Fossils form in sedimentary rocks due to deposition of organisms over
time.

52.The Hardy-Weinberg principle applies to:

a) Evolving populations
b) Non-evolving populations
c) Small populations
d) Mutating populations
Answer: b) Non-evolving populations
Explanation: The principle describes genetic equilibrium in stable populations.

53.The common ancestor of humans and chimpanzees lived approximately:

a) 5–7 million years ago
b) 10–12 million years ago
c) 1–2 million years ago
d) 20–25 million years ago
Answer: a) 5–7 million years ago
Explanation: Genetic and fossil evidence supports this timeline.

54.The process of formation of new species is called:

a) Speciation
b) Mutation
c) Selection
d) Adaptation
Answer: a) Speciation
Explanation: Speciation results in the formation of distinct species from a common
ancestor.

55.An example of adaptive radiation is:

a) Darwin’s finches
b) Human evolution
c) Bacterial resistance
d) Lamarck’s giraffes
Answer: a) Darwin’s finches
Explanation: Darwin’s finches evolved diverse beak shapes to adapt to different food
sources.

56.The causative agent of tuberculosis is:

a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Plasmodium falciparum
d) HIV
Answer: a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: Tuberculosis is a bacterial disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

57.Antibodies are produced by:

a) T-lymphocytes
b) B-lymphocytes
c) Macrophages
d) Platelets
Answer: b) B-lymphocytes
Explanation: B-lymphocytes produce antibodies as part of humoral immunity.
58.The vector for dengue fever is:
a) Anopheles mosquito
b) Aedes mosquito
c) Culex mosquito
d) Housefly
Answer: b) Aedes mosquito
Explanation: Aedes mosquitoes transmit the dengue virus.

59.Cancer is caused by:

a) Uncontrolled cell division
b) Bacterial infection
c) Vitamin deficiency
d) Hormonal imbalance
Answer: a) Uncontrolled cell division
Explanation: Cancer results from mutations leading to unregulated cell growth.

60.The drug derived from Cannabis is:

a) Morphine
b) Marijuana
c) Cocaine
d) Heroin
Answer: b) Marijuana
Explanation: Marijuana is derived from the Cannabis plant and has psychoactive effects.

61.Active immunity is acquired through:

a) Vaccination
b) Mother’s milk
c) Blood transfusion
d) Antibiotics
Answer: a) Vaccination
Explanation: Vaccination stimulates the body to produce its own antibodies.

62.A non-communicable disease is:

a) Malaria
b) Diabetes
c) Tuberculosis
d) Cholera
Answer: b) Diabetes
Explanation: Diabetes is caused by metabolic issues, not pathogens, making it
non-communicable.

63.ELISA is used to detect:

a) Blood sugar
b) HIV infection
c) Blood pressure
d) Cholesterol
Answer: b) HIV infection
Explanation: ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) detects antibodies for HIV.

64.The green revolution increased the yield of:

a) Fruits
b) Cereals
c) Vegetables
d) Spices
Answer: b) Cereals
Explanation: The green revolution improved wheat and rice yields through high-yielding
varieties.

65.Tissue culture is used to produce:

a) Antibiotics
b) Disease-free plants
c) Vaccines
d) Hormones
Answer: b) Disease-free plants
Explanation: Tissue culture propagates plants from cells under sterile conditions.

66.The practice of rearing honey bees is called:

a) Sericulture
b) Apiculture
c) Pisciculture
d) Horticulture
Answer: b) Apiculture
Explanation: Apiculture involves beekeeping for honey and pollination.

67.Inbreeding in animals leads to:

a) Increased genetic diversity
b) Reduced fertility
c) Hybrid vigor
d) New species formation
Answer: b) Reduced fertility
Explanation: Inbreeding increases homozygosity, leading to inbreeding depression.

68.The organism used in single-cell protein production is:

a) Spirulina
b) Rhizobium
c) Penicillium
d) E. coli
Answer: a) Spirulina
Explanation: Spirulina, a cyanobacterium, is a rich source of single-cell protein.

69.The microbe used in curd formation is:

a) Saccharomyces
b) Lactobacillus
c) Penicillium
d) Rhizobium
Answer: b) Lactobacillus
Explanation: Lactobacillus converts milk sugar into lactic acid, forming curd.

70.The antibiotic penicillin was discovered by:

a) Alexander Fleming
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Robert Koch
d) Edward Jenner
Answer: a) Alexander Fleming
Explanation: Fleming discovered penicillin from Penicillium mold in 1928.

71.The nitrogen-fixing bacterium in leguminous plants is:

a) Azotobacter
b) Rhizobium
c) Clostridium
d) Nitrosomonas
Answer: b) Rhizobium
Explanation: Rhizobium forms symbiotic nodules in legume roots to fix nitrogen.

72.The microbe used in ethanol production is:

a) Yeast
b) E. coli
c) Aspergillus
d) Bacillus
Answer: a) Yeast
Explanation: Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast) ferments sugars to produce ethanol.

73.Sewage treatment involves the use of:

a) Viruses
b) Bacteria
c) Algae
d) Fungi
Answer: b) Bacteria
Explanation: Bacteria break down organic matter in sewage treatment plants.

74.The technique of amplifying DNA in vitro is:

a) PCR
b) ELISA
c) Gel electrophoresis
d) Cloning
Answer: a) PCR
Explanation: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) amplifies specific DNA segments.

75.The enzyme that joins DNA fragments is:

a) Restriction enzyme
b) DNA ligase
c) Polymerase
d) Helicase
Answer: b) DNA ligase
Explanation: DNA ligase seals nicks in the DNA backbone, joining fragments.

76.A recombinant DNA molecule is formed by combining:

a) Two different proteins
b) DNA from two sources
c) RNA and DNA
d) Two different RNAs
Answer: b) DNA from two sources
Explanation: Recombinant DNA combines DNA from different organisms, e.g., bacterial
plasmid and human gene.

77.The process of introducing recombinant DNA into a host cell is called:

a) Transformation
b) Transcription
c) Translation
d) Replication
Answer: a) Transformation
Explanation: Transformation introduces foreign DNA into host cells, e.g., E. coli.

78.Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on:

a) Size
b) Charge
c) Shape
d) Both a and b
Answer: d) Both a and b
Explanation: DNA fragments move through a gel based on size and charge under an
electric field.

79.The source of Taq polymerase used in PCR is:

a) E. coli
b) Thermus aquaticus
c) Bacillus subtilis
d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Answer: b) Thermus aquaticus
Explanation: Taq polymerase is a heat-stable enzyme from the thermophilic bacterium
Thermus aquaticus.

80.A bioreactor is used to:

a) Amplify DNA
b) Culture microbes
c) Separate proteins
d) Synthesize RNA
Answer: b) Culture microbes
Explanation: Bioreactors provide controlled conditions for microbial growth to produce
biotech products.

81.The genetically modified crop that produces its own insecticide is:
a) Golden rice
b) Bt corn
c) Flavr Savr tomato
d) Roundup-ready soybean
Answer: b) Bt corn
Explanation: Bt corn expresses a toxin from Bacillus thuringiensis, killing pests.

82.Insulin for diabetes treatment is produced by:

a) Chemical synthesis
b) Recombinant DNA technology
c) Plant extraction
d) Animal sacrifice
Answer: b) Recombinant DNA technology
Explanation: Human insulin is produced by genetically engineered E. coli or yeast.

83.Golden rice is engineered to produce:

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Iron
d) Protein
Answer: a) Vitamin A
Explanation: Golden rice addresses vitamin A deficiency by producing beta-carotene.

84.Gene therapy is used to treat:

a) Infectious diseases
b) Genetic disorders
c) Nutritional deficiencies
d) Physical injuries
Answer: b) Genetic disorders
Explanation: Gene therapy corrects defective genes, e.g., in SCID (Severe Combined
Immunodeficiency).

85.The technique of producing identical copies of an organism is called:

a) Cloning
b) PCR
c) Transformation
d) Hybridization
Answer: a) Cloning
Explanation: Cloning produces genetically identical organisms, e.g., Dolly the sheep.

86.The maximum number of individuals an environment can support is called:

a) Natality
b) Carrying capacity
c) Mortality
d) Biotic potential
Answer: b) Carrying capacity
Explanation: Carrying capacity is the limit of resources to sustain a population.

87.The interaction where one species benefits and the other is unaffected is:
a) Mutualism
b) Commensalism
c) Parasitism
d) Predation
Answer: b) Commensalism
Explanation: E.g., barnacles on whales benefit without harming the whale.

88.The study of population dynamics is called:

a) Ecology
b) Demography
c) Genetics
d) Taxonomy
Answer: b) Demography
Explanation: Demography studies population size, growth, and structure.

89.An organism’s role in its ecosystem is called its:

a) Habitat
b) Niche
c) Biome
d) Community
Answer: b) Niche
Explanation: A niche includes an organism’s role, interactions, and resource use.

90.Natality refers to:

a) Death rate
b) Birth rate
c) Migration rate
d) Growth rate
Answer: b) Birth rate
Explanation: Natality is the number of births per unit time in a population.

91.The flow of energy in an ecosystem is:

a) Bidirectional
b) Unidirectional
c) Cyclic
d) Random
Answer: b) Unidirectional
Explanation: Energy flows from producers to consumers and is lost as heat.

92.Decomposers in an ecosystem are primarily:

a) Plants
b) Animals
c) Bacteria and fungi
d) Algae
Answer: c) Bacteria and fungi
Explanation: Decomposers break down dead organic matter, recycling nutrients.

93.The trophic level of herbivores is:

a) Primary producers
b) Primary consumers
c) Secondary consumers
d) Decomposers
Answer: b) Primary consumers
Explanation: Herbivores feed on producers, making them primary consumers.

94.The pyramid of energy is always:

a) Inverted
b) Upright
c) Irregular
d) Flat
Answer: b) Upright
Explanation: Energy decreases at each trophic level, forming an upright pyramid.

95.The process of nutrient recycling in an ecosystem is called:

a) Energy flow
b) Biogeochemical cycle
c) Food chain
d) Succession
Answer: b) Biogeochemical cycle
Explanation: Cycles like carbon and nitrogen recycle nutrients through biotic and abiotic
components.

96.The number of species in a given area is called:

a) Species richness
b) Genetic diversity
c) Ecosystem diversity
d) Biodiversity
Answer: a) Species richness
Explanation: Species richness measures the count of different species in an area.

97.An example of an in-situ conservation method is:

a) Zoo
b) Seed bank
c) National park
d) Botanical garden
Answer: c) National park
Explanation: In-situ conservation protects species in their natural habitats, e.g., national
parks.

98.The term ‘hotspot’ in biodiversity refers to:

a) Areas with low species diversity
b) Areas with high species diversity
c) Polluted areas
d) Desert regions
Answer: b) Areas with high species diversity
Explanation: Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high endemic species under threat.

99.The Red Data Book is maintained by:

a) WWF
b) IUCN
c) UNESCO
d) UNEP
Answer: b) IUCN
Explanation: The IUCN Red Data Book lists threatened species globally.

100.Extinction of a species due to human activities is called:

a) Natural extinction
b) Mass extinction
c) Anthropogenic extinction
d) Background extinction
Answer: c) Anthropogenic extinction
Explanation: Human-induced factors like habitat destruction cause anthropogenic
extinction.