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sunriseeducationalhub32FINAL JEE(Advanced) EXAMINATION – 2023
(Held On Sunday 04th June, 2023)
PAPER-1 TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
PHYSICS
SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to
correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 marks;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get –2 marks.
1
1. A slide with a frictionless curved surface, which becomes horizontal at its lower end,, is fixed on
the terrace of a building of height 3h from the ground, as shown in the figure. A spherical ball of
mass m is released on the slide from rest at a height h from the top of the terrace. The ball leaves
the slide with a velocity u0 u0 xˆ and falls on the ground at a distance d from the building making
an angle with the horizontal. It bounces off with a velocity v and reaches a maximum height h1.
The acceleration due to gravity is g and the coefficient of restitution of the ground is 1 3 . Which
of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
h z
u0
x
3h g
v
h1
d
(A) u0 2ghxˆ (B) v 2gh xˆ zˆ (C) = 60° (D) d h1 2 3
Ans. (A,C,D)
h
z
x
3h g
Sol. v1
h1
v1 2gh ˆi 2g3h kˆ
1 ˆ
v 2gh ˆi 2g3h k
3
2gh ˆi 2gh kˆ
2g3h
tan 3 = 60°
2gh
2
v1y 2gh
h1 h
2g 2g
2 3h
d v x t 2gh
g
6h
2gh 2 3h
g
d
= 2 3
h1
2
2. A plane polarized blue light ray is incident on a prism such that there is no reflection from the
surface of the prism. The angle of deviation of the emergent ray is = 60° (see Figure-1). The angle
of minimum deviation for red light from the same prism is min = 30° (see Figure-2). The refractive
index of the prism material for blue light is 3 . Which of the following statement(s) is(are)
correct?
min = 30°
= 60° Plane polarised
Plane polarised red light
blue light
Figure-1 Figure-2
(A) The blue light is polarized in the plane of incidence.
(B) The angle of the prism is 45°.
(C) The refractive index of the material of the prism for red light is 2 .
(D) The angle of refraction for blue light in air at the exit plane of the prism is 60°.
Ans. (A,C,D)
A
i =B
e
r1 r2
Blue
Sol.
tan B B 3
i = B = 60°
1sin 60 3 sin r1
r1 = 30°
r1 + r2 = A
= (i + e) – A
60° = 60° + e – A
e=A
3 sin r2 1sin e
3 sin(A 30) sin A
Solving
A = 60°
e = 60°
For red light
A min
sin
2 2
A
sin
2
3
3. In a circuit shown in the figure, the capacitor C is initially uncharged and the key K is open. In this
condition, a current of 1 A flows through the 1 resistor. The key is closed at time t = t0. Which of
the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
[Given: e–1 = 0.36]
15V R
5V 1
I1 3
( )
K
C = 2F
3
(A) The value of the resistance R is 3.
(B) For t < t0, the value of current I1 is 2A.
(C) At t = t0 + 7.2 s, the current in the capacitor is 0.6 A.
(D) For t , the charge on the capacitor is 12 C.
Ans. (A,B,C,D)
15V R I
5V 1 1A
Sol. O V
3
I1
By writing voltage drop across 1
0+5+1×1=V
V=6
Similarly across R
0 + 15 – I × R = 6
4
IR = 9
across 3
6 – 3 I1 = 0
I1 = 2A
Hence option (B) is correct
I=1+2 (by KCL)
I=3
IR = 9
R = 3
Option (A) is correct
eq = 6V req=0.6
3
C = 2µF
15 5 0
3
3 1 3 10 6V
1 1 1 5
3 1 3
qmax = 2 × 6 = 12µC
6 t
i e
3.6
5 7.2 5 1
e e 0.6A
3 7.2 3
5
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
4. A bar of mas M = 1.00 kg and length L = 0.20 m is lying on a horizontal frictionless surface. One
end of the bar is pivoted at a point about which it is free to rotate. A small mass m = 0.10 kg is
moving on the same horizontal surface with 5.00 m s−1 speed on a path perpendicular to the bar. It
hits the bar at a distance L/2 from the pivoted end and returns back on the same path with speed v.
After this elastic collision, the bar rotates with an angular velocity . Which of the following
statement is correct?
(A) = 6.98 rad s−1 and v = 4.30 m s−1
(B) = 3.75 rad s−1 and v = 4.30 m s−1
(C) = 3.75 rad s−1 and v = 10.0 m s−1
(D) = 6.80 rad s−1 and v = 4.10 m s−1
Ans. (A)
M,L
v
u
Sol. m
Applying angular momentum conservation about hinge
L L ML2
mv 0 mv ….(i)
2 2 3
Also from eq. of restitution
L
V
2 L
e 1 u V ….(ii)
u 2
Solving (i) & (ii)
6.98 rad/sec & v = 4.30 m/s
Hence option (A)
6
5. A container has a base of 50 cm × 5 cm and height 50 cm, as shown in the figure. It has two parallel
electrically conducting walls each of area 50 cm × 50 cm. The remaining walls of the container are
thin and non-conducting. The container is being filled with a liquid of dielectric constant 3 at a
uniform rate of 250 cm3 s−1. What is the value of the capacitance of the container after 10 seconds?
[Given: Permittivity of free space 0 = 9 × 10−12 C2 N−1m−2, the effects of the non-conducting walls
on the capacitance are negligible]
50 cm
50 cm
5 cm
(A) 27 pF (B) 63 pF (C) 81 pF (D) 135 pF
Ans. (B)
Sol. In t = 10 sec volume of liquid is
V = 2500 cc
2500
h 10cm
50 5
A d 0 k
Cd
d
50 10 2 10 10 2 0 3
30
5 10 2
Aa 0 50 10 2 40 10 2 0
Ca 40
d 5 10 2
C = Ca + Cd = 70
= 7 × 9 × 10–12 = 63 Pf
6. One mole of an ideal gas expands adiabatically from an initial state (TA, V0) to final state (Tf, 5𝑉0).
Another mole of the same gas expands isothermally from a different initial state (TB, V0) to the
same final state (Tf, 5V0). The ratio of the specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume of
this ideal gas is . What is the ratio TA /TB?
(A) 5−1 (B) 51− (C) 5 (D) 51+
Ans. (A)
7
P (TA, 5V0)
Sol. (TB, 5V0) (Tf, 5V0)
V
TA V01 Tf (5V0 )1
TA T
51 A
Tf TB
7. Two satellites P and Q are moving in different circular orbits around the Earth (radius R). The
heights of P and Q from the Earth surface are hP and hQ, respectively, where hp = R/3. The
accelerations of P and Q due to Earth’s gravity are gP and gQ, respectively. If gP /gQ = 36/25, what is
the value of hQ?
(A) 3R /5 (B) R/6 (C) 6R /5 (D) 5R /6
Ans. (A)
P
hP
Q
R E
Sol. hQ
GM
2
gP rP2 rQ
gQ GM rP
rQ2
2
36 rQ
25 rP
rQ 6
rP 5
6
rQ rP
5
6 R
R hQ R
5 3
24 9 3
hQ RR R R
15 15 5
8
SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
8. A Hydrogen-like atom has atomic number Z. Photons emitted in the electronic transitions from
level n = 4 to level n = 3 in these atoms are used to perform photoelectric effect experiment on a
target metal. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons generated is 1.95 eV. If the
photoelectric threshold wavelength for the target metal is 310 nm, the value of Z is _______.
[Given: hc = 1240 eV-nm and Rhc = 13.6 eV, where R is the Rydberg constant, h is the Planck’s
constant and c is the speed of light in vacuum]
Ans. (3)
Sol. n = 4 n=3
2
–1.51Z eV –0.85 Z2 eV
E = E4 – E3 = 0.66 Z2 eV
Kmax = E – W
0.66 Z2 1.95 + 4 = 5.95
hc 1240
W 0.66Z 2 1.95
310
Z=3
9. An optical arrangement consists of two concave mirrors M1 and M2, and a convex lens L with a
common principal axis, as shown in the figure. The focal length of L is 10 cm. The radii of
curvature of M1 and M2 are 20 cm and 24 cm, respectively. The distance between L and M2 is
20 cm. A point object S is placed at the mid-point between L and M2 on the axis. When the distance
between L and M1 is n/7 cm, one of the images coincides with S. The value of n is _______.
M1 L M2
20 cm
Ans. (80 or 150 or 220)
9
M1 L M2
S
Sol. 10 cm (d-10)cm 10cm
20 cm
Two cases are possible if Ist refraction on lens :
Since object is at focus light will become parallel.
Ist reflection at M1 :-
Light is parallel Image will be at focus.
IInd refraction from L :-
u = – (d – 10)
f = 10 cm
1 1 1
v f
1 1 1
v d 10 10
1 1 1
… (i)
v 10 d 10
This v will be object for M2, and image should be at 10 cm
1 1 1
v1 f
1 1 1
20 v 10 12
1 1 1
12 10 20 v
2 1
120 20 v
20 – v = –60
v = 80 cm
From equation (i)
1 1 1
80 10 d 10
1 1 1
d 10 10 80
1 80 10 70
d 10 800 800
80 80 150
d 10 d 10
7 7 7
n 150
10
Case-2: If 1st reflection on mirror m2
M1 L M2
d 10cm
20 cm
For m2
1 1 1
V1 10 12
V1 = 60 cm
Then refraction on lens L
u2 =–80 cm
1 1 1
V2 60 10
80
V2
7
Then reflection on m2
Either V2 is at centre (normal incidence)
80
d 20
7
220
d
7
n 220
,
7 7
n 220
V2 is at pole of m2
80
d 0
7
80
d
7
n 80
7 7
n 80
11
10. In an experiment for determination of the focal length of a thin convex lens, the distance of the
object from the lens is 10 ± 0.1 cm and the distance of its real image from the lens is 20 ± 0.2 cm.
The error in the determination of focal length of the lens is n %. The value of n is _______.
Ans. (1)
Sol. u = 10 ± 0.1 cm, v = 20 ± 0.2 cm
1 1 1 1 1 1
2 dv 2 du 2 df
v u f v u f
1 1 1 1 3 20
f cm
20 10 f f 20 3
1 1 9
0.2 0.1 df
20 10
2 2
400
1 400 400
df 0.2 0.1
9 400 100
1 0.6
df 0.2 0.4 df
9 9
df 0.6 3 1
f 9 20 100
% error = 1 %
1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol. ;
V U f 20 10 f
1 dU df 1 2 1 20
2
dv 2 2 ;f
V u f 20 f 3
0.1 0.2 f%
100 400 f
0.4 0.2 f
400 20
f
3
0.6 20 f
400 3 f
1 f
100 f
% change in f is 1%
12
11. A closed container contains a homogeneous mixture of two moles of an ideal monatomic gas
( = 5/3) and one mole of an ideal diatomic gas ( = 7/5). Here, is the ratio of the specific heats at
constant pressure and constant volume of an ideal gas. The gas mixture does a work of 66 Joule
when heated at constant pressure. The change in its internal energy is ________ Joule.
Ans. (121)
Sol. At constant pressure
W = nRT = 66
U = n(CV)mixT
n C n C
CV mix 1 V1 2 V2
n1 n 2
3 5
2 R 1 R
CV mix 2 2
3
11
CV mix R
6
11
U nRT
6
11
U 66 121J
6
12. A person of height 1.6 m is walking away from a lamp post of height 4 m along a straight path on
the flat ground. The lamp post and the person are always perpendicular to the ground. If the speed
of the person is 60 cm s−1, the speed of the tip of the person’s shadow on the ground with respect to
the person is _______ cm s−1.
Ans. (40)
4m
Sol. 1.6m
60cm/s
x
y
4 1.6
y yx
4y – 4x = 1.6y
2.4 y = 4x
X = 0.6y
dx dy
0.6
dt dt
dy
60 0.6
dt
dy
100cm / s
dt
Speed of tip of person’s
Shadow w.r.t person = 100 – 60 = 40 cm/s
13
13. Two point-like objects of masses 20 gm and 30 gm are fixed at the two ends of a rigid massless rod
of length 10 cm. This system is suspended vertically from a rigid ceiling using a thin wire attached
to its center of mass, as shown in the figure. The resulting torsional pendulum undergoes small
oscillations. The torsional constant of the wire is 1.2 × 10−8 N m rad−1. The angular frequency of the
oscillations in n × 10−3 rad s−1. The value of n is _____.
30gm 20gm
Ans. (10)
Sol.
4cm 6cm
30gm CM 20gm
2 I
T 2
C
C
I
Where I = moment of inertia
I = (30) (4)2 + (20) (6)2
= 1200 gm-cm2
= 1.2 × 10–4 kg-m2
1.2 10 8
1.2 10 4
104
= (10–2)
n × 10–3 = 10–2 n = 10
14
SECTION-4 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
14. List-I shows different radioactive decay processes and List-II provides possible emitted particles.
Match each entry in List-I with an appropriate entry from List-II, and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) 238
92 U 234
91 Pa (1) one particle and one + particle
(Q) 214
82 Pb 210
82 Pb (2) three – particles and one particle
(R) 210
81 Tl 206
82 Pb (3) two – particles and one particle
(S) 228
91 Pa 224
88 Ra (4) one particle and one – particle
(5) one particle and two + particles
(A) P 4, Q 3, R 2, S 1
(B) P 4, Q 1, R 2, S 5
(C) P 5, Q 3, R 1, S 4
(D) P 5, Q 1, R 3, S 2
Ans. (A)
Sol. Z1 ZA1 Z2 YA2 N1 2He4 N2 1e0 N3 1 e0
Conservation of charge
Z1 = Z2 + 2 N1 + N2 – N3 … (i)
Conservation of nucleons.
A1 = A2 + 4N1
A1 A2
N1 … (ii)
4
From (i) and (ii)
A A2
N 2 N3 Z1 Z 2 1
2
(P) 92 U 238 91 Pa 234
238 234
N1 1 1
4
4
N2 N3 92 91 1 1
2
15
(Q) 82 Pb 214 82 Pb 210
214 210
N1 1 1
4
4
N 2 N3 82 82 2 2
2
(R) 81 T 210
82 Pb206
210 206
N1 1 1
4
4
N 2 N 3 81 83 3 3
2
(S) 91 Pa 228 88 Ra 224
228 224
N1 1
4
4
N 2 N 3 91 88
1
2
15. Match the temperature of a black body given in List-I with an appropriate statement in List-II, and
choose the correct option.
hc
[Given: Wien’s constant as 2.9 × 10−3 m-K and = 1.24 × 10−6 V-m]
e
List-I List-II
(P) 2000 K (1) The radiation at peak wavelength can lead to emission
of photoelectrons from a metal of work function 4 eV
(Q) 3000 K (2) The radiation at peak wavelength is visible to human
eye.
(R) 5000 K (3) The radiation at peak emission wavelength will result
in the widest central maximum of a single slit
diffraction.
(S) 10000 K (4) The power emitted per unit area is 1/16 of that emitted
by a blackbody at temperature 6000 K.
(5) The radiation at peak emission wavelength can be
used to image human bones.
(A) P 3, Q 5, R 2, S 3
(B) P 3, Q 2, R 4, S 1
(C) P 3, Q 4, R 2, S 1
(D) P 1, Q 2, R 5, S 3
Ans. (C)
16
D
Sol. For option (P) temperature is minimum hence m will be maximum will also be
d
maximum
For option (Q) T = 3000
b 2.9 10 3
m
T 30000
2.9
m 10 6
3
= 0.96 × 10–6
= 966.6 nm
P3000 = 6A (3000)4
P6000 = 6A (6000)4
4
P3000 1 1
P6000 2 16
1
P3000 P6000
16
Q–4
For (R) T = 5000 K
2.9 103
m 0.58 106
5 10 3
= 580 nm
Visible to human eyes
R–2
For (S) T = 10,000 maximum
Hence (3) is wrong as it has minimum (m)
16. A series LCR circuit is connected to a 45 sin ( t) Volt source. The resonant angular frequency of
the circuit is 105 rad s−1 and current amplitude at resonance is I0.. When the angular frequency of
the source is = 8 × 104 rad s−1, the current amplitude in the circuit is 0.05 I0. If L = 50 mH, match
each entry in List-I with an appropriate value from List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) I0 in mA (1) 44.4
(Q) The quality factor of the circuit (2) 18
−1
(R) The bandwidth of the circuit in rad s (3) 400
(S) The peak power dissipated at resonance in Watt (4) 2250
(5) 500
(A) P 2, Q 3, R 5, S 1 (B) P 3, Q 1, R 4, S 2
(C) P 4, Q 5, R 3, S 1 (D) P 4, Q 2, R 1, S 5
Ans. (B)
17
Sol. V = 45 sin t, L = 50 mH
1 1 1
0 105 rad / s C 2
LC L0 5 10 1010
2
= 2 × 10–9 F
45
I0
R
= 8 × 104 rad/s = 0.8 0
I0
I 0.05I0 Z 20R
20
X L 8 10 4 5 10 2 4k
1 1 25
XC 9
10 5 k
8 10 2 10
4
16 4
Z2 R 2 XC X L
2
2
9
400R R k
2 2
4
9
k
9 900
R 4 k
399 80 8
V0 45 8 8
I0 A 0.4A 400mA
R 900 20
1 L 8 5 10 2 8
Q 9
25 106
R C 900 2 10 900
8
Q 5000 44.4
900
0 10 5
Q 0 = 2250.0
Q 44.4
452 452 452
Pmax I 02 R R 8 18.4W
R2 R 900
18
17. A thin conducting rod MN of mass 20 gm, length 25 cm and resistance 10 is held on frictionless,
long, perfectly conducting vertical rails as shown in the figure. There is a uniform magnetic field
B0 = 4 T directed perpendicular to the plane of the rod-rail arrangement. The rod is released from
rest at time t = 0 and it moves down along the rails. Assume air drag is negligible. Match each
quantity in List-I with an appropriate value from List-II, and choose the correct option.
[Given: The acceleration due to gravity g = 10 ms–2 and e–1 = 0.4]
M N
25cm g
List-I List-II
(P) At t = 0.2 s, the magnitude of the induced emf in Volt (1) 0.07
(Q) At 𝑡 = 0.2 s, the magnitude of the magnetic force in Newton (2) 0.14
(R) At 𝑡 = 0.2 s, the power dissipated as heat in Watt (3) 1.20
(S) The magnitude of terminal velocity of the rod in m s−1 (4) 0.12
(5) 2.00
(A) P 5, Q 2, R 3, S 1 (B) P 3, Q 1, R 4, S 5
(C) P 4, Q 3, R 1, S 2 (D) P 3, Q 4, R 2, S 5
Ans. (D)
Sol. From force equation
mdv
mg Bi
dt
BBi mdv
mg
R dt
mgR mR dv
2 2
v 2 2
B B dt
t v
B2 2 dv
mR dt mgR
t 0 0
B2 2
v
19
mgR 20 103 10 10
Now 2
B2 2 1
16
16
1
2 2 16
B 16 1
And 3
5
mR 20 10 10 0.2
5t n 2 v 0
v
2 v
5t n
v
v = 2 (1 – e–5t)
At t = 0.2 sec v = 2 (1 – e–5 × 0.2)
v = 2 (1 – 0.4)
v = 1.2 m/s
(P) Now at t = 0.2 sec
The magnitude of the induced emf = E = Bv
1
4 1.2 1.2Volt
4
(Q) At t = 0.2 sec, the magnitude of magnetic force = BIsin
B v
B sin 90
R
1 1
4 4 1.3
4 4 = 0.12 Newton
10
(R) At t = 0.2 sec, the power dissipated as heat
v2 1.2 1.2
P i2 R
R 10
P = 0.144 watt
(S) Magnitude of terminal velocity
At terminal velocity, the net force become zero
mg = Bi
B vt
mg B
R
mgR 20 10 3 10 10
vT 2 2
B 1
16
16
vT = 2 m/s
Hence, Answer is (D)
20
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
FINAL JEE(Advanced) EXAMINATION – 2023
(Held On Sunday 04th June, 2023)
PAPER-1 TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to
correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 marks;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get –2 marks.
1. The correct statement(s) related to processes involved in the extraction of metals is(are)
(A) Roasting of Malachite produces Cuprite.
(B) Calcination of Calamine produces Zincite.
(C) Copper pyrites is heated with silica in a reverberatory furnace to remove iron.
(D) Impure silver is treated with aqueous KCN in the presence of oxygen followed by reduction
with zinc metal.
Ans. (B,C,D)
1
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
Sol. ⇒ Under roasting condition, the malachite will be converted into
CuCO3 .Cu(OH) 2 → 2CuO + CO 2 + H 2O
⇒ ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO 2 ↑
(Calamine) (Zincite)
⇒ Copper pyrites is heated in a reverberatory furnace after mixing with silica. In the furnace, iron
oxide 'slag of' as iron silicate and copper is produced in the form of copper matte.
FeO + SiO 2 → FeSiO3
(Slag)
2. In the following reactions, P, Q, R, and S are the major products.
⊕
CH3CH 2 CH(CH3 )CH 2 CN
(i) PhMgBr, then H3O
(ii) PhMgBr, then H O
→P
2
O
|| (i) anhyd. AlCl3
Ph – H + CH3CCl Q
(ii) PhMgBr, then H2O
O
|| 1
(i) (PhCH ) Cd
2 22
CH3CH2CCl R
(ii) PhMgBr, then H O
2
( i ) PhMgBr, then H 2O
PhCH 2 CHO
(ii) CrO3 , dil.H 2SO 4
(iii) HCN
→S
(iv) H 2SO4 , ∆
The correct statement(s) about P, Q, R, and S is(are)
(A) Both P and Q have asymmetric carbon(s).
(B) Both Q and R have asymmetric carbon(s).
(C) Both P and R have asymmetric carbon(s).
(D) P has asymmetric carbon(s), S does not have any asymmetric carbon.
Ans. (C,D)
2
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
Sol. Formation of P
PhMgBr Ph
CH 3 – CH2 – CH – CH2 – CN
H3 O + C
CH 3 O
PhMgBr
then H3 O +
Ph
*
Ph
Asymmetric OH
carbon
(P)
Formation of Q
O O
anhy. AlCl3
+ CH 3 – C – Cl Ph – C – CH3
PhMgBr
then H3 O +
OH
Ph – C – CH3
Ph
(Q)
No asymmetric carbon
Formation of R
C – Cl + 1 (Ph – CH2 )2 Cd Ph
2
O O
PhMgBr
then H3 O +
Ph
* Ph
asymmetric OH
carbon
(R)
3
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
Formation of S
PhMgBr
Ph – CH 2 – C – H Ph – CH 2 – CH – Ph
H3 O +
OH
O
CrO3 with dil. H2 SO4
Ph – CH 2 – C – Ph
O
HCN
OH
H2 SO4
Ph – CH = C – Ph Ph – CH 2 – C – Ph
∆
COOH CN
(S) No asymmetric carbon
3. Consider the following reaction scheme and choose the correct option(s) for the major products Q,
R and S.
Styrene (i) B2 H6
(ii) NaOH, H O , H O
→ P
(i) CrO3 , H 2SO4
(ii) Cl , Re d Phosphorus
→Q
2 2 2 2
(iii) H 2O
P
(i)SOCl2
(ii) NaCN
→ R
conc.H 2SO4
→S
(iii) H3O+ , ∆
O O
Cl COOH Cl COOH COOH
NH2 NH2
(A) (B)
O
SO3H
Q R S Q R S
O O
O O
Cl COOH Cl
NH2 NH2
(C) (D)
O SO3H
Q R S
Q R S
Ans. (B)
4
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
Sol.
OH
CH = CH2 CH 2 – CH2
(1) B2 H6
(2) NaOH, H2 O2, H2O
(Styrene) (P)
CrO3 , H2 SO4
CH 2 – CH2 – Cl (O)
SOCl2
CH 2 – C – OH
O
NaCN
CH 2 – CH2 – CN (HVZ) Cl2 +
Red P
H3O /∆
CH – COOH
CH 2 – CH2 – C – OH Cl
(Q)
(R) O
Conc. H2 SO 4
O
(S)
5
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
4. In the scheme given below, X and Y, respectively, are
Metal halide
aq. NaOH
→ White precipitate (P) + Filtrate (Q)
aq.H 2SO 4
PbO2 ( excess )
P heat
→X (a coloured species in solution)
MnO( OH )2 ,
Conc.H 2SO4
Q
warm
→Y (gives blue-coloration with KI-starch paper)
(A) CrO42– and Br2 (B) MnO42– and Cl2
(C) MnO4– and Cl2 (D) MnSO4 and HOCl
Ans. (C)
Sol. MnCl2 + NaOH → Mn(OH)2 ↓ + NaCl
(P) (Q)
(white ppt.) (Filterate)
PbO + H + (H SO )
Mn(OH) 2
2 2 4
→ MnO 4− + Pb 2+
heat
Purple
– MnO(OH)2/conc. H2SO4/D
Cl Cl2
–
2I
–
(Starch + I2) + 2Cl
blue coloration
5. Plotting 1/Λm against cΛm for aqueous solutions of a monobasic weak acid (HX) resulted in a
straight line with y-axis intercept of P and slope of S. The ratio P ⁄ S is
[Λm = molar conductivity
Λ °m = limiting molar conductivity
c = molar concentration
Ka = dissociation constant of HX]
(A) Ka Λ °m (B) Ka Λ °m / 2 (C) 2 Ka Λ °m (D) 1 / (Ka Λ °m )
Ans. (A)
6
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JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
Λm
Sol. For weak acid, α =
Λ0
Cα 2
Ka = ⇒ Ka (1 – α) = Cα2
1− α
2
Λ Λ
⇒ Ka 1 − m = C m
Λ0 Λ0
Λ m K a CΛ 2m
⇒ Ka − =
Λ0 (Λ 0 )2
Divide by ' Λ m '
Ka CΛ m K a
⇒= +
Λ m (Λ 0 )2 Λ 0
1 CΛ m 1
⇒
= +
Λ m K a (Λ 0 ) 2
Λ0
1
Plot vs C Λ m has
Λm
1
Slope = =S
K a (Λ 0 )2
1
y-intercept = =P
Λ0
1
P Λ0
Then, = = Ka Λ0
S 1
K a (Λ 0 )2
6. On decreasing the 𝑝H from 7 to 2, the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt (MX) of a weak acid
(HX) increased from 10−4 mol L−1 to 10−3 mol L−1. The 𝑝Ka of HX is:
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 2
Ans. (B)
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Sol. At pH = 7 ⇒ pure water
solubility = S1 = K sp
At pH = 2
KSP
⇒ MX(s) + aq + –
M (aq) + X (aq)
s s–x
1/K a
– +
X (aq) + H (aq)
HX(aq)
s–x 10–2 x s
Approximation : s – x 0 [X is limiting reagent]
–
⇒s x
⇒ s(s – x) = Ksp …… (1)
s 1
−2
= …… (2)
(s − x) (10 ) K a
s2 K sp
Multiply (1) × (2) ⇒ −2
=
10 Ka
K sp
⇒s=
10 K a
s 10−3
Now given : = −4
s1 10
K sp
10 K a 1
⇒ =
10 ⇒ =
10
K sp 10 K a
⇒ 10−2
Ka =
⇒ Ka = 10–4
⇒ pKa = 4
7. In the given reaction scheme, P is a phenyl alkyl ether, Q is an aromatic compound; R and S are the
major products.
(i) NaOH
(ii) CO (i) ( CH CO ) O
P
HI
→ Q
2
+ → R
3
+ →S
2
(iii) H3O (ii) H3O
The correct statement about S is
(A) It primarily inhibits noradrenaline degrading enzymes.
(B) It inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandin.
(C) It is a narcotic drug.
(D) It is ortho-acetylbenzoic acid.
Ans. (B)
Sol. P is phenyl alkyl ether
Q is aromatic compound
R and S are the major product
8
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
i.e.
O–R O–H
H–I
+R–I
Phenyl alkyl ether (Q)
(1) NaOH
O— Na + OH
COOH
(2) CO2
H2 O + (3) H3 O +
H3 O + (CH3 CO)2 O
O – C – CH3
COOH
(Aspirin)
Pain killer
Acetyl salicylic acid
(Non-narcotic analgesic)
Correct ans is (B)
Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of chemicals known as prostaglandin's.
SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY If the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
8. The stoichiometric reaction of 516 g of dimethyldichlorosilane with water results in a tetrameric
cyclic product X in 75% yield. The weight (in g) of X obtained is___.
[Use, molar mass (g mol−1): H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, Si = 28, Cl = 35.5]
Ans. (222)
9
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JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
75%
Sol. 4(CH3 ) 2 SiCl2 + 4H 2O → (CH3 )8 Si 4O 4 + 8HCl
(X)
w = 516 g
516
n =
(moles) 129
=4
% yield = 75
75
The weight of X (in gram) = 296 × = 222 g
100
9. A gas has a compressibility factor of 0.5 and a molar volume of 0.4 dm3 mol−1 at a temperature of
800 K and pressure x atm. If it shows ideal gas behaviour at the same temperature and pressure, the
molar volume will be y dm3 mol−1. The value of 𝐱/𝐲 is ___.
[Use: Gas constant, R = 8 × 10−2 L atm K−1 mol−1]
Ans. (100)
Sol. For gas : Z = 0.5, Vm = 0.4 L/mol
T = 800 K, P = X atm.
PVm
⇒ Z=
RT
X(0.4)
⇒ = 0.5
0.08 × 800
⇒ X = 80
For ideal gas, PVm = RT
RT 0.08 × 800
⇒ V
=m = = 0.8 L mol–1 = y
P 80
x 80
Then, = = 100.
y 0.8
10
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JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
10. The plot of log kf versus 1 for a reversible reaction A (g) P (g) is shown.
T
log kf 0.002
1 –1
(K )
T
Pre-exponential factors for the forward and backward reactions are 1015 s−1 and 1011 s−1,
respectively. If the value of log K for the reaction at 500 K is 6, the value of | log kb | at 250 K is
______.
[K = equilibrium constant of the reaction
kf = rate constant of forward reaction
kb = rate constant of backward reaction]
Ans. (5)
Sol. For reaction A(g) P(g)
−E f
log kf = + log Af [Arrhenius equation for forward reaction]
2.303RT
1
From plot when, = 0.002, log kf = 9
T
−E f
⇒ 9= (0.002) + log (Af)
2.303R
Given : Af = 1015 s–1
−E f
⇒ 9= (0.002) + 15
2.303R
Ef 6
⇒ = = 3000
2.303R 0.002
k A
Now, K = f = f e− (Ef −E b )/RT
k b Ab
1 (E f − E b ) 1015
log K =
− + log 11
2.303 RT 10
At 500 K
−(E f − E b )
⇒ 6= +4
500R (2.303)
⇒ (1000 R) (2.303) = Eb – Ef
⇒ (1000 R) (2.303) = Eb – 3000 (2.303 R)
⇒ Eb = 4000 R (2.303) ……… (1)
Now k b = A b e− E b /RT
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JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
−E b
⇒ log kb = + log Ab
2.303RT
At 250 K
4000
⇒ log kb = – + log (1011) [From equation (1)]
250
= –16 + 11 = –5
|log kb| = 5
11. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes two reversible processes (A → B and B → C) as
shown in the given figure :
A
600 V1, T1
Temperature (K)
V2, T2 V3, T2
60
B C
10
Volume (m3)
A → B is an adiabatic process. If the total heat absorbed in the entire process (A → B and B → C)
is RT2 ln 10, the value of 2 log V3 is _________.
5
[Use, molar heat capacity of the gas at constant pressure, Cp,m = R]
2
Ans. (7)
Sol. For A → B 600 V1γ−1 = 60V2γ−1 (γ = 5/3)
(Reversible adiabatic)
⇒ 600 (V1)2/3 = 60 (V2)2/3
2/3
V
⇒ 10 = 2
V1
2/3
V
⇒ 10 = 2
10
⇒ V2 = 10(10)3/2 = 105/2
Now, qnet = RT2 ln 10 = 60 R ln 10 = qAB + qBC
∵ qAB = 0
V
⇒ qBC = 60 R ln 10 = 60 R ln 3 [∵ B → C is reversible isothermal]
V2
V3
⇒ 60 R ln 10 = 60 R ln 5/2
10
5
⇒ log 10 = log V3 –
2
7
⇒ log V3 = ⇒ 2 log V3 = 7
2
12
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JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
12. In a one-litre flask, 6 moles of A undergoes the reaction A (g) P (g). The progress of product
formation at two temperatures (in Kelvin), T1 and T2, is shown in the figure:
[P] (mol L–1)
4 T1
2 T2
Time (h)
If T1 = 2T2 and (∆G 2Θ − ∆G1Θ ) = RT2 ln x, then the value of x is ______.
[ ∆G1Θ and ∆G Θ2 are standard Gibb’s free energy change for the reaction at temperatures T1 and T2,
respectively.]
Ans. (8)
Sol. At T1 K : P(g)
A(g)
t=0 6
t=∞ 6–x x = 4 (from plot)
4
⇒ At T1 K : K P1 = =2
2
At T2 K : P(g)
A(g)
t=0 6
t=∞ 6–y y = 2 (from plot)
2 1
⇒ At T2 K : K P2 = =
4 2
1
Now, ∆G o2 = –RT2 ln K P2 = – RT2 ln
2
⇒ ∆G o2 = RT2 ln 2
∆G1o = – RT1 ln K P1 = – RT1 ln 2 = – 2RT2 ln 2
Given : ∆G o2 – ∆G1o = RT2 ln 2 + 2RT2 ln 2 = 3RT2 ln 2 = RT2 ln x
⇒ x = 23 = 8
13
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JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
13. The total number of sp2 hybridised carbon atoms in the major product P (a non-heterocyclic
compound) of the following reaction is _______.
NC CN (i) LiAlH4 (excess), then H2O
P
NC CN (ii) Acetophenone (excess)
Ans. (28)
Sol.
N≡C C≡N H2 N – CH2 CH 2 – N H2
LAH (excess) then CH
H2 O
N≡C C≡N CH
H2 N – H2 C CH 2 – N H2
Ph Ph CH 3–C–Ph
C= N – H2 C CH 2 – N = C
CH O
H3 C CH 3 (excess)
Ph CH Ph (Aceto phenone)
C= N – H2 C CH 2 – N = C
H3 C
(P) CH 3
Total number of sp2 hybridised C-atom in P = 28
14
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
SECTION-4 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
14. Match the reactions (in the given stoichiometry of the reactants) in List-I with one of their products
given in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) P2O3 + 3H2O → (1) P(O)(OCH3)Cl2
(Q) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → (2) H3PO3
(R) PCl5 + CH3COOH → (3) PH3
(S) H3PO2 + 2H2O + 4AgNO3 → (4) POCl3
(5) H3PO4
(A) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 5 (B) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 4; S → 2
(C) P → 5; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3 (D) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 5
Ans. (D)
Sol. (P) P2O3 + 3H2O → 2H3PO3
(Q) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → 3NaH2PO2 + PH3
(R) PCl5 + CH3COOH → CH3COCl + POCl3 + HCl
(S) H3PO2 + 2H2O + 4AgNO3 → 4Ag + 4HNO3 + H3PO4
15. Match the electronic configurations in List-I with appropriate metal complex ions in List-II and
choose the correct option.
[Atomic Number: Fe = 26, Mn = 25, Co = 27]
List-I List-II
(P) t 62g e 0g (1) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(Q) t 32g e 2g (2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
(R) e 2 t 32 (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(S) 4
t 2g e 2g (4) [FeCl4]–
(5) [CoCl4]2–
(A) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 3 (B) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 5
(C) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 1 (D) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 1
Ans. (D)
15
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
II
Sol. 1. [Fe(H 2O)6 ]+2
WFL
II
2. [Mn(H 2O)6 ]+2
WFL
III
3. [Co(NH3 )6 ]+3
SFL
III
4. [Fe Cl4 ]Θ
WFL
II
5. [Co Cl4 ]–2
WFL
16
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JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
16. Match the reactions in List-I with the features of their products in List-II and choose the correct
option.
List-I List-II
(P) (-)-1-Bromo-2-ethylpentane aq. NaOH (1) Inversion of configuration
(single enantiomer) SN2 reaction
(Q) (-)-2-Bromopentane aq. NaOH (2) Retention of configuration
(single enantiomer) SN2 reaction
(R) (-)-3-Bromo-3-methylhexane aq. NaOH (3) Mixture of enantiomers
(single enantiomer) SN1 reaction
(S) (4) Mixture of structural isomers
aq. NaOH
Me H Me Br
SN1 reaction
(Single enantiomer)
(5) Mixture of diastereomers
(A) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 3 (B) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 5
(C) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 4 (D) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 5
Ans. (B)
Sol. P → 2, Q → 1, R → 3, S → 5
(P) Br Aq. NaoH OH
* *
SN2
Retention of configuration
Br
(Q) Aq. NaoH
S N2
OH
Inversion of configuration
Br OH
(R) * Aq. NaoH +
S N1
OH
Mixture of enantiomers
Aq. NaoH
S N1
Me H Me Br Me H Me OH
+
Me H OH Me
(S) Diastereomeric mixture
17
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JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1
17. The major products obtained from the reactions in List-II are the reactants for the named reactions
mentioned in List-I. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) Etard reaction (1) Zn −Hg, HCl
Acetophenone →
(Q) Gattermann reaction (2) (i) KMnO4 ,KOH, ∆
Toluene →
(ii) SOCl2
(R) Gattermann-Koch reaction (3) CH3Cl
Benzene →
anhyd. AlCl3
(S) Rosenmund reduction (4) NaNO2 /HCl
Aniline →
273−278 K
(5) Phenol Zn, ∆ →
(A) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 3
(B) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 5; S → 2
(C) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 4
(D) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 5; S → 2
Ans. (D)
Sol. P → 3, Q → 4, R → 5, S → 2
O
(i) Zn–Hg/HCl
Ph – C – CH3 Ph – CH2 – CH3
Acetophenone
O
CH 3 C – Cl CHO
(ii)
(i) KMnO4 , KOH / ∆ H2 Pd – BaSO4
(ii) SOCl2 Rosenmond reaction
Toluene Toluene (S)
CH 3 CHO
(iii)
CH 3 – Cl CrO2 Cl2
Etard reaction
Anhy. AlCl3 AcOAc / ∆
(P)
NH2 N2 Cl Cl
(iv)
NaNO2 / HCl Cu / HCl
Gattermann reaction
273–278 K
(Q)
OH CHO
(v)
Zn / ∆ CO / HCl
Gattermann Koch reaction
AlCl3
(R)
18
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-1/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
FINAL JEE(Advanced) EXAMINATION – 2023
(Held On Sunday 04th June, 2023)
PAPER-1 TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to
correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 marks;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get –2 marks.
1
1. Let S = (0, 1) (1, 2) (3, 4) and T = {0, 1, 2, 3}. Then which of the following statements is(are) true ?
(A) There are infinitely many functions from S to T
(B) There are infinitely many strictly increasing functions from S to T
(C) The number of continuous functions from S to T is at most 120
(D) Every continuous function from S to T is differentiable
Ans. (ACD)
Sol. S = (0, 1) (1, 2) (3, 4)
T = {0, 1, 2, 3}
Number of functions :
Each element of S have 4 choice
Let n be the number of element in set S.
Number of function = 4n
Here n
Option (A) is correct.
Option (B) is incorrect (obvious)
(C)
1 2 3
For continuous function
Each interval will have 4 choices.
Number of continuous functions
= 4×4×4 = 64
Option (C) is correct.
(D) Every continuous function is piecewise constant functions
Differentiable.
Option (D) is correct.
x 2 y2
2. Let T1 and T2 be two distinct common tangents to the ellipse E : 1 and the parabola
6 3
P : y2 = 12x. Suppose that the tangent T1 touches P and E at the point A1 and A2, respectively and
the tangent T2 touches P and E at the points A4 and A3, respectively. Then which of the following
statements is(are) true?
(A) The area of the quadrilateral A1A2A3A4 is 35 square units
(B) The area of the quadrilateral A1A2A3A4 is 36 square units
(C) The tangents T1 and T2 meet the x-axis at the point (–3, 0)
(D) The tangents T1 and T2 meet the x-axis at the point (–6, 0)
Ans. (AC)
2
A1
A2
Sol. M N
L O
A3
A4
3
y mx
m
C = a m + b2
2 2 2
9
6m 2 3 m2 = 1
m2
T1 & T2
y = x + 3, y = –x – 3
Cuts x-axis at (–3, 0)
A1(3, 6) A4(3, –6)
A2(–2, 1) A3(–2, –1)
A1A4 = 12, A2A3 = 2, MN = 5
1
Area = 12 2 5 35sq.unit
2
Ans. (A, C)
x3 5 17
3. Let f : [0, 1] [0, 1] be the function defined by f(x) = x 2 x . Consider the square
3 9 36
region S = [0, 1]×[0,1]. Let G = {(x, y)S : y > f(x)} be called the green region and R ={(x, y)S :
y < f(x)} be called the red region. Let Lh = {(x, h)S : x[0, 1]} be the horizontal line drawn at a
height h [0, 1]. Then which of the following statements is(are) ture?
1 2
(A) There exists an h , such that the area of the green region above the line Lh equals the
4 3
area of the green region below the line Lh
1 2
(B) There exists an h , such that the area of the red region above the line Lh equals the area
4 3
of the red region below the line Lh
1 2
(C) There exists an h , such that the area of the green region above the line Lh equals the
4 3
area of the red region below the line Lh
1 2
(D) There exists an h , such that the area of the red region above the line Lh equals the area
4 3
of the green region below the line Lh
Ans. (BCD)
3
x3 5x 17
Sol. f(x) x2
3 9 36
5
f '(x) x 2x
2
9
1
f '(x) = 0 at x = in [0, 1]
3
AR = Area of Red region
AG = Area of Green region
1 1
A R f(x)dx
0 2
Total area = 1
1
AG =
2
1 1
0 f(x)dx 2
AG = AR
17
f(0)
36
13
f(1) 0.36
36
1 181
f 0.558
3 324
1
0 1
3 1 2
(A) Correct when h = but h ,
4 4 3
(A) is incorrect
1
(B) Correct when h
4
(B) is correct
181 1 1
(C) When h , AR , AG
324 2 2
13 1 1
h , AR , AG
36 2 2
13 181
AR = AG for some h ,
36 324
(C) is correct
(D) Option (D) is remaining coloured part of option (C), hence option (D) is also correct.
4
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
1 1
4. Let f : (0, 1) be the functions defined as f(x) = n if x , where nN. Let
n 1 n
1 t
x
g : (0, 1) be a function such that t
dt g(x) 2 x for all x(0, 1). Then limf (x)g(x)
x 0
x2
(A) does NOT exist (B) is equal to 1
(C) is equal to 2 (D) is equal to 3
Ans. (C)
x
1 t
Sol. t
dt. n f(x)g(x) 2 x n
x2
x
1 t
t
dt sin 1 x x 1 x sin 1 x x 1 x 2
x2
sin 1 x x 1 x sin 1 x x 1 x 2 2 x
lim f(x)g(x)
x 0
x x
2 lim f(x)g(x) 2
x 0
lim f(x)g(x) 2
x 0
5. Let Q be the cube with the set of vertices (x1 , x 2 , x3 ) 3
: x1, x 2 , x 3{0,1} . Let F be the set of all
twelve lines containing the diagonals of the six faces of the cube Q. Let S be the set of all four lines
containing the main diagonals of the cube Q; for instance, the line passing through the vertices
(0, 0, 0) and (1, 1, 1) is in S. For lines 1 and 2, let d(1,2) denote the shortest distance between
them. Then the maximum value of d(1,2), as 1 varies over F and 2 varies over S, is
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 8 3 12
Ans. (A)
5
B(0,1,0)
E(1,1,0)
G(1,1,1)
F(0,1,1)
Sol.
A(1,0,0)
O(0,0,0)
C(0,0,1) D(1,0,1)
DR'S of OG = 1, 1, 1
DR'S of AF = –1, 1, 1
DR'S of CE = 1, 1, –1
DR'S of BD = 1, –1, 1
x y z
Equation of OG
1 1 1
x 1 y z
Equation of AB
1 1 0
Normal to both the line’s
ˆi ˆj kˆ
1 1 1 ˆi ˆj 2kˆ
1 1 0
OA ˆi
ˆi.(iˆ ˆj 2k)
ˆ
1
S.D. =
ˆi ˆj 2kˆ 6
Ans. (A)
x 2 y2
6. Let X (x, y) : 1 and y 2 5x . Three distinct points P, Q and R are randomly
8 20
chosen from X. Then the probability that P, Q and R form a triangle whose area is a positive
integer, is
71 73 79 83
(A) (B) (C) (D)
220 220 220 220
Ans. (B)
6
x y2
Sol. 1 & y2 < 5x
8 20
Solving corresponding equations
x y2
1 & y2 = 5x
8 20
x 2
y 10
X = {(1,1), (1,0), (1,–1), (1,2), (1,–2), (2, 3), (2,2), (2,1), (2,0), (2,–1), (2,–2), (2,–3)}
Let S be the sample space & E be the event n(S) = 12C3
For E
Selecting 3 points in which 2 points are either or x = 1 & x = 2 but distance b/w then is even
Triangles with base 2 :
= 3×7 + 5×5 = 46
Triangles with base 4 :
= 1×7 + 3×5 = 22
Triangles with base 6 :
= 1×5 = 5
46 22 5 73
P(E) 12
C3 220
Ans. (B)
7. Let P be a point on the parabola y2 = 4ax, where a > 0. The normal to the parabola at P meets the
x-axis at a point Q. The area of the triangle PFQ, where F is the focus of the parabola, is 120. If the
slope m of the normal and a are both positive integers, then the pair (a,m) is
(A) (2, 3) (B) (1, 3) (C) (2, 4) (D) (3, 4)
Ans. (A)
7
Sol. Let point P (at2, 2at)
normal at P is y = –tx + 2at + at3
y = 0, x = 2a + at2
Q(2a + at2, 0)
m = –t
F(a,0)
Q(2a+at2,0)
P(t)
1
Area of PFQ = a at 2 2at 120
2
m = –t
a2 [1 + m2] m = 120
(a, m) = (2, 3) will satisfy
8
SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY If the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
8. Let tan 1 x , , for x . Then the number of real solutions of the equation
2 2
3 3
1 cos 2x 2 tan 1 tan x in the set , , , is equal to
2 2 2 2 2 2
Ans. (3)
Sol. 2 cos x 2.tan 1 tan x
cos x tan 1 tan x
y
y = |cosx|
x
–3/2 – –/2 0 /2 3/2
y = tan–1(tanx)
No. of solutions = 3
9. Let n 2 be a natural number and f : [0,1] be the function defined by
1
n(1 – 2nx) if 0 x
2n
2n 1 3
2nx 1 if x
f x 2n 4n
4n 1 nx 3 1
if x
4n n
n 1
nx 1 if x 1
n 1 n
If n is such that the area of the region bounded by the curves x = 0 , x = 1 , y = 0 and y = f (x) is 4 ,
then the maximum value of the function f is
Ans. (8)
9
Sol. y
I II III
x
0 (1,0)
Area = Area of (I + II + III) = 4
1 1 1 1 1 1
n n 1 n
2 2n 2 2n 2 n
1 1 n 1
4
4 4 2
n 8
maximum value of f(x) = 8
r
10. Let 75...57 denote the (r + 2) digit number where the first and the last digits are 7 and the remaining
99
98
75...57 m
r digits are 5. Consider the sum S = 77 + 757 + 7557 + …+ 75...57 . If S , where m
n
and n are natural numbers less than 3000, then the value of m + n is
Ans. (1219)
Sol. S = 77 + 757 + 7557 + … + 75.....57
98
10S = 770 + 7570 + … + 75 … 570 + 755 ….. 570
______________________________________________
9S = –77 + 13 13 ..... 13 + 7 5.....5 70
98 times 98
= –77 + 13 × 98 + 7 5.....57 + 13
99
7 5.....5 7 1210
S 99
9
m = 1210
n=9
m + n = 1219
10
1967 1686i sin
11. Let A : . If A contains exactly one positive integer n, then the value of
7 3i cos
n is
Ans. (281)
1967 1686i sin
Sol. A
7 3i cos
281(7 6i sin ) 7 3i cos
7 3i cos 7 3i cos
281(49 18sin cos i(21cos 42 sin ))
49 9 cos2
for positive integer
Im(A) = 0
21cos + 42sin = 0
1 4 4
tan ; sin 2 , cos2
2 5 5
281(49 9sin 2)
Re(A)
49 9 cos2
4
281 49 9
5 = 281 (+ve integer)
4
49 9
5
12. Let P be the plane 3x 2y 3z 16 and let
7
S ˆi ˆj kˆ : 2 2 2 1 and the distance of (, , ) from the plane Pis
2
.
Let u, v and w be three distinct vectors in S such that u v v w w u . Let V be the
80
volume of the parallelepiped determined by vectors u, v and w . Then the value of V is
3
Ans. (45)
Sol.
O
1 1
1
P
P
Q
Given u v v w w u
UVW is an equilateral
11
7
Now distances of U, V, W from P
2
7
PQ
2
Also, Distance of plane P from origin
OQ = 4
1
OP = OQ – PQ OP
2
3
Hence, PU OU2 OP2 PU R
2
Also, for UVW, P is circumcenter
for UVW : US = Rcos30°
UV = 2Rcos30°
3
UV
2
W
P
R
30°
U V
S
2
33 9 3
Ar(UVW)
4 2 16
Volume of tetrahedron with coterminous edges u, v,w
1 1 9 3 1 3 3
(Ar.UVW) OP
3 3 16 2 32
parallelopiped with coterminous edges
3 3 9 3
u, v, w 6 V
32 16
80
V 45
3
12
4
5 70
13. Let a and b be two nonzero real numbers. If the coefficient of x in the expansion of ax 2
27bx
7
–5 1
is equal to the coefficient of x is equal to the coefficient of ax 2 , then the value of 2b is
bx
Ans. (3)
r
70
Sol. Tr 1 C r a.x
4r
4 2
.
27bx
70 r
4 C r .a 4r . r
.x83r
(27b)
here 8 – 3r = 5
8 – 5 = 3r r = 1
70
coeff. = 4.a 3 .
27b
r
7 r 1
Tr 1 C r (ax)
7
2
bx
r
7 r 1 73r
C r .a
7
.x
b
7 – 3r = –5 12 = 3r r = 4
4
1 35a 3
coeff. : 7
C 4 .a 3 . 4
b b
35a 3 280a 3
now
b4 27b
35 27 3
b3 b 2b = 3
280 2
13
SECTION-4 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
Each set has TWO lists : List-I and List-II.
List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY
ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
14. Let , and be real numbers. consider the following system of linear equations
x + 2y + z = 7
x + z = 11
2x – 3y + z =
Match each entry in List - I to the correct entries in List-II
List-I List-II
(P) If (7– 3) and = 28, then the system has (1) a unique solution
2
(Q) If (7– 3) and 28, then the system has (2) no solution
2
(R) If (7 –3) where = 1 and 28, (3) infinitely many solutions
2
then the system has
(S) If (7 – 3) where = 1 and = 28, (4) x = 11, y = –2 and z = 0 as a solution
2
then the system has
(5) x = –15, y = 4 and z = 0 as a solution
The correct option is :
(A) (P) (3) (Q) (2) (R) (1) (S) (4)
(B) (P) (3) (Q) (2) (R) (5) (S) (4)
(C) (P) (2) (Q) (1) (R) (4) (S) (5)
(D) (P) (2) (Q) (1) (R) (1) (S) (3)
Ans. (A)
14
Sol. Given x + 2y + z = 7 …. (1)
x + z = 11 …. (2)
2x – 3y + z = …. (3)
1 2 1
Now, = 1 0 = 7 – 2 – 3
2 3
1
if = 7 3
2
0
7 2 1
Now, x = 11 0
3
= 21 – 22 + 2 – 33
if = 28
x = 0
1 7 1
y = 1 11
2
y = 4 + 14 – + – 22
if = 28
y = 0
1 2 7
Now, z 1 0 11 56 2
2 3
If = 28
z 0
1
if = 28 and = 7 3
2
system has infinite solution
and if 28
system has no solution
P (3) ; Q (2)
1
Now if 7 3
2
0
and for = 1 clearly
y = –2 is always be the solution
if 28
System has a unique solution
if = 28
x = 11, y = –2 and z = 0 will be one of the solution
R1;S4
option 'A' is correct
15
15. Consider the given data with frequency distribution
xi 3 8 11 10 5 4
fi 5 2 3 2 4 4
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.
List-I List-II
(P) The mean of the above data is (1) 2.5
(Q) The median of the above data is (2) 5
(R) The mean deviation about the mean of the above data is (3) 6
(S) The mean deviation about the median of the above data is (4) 2.7
(5) 2.4
The correct option is :
(A) (P) (3) (Q) (2) (R) (4) (S) (5)
(B) (P) (3) (Q) (2) (R) (1) (S) (5)
(C) (P) (2) (Q) (3) (R) (4) (S) (1)
(D) (P) (3) (Q) (3) (R) (5) (S) (5)
Ans. (A)
Sol. xi 3 4 5 8 10 11
fi 5 4 4 2 2 3
(P) Mean
(Q) Median
(R) Mean deviation about mean
(S) Mean deviation about median
xi fi xifi C.F. |xi – Mean| fi|xi – Mean| |xi – Median| fi|xi – Median|
3 5 15 5 3 15 2 10
4 4 16 9 2 8 1 4
5 4 20 13 1 4 0 0
8 2 16 15 2 4 3 6
10 2 20 17 4 8 5 10
11 3 33 20 5 15 6 18
Sfi = 20 Sxifi = 120 Sfi|xi – Mean| = 54 Sfi|xi – Median| = 48
Sx i fi 120
(P) Mean 6
Sfi 20
th
20
(Q) Median observation = 10th observation = 5
2
Sfi x i Mean 54
(R) Mean deviation about mean = 2.70
Sfi 20
Sfi x i Median 48
(S) mean deviation about median = 2.40
Sfi 20
16
16. Let 1 and 2 be the lines r1 ˆi ˆj kˆ and r2 ˆj kˆ ˆi kˆ , respectively. Let X be the set of
all the planes H that contain the line 1. For a plane H, let d(H) denote the smallest possible distance
between the points of 2 and H. Let H0 be plane in X for which d(H0) is the maximum value of d(H)
as H varies over all planes in X.
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.
List-I List-II
(P) The value of d(H0) is (1) 3
1
(Q) The distance of the point (0,1,2) from H0 is (2)
3
(R) The distance of origin from H0 is (3) 0
(S) The distance of origin from the point of intersection (4) 2
of planes y = z, x = 1 and H0 is
1
(5)
2
The correct option is :
(A) (P) (2) (Q) (4) (R) (5) (S) (1)
(B) (P) (5) (Q) (4) (R) (3) (S) (1)
(C) (P) (2) (Q) (1) (R) (3) (S) (2)
(D) (P) (5) (Q) (1) (R) (4) (S) (2)
Ans. (B)
Ans. ( )
Sol. L1 : r1 ˆi ˆj kˆ
L2 : r2 ˆj kˆ ˆi kˆ
Let system of planes are
ax + by + cz = 0 …. (1)
It contain L1
a+b+c=0 …. (2)
For largest possible distance between plane (1) and L2 the line L2 must be parallel to plane (1)
a+c=0 …. (3)
b0
Plane H0 : x z 0
17
Now d(H0) = distance from point (0, 1, –1) on L2 to plane.
0 1 1
d H0
2 2
P5
2
for 'Q' distance = 2
2
Q4
(0, 0, 0) lies on plane
R3
for 'S' x = z ; y = z ; x = 1
point of intersection p(1, 1, 1).
OP 1 1 1 3
S2
option [B] is correct
17. Let z be complex number satisfying | z |3 2z 2 4z 8 0 , where z denotes the complex conjugate
of z. Let the imaginary part of z be nonzero.
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.
List-I List-II
(P) | z |2 is equal to (1) 12
(Q) | z – z |2 is equal to (2) 4
(R) | z |2 | z z |2 is equal to (3) 8
(S) | z 1|2 is equal to (4) 10
(5) 7
The correct option is :
(A) (P) (1) (Q) (3) (R) (5) (S) (4)
(B) (P) (2) (Q) (1) (R) (3) (S) (5)
(C) (P) (2) (Q) (4) (R) (5) (S) (1)
(D) (P) (2) (Q) (3) (R) (5) (S) (4)
Ans. (B)
18
3
Sol. z 2z 2 4z 8 0 …. (1)
Take conjugate both sides
3
z 2z 2 4z 8 0 …. (2)
By (1) – (2)
2 z2 z 2 4 z z 0
zz 2 …. (3)
zz 2 …. (4)
Let z = x + iy
x 1 z = 1 + iy
Put in (1)
(1 + y2)3/2 + 2(1 – y2 + 2iy) + 4(1 – iy) – 8 = 0
(1 + y2)3/2 = 2(1 + y2)
1 y2 2 z
Also y 3
z 1 i 3
z z 2i 3
zz 2 3
2
z z 12
Now z + 1 = 2 + i 3
|z + 1|2 = 4 + 3 = 7
P2;Q1;R3;S5
Option [B] is correct.
19
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
FINAL JEE(Advanced) EXAMINATION – 2023
(Held On Sunday 04th June, 2023)
PAPER-2 TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
PHYSICS
SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
1. An electric dipole is formed by two charges +q and –q located in xy-plane at (0, 2) mm and
(0, –2) mm, respectively, as shown in the figure. The electric potential at point P(100, 100) mm due
to the dipole is V0. The charges +q and –q are then moved to the points (–1, 2) mm and
(1, –2) mm, respectively. What is the value of electric potential at P due to the new dipole ?
y
P (100,100) mm
+q (0, 2 mm)
(–1,2) mm
O x
–q (1,–2) mm
(0,–2) mm
(A) V0 /4 (B) V0 /2 (C) Vo / 2 (D) 3V0 /4
Ans. (B)
1
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
Sol.
(100,100)
4mm
–q
P1 = q(4)
r
P1 = P1ˆj
r
r = 100(iˆ + ˆj)mm
r
KP1.r K(100P1 )
v0 = 3 =
r (100 2)3
+q
l
4
q
2 –q
tan q = 2
r
P2 = P2 éë - cos q ˆi + sin q ˆjùû
r
r = 100(iˆ + ˆj)mm
P2 = ql
r r
KP2 .r
v= 3
r
K(100P2 ) - ( - cos q + sin q)
v=
(100 2)3
v0 P2
= (- cos q + sin q)
P1
ql
v = v0 [- cos q + sin q]
q(4)
v0 v
= [-2 + 4] = 0
4 2
2
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
2. Young's modulus of elasticity Y is expressed in terms of three derived quantities, namely, the
gravitational constant G, Planck's constant h and the speed of light c, as Y = ca hb Gg. Which of the
following is the correct option ?
(A) a = 7, b = –1, g = –2 (B) a = –7, b = –1, g = –2
(C) a = 7, b = –1, g = 2 (D) a = –7, b = 1, g = –2
Ans. (A)
Sol. Y = ca hbG g
ML-1T -2 = (LT -1 )a (ML2T -1 )b (M -1L3T -2 ) g
1=b–g ...(1)
–1 = a + 2b + 3g ...(2)
–2 = – a – b – 2g ...(3)
–3 = b + g
1=b–g
–2 = 2b Þ b = –1, g = –2
–1 = a – 2 – 6 \ a = 7
3. A particle of mass m is moving in the xy-plane such that its velocity at a point (x, y) is given as
r r
v = a ( yxˆ + 2 xyˆ ) , where a is a non-zero constant. What is the force F acting on the particle ?
r r
(A) F = 2 ma 2 ( xxˆ + yyˆ ) (B) F = ma 2 ( yxˆ + 2 xyˆ )
r r
(C) F = 2 ma 2 ( yxˆ + xyˆ ) (D) F = ma 2 ( xxˆ + 2 yyˆ )
Ans. (A)
r
Sol. v = a(yxˆ + 2xy)
ˆ
v x = ay v y = 2a x
dv x dy dv y
=a = 2a 2 x = 2av x = 2a 2 y
dt dt dt
r r
\ F = ma = 2ma 2 (xxˆ + yy) ˆ
4. An ideal gas is in thermodynamic equilibrium. The number of degrees of freedom of a molecule of
the gas in n. The internal energy of one mole of the gas is Un and the speed of sound in the gas is vn.
At a fixed temperature and pressure, which of the following is the correct option ?
(A) v3 < v6 and U3 > U6 (B) v5 > v3 and U3 > U5
(C) v5 > v7 and U5 < U7 (D) v6 < v7 and U6 < U7
Ans. (C)
1 frT
Sol. U = fnrT =
2 2
\ A and B are wrong.
gRT æ 2 ö RT
vsound = = ç + 1÷
M èf ø M
Þ more 'f', less 'v'
\ v5 > v 7
3
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered;
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option(s) (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and
choosing any other option(s) will get –2 marks.
5. A monochromatic light wave is incident normally on a glass slab of thickness d, as shown in the
figure. The refractive index of the slab increases linearly from n1 to n2 over the height h. Which of
the following statement(s) is (are) true about the light wave emerging out of the slab ?
n2
h n2 > n1
n1
Monochromatic light wave
d
é ( n22 – n12 ) d ù
–1
(A) It will deflect up by an angle tan ê ú
ë 2h û
é(n – n ) d ù
(B) It will deflect up by an angle tan –1 ê 2 1 ú
ë h û
(C) It will not deflect.
(D) The deflection angle depends only on (n2 – n1) and not on the individual values of n1 and n2.
Ans. (B, D)
4
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
Sol.
n2 d
q
n1 d l q
n1d + l = n2 d
tan q =
l
= 2
( n - n1 ) d
h h
6. An annular disk of mass M, inner radius a and outer radius b is placed on a horizontal surface with
coefficient of friction m, as shown in the figure. At some time, an impulse J 0 xˆ is applied at a height
h above the center of the disk. If h = hm then the disk rolls without slipping along the x-axis. Which
of the following statement(s) is(are) correct ?
J0 z
h a
b x
(A) For m ¹ 0 and a ® 0, hm = b/2
(B) For m ¹ 0 and a ® b, hm = b
(C) For h = hm, the initial angular velocity does not depend on the inner radius a.
(D) For m = 0 and h = 0, the wheel always slides without rolling.
Ans. (A,B,C,D)
Sol. J0 = mv .....(1)
J0hm = Icw ......(2) J0
v = wR .......(3)
IC
Þ hm =
mR
1 b
(A) If a = 0 Ic = mb2 & R = b \ h m =
2 2
(B) If a = b IC = mb2 & R = b \ hm = b
J0 V J
(C) v = Þ 100 = = 0
m R mR
(D) Force is acting on COM \ No rotation.
5
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
7. The electric field associated with an electromagnetic wave propagating in a dielectric medium is
r é æ 107 ö ù
given by E = 30 ( 2 xˆ + yˆ ) sin ê 2p ç 5 ´ 1014 t – z ÷ ú V m–1. Which of the following option(s) is(are)
ë è 3 øû
correct?
[Given: The speed of light in vacuum, c = 3 × 108 ms–1]
é æ–7 10 7 ö ù
(A) Bx = –2 × 10 sin ê 2p ç 5 ´10 t –
14
z ÷ ú Wbm –2 .
ë è 3 øû
é æ 10 7 ö ù
(B) By = 2 × 10–7 sin ê 2p ç 5 ´1014 t – z ÷ ú Wbm –2
ë è 3 øû
(C) The wave is polarized in the xy-plane with polarization angle 30° with respect to the x-axis.
(D) The refractive index of the medium is 2.
Ans. (A, D)
Sol.
5 ´1014
Cmedium = 7
= 1.5 × 108 m/s \ µ = 2
10 / 3
E E 30 5
Cmedium = ÞB= = = 2 5 ´ 10 -7
B Cm 1.5 ´108
r 2jˆ - iˆ
Bdirection º kˆ ´ ( 2iˆ + ˆj ) º
5
r é æ 107 ö ù
\ B = 2 ´ 10-7 ( -iˆ + 2jˆ ) sin ê27 ç 5 ´ 1017 t - z ÷ú
ë è 3 øû
y
x
2
6
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
8. A thin circular coin of mass 5 gm and radius 4/3 cm is initially in a horizontal xy-plane. The coin is
p
tossed vertically up (+ direction) by applying an impulse of ´ 10 –2 N-s at a distance 2/3 cm
2
from its center. The coin spins about its diameter and moves along the + direction. By the time the
coin reaches back to its initial position, it completes rotations. The value of n is ____.
[Given: The acceleration due to gravity g = 10 ms–2]
z
g
4/3 cm
y
2/3 cm
x
Impulse
Ans. (30)
Sol.
v
R r
w J
J = mv ......(1)
Jr = Icw ........(2)
1
JC = mR 2 ........(3)
4
2v
t= ........(4)
g
q = 2pN = wt .......(5) \ N = 30
7
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
9. A rectangular conducting loop of length 4 cm and width 2 cm is in the xy-plane, as shown in the
3 1
figure. It is being moved away from a thin and long conducting wire along the direction xˆ + yˆ
2 2
with a constant speed v. The wire is carrying a steady current I = 10 A in the positive x-direction.
A current of 10 mA flows through the loop when it is at a distance d = 4 cm from the wire. If the
resistance of the loop is 0.1 W, then the value of v is __________ ms–1.
[Given: The permeability of free space m0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2]
2 cm
v
4 cm y
d x
I = 10 A
Ans. (4) b
vy
Sol. R = 0.1W
a i
e = (B1 – B2)bvy
e m I æ1 1 ö
i= = 0 ç - ÷ bv d
R 2pR è d d + a ø y
I
2 ´ 10-7 ´ 10 é 1 1 ù
Þ 10 -5 = êë 4 - 8 úû ´ 2.v y
0.1
\ vy = 2
vy 1
tan q = =
vx 3
q
\ vx = 2 3
\ v = v 2x + v 2y = 4
8
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
10. A string of length 1 m and mass 2 × 10–5 kg is under tension T. when the string vibrates, two
successive harmonics are found to occur at frequencies 750 Hz and 1000 Hz. The value of tension
T is _______ Newton.
Ans. (5)
P T
Sol. f =
2l µ
P T
750 = ......(1)
2 m
P +1 T
1000 = .....(2)
2 m
4 P +1
= \P=3
3 P
4 T
Þ 1000 = \ T =5N
2 2 ´10 -5
11. An incompressible liquid is kept in a container having a weightless piston with a hole. A capillary
tube of inner radius 0.1 mm is dipped vertically into the liquid through the airtight piston hole, as
shown in the figure. The air in the container is isothermally compressed from its original volume 0
100
to V0 with the movable piston. Considering air as an ideal gas, the height (h) of the liquid
101
column in the capillary above the liquid level in cm is_______.
[Given: Surface tension of the liquid is 0.075 Nm−1, atmospheric pressure is 105 N m−2, acceleration
due to gravity (g) is 10 m s−2, density of the liquid is 103 kg m−3 and contact angle of capillary
surface with the liquid is zero]
air Piston
h
air
g
liquid
Ans. (25)
9
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
Sol.
P0
h
P
2T cos q 2 ´ 0.075 ´ 1
h0 = = 3 = 15cm
rgr 10 ´ 10 ´ 10-4
100V0 101
P0 V0 = P ÞP= P0
101 100
2T cos q 101
P0 - + rgh = P = P0
r 100
P0
Þ -rgh 0 + rgh =
100
P0
Þ h = h0 +
100rg
105
= 15 cm + = 25cm
100 ´103 ´ 10
dN
12. In a radioactive decay process, the activity is defined as A = - , where N(t) is the number of
dt
radioactive nuclei at time t. Two radioactive sources, S1 and S2 have same activity at time t = 0. At a
later time, the activities of S1 and S2 are A1 and A2, respectively. When S1 and S2 have just completed
their 3rd and 7th half-lives, respectively, the ratio A1 /A2 is __________.
Ans. (16)
S1 S2
Sol. t = 0 A 0 A0
t = t A1 A2
t/ ( t )
A1 A 0 ( 0.5 ) 1/ 2 1 ( 0.5 )
3
= t/ ( t1/ 2 )2
= = 24 = 16
A 2 A ( 0.5 )
0
( 0.5 )7
10
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
13. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes two different cyclic processes I and II, as shown in the -
diagrams below. In cycle I, processes a, b, c and d are isobaric, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric,
respectively. In cycle II, processes a′, b′, c′ and d′ are isothermal, isochoric, isobaric and isochoric,
respectively. The total work done during cycle I is and that during cycle II is . The ratio
/ is _______.
(I) (II)
P(Pa) P(Pa)
a
4P0 4P0 a'
b
d 2P0 d'
b'
2P0 P0
c c'
3
V(m ) V(m3)
V0 2V0 4V0 V0 2V0
Ans. (2)
WI 4P0 V0 + 8P0 V0ln2 - 6P0 V0 - 0
Sol. =
WII 4P0 V0 ln2 - 0 - P0 V0 + 0
8ln2 - 2
= =2
4ln2 - 1
SECTION-4 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the
onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
11
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
PARAGRAPH-I
S1 and S1 are two identical sound sources of frequency 656 Hz. The source S1 is located at O and S2
moves anti-clockwise with a uniform speed 4 2 ms–1 on a circular path around O, as shown in the
figure. There are three points P, Q and R on this path such that P and R are diametrically opposite
while Q is equidistant from them. A sound detector is placed at point P. The source S1 can move
along direction OP.
[Given: The speed of sound in air is 324 ms−1]
S1 Q
O
S2
P
14. When only S2 is emitting sound and it is Q, the frequency of sound measured by the detector in Hz
is __________.
Ans. (648)
Sol.
v
P
C
f'= f
C + v cos45°
324
= ´ 656 = 648 Hz
1
324 + 4 2 ´
2
12
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
PARAGRAPH-I
S1 and S1 are two identical sound sources of frequency 656 Hz. The source S1 is located at O and S2
moves anti-clockwise with a uniform speed 4 2 ms–1 on a circular path around O, as shown in the
figure. There are three points P, Q and R on this path such that P and R are diametrically opposite
while Q is equidistant from them. A sound detector is placed at point P. The source S1 can move
along direction OP.
[Given: The speed of sound in air is 324 ms−1]
S1 Q
O
S2
15. Consider both sources emitting sound. When S2 is at R and S1 approaches the detector with a speed
4 ms–1, the beat frequency measured by the detector is _______Hz.
Ans. (8.2)
Sol. fP from S2 = 656Hz
C 656 ´ 324
fP from S1 = f= = 664.2
C-V 324 - 4
Df = 664.2–656 = 8.2Hz
13
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
PARAGRAPH-II
A cylindrical furnace has height (H) and diameter (D) both 1 m. It is maintained at temperature
360 K. The air gets heated inside the furnace at constant pressure Pa and its temperature becomes
T = 360 K. The hot air with density rises up a vertical chimney of diameter d = 0.1 m and height
h = 9 m above the furnace and exits the chimney (see the figure). As a result, atmospheric air of
density ra = 1.2 kg m–3, pressure Pa and temperature Ta = 300 K enters the furnace. Assume air as
an ideal gas, neglect the variations in r and T inside the chimney and the furnace. Also ignore the
viscous effects.
[Given: The acceleration due to gravity g = 10 ms–2 and p = 3.14]
d h
ra,Pa,T
H D
ra, Pa, Ta
16. Considering the air flow to be streamline, the steady mass flow rate of air exiting the chimney is
_________ gm s–1.
Ans. (60.80, 60.81)
14
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
v
C P
B
A V0
P0, r,T0
Sol.
r0 T0 = rT
Þ 1.2 × 300 = r(360) \ r = 1
Between A & B
1 1
P0 + rV02 = P + rV 2 + rgh .......(1)
2 2
pD2 pd 2
V = V ........(2)
4 0 4
Between B & C
1 1
P + rV 2 = P0 - r0g ( H + h ) + rV 2 .....(3)
2 2
from (1) & (2) :
2
1 æ d2 ö 1
Þ P0 + r ç V 2 ÷ = P + rV 2 + rgh
2 è D ø 2
1 é d4 ù
Þ r0g ( H + h ) = rV 2 ê1 - 4 ú + rgh
2 ë D û
2r0 (
Þ V2 ; g H + h ) - 2gh
r
= 2 × 1.2 × 10 × 10 – 2 × 10 × 9
= 240 – 180 = 60 \V= 60m / s
pd 2 p
Qm = r V = 1 ´ ´ 10-2 ´ 60 ; 60.80
4 4
Ans. 60.80 to 60.81
15
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
PARAGRAPH-II
A cylindrical furnace has height (H) and diameter (D) both 1 m. It is maintained at temperature
360 K. The air gets heated inside the furnace at constant pressure Pa and its temperature becomes
T = 360 K. The hot air with density rises up a vertical chimney of diameter d = 0.1 m and height
h = 9 m above the furnace and exits the chimney (see the figure). As a result, atmospheric air of
density ra = 1.2 kg m–3, pressure Pa and temperature Ta = 300 K enters the furnace. Assume air as
an ideal gas, neglect the variations in r and T inside the chimney and the furnace. Also ignore the
viscous effects.
[Given: The acceleration due to gravity g = 10 ms–2 and p = 3.14]
d h
ra,Pa,T
H D
ra, Pa, Ta
16
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
17. When the chimney is closed using a cap at the top, a pressure difference DP develops between the
top and the bottom surfaces of the cap. If the changes in the temperature and density of the hot air,
due to the stoppage of air flow, are negligible then the value of DP is ______ Nm−2.
Ans. (30)
Pout = Pa – rag(h+H)
Sol.
Pin = Pa – rg(h)
Pa
H
Pa
P = constant
Þ raTa = rT
1.2 × 300 = r × 360
r = 1 kg/m3
DP = rag (h + H) – rgh
= 1.2 × 10 × 10 –1 × 10 × 9
= 120 – 90 = 30 N/m2
17
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
FINAL JEE(Advanced) EXAMINATION – 2023
(Held On Sunday 04th June, 2023)
PAPER-2 TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
1. The correct molecular orbital diagram for F2 molecule in the ground state is
2σ* 1π*
1π* 2σ*
2p 2p 2p 2p
Energy
Energy
2σ 2σ
(A) (B)
1π 1π
1σ* 1σ*
2s 2s 2s 2s
1σ 1σ
2σ* 2σ*
1π* 1π*
2p 2p 2p 2p
Energy
Energy
1π 1π
(C) (D)
2σ 2σ
1σ* 1σ*
2s 2s 2s 2s
1σ 1σ
Ans. (C)
1
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
Sol. F2 (18 e–)
Naming of molecular orbitals are as per preference of formation of σ & π bonds respectively.
2. Consider the following statements related to colloids.
(I) Lyophobic colloids are not formed by simple mixing of dispersed phase and dispersion
medium.
(II) For emulsions, both the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are liquid.
(III) Micelles are produced by dissolving a surfactant in any solvent at any temperature.
(IV) Tyndall effect can be observed from a colloidal solution with dispersed phase having the
same refractive index as that of the dispersion medium.
The option with the correct set of statements is
(A) (I) and (II) (B) (II) and (III) (C) (III) and (IV) (D) (II) and (IV)
Ans. (A)
Sol. (I) As in Lyophobic colloids there is no interaction between dispersed phase and dispersion
medium, special methods are used for preparation, simple mixing will not form colloid.
(II) Emulsions are liquid in liquid type colloids.
(III) Dissolving surfactant in a proper solvent will only form micelles at temperature above Kraft's
temperature.
(IV) For Tyndall effect there must be a large difference in refractive index between dispersed
phase and dispersion medium in order to have diffraction of light.
Hence ans (I) & (II) are correct.
2
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
3. In the following reactions, P, Q, R, and S are the major products.
(i) Mg, dry ether
P
(ii) H2O
Cl
(i) Mg, dry ether
(ii) CO2, dry ether
+ Q
(iii) H3O
Cl (iv) NaOH
(i) Mg, dry ether
(ii) CH3CHO, then H2O
R
(iii) CrO3
Cl
(i) ethanolic NaCN
(ii) H2/Ni
S
(iii) CHCl3/KOH, ∆
Cl (iv) LiAlH4, then H2O
The correct statement about P, Q, R, and S is
(A) P is a primary alcohol with four carbons.
(B) Q undergoes Kolbe’s electrolysis to give an eight-carbon product.
(C) R has six carbons and it undergoes Cannizzaro reaction.
(D) S is a primary amine with six carbons.
Ans. (B)
CH 3
Cl
(i) Mg (ii) H–O–H
CH 2MgCl CH 3 (P) + Mg
Cl Dry ether OH
Sol. CH 3
O
(i) Mg O=C= O
CH 2MgCl CH 2 – C – OMgCl
Cl Dry ether
H3 O
O O
Kolbe NaOH
CH 2 – CH2 CH 2 – C – O Na CH 2 – C – OH
Electrolysis
8 carbons (Q) OH
+ Mg
Cl
3
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
O
O MgCl
(i) Mg CH 3 – C – H
CH 2MgCl CH 2 – CH – CH3
Cl Dry ether
H–O– H
OH
CH 2 – CH – CH3
CrO3
CH 2 – C – CH3
(R)
It does not give Cannizaro reaction
(i) NaCN (ii) H2 , Ni
CH 2 – CN CH 2 – CH2 – NH2
Cl
CHCl3 , KOH, ∆
CH 2 – CH2 – NC
LiAlH4 , HOH
CH 2 – CH2 – NH – CH3
(S)
It's secondary amine
4
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
4. A disaccharide X cannot be oxidised by bromine water. The acid hydrolysis of X leads to a
laevorotatory solution. The disaccharide X is
CH2OH CH2OH
H O H O H
(A) H
OH H H HO
OH O CH2OH
H OH OH H
CH2OH CH2OH
H O O H
H
(B) OH H
H OH H
HOH2C O OH
H OH H OH
CH2OH CH2OH
O O
OH H OH
(C) H O H
OH H OH H
H H H
H OH H OH
CH2OH CH2OH
H O H H O H
(D) H H
OH H O H HO
OH OH
H OH OH H
Ans. (A)
+
Sol. Sucrose
H3O
→ Glucose + Fructose
Specific rotation + 52.5° –92° (mixture of products is laevorotatory)
Br2 + H 2O
Sucrose → No reaction
BCD ⇒ reducing sugars, will get oxidized by Br2 + H2O
5
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered;
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to
correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option(s) (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and
choosing any other option(s) will get –2 marks.
5. The complex(es), which can exhibit the type of isomerism shown by [Pt(NH3)2Br2], is(are)
[en = H2NCH2CH2NH2]
(A) [Pt(en)(SCN)2] (B) [Zn(NH3)2Cl2]
(B) (C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] (D) [Cr(en)2(H2O)(SO4)]+
Ans. (C,D)
6
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
+2
Sol. [Pt(NH3 ) 2 Br2 ]
Hybridisation : dsp2 , geometry : square planar
Br NH 3 Br NH 3
II II
Pt Pt
Br NH 3 NH 3 Br
cis trans
(A) [Pt(en)(SCN)2] : square planar, cis–trans not possible
(B) [Zn(NH3)2Cl2] : tetrahedral, cis–trans not possible
(C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] : octahedral, cis–trans possible
Cl NH 3
Cl NH 3 Cl Cl
IV IV
Pt Pt
Cl NH 3 Cl Cl
Cl NH 3
cis trans
(D) [Cr(en)2(H2O)SO4]+ : Octahedral
H2 O en
H2 O
III III
en Cr en Cr
SO4
SO4 en
trans cis
6. Atoms of metals x, y, and z form face-centred cubic (fcc) unit cell of edge length Lx, body-centred
cubic (bcc) unit cell of edge length Ly, and simple cubic unit cell of edge length Lz, respectively.
3 8 3
=
If rz = ry ; ry = rx ; M z =
M y and M z 3M x , then the correct statement (s) is (are)
2 3 2
[Given : Mx, My, and Mz are molar masses of metals x, y, and z, respectively.
rx, ry, and rz are atomic radii of metals x, y, and z, respectively.]
(A) Packing efficiency of unit cell of x > Packing efficiency of unit cell of y > Packing efficiency
of unit cell of z
(B) Ly > Lz
(C) Lx > Ly
(D) Density of x > Density of y
Ans. (A,B,D)
7
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
Sol.
Element X Y Z
Packing FCC BCC Primitive
Edge Lx Ly Lz
Relation between edge length and radius L x = 2 2rx Ly =
4
ry
Lz = 2rz
3
Packing fraction π 3π π
3 2 8 6
8 3 3 8
Now, ry = rx & rz = ry = × rx ⇒ rz = 4rx
3 2 2 3
4 8
So, Lx = 2 2 rx, Ly = × rx, Lz = 8rx
3 3
32
Lx = 2 2 rx, Ly = rx, Lz = 8rx
3
So Ly > Lz > Lx
4M 2× My
Density 3 x ,
Lx L3y
3M y
Now, 3Mx = or Mx × 2 = My
2
3
32
density (x) 4M x L3y 4M x 3
= × = ×
density (y) 2M y L3x
(
4M x 2 2 3
)
Hence d(x) > d(y)
7. In the following reactions, P, Q, R, and S are the major products.
(i)KMnO 4 ,KOH,∆
P
(ii)H O⊕
→
3
H3CH2C
MeOOC COCI
(i)NaOH,H 2O
(ii)H O⊕
→Q
3
O
⊕
(i)H3O ,∆
COOMe
(ii)H 2CrO 4
→R
CN
Br
(i)Mg, dry ether
(ii)CO2 , then H3O⊕
→ S
O A
(iii) ammoniacal AgNO3 ,H3O⊕
O
The correct statement (s) about P, Q, R, and S is (are)
(A) P and Q are monomers of polymers dacron and glyptal, respectively.
(B) P, Q, and R are dicarboxylic acids.
(C) Compounds Q and R are the same.
(D) R does not undergo aldol condensation and S does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction.
Ans. (C,D)
8
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
Sol.
KMnO4 , KOH, ∆
CH 3 – CH2 H3 O + HO – C
O
(P)
O O O O
MeO – C C – Cl AE HO – C C – OH
(i) NaOH, H2O, (SN )
(ii) H3 O +
(Q)
O O
O O
C – OMe C – OH
(i) H3 O +
β–Keto acid
CN COOH
∆ –CO 2
O O
C – OH C – CH3
H2 CrO4
COOH COOH
(R)
9
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
Br MgBr
O O
Mg
Dry ether
O O
O=C= O
C – OMgBr
O
H3 O+
O O
C – OH Ammonical C – OH
AgNO3
HO – C H3 O+ H–C
O O
SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
8. H2S (5 moles) reacts completely with acidified aqueous potassium permanganate solution. In this
reaction, the number of moles of water produced is x, and the number of moles of electrons
involved is y. The value of (x + y) is ____.
Ans. (18)
+7 +2
Sol. 2KMnO 4 + 5H 2S + 3H 2SO 4 → K 2SO 4 + 2 Mn SO 4 + 5S + 8H 2O
x = 8 (moles of H2O produced)
y = 14 – 4 = 10 (number of electrons involved)
x + y = 10 + 8 = 18
10
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
9. Among [I3]+, [SiO4]4– , SO2Cl2, XeF2, SF4, ClF3, Ni(CO)4, XeO2F2, [PtCl4]2–, XeF4, and SOCl2, the
total number of species having sp3 hybridised central atom is ______.
Ans. (5)
Sol.
CO
3
[Ni(CO) 4] : Ni : sp
CO CO
CO
Cl Cl
2–
[PtCl4] : II 2
Pt : dsp
Cl Cl
11
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
10. Consider the following molecules : Br3O8, F2O, H2S4O6, H2S5O6, and C3O2.
Count the number of atoms existing in their zero oxidation state in each molecule. Their sum
is____.
Ans. (6)
Sol. Br3O8
Number of atoms with zero oxidation state = 0
F2 O
O(+2)
(–1 )
F (–1 ) F
Number of atom with zero oxidation state = 0
H2S4O6
Number of atoms with zero oxidation state = 2
H2S5O6
Number of atoms where zero oxidation state = 3
C3O2
Number of atoms with zero oxidation state = 1
11. For He+, a transition takes place from the orbit of radius 105.8 pm to the orbit of radius 26.45 pm.
The wavelength (in nm) of the emitted photon during the transition is ___.
[Use:
Bohr radius, a = 52.9 pm
Rydberg constant, RH = 2.2 × 10–18 J
Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s
Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m s–1 ]
Ans. (30)
12
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
Sol. For single electron system
n2
r = 52.9 × pm
Z
Given Z = 2 for He+
r2 = 105.8 pm
n 22
So 105.8 = 52.9 ×
2
n2 = 2
r1 = 26.45
n12
So 26.45 = 52.9 ×
2
n1 = 1
So transition is from 2 to 1.
hc 1 1
Now = RHZ2 2 − 2
λ n1 n 2
So λ = 30 × 10–9 m = 30 nanometer.
Here 'RH' is given in terms of energy value.
12. 50 mL of 0.2 molal urea solution (density = 1.012 g mL–1 at 300 K) is mixed with 250 mL of a
solution containing 0.06 g of urea. Both the solutions were prepared in the same solvent. The
osmotic pressure (in Torr) of the resulting solution at 300 K is __.
[Use : Molar mass of urea = 60 g mol–1; gas constant, R = 62 L Torr K–1 mol–1 ; Assume, ∆mixH = 0,
∆mixV= 0]
Ans. (682)
Sol. Weight of 50 ml 0.2 molal urea = V × d = 50 × 1.012 = 50.6 gm
Given 0.2 molal implies
1000 gm solvent has 0.2 moles urea
So weight of solution = 1000 + 0.2 × 60 = 1012 gm.
12 × 50.6
So wt. of urea in 50.6 gm solution = = 0.6 gm
1012
Total urea = 0.6 + 0.06 = 0.66 gm
Total volume = 300 ml
0.66 × 62 × 300
Now, osmotic pressure π = C × R × T = = 682 Torr.
60 × 0.3
13
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
13. The reaction of 4-methyloct-ene (P, 2.52 g) with HBr in the presence of (C6H5CO)2O2 gives two
isomeric bromides in a 9 : 1 ratio, with combined yield of 50%. Of these, the entire amount of the
primary alkyl bromide was reacted with an appropriate amount of diethylamine followed by
treatment with eq. K2CO3 to given a non-ionic product S in 100% yield.
The mass (in mg) of S obtained is __.
[Use molar mass (in g mol–1) : H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, Br = 80]
Ans. (1791)
Sol.
H2 C = CH – CH 2 – CH – CH 2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 (P)
CH 3 2.52 gm
0.02 mole
H2 C – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH 3 + H3 C – CH – CH 2 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
Br CH 3 Br CH 3
1° alkyl 9:1 0.009 mole
bromide
..
N
H3 C – H 2C
HN – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH 2 – CH3 Br
H3 C – H 2C
CH 3
Aq. K2 CO3
H3 C – H 2C
N – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH 3 + KBr + KHCO3
H3 C – H 2C
CH 3
mol. mass = 199 gm (S) 0.009 mole
= 199 × 0.009 = 1791 mg
14
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
SECTION-4 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the
onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
"PARAGRAPH I"
The entropy versus temperature plot for phases α and β at 1 bar pressure is given.
ST and S0 are entropies of the phases at temperatures T and 0 K, respectively.
β
α
–
K
6
–1
ST – S0 (J mol
5
)
1
Temperature (K) 600
The transition temperature for α to β phase change is 600 K and CP,β – CP,α = 1 J mol–1 K–1.
Assume (CP,β – CP,α) is independent of temperature in the range of 200 to 700 K. CP,α and CP,β are
heat capacities of α and β phases, respectively.
14. The value of entropy change, Sβ – Sα (in J mol–1 K–1), at 300 K is __.
[Use : ln 2 = 0.69
Given : Sβ – Sα = 0 at 0 K]
Ans. (0.31)
Sol. At 1 bar
α → β
600
S=o
α (600) Sαo (300) + CP( α ) n
300
600
S=o
β (600) Sβo (300) + CP(β) n
300
Sβ (600) − Sα (600) = Sβ(300) − Sαo (300) + (CP(β) − CP( α ) ) n 2
o o o
6=
− 5 Sβo (300) − Soα (300) + 1× n 2
1 = Sβo (300) − Soα (300) + 0.69
So Sβo (300) − Soα (300) =
0.31
15
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
"PARAGRAPH I"
The entropy versus temperature plot for phases α and β 1 bar pressure is given.
ST and S0 are entropies of the phases at temperatures T and 0 K, respectively
β
α
–
K
6
–1
ST – S0 (J mol
5
)
1
Temperature (K) 600
The transition temperature for α to β phase change is 600 K and CP,β – CP,α = 1J mol–1 K–1.
Assume (CP,β – CP,α) is independent of temperature in the range of 200 to 700 K. CP,α and CP,β are
heat capacities of α and β phases, respectively.
15. The value of enthalpy change, Hβ – Hα (in J mol–1), at 300 K is __.
Ans. (300)
Sol. As the phase transition temperature is 600 K
So at 600 K ∆G°rxn = 0
So ∆H°reaction (600) = T ∆S°reaction (600)
∆H°(600) = 600 × 1 = 600 Joule/mole
So ∆H600 – ∆H300 = ∆CP (T2 – T1)
∆H600 – ∆H300 = 1 × 300
∆H300 = ∆H600 – 300 = 600 – 300 = 300 Joule/mole.
16
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
"PARAGRAPH II"
A trinitro compound, 1, 3,5 tris-(4-nitrophenyl) benzene, on complete reaction with an excess of
Sn/HCl gives major product, which on treatment with an excess of NaNO2/HCl at 0°C provides P
as the product. P, upon treatment with excess of H2O at room temperature, gives the product Q.
Bromination of Q in aqueous medium furnishes the product R. The compound P upon treatment
with an excess of phenol under basic conditions gives the product S.
The molar mass difference between compounds Q and R is 474 mol–1 and between compounds P
and S is 172.5 g mol–1.
16. The number of heteroatoms present in one molecule of R is _____.
[Use: Molar mass (in g mol–1): H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Br = 80, Cl = 35.5
Atoms other than C and H are considered as heteroatoms]
Ans. (9)
"PARAGRAPH II"
A trinitro compound, 1, 3,5 tris-(4-nitrophenyl) benzene, on complete reaction with an excess of
Sn/HCl gives major product, which on treatment with an excess of NaNO2/HCl at 0°C provides P
as the product. P, upon treatment with excess of H2O at room temperature, gives the product Q.
Bromination of Q in aqueous medium furnishes the product R. The compound P upon treatment
with an excess of phenol under basic conditions gives the product S.
The molar mass difference between compounds Q and R is 474 mol–1 and between compounds P
and S is 172.5 g mol–1.
17. The total number of carbon atoms and heteroatoms present in one molecule of S is _____.
[Use: Molar mass in g mol–1]: H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Br = 80, Cl = 35.5
Atoms other than C and H are considered as heteroatoms
Ans. (51)
17
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2
Sol.
Common solution for Q.no. 16 and 17
NO2 NH2 N2 Cl
Sn / HCl NaNO2 / HCl
excess
NO2 NO2 NH2 NH2 Cl N2 N2 Cl
(P)
H ium
– O med H2 O
Ph
sic excess
N=N OH n ba
i
OH
N=N N=N OH
(S) HO OH
OH
Br2 , H2 O
Number of carbons = 42
Number of heteroatoms = 09 OH
Br Br
Total = 51
Br Br
HO OH
Br Br
(R)
Number of hetero atoms
in R is 9
18
JEE(Advanced) 2023/Paper-2/Held on Sunday 04th June, 2023
FINAL JEE(Advanced) EXAMINATION – 2023
(Held On Sunday 04th June, 2023)
PAPER-2 TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
1 x x3
1. Let f :[(1, ) be a differentiable function such that f(1) and 3 1 f(t) dt xf(x) , x [1, ) .
3 3
Let e denote the base of the natural logarithm. Then the value of f(e) is
e2 4 log e 4 e
(A) (B)
3 3
4e2 e2 4
(C) (D)
3 3
Ans. (C)
Sol. Diff. wr.t 'x'
3f(x) = f(x) + xf'(x) – x2
dy 2
y x
dx x
1
IF e 2 nx
x2
1 1
y 2 x. 2 dx
x x
y = x2nx + cx2
1 1
y 1 c
3 3
4e2
y e
3
1
2. Consider an experiment of tossing a coin repeatedly until the outcomes of two consecutive tosses
1
are same. If the probability of a random toss resulting in head is , then the probability that the
3
experiment stops with head is.
1 5 4 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 21 21 7
Ans. (B)
1 2
Sol. P H ; P T
3 3
Req. prob = P(HH or HTHH or HTHTHH or …….)
+ P(THH or THTHH or THTHTHH or ….)
1 1 2 1 1
. . .
5
3 3 3 3 3
2 1 2 1 21
1 . 1 .
3 3 3 3
3. For any y , let cot–1( y) (0, ) and tan–1 (y) , . Then the sum of all the solutions
2 2
6y 9 y 2 2
of the equation tan 1 2
cot 1 for 0 < | y | < 3, is equal to
9y 6y 3
(A) 2 3 3 (B) 3 2 3
(C) 4 3 6 (D) 6 4 3
Ans. (C)
Sol. Case-I : y (–3,0)
6y 6y 2π
tan 1 2
π tan 1 2
9y 9y 3
6y π
2 tan 1 2
9y 3
y 2 6 3y 9 0 y 3 3 6 ( y (–3,0))
Case-I : y (0,3)
6y 2π
2 tan 1 2
3y 2 6y 9 3 0
9y 3
y 3 or y 3 3 (rejected)
sum 3 3 3 6 4 3 6
2
4. Let the position vectors of the points P,Q,R and S be a ˆi 2ˆj 5k,
ˆ b 3iˆ 6ˆj 3k,
ˆ
17 ˆ 16 ˆ
c i j 7kˆ and d 2iˆ ˆj kˆ , respectively. Then which of the following statements is true?
5 5
(A) The points P,Q,R and S are NOT coplanar
b 2d
(B) is the position vector of a point which divides PR internally in the ratio 5 : 4
3
b 2d
(C) is the position vector of a point which divides PR externally in the ratio 5 : 4
3
(D) The square of the magnitude of the vector b d is 95
Ans. (B)
Sol. P ˆi 2ˆj 5kˆ P a
Q 3iˆ 6jˆ 3kˆ Q b
17 16
R ˆi ˆj 7kˆ R c
5 5
S 2iˆ ˆj kˆ S d
b 2d 7iˆ 8jˆ 5kˆ
3 3
5c 4a 21iˆ 24ˆj 15kˆ
9 9
b 2d 5c 4a
3 9
so [B] is correct.
option –D
2 2 2
b d b d b.d
= (9 + 36 + 9) (4 + 1 + 1) – (6 + 6 + 3)2
= 54 × 6 – (15)2
= 324 – 225
= 99
3
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it
is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered;
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option(s) (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and
choosing any other option(s) will get –2 marks.
5. Let M (a ij ), i, j {1, 2, 3}, be the 3 × 3 matrix such that aij = 1 if j 1 is divisible by i, otherwise
aij = 0. Then which of the following statements is (are) true ?
(A) M is invertible
a1 a1 a1
(B) There exists a nonzero column matrix a 2 such that M a 2 a 2
a a a
3 3 3
0
(C) The set {X 3
: MX 0} {0}, where 0 = 0
0
(D) The matrix (M – 2I) is invertible, where I is the 3 × 3 identity matrix
Ans. (B,C)
4
a11 a12 a13 1 1 1
Sol. M a 21 a 22 a 23 1 0 1
a 31 a 32 a 33 0 1 0
|M| = –1 + 1 = 0 M is singular so non-invertible
a 1 a 1 1 1 1 a 1 a 1
(B) M a 2 a 2 1 0 1 a 2 a 2
a 3 a 3 0 1 0 a 3 a 3
a 1 a 2 a 3 a 1
a 1 a 3 a 2 a1 0 and a2 + a3 = 0 infinite solutions exists [B] is correct.
a 2 a 3
Option (D)
1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1
M 2I 1 0 1 2 0 1 0 1 2 1
0 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 2
|M – 2I| = 0 [D] is wrong
Option (C) :
1 1 1 x 0
MX = 0 1 0 1 y 0
0 1 0 z 0
x+y+z=0
x+z=0
y=0
Infinite solution
[C] is correct
2
1 1
6. Let f : (0,1) be the function defined as f(x) [4x] x x , where [x] denotes the
4 2
greatest integer less than or equal to x . Then which of the following statements is(are) true?
(A) The function f is discontinuous exactly at one point in (0,1)
(B) There is exactly one point in (0,1) at which the function f is continuous but NOT
differentiable
(C) The function f is NOT differentiable at more than three points in (0,1)
1
(D) The minimum value of the function f is
512
Ans. (A,B)
5
1
0 ; 0x
4
2
1 1 1 1
x 4 x 2 ; x
4 2
Sol. f x 2
2 x 1 x 1 1
x
3
;
4 2 2 4
2
1 1 3
3 x 4 x 2 ; x 1
4
3
f(x) is discontinuous at x only
4
1
0 ; 0x
4
2
1 1 1 1 1
2 x 4 x 2 x 4 ; x
4 2
f ' x 2
4 x 1 x 1 2 x 1 1
x
3
;
4 2 4 2 4
2
1 1 1 3
6 x 4 x 2 3 x 4 ; x 1
4
1 3
f(x) is non-differentiable at x and
2 4
5 1
minimum values of f(x) occur at x whose value is
12 432
d2f
7. Let S be the set of all twice differentiable functions f from to such that (x) 0 for
dx 2
all x (–1,1). For f S, let Xf be the number of points x(1,1) for which f (x) = x. Then which of
the following statements is(are) true?
(A) There exists a function f S such that Xf
(B) For every function f S , we have Xf
(C) There exists a function f S such that Xf = 2
(D) There does NOT exist any function f in S such that Xf = 1
Ans. (A,B,C)
6
Sol. S = Set of all twice differentiable functions f : R R
d 2f
0 in (–1, 1)
dx 2
Graph ‘f’ is Concave upward.
Number of solutions of f(x) = x xf
(1) xf = 0
–1 1
(2) xf = 1
–1 1
(3) xf = 2
–1 1
Graph of y = f(x) can intersect graph of y = x at atmost two points 0 xf 2
Aliter
d 2 f(x)
0
dx2
Let (x) = f(x) – x
"(x) > 0
'(x) = 0 has atmost 1 root in x (–1, 1)
(x) = 0 has atmost 2 roots in x (–1, 1)
xf 2
7
SECTION-3 : (Maximum Marks : 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
8. For x , let tan–1 (x) , . Then the minimum value of the function f : defined by
2 2
x tan 1 x
e(t cost)
f(x) 0
1 t 2023
dt is
Ans. (0)
x tan 1 x e t cost
Sol. f(x) dt
0 1 t 2023
1 1
e x tan x cos(x tan x) x
f '(x) 1
.
tan 1 x
1 (x tan x) 1 x
2
For x < 0, tan 1 x ,0
2
For x 0, tan 1 x 0,
2
xtan–1x 0 x R
0 For x 0
x 1
And tan x 0 For x 0
1 x 2
0 For x 0
f'
– +
point of minima
0
Hence minimum value is f(0) 0
0
8
9. For x , let y(x) be a solution of the differential equation
dy
(x2 – 5) – 2xy = –2x(x2 – 5)2 such that y(2) = 7.
dx
Then the maximum value of the function y(x) is
Ans. (16)
dy 2x
Sol. 2 y 2x(x 2 5)
dx x 5
2x
x2 5 dx 1
IF e
(x 5)
2
1
x 5
y. 2
2x.dx c
y
x 2 c
x 5 2
x = 2, y = 7
7
4 c c 3
1
y = –(x2 – 5)(x2 + 3)
put x2 = t > 0
y = –(t – 5)(t + 3)
–3 4 5
ymax = 16 when x2 = 1
ymax = 16
10. Let X be the set of all five digit numbers formed using 1,2,2,2,4,4,0. For example, 22240 is in X
while 02244 and 44422 are not in X . Suppose that each element of X has an equal chance of being
chosen. Let p be the conditional probability that an element chosen at random is a multiple of
20 given that it is a multiple of 5. Then the value of 38p is equal to
Ans. (31)
9
Sol. No. of elements in X which are multiple of 5
4
____ 0 4
3
1,2,2,2 fixed
4
____ 0 12
1,4,2,2 fixed
2
4
____ 0 4 Total 38
3
4,2,2,2 fixed
4
____ 0 6
2,2,4,4 fixed
22
4
____ 0 12
2
1,2,4,4 fixed
Among these 38 elements, let us calculate when element is not divisible by 20
3
___ 1 0 1
3
2,2,2 fixed
3
_ _ _ 1 0 3 Total 7
2
2,2,4 fixed
3
_ _ _ 1 0 3
2,4,4 fixed
2
38 7
p 38p = 31
38
11. Let A1, A2, A3, ........, A8 be the vertices of a regular octagon that lie on a circle of radius 2. Let P be
a point on the circle and let PAi denote the distance between the points P and Ai for i = 1,2,....,8. If
P varies over the circle, then the maximum value of the product PA1 PA2. PA8, is
Ans. (512)
A3
A4 A2
Sol. 2 P
A5 A1
2
A6 A8
A7
10
In A1OP
PA1 sin
2sin
2 2
sin 90
2
PA1 4sin x1 (say)
2
PA8 4sin x8
8 2
PA 7 4sin x 7
4 2
3
PA6 4sin x 6
8 2
Similarly
PA 2 4 sin = x2
2
PA3 4sin = x3
8 2
PA 4 4sin = x4
4 2
3
PA5 4sin = x5
8 2
8 8
Let PAi x i E
i 1 i 1
3
E1 48 sin sin .sin sin
2 8 2 8 2 4 2
3
sin sin .sin sin
4 2 8 2 8 2 2
3 3
48 sin .cos .sin cos sin cos sin cos
2 2 8 2 8 2 4 2 4 2 8 2 8 2
11
3
sin sin 4 sin 4 sin 4
48
4
2
46 sin cos sin cos
4 4
sin 2 sin 2 2
46
4
sin(4)
45 2 9 sin 4
2
E is maximum when sin4 = 1
8
Emax = 29 = 512
a 3 b
12. Let R c 2 d : a, b,c,d {0,3,5, 7,11,13,17,19} . Then the number of invertible matrices in R is
0 5 0
Ans. (3780)
Sol. Let us calculate when |R| = 0
Case-I ad = bc = 0
Now ad = 0
Total – (When none of a & d is 0)
= 82 – 1 = 15 ways
Similarly bc = 0 15 ways
15 × 15 = 225 ways of ad = bc = 0
Case-II ad = bc 0
either a = d = b = c OR a d, b d but ad = bc
7 7
C1 = 7 ways C2 × 2 × 2 = 84 ways
Total 91 ways
|R| = 0 in 225 + 91 = 316 ways
|R| 0 in 84 – 316 = 3780
12
13. Let C1 be the circle of radius 1 with center at the origin. Let C2 be the circle of radius r with center
at the point A = (4,1) , where 1 r 3. Two distinct common tangents PQ and ST of C1 and C2 are
drawn. The tangent PQ touches C1 at P and C2 at Q. The tangent ST touches C1 at S and C2 at T.
Mid points of the line segments PQ and ST are joined to form a line which meets the x-axis at a
2
point B. If AB = 5 , then the value of r is
Ans. (2)
Radical Q
Sol. axis
P
A(4,1)
S T
Let C2 (x – 4)2 + (y – 1)2 = r2
radical axis 8x + 2y –17 = 1 – r2
8x + 2y = 18 – r2
18 r 2
B , 0 A(4,1)
8
AB = 5
2
18 r 2
4 1 5
8
r2 = 2
n = sin + cos
13
SECTION-4 : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the
onscreen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
PARAGRAPH "I"
Consider on obtuse angled triangle ABC in which the difference between the largest and the
smallest angle is and whose sides are in arithmetic progression. Suppose that the vertices of this
2
triangle lie on a circle of radius 1.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH "I", the question given below is one of them)
14. Let a be the area of the triangle ABC. Then the value of (64a)2 is
Ans. (1008.00)
Sol. A
A<C<B
n n+d
π π
α 2α
2 2
B n–d C
n – d = 2 sin …(1)
π
n + d = 2 sin α
2
n + d = 2 cos ….(2)
π
n 2sin 2α
2
14
n 2 cos 2α …(3)
2 cos2 = sin + cos
2(cos – sin) = 1
3
sin 2α
4
1 1
Then, a .n. n d .sin α .2 cos 2α.2 cos α.sin α
2 2
sin 2α.cos 2α
3 7 3 7
4 4 16
2
3 7
64a 64 16 9 7 1008
2
16
PARAGRAPH "I"
Consider on obtuse angled triangle ABC in which the difference between the largest and the
smallest angle is and whose sides are in arithmetic progression. Suppose that the vertices of this
2
triangle lie on a circle of radius 1.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH "I", the question given below is one of them)
15. Then the inradius of the triangle ABC is
Ans. (0.25)
Sol. From above equation in Ques. 14
Δ 1 n n d sin α
r
s 2 3n
2
n d .sin α
3
2 cos α.sin α
(from (2))
3
sin 2α 1
r =
3 4
15
PARAGRAPH "II"
Consider the 6 × 6 square in the figure. Let A1,A2,…,A49 be the points of intersections (dots in the
picture) in some order. We say that Ai and Aj are friends if they are adjacent along a row or along a
column. Assume that each point Ai has an equal chance of being chosen.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH "II", the question given below is one of them)
16. Let pi be the probability that a randomly chosen point has i many friends, i = 0,1,2,3,4. Let X be a
random variable such that for i = 0,1,2,3,4, the probability P(X = i)= pi. Then the value of 7E(X) is
Ans. (24.00)
Sol.
Pi = Probability that randomly
selected points has friends
P0 = 0 (0 friends)
P1 = 0 (exactly 1 friends)
4
C1 4
P2 = 49
(exactly 2 friends)
C1 9
20
C1 20
P3 49
(exactly 3 friends)
C1 49
25
C1 25
P4 49
(exactly 4 friends)
C1 49
x 0 1 2 3 4
4 20 25
Px 0 0
49 49 49
8 60 100 168
Mean = E(x) = x P 0 0 49 49
i i
49
49
7 E x
168
7 24
49
16
PARAGRAPH "II"
Consider the 6 × 6 square in the figure. Let A1,A2,…,A49 be the points of intersections (dots in the
picture) in some order. We say that Ai and Aj are friends if they are adjacent along a row or along a
column. Assume that each point Ai has an equal chance of being chosen.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH "II", the question given below is one of them)
17. Two distinct points are chosen randomly out of the points A1,A2,…,A49. Let p be the probability
that they are friends. Then the value of 7p is
Ans. (0.50)
Sol. Total number of ways of selecting 2 persons = 49C2
Number of ways in which 2 friends are selected = 6 × 7 × 2 = 84
84 2 1
7P 7
49 48 2
17
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