oftware Engineering Multiple Choice Questions

1.
Software is defined as ___________ a) set of programs, documentation & configuration of data b) set of programs c) documentation and
configuration of data d) None of the mentioned Answer: a) set of programs, documentation & configuration of data

2.
What is Software Engineering? a) Designing a software b) Testing a software c) Application of engineering principles to the design a
software d) None of the above Answer: c) Application of engineering principles to the design a software

3.
Who is the father of Software Engineering? a) Margaret Hamilton b) Watts S. Humphrey c) Alan Turing d) Boris Beizer Answer: b) Watts S.
Humphrey

4.
What are the features of Software Code? a) Simplicity b) Accessibility c) Modularity d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

5.
____________ is a software development activity that is not a part of software processes. a) Validation b) Specification c) Development d)
Dependence Answer: d) Dependence

6.
Define Agile scrum methodology. a) project management that emphasizes incremental progress b) project management that emphasizes
decremental progress c) project management that emphasizes neutral progress d) project management that emphasizes no progress
Answer: a) project management that emphasizes incremental progress
7.
CASE stands for a) Computer-Aided Software Engineering b) Control Aided Science and Engineering c) Cost Aided System Experiments d)
None of the mentioned Answer: a) Computer-Aided Software Engineering

8.
________ is defined as the process of generating analysis and designing documents? a) Re-engineering b) Reverse engineering c) Software
re-engineering d) Science and engineering Answer: b) Reverse engineering

9.
The activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software developing
tasks is ____________ a) Project scheduling b) Detailed schedule c) Macroscopic schedule d) None of the mentioned Answer: a) Project
scheduling

10.
What is a Functional Requirement? a) specifies the tasks the program must complete b) specifies the tasks the program should not
complete c) specifies the tasks the program must not work d) All of the mentioned Answer: a) specifies the tasks the program must
complete

11.
Why do bugs and failures occur in software? a) Because of Developers b) Because of companies c) Because of both companies and
Developers d) None of the mentioned Answer: c) Because of both companies and Developers

12.
Attributes of good software is ____________ a) Development b) Maintainability & functionality c) Functionality d) Maintainability Answer: b)
Maintainability & functionality

13.
 The Cleanroom philosophy was proposed by _________ a) Linger b) Mills c) Dyer d) All of the Mentioned Answer: d) All of the Mentioned

14.
What does SDLC stands for? a) System Design Life Cycle b) Software Design Life Cycle c) Software Development Life Cycle d) System
Development Life cycle Answer: c) Software Development Life Cycle

15.
Who proposed the spiral model? a) Barry Boehm b) Pressman c) Royce d) IBM Answer: a) Barry Boehm

16.
______________ is not among the eight principles followed by the Software Code of Ethics and Professional Practice. a) PRODUCT b)
ENVIRONMENT c) PUBLIC d) PROFESSION Answer: b) ENVIRONMENT

17.
Which of the following are CASE tools? a) Central Repository b) Integrated Case Tools c) Upper Case Tools d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d) All of the mentioned

18.
__________________ suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development. a) Customer collaboration b) Individuals and interactions c)
Working software d) All of the mentioned Answer: d) All of the mentioned

19.
Software patch is defined as ______________ a) Daily or routine Fix b) Required or Critical Fix c) Emergency Fix d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c) Emergency Fix

20.
 __________ software development team has no permanent leader. a) Controlled Centralized (CC) b) Controlled decentralized (CD) c)
Democratic decentralized (DD) d) None of the mentioned Answer: c) Democratic decentralized (DD)

21.
Regardless of application area, project size, or complexity, software development work may be divided into three generic phases:
the__________ phase, which focuses on what, the_________ phase, which focuses on how, and the_________ phase, which focuses on
change. i. support ii. development iii. definition a) iii, ii, i b) iii, i, ii c) i, ii, iii d) ii, i, iii Answer: a) iii, ii, i (definition, development, support)

22.
_________ is not a fundamental activity for software processes in software development. a) Evolution b) Design and implementation c)
Validation d) Verification Answer: d) Verification

23.
What are agile manifesto principles? a) Customer satisfaction b) Face-to-face communication within a development team c) Changes in
requirements are welcome d) All of the mentioned Answer: d) All of the mentioned

24.
Faster delivery is possible with CBSE. a) False b) True Answer: b) True

25.
Who proposed Function Points? a) Albrecht b) Jacobson c) Boehm d) Booch Answer: a) Albrecht

26.
_________ is a software development life cycle model that is chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects. a)
Iterative Enhancement Model b) RAD c) Spiral d) Waterfall Answer: c) Spiral
27.
Agile Software Development is based on which of the following type? a) Iterative Development b) Incremental Development c) Both
Incremental and Iterative Development d) Linear Development Answer: c) Both Incremental and Iterative Development

28.
_______________________ is a software developing team has a defined leader who coordinates specific tasks and secondary leaders that
have responsibility for sub tasks. a) Democratic decentralized (DD) b) Controlled centralized (CC) c) Controlled decentralized (CD) d) None
of the mentioned Answer: c) Controlled decentralized (CD)

29.
4GT Model is a set of __________________ a) Programs b) CASE Tools c) Software tools d) None of the mentioned Answer: c) Software tools

30.
Engineers developing software should not a) be dependent on their colleagues b) maintain integrity and independence in their
professional judgment c) not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence d) not use your technical skills to misuse other
people’s computers Answer: a) be dependent on their colleagues

31.
__________ is not suitable for accommodating any change? a) RAD Model b) Waterfall Model c) Build & Fix Model d) Prototyping Model
Answer: b) Waterfall Model

32.
The model which has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a software life cycle model is ________ a) Rad Model b) Spiral
Model c) 4GT Model d) Waterfall Model Answer: d) Waterfall Model

33.
Adaptive Software Development(ASD) has which of the following three framework activities? a) speculation, collaboration, learning b)
 analysis, design, coding c) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development d) all of the mentioned Answer: a)
speculation, collaboration, learning

34.
Which of the following is not a project factor that should be considered when planning the structure of software developing teams? a)
The rigidity of the delivery date b) The degree of sociability required for the project c) High frustration caused by personal, business, or
technological factors that causes friction among team members d) The difficulty of the problem to be solved Answer: b) The degree of
sociability required for the project

35.
What is the full form of the “COCOMO” model? a) Cost Constructive Estimation Model b) Constructive Cost Estimation Model c)
Constructive Case Estimation Model d) Constructive Cost Estimating Model Answer: b) Constructive Cost Estimation Model

36.
Which one of the following is not a software process quality? a) Visibility b) Timeliness c) Productivity d) Portability Answer: d) Portability

37.
Cleanroom software development process complies with the operational analysis principles by using a method called known as a)
referential transparency b) degenerative error correction c) box structure specification d) none of the mentioned Answer: c) box structure
specification

38.
What is system software? a) computer program b) Testing c) AI d) IOT Answer: a) computer program

39.
Quality Management is known as _______ a) SQI b) SQA c) SQM d) SQA and SQM Answer: c) SQM
40.
_____________ is the definition of objects in the database that leads directly to a standard approach for the creation of software
documentation. a) Data/data integration b) Information sharing c) Document standardization d) Data integrity Answer: c) Document
standardization

41.
______________ is an indirect measure of software development process. a) Cost b) Effort Applied c) Efficiency d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d) All of the mentioned

42.
According to an IBM research, “31% of projects are abandoned before they are completed, 53% exceed their cost projections by an
average of 189 percent, and 94 projects are restarted for every 100 projects.” What is the significance of these figures? a) Lack of
software ethics and understanding b) Management issues in the company c) Lack of adequate training d) All of the mentioned Answer: d)
All of the mentioned

43.
Which of the following document contains the user system requirements? a) SRD b) DDD c) SDD d) SRS Answer: d) SRS

44.
_____________ specification is also known as SRS document. a) white-box b) grey-box c) black-box d) none of the mentioned Answer: c)
black-box

45.
Which of the following is not a part of Software evolution? a) Re-engineering activities b) Maintenance activities c) Development activities
d) Negotiating with client Answer: d) Negotiating with client
46.
___________ is a Strategy to achieve Software diversity. a) Explicit specification of different algorithms b) Different programming languages
c) Different design methods and tools d) All of the mentioned Answer: d) All of the mentioned

47.
In which step of SDLC actual programming of software code is done? a) Development and Documentation b) Maintenance and Evaluation
c) Design d) Analysis Answer: a) Development and Documentation

48.
Software Debugging is known as _________________ a) identifying the task to be computerized b) creating program code b) creating the
algorithm d) finding and correcting errors in the program code Answer: d) finding and correcting errors in the program code

49.
The word which describes the importance of software design is? a) Complexity b) Quality c) Efficiency d) Accuracy Answer: b) Quality

50.
The incorrect activity among the following for the configuration management of a software system is ________ a) Version management b)
System management c) Change management d) Internship management Answer: d) Internship management

51.
The process of transforming a model into source code is known as. a) Forward engineering b) Reverse engineering c) Re-engineering d)
Reconstructing Answer: a) Forward engineering

52.
How many stages are there in Iterative-enhancement model used during software maintenance? a) two b) three c) four d) five Answer: b)
three
53.
What does ACT stands for in Boehm model for software maintenance? a) Actual change track b) Annual change track c) Annual change
traffic d) Actual change traffic Answer: c) Annual change traffic

54.
Which one of the following is not a maintenance model? a) Waterfall model b) Reuse-oriented model c) Iterative enhancement model d)
Quick fix model Answer: a) Waterfall model

55.
Choose the suitable options with respect to regression testing. a) It helps in development of software b) It helps in maintenance of
software c) It helps in development & maintenance of software d) None of the mentioned Answer: c) It helps in development &
maintenance of software

56.
What are legacy systems? a) new systems b) old systems c) under-developed systems d) none of the mentioned Answer: b) old systems

57.
Which of the following manuals is not a user documentation? a) Beginner's Guide b) Installation guide c) Reference Guide d) SRS Answer:
d) SRS

58.
Which of the following manuals is a user documentation? a) SRS - Software Requirement Specification b) SDD - Software Design
Document c) System Overview d) None of the mentioned Answer: c) System Overview

59.
Which of these does not account for software failure? a) Increasing Demand b) Low expectation c) Increasing Supply d) Less reliable and
 expensive Answer: c) Increasing Supply

60.
Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes? a) Software dependence b) Software development c)
Software validation d) Software specification Answer: a) Software dependence

61.
Which of these is incorrect? a) Software engineering belongs to Computer science. b) Software engineering is a part of more general form
of System Engineering. c) Computer science belongs to Software engineering. d) Software engineering is concerned with the practicalities
of developing and delivering useful software. Answer: c) Computer science belongs to Software engineering.

62.
Which of these is true? a) Generic products and customized products are types of software products. b) Generic products are produced by
organization and sold to open market. c) Customized products are commissioned by particular customer. d) All of the mentioned. Answer:
d) All of the mentioned.

63.
The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for? a) Software processes b) Software Security c) Software reuse d)
Software Validation Answer: b) Software Security

64.
Which of these is not true? a) Web has led to availability of software services and possibility of developing highly distributed service based
systems. b) Web based systems have led to degradation of programming languages. c) Web brings concept of software as service. d)
Web based system should be developed and delivered incrementally. Answer: b) Web based systems have led to degradation of
programming languages.

65.
 Efficiency in a software product does not include ________ a) responsiveness b) licensing c) memory utilization d) processing time Answer:
b) licensing

66.
Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis? a) Use Cases b) Entity Relationship Diagram c) State Transition
Diagram d) Activity Diagram Answer: d) Activity Diagram

67.
How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis? a) Two b) Three c) Four d) None of the mentioned Answer: b) Three

68.
How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis? a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Six Answer: c) Five

69.
Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project. a) True b) False c) Depends upon the size of project d) None of
the mentioned Answer: a) True

70.
_________ and _________ are the two issues of Requirement Analysis. a) Performance, Design b) Stakeholder, Developer c) Functional, Non-
Functional d) None of the mentioned Answer: c) Functional, Non-Functional

71.
The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of three perspectives or views. What is that
perspective or view? a) Developer b) User c) Non-Functional d) Physical Answer: d) Physical

72.
 Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process. a) True b) False Answer: a) True

73.
Coad and Yourdon suggested _______ selection characteristics that should be used as an analyst considers each potential object for
inclusion in the requirement analysis model. a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Six Answer: d) Six

74.
Requirements should specify 'what' but not 'how'. a) True b) False Answer: a) True

75.
What is the primary goal of project management? a) To satisfy all stakeholders b) To maximize profits c) To ensure the project is the most
innovative d) To complete the project on time and within budget Answer: d) To complete the project on time and within budget

76.
What is a project scope? a) The project's timeline b) The project's goals and deliverables c) The project's risk management plan d) The
project's budget Answer: b) The project's goals and deliverables

77.
Which of the following is not a goal of project management? a) Avoiding customer complaints b) Maintaining a happy and well-
functioning development team c) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time d) Keeping overall costs within budget
Answer: a) Avoiding customer complaints

78.
Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project. a) False b) True Answer: b) True

79.
 What is the focus of quality planning in project management? a) For the team b) For the project c) For the project manager d) For the
customers Answer: b) For the project

80.
What is the first step in the project management process? a) Initiating the project b) Monitoring project progress c) Defining project risks
d) Planning the project timeline Answer: a) Initiating the project

81.
Which software development model focuses on delivering a working version of the software quickly and then iteratively enhancing it with
new features? a) Waterfall Model b) Spiral Model c) Incremental Model d) V-Model Answer: c) Incremental Model

82.
The "four P's" of project management are: a) People, Product, Process, Project b) Planning, Programming, Performance, Project c)
Problem, People, Process, Product d) Phases, Planning, Procedures, Performance Answer: a) People, Product, Process, Project

83.
A software project manager is responsible for: a) Only technical aspects of the software b) Only financial aspects of the software c)
Planning, monitoring, and controlling the project d) Writing all the code for the project Answer: c) Planning, monitoring, and controlling the
project

84.
Which of the following is an example of a non-functional requirement? a) The system must allow users to log in. b) The system must
process transactions within 2 seconds. c) The system must generate daily reports. d) The system must send email notifications. Answer:
b) The system must process transactions within 2 seconds.

85.
What is the main purpose of software design? a) To write the program code. b) To define the architecture, components, modules,
 interfaces, and data for a system. c) To test the software for errors. d) To gather user requirements. Answer: b) To define the architecture,
components, modules, interfaces, and data for a system.

86.
In the context of software quality, what does "reliability" refer to? a) The software's ability to be easily modified. b) The software's ability to
perform its required functions under stated conditions for a specified period of time. c) The software's ability to be used by different users.
d) The software's ability to run on different operating systems. Answer: b) The software's ability to perform its required functions under
stated conditions for a specified period of time.

87.
Which testing technique focuses on testing the internal structure and workings of a component, rather than its functionality? a) Black-box
testing b) White-box testing c) Regression testing d) Acceptance testing Answer: b) White-box testing

88.
What is the purpose of a Use Case Diagram in software engineering? a) To show the flow of data within the system. b) To model the
interactions between users (actors) and the system. c) To define the internal structure of classes. d) To represent the sequence of events
in a system. Answer: b) To model the interactions between users (actors) and the system.

89.
What does "refactoring" mean in software development? a) Adding new features to the software. b) Restructuring existing computer code
without changing its external behavior. c) Fixing bugs in the software. d) Rewriting the entire software from scratch. Answer: b)
Restructuring existing computer code without changing its external behavior.

90.
Which of the following is a key characteristic of the Agile philosophy? a) Strict adherence to a detailed, upfront plan. b) High emphasis on
documentation over working software. c) Continuous collaboration and frequent delivery of working software. d) Avoiding changes once
the development begins. Answer: c) Continuous collaboration and frequent delivery of working software.
91.
What is the main goal of Configuration Management in software engineering? a) To manage the budget of the project. b) To control
changes to software throughout its life cycle. c) To train new developers. d) To perform performance testing. Answer: b) To control
changes to software throughout its life cycle.

92.
Which metric is often used to measure the size of a software project? a) Lines of Code (LOC) b) Number of bugs c) Team size d) Project
duration Answer: a) Lines of Code (LOC)

93.
What is the purpose of a Gantt chart in project management? a) To show the hierarchy of tasks. b) To illustrate the project schedule,
including start and end dates of tasks. c) To represent data flow in a system. d) To track the number of defects found. Answer: b) To
illustrate the project schedule, including start and end dates of tasks.

94.
Risk management in software engineering involves: a) Avoiding all risks. b) Identifying, analyzing, planning for, and monitoring risks. c)
Only focusing on technical risks. d) Ignoring risks and hoping for the best. Answer: b) Identifying, analyzing, planning for, and monitoring
risks.

95.
What is the primary objective of software testing? a) To prove the absence of defects. b) To find defects in the software. c) To ensure the
software is perfect. d) To make the software run faster. Answer: b) To find defects in the software.

96.
Which of the following describes a "spike" in Agile development? a) A short, time-boxed investigation or experiment. b) A critical bug that
needs immediate fixing. c) A new feature that is highly requested by users. d) A long-term planning session. Answer: a) A short, time-
boxed investigation or experiment.
97.
The process of defining the overall structure of a software system is called: a) Coding b) Testing c) Architecture Design d) Deployment
Answer: c) Architecture Design

98.
What is the main advantage of the Prototyping Model? a) It is very strict and disciplined. b) It allows for early user feedback and
refinement of requirements. c) It guarantees a perfect final product. d) It is suitable for very large, complex projects with fixed
requirements. Answer: b) It allows for early user feedback and refinement of requirements.

99.
Which phase of the SDLC typically involves writing the actual program code? a) Requirements Gathering b) Design c) Implementation/
Coding d) Testing Answer: c) Implementation/Coding

100.
The Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is a framework for: a) Measuring software performance. b) Improving organizational
processes and project management. c) Designing user interfaces. d) Automating software testing. Answer: b) Improving organizational
processes and project management.

101.
Which of the following is a primary characteristic of a good Software Requirements Specification (SRS) document? a) It should be highly
technical and detailed for developers only. b) It should be ambiguous to allow for future changes. c) It should be unambiguous, complete,
consistent, and verifiable. d) It should only focus on functional requirements. Answer: c) It should be unambiguous, complete, consistent,
and verifiable.

102.
What does the term "modularity" signify in software design? a) Breaking down a system into smaller, independent, and interchangeable
components. b) The speed at which the software executes. c) The ability of the software to run on different platforms. d) The cost of
 developing the software. Answer: a) Breaking down a system into smaller, independent, and interchangeable components.

103.
Which of the following software testing levels integrates individual software modules and tests them as a group? a) Unit Testing b)
Integration Testing c) System Testing d) Acceptance Testing Answer: b) Integration Testing

104.
The primary purpose of a 'Software Design Document (SDD)' is: a) To list the user requirements. b) To describe the external behavior of
the system. c) To describe the architecture and detailed design of the software. d) To outline the test cases. Answer: c) To describe the
architecture and detailed design of the software.

105.
Cohesion and Coupling are two important concepts in software design. What does high cohesion indicate? a) Modules are highly
dependent on each other. b) Elements within a module are functionally related. c) Modules are difficult to maintain. d) There are many
connections between different modules. Answer: b) Elements within a module are functionally related.

106.
Which of the following is a drawback of the Waterfall Model? a) It is flexible and easily accommodates changes. b) It allows for early
feedback from users. c) It does not easily accommodate changes once a phase is complete. d) It is suitable for small, simple projects.
Answer: c) It does not easily accommodate changes once a phase is complete.

107.
What is the main advantage of the Spiral Model? a) It is simple and easy to understand. b) It explicitly incorporates risk management. c) It
delivers a working product quickly. d) It is ideal for projects with well-defined requirements. Answer: b) It explicitly incorporates risk
management.

108.
 What is the key principle behind "Version Control" or "Source Code Management" systems? a) To manage project budgets. b) To track and
manage changes to software code and documents over time. c) To automate software testing. d) To design user interfaces. Answer: b) To
track and manage changes to software code and documents over time.

109.
Which of the following is a characteristic of good software documentation? a) It should be vague to allow for interpretation. b) It should
be inaccessible to non-technical users. c) It should be precise, clear, and easy to understand. d) It should only be updated at the end of the
project. Answer: c) It should be precise, clear, and easy to understand.

110.
The process of fixing defects and adapting the software to new environments is part of: a) Software Design b) Software Testing c)
Software Maintenance d) Software Deployment Answer: c) Software Maintenance

111.
What is the purpose of a "traceability matrix" in software development? a) To track project costs. b) To map requirements to design
elements, code, and test cases. c) To manage team members' responsibilities. d) To create a detailed project schedule. Answer: b) To map
requirements to design elements, code, and test cases.

112.
Which of the following is an ethical responsibility of a software engineer? a) To prioritize personal gain over client's needs. b) To develop
software that is harmful or discriminatory. c) To maintain confidentiality of client information. d) To ignore intellectual property rights.
Answer: c) To maintain confidentiality of client information.

113.
What is the role of "peer reviews" (e.g., code reviews) in software quality assurance? a) To assign blame for errors. b) To identify defects
early and improve code quality. c) To slow down the development process. d) To replace formal testing procedures. Answer: b) To identify
defects early and improve code quality.
114.
Which testing strategy verifies that the software meets the customer's agreed-upon requirements? a) Unit Testing b) Integration Testing
c) System Testing d) Acceptance Testing Answer: d) Acceptance Testing

115.
What is the primary goal of "Risk Mitigation" in software project management? a) To eliminate all risks completely. b) To reduce the
probability and/or impact of identified risks. c) To ignore low-probability risks. d) To transfer all risks to the client. Answer: b) To reduce the
probability and/or impact of identified risks.

116.
In Agile methodology, a "Sprint" refers to: a) A long-term project phase. b) A short, time-boxed period during which a team works to
complete a set amount of work. c) A detailed documentation phase. d) A final release of the software. Answer: b) A short, time-boxed
period during which a team works to complete a set amount of work.

117.
Which of the following is a measure of the degree to which a module is connected to other modules? a) Cohesion b) Coupling c)
Modularity d) Abstraction Answer: b) Coupling

118.
The 'Black-box testing' approach is based on: a) Knowledge of the internal structure of the software. b) The functionality of the software
without knowing its internal implementation. c) The performance of the software under stress. d) The historical data of defects. Answer:
b) The functionality of the software without knowing its internal implementation.

119.
What is the purpose of a 'data flow diagram (DFD)'? a) To show the sequence of events in a system. b) To illustrate the flow of data
through a system. c) To represent relationships between entities. d) To describe the user interface. Answer: b) To illustrate the flow of data
through a system.
120.
Which of the following describes 'Corrective Maintenance'? a) Changing the software to adapt it to new environments. b) Changing the
software to fix defects. c) Changing the software to improve its performance or maintainability. d) Changing the software to add new
functionality. Answer: b) Changing the software to fix defects.