System analysis and design exam questions

1, what is the purpose of analysis phase in SDLC?

A, Assessing feasibility
B, Preparing schedule of the activities
C, to understand business needs
D, Listing the activities involved in the project
2, which one of the following is not Benefits of OO-SAD?
A, Reduced Application Backlog and Maintenance Burdon
B, Manage Complexity by abstraction
C, build specifications resilient to change
D, Decrease internal consistency across analysis, design and programming
3, which phase of the system development processes to install new system.
A, Maintenance
B, analysis phase
C, Design phase
D. Implementation phase
4, what is Encapsulation in Object-oriented programing?
A, only an object makes changes through its own behavior
B, a new class created from another class
C. sent between objects
D, A message can be interpreted differently by different classes of objects
5, what is Aggregation in Object-oriented programing?
A, it indicates relationship between a whole and its parts.
B, two classes are related or connected in some way.
C, the child class is based on parent class.
D, the strength of interconnections between program units
6, which one of the following the Advantages of use Case Scenario Testing
A, it also shows the processing described in a single scenario.
B, Time sequence is from top to bottom
C, to show a succession of interactions between classes or object instances over time.
D, to find and fix analysis errors inexpensively
7.which diagram is resembles a horizontal flowchart that shows actions and events as they
occur in a system.?
A, Class diagram
B, Activity diagram
C, Sequence diagram
D, Use case diagram
8, which one of the following is true about Non-Functional requirements?
A, Describe the functionality of the product.
B, Describe the appearance and feel of the system
C, Describe the particular tasks that the software must execute.
D, Scope of the system
9, which model is combination of both, iterative model and one of the SDLC model.
A, Iterative Model
B, Waterfall Model
C, Spiral Model
D, prototype model
10, what are fundamental requirements gathering techniques?
A, Observation, Questionnaires, Document review
B, Message, system analysis, testing
C, tools, methods, methods
D, Waterfall Model, Iterative Model, coding

Answer

1, C 2, D 3, D 4, A 5, B
6, D 7, B 8, B 9, C 10, A

An Artificial Intelligence exam questions.

1, which one of the following is correctly define about the meaning of Artificial Intelligence?
A, Artificial intelligence is the science of putting additional programs into computers.
B, AI is the science it can learn to think outside the box.
C, AI is the science used to improve computer security.
D, AI is the science making intelligent machines.
2, which one of the following is correct about Turing test?
A, the success of a system's intelligent behavior is measurable.
B, it is a communication process between two computers.
C, an intelligent feature of the system is an agent that can spot a problem.
D, the process of making the machine act like a computer
3, which one is defined Unsupervised machine learning
A, a photograph with a traffic sign
B, spam detection
C, identification of fake Twitter accounts.
D, models that group similar data points together based on their attributes.
4, Convert the following English sentences to propositional logic
Let A = Lectures are active and R = Text is readable, P = Kebede will pass the exam. then
which one is represent the lectures are active if and only if the text is readable
A, A  (R P)
B, A  R
C, A R
D, A V R
5. One of the following is to behave solely on the basis of the current perception.
A, Utility-Based Agents
B, Simple Reflex Agents
C, Model-Based Reflex Agents
D, Goal-Based Agents
6, which one of the following correct about Utility Based Agents?
A, the agent function is based on the condition-action rule.
B, Keep track of the current state of the world with an internal model.
C, the agent makes a decision based on how far they are currently from their objective.
D, A state related degree of happiness is represented by a real number.
7, the process of building a knowledge base through extracting the knowledge from the
human expert.
A, Knowledge engineering
B, First-Order Logic
C, Knowledge base
D, Knowledge acquisition
8, which one of the following is correct to writhe the sentence Everyone at AUWC is smart.
A, x At (x, Smart)  AUWC (x
B, x At( x,AUWC )  Smart(x)
C, x At(x, AUWC )  Smart(x)
D, x At(x, Smart )  AUWC (x)
9 let as PEAS (Performance measure, Environment, Actuators, Sensors) for a medical
diagnosis system. Which one is correctly represent Sensors?
A, Sensors: Healthy patient, minimize costs
B, Sensors: Patient, hospital, staff
C, Sensors: questions, tests, diagnoses, treatments, referrals
D, Sensors: entry of symptoms, findings, patient's answers
10. Which of the following is incorrect regarding an agent's rationality?
A. The agent's prior knowledge of the environment.
B, Agent's Percept Sequence Until Now
C, the actions that the agent can perform
D, A rational agent does not always act correctly.
Answer
1, D 2, A 3, D 4, C 5, B
6, D 7, A 8, B 9, D 10, D

Which one of the following information retrieval file structure is used to create a file with one or
more documents usually as ASCII or EBCDIC text?
A) Inverted File
B) Flat File
C) Signature File
D) PAT Trees

ANSWER: B
Consider a collection with one billion tokens (i.e., with 109 tokens). Suppose the first 1,000 of
these tokens results in a vocabulary size of 1,000 terms, and the first 100,000 tokens results in a
vocabulary size of 10,000 terms. What is the vocabulary size of the whole collection using
Heap‟s law? Assume the value of b =0.5.
A) 1,500,000
B) 1,000,000,000
C) 1000,000
D) 100,000

ANSWER: C
Only one of the following statement is correct about the difference between the Information
Retrieval system and retrieval Data base management system
A) The query specification for the data base management system is complete and that of
information retrieval system is incomplete
B) The query specification for the information retrieval system is complete and that of data base
management system is incomplete
C) The answers of data base management system is imperfect precision and recall and that of
information retrieval system is perfect precision and recall
D) Information retrieval system is partial or best match oriented and data base management
system is exact match oriented

ANSWER: A
All of the followings are disadvantages of Vector Space Model, except:
A) Index terms are assumed to be mutually independent
B) Search keywords must precisely match document terms
C) The order in which the terms appear in the document is lost in the vector space representation
D) Allows efficient implementation for large document collections.

ANSWER: D
Assume that the following four documents are given, then what would be the document that can
be retrieved for the query „Students AND Yesterday OR (NOT We AND meat)‟ according to
the Boolean Query:
Doc1: Dog eat meat yesterday
Doc2: All students are angry about exit exam
Doc3: we all need meat
Doc4: why students are angry yesterday?
A) {Doc1,Doc2, Doc3, Doc4}
B) {Doc2,Doc3}
C) {Doc1,Doc4}
D) {Doc1,Doc3}

ANSWER: C
The number of documents in the collection that contain a term t is called as ________
A) Document Index
B) Document frequency
C) Document Inverse
D) Document Incidence Matrix

ANSWER: B
In a given search engine the system retrieves 80 items, out of which 60 are relevant and 20 are
non-relevant, the total relevant document in the collection is assumed to be 100. Then based on
this information, what is the percentage of the relevant items to be retrieved and the percentage of
a system‟s ability not to retrieve non-relevant documents respectively?
A) 20%, 60%
B) 60%, 20%
C) 75%,60%
D) 60%, 75%

ANSWER: D
Preprocessing is the process of controlling the size of the vocabulary or the number of distinct
words used as index terms. Stop word removal is one step of preprocessing, why it is important to
remove stop words?
A) Because Stop words have high semantic content
B) Because stop words takes larger indices for information retrieval
C) Because we can measure better approximation of importance for text classification, text
categorization, text summarization, etc.
D) Because stop words are words those have their own meaning and they are helpful for indexing

ANSWER: C
An information retrieval system returns 20 relevant documents and 30 non relevant documents.
The total number of relevant document in the collection is 200. Based on this, what is the F-
measure, Silence and Noise for the given information retrieval systems respectively?
A) F-Measure =0.2666, Silence =1, Noise =0.734
B) F-Measure =0.16, Silence =0.9, Noise =0.6
C) F-measure =0.16, Silence =0.6, Noise =0.9
D) F-measure =0.9, Silence =0.16, Noise =0.6

ANSWER: B
Let’s say we have four documents in our corpus; i.e. D1, D2, D3, D4. The term weight of the
document with respective query weight and also the query length with document length is given
as follows. Which document is more relevant for the query or how the document can be ranked
using the cosine similarity method? [Using vector space model concept]
Term weight Document length
D1 0.8 0.2
D2 0.7 0.4
D3 0.9 0.6
D4 0.5 0.8
Query 0.6 0.5

A) D1, D2, D3, D4

B) D2, D3, D4, D1
C) D3,D4, D1,D2
D) D4,D3, D2, D1

ANSWER: A
The standard way of quantifying the similarity between two documents D1 and D2 is to compute
the _________of their vector representations.
A) Sine similarity
B) Cot similarity
C) Cosine similarity
D) Tan similarity

ANSWER: C
Which one of the following statement is not correct about the keyword based multiple word
queries?
A) A query is a set of words or phrases
B) A document is retrieved if it includes none of the query words
C) A document is retrieved if it includes any of the query words
D) Documents are ranked by the number of query words they contain

ANSWER: B

All of the following techniques are used to improve Information Retrieval effectiveness, except:
A) Using Relevance Feed back
B) Using different types of query expansion like, knowledge base query expansion and initial
search result base
C) Using filters and facets to refine the results
D) Changing the developed Information Retrieval System

ANSWER: D
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A) If the number of total document collection for a given corpus is constant, and the number of
document frequency in the collection is decreased, then the value of inversed document
frequency is decreased
B) If the number of total document collection for a given corpus is constant, and the number of
document frequency in the collection is decreased, then the value of inversed document
frequency is increased
C) The major objective of an Information Retrieval System is minimization of human resources
required in the finding of needed information to accomplish a task.
D) In information Retrieval systems, precision and recall are the key metrics used in evaluations.

ANSWER: A

1. Both GET and POST are treated as $_GET and $_POST, they are super global, which means
that they are always accessible, regardless of scope and you can access them from any function,
class or file without having to do anything special in PHP. Which is true about them?
A. Both $_GET and $_POST are an array of variables passed to the current script via the URL
parameters.
B. Both $_GET and $_POST are an array of variables passed to the current script via the HTTP
POST method.
C. Information sent from a form with the POST method is invisible to others and has no limits on
the amount of information to send.
D. Unlike GET, POST should never be used for sending passwords or other sensitive
information.
2. Which of the following programming languages is commonly used for client-side scripting in
web development?
A. Java B.C++ C. JavaScript D. Python
3. ________ loops through a block of code once, and then repeats the loop as long as the
specified condition is true? A. while B. for C. do while D. for each
4. Which One is the correct way to define a constant in PHP?
A. define ("MY_CONSTANT", 10); B. const MY_CONSTANT = 10;
C. $MY_CONSTANT = 10; D. set_constant(MY_CONSTANT, 10);
5. Which of the following is true about PHP variables?
A. PHP variables must be declared before use
B. PHP variable names are case-insensitive
C. PHP variables start with the “$”sign
D. PHP variable names can contain spaces.
6. The________ element defines the document's body, and is a container for all the visible
contents, such as headings, paragraphs, images, hyperlinks, tables, lists, etc.
A. <head> B. <body> C. Physical D. hyperlink
7. More or less echo and print statements are the same in which both are used to output data to the
screen in PHP. The differences are small and ____________
A. echo has no return value while print has a return value of 1 so it can be used in expressions.
B. print can take multiple parameters while echo can take 2 arguments.
C. print has no return value while echo has a return value of 1 so it can be used in expressions.
D. echo has no return value while print has a return values of 2 so it can be used in expressions.

8. What is the correct way to declare a variable in PHP?

A. var $variableName; B. $variableName = value;
C. variable $variableName = value; D. declare $variableName = value;
9. Which method is used to connect to MYSQL database using the MYSQLI procedural way?
A.mysqli_connect() B.mysql_connect()
C. pdo_connect() D.connect_mysql()
10. Which Argument in the setcookie() function is used for sharing cookies across multiple
servers in the same domain?
A.Path B. Domain C. secure D. expires
Answer
1. B 2.C 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.A 8.B 9.A 10.B

1. What is the primary benefit of integrating an ERP system within an organization?

A) Reducing the need for IT support
B) Eliminating the need for employee training
C) Enhancing data accuracy and accessibility across the organization
D) Increasing the number of employees required to manage business processes

Answer: C

2. What is a common challenge when implementing an ERP system?

A) Immediate improvement in all business processes
B) High implementation costs and time-consuming processes
C) Decrease in data accuracy
D) Reduction in overall business complexity

Answer: B

3. Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of an ERP system?

A) Inventory management
B) Human resources management
C) Word processing
D) Financial management

Answer: C
4. Which ERP implementation phase involves customizing the system to fit the specific
needs of the organization?

A) Planning C) Design
B) Analysis D) Configuration

Answer: D

5. Which of the following is a key benefit of CRM systems?

A) Improved product manufacturing
B) Enhanced customer relationships
C) Reduced need for customer feedback
D) Increased operational costs

Answer: B

6. Which component of CRM focuses on the automation of sales activities?

A) Customer service management C) Marketing automation

B) Sales force automation D) Analytical CRM

Answer: B

7. Which of the following is a key objective of a supply chain management system?

A) Increase inventory levels
B) Improve demand forecasting
C) Reduce product quality
D) Increase delivery times

Answer: B

8. Which technologies are commonly used to improve supply chain visibility?

A) GPS C) ERP
B) CRM D) RFID

Answer: D

9. Which term refers to the strategic coordination of traditional business functions across
business units?
A) Supply Chain Management
B) Human Resources Management
 C) Financial Management
D) Customer Relationship Management

Answer: A

10. Which of the following best describes "scalability" in an enterprise system?

A) The ability to handle increased workloads by adding resources
B) The ability to integrate with other systems
C) The ability to ensure data accuracy
D) The ability to maintain security standard

Answer: A

11. What is the principle of least privilege in information security?

A) Granting users, the minimum level of access to perform their job
B) Ensuring that all users have equal access to system resources
C) Allowing unrestricted access to all systems for trusted users
D) Providing maximum access to administrators for troubleshooting

Answer: A

12. Which of the following is a common method used to ensure data integrity?
A) Encrypting data in transit
B) Using digital signatures and checksums
C) Implementing strong authentication mechanisms
D) Performing regular backups

Answer: B

13. Which of the following hashing algorithms is considered cryptographically secure?

A) MD5 C) SHA-256
B) SHA-1 D) CRC-32

Answer: C

14. Which of the following encryption algorithms is asymmetric?

A) AES D) Blowfish
B) RSA
C) DES
Answer: B

15. What is the primary purpose of encryption?

A) To compress data
B) To securely transmit and store data
C) To obscure data from being accessed
D) To authenticate users

Answer: B

16. What is a vulnerability in the context of information systems security?

A) A technique applied to protect a system from any threat or attack
B) A possible danger to a system that could exploit a weakness
C) A point where a system is susceptible to an attack
D) An actual security breach made by a threat

Answer: C

17. What is the primary objective of implementing security controls in an information

system?
A) To reduce system performance
B) To protect the system from threats and vulnerabilities
C) To increase the cost of the system
D) To complicate system access for authorized users

Answer: B

18. What is a common method used in social engineering attacks?

A) Encrypting sensitive data
B) Installing antivirus software
C) Sending phishing emails to trick users
D) Performing regular software updates

Answer: C

19. What does the term 'Denial of Service (DoS) attack' refer to?
A) Gaining unauthorized access to a computer system
B) Stealing physical hardware from an organization
C) Blocking access to a network service for legitimate users
 D) Encrypting data to prevent unauthorized access

Answer: C

20. What is considered a physical vulnerability in information system security?

A) A weak password policy
B) Outdated software with unpatched vulnerabilities
C) Inadequate firewalls
D) Lack of proper environmental controls in server rooms

Answer: D

1. Which of the following is NOT a common type of media used in multimedia

applications?
(a) Text
(b) Sound effects
(c) Spreadsheet data
(d) Animations
Answer: (c) Spreadsheet data

2. A multimedia application requires compressing a collection of high-resolution

photographs. Considering the trade-offs between compression ratio and image quality, which
compression algorithm would be the most appropriate choice?

a) Lossless compression (e.g., LZW)

b) Lossy compression (e.g., JPEG) with adjustable quality settings

c) Video compression techniques (not suitable for still images)

d) None of the above (compression is not possible for high-resolution images)

Answer: (b) Lossy compression (e.g., JPEG)

3. In the context of multimedia applications, what is the primary purpose of lossy
compression techniques?
(a) To preserve the original quality of the media file exactly.
(b) To achieve significant reductions in file size, even at the cost of some quality loss.
(c) To organize and categorize multimedia elements within an application.
(d) To encrypt sensitive data used within the multimedia application.
Answer: (b) To achieve significant reductions in file size, even at the cost of some quality
loss.
4. A key advantage of vector graphics over raster graphics in multimedia applications is:
(a) Faster loading times for complex shapes.
(b) Superior quality for photographic images.
(c) Improved performance when zooming in on details.
(d) Reduced file size for detailed illustrations.
Answer: (c) Improved performance when zooming in on details.
5. When evaluating the effectiveness of a multimedia application, which factor is LEAST
important to consider?
(a) The quality and clarity of the multimedia elements used.
(b) The ease of use and intuitiveness of the user interface.
(c) The overall cost of developing and deploying the application.
(d) The alignment with the intended learning objectives or entertainment goals.
Answer: (d) The alignment with the intended learning objectives or entertainment goals.
6. One of the primary limitations of traditional storyboarding techniques for multimedia
applications is:
(a) The inability to represent dynamic elements like animations.
(b) The high cost of creating and modifying storyboards.
(c) The lack of detail in representing user interactions.
(d) The difficulty in sharing storyboards with collaborators.
Answer: (b) The high cost of creating and modifying storyboards

7. Which of the following best describes the concept of "synchronization" in multimedia

applications?
a) The process of compressing and decompressing multimedia data
b) The coordination of playback timing between different media elements (e.g., audio and
video)
c) The management of user interactions with different parts of the application
d) The conversion of multimedia data between different file formats
Answer: b) The coordination of playback timing between different media elements (e.g.,
audio and video)
8. Which software is MOST suitable for creating interactive elements and branching
storylines within a multimedia application?
a) Adobe Photoshop
b) Microsoft PowerPoint
c) Adobe Captivate
d) Audacity
Answer: c) Adobe Captivate

9. When choosing a compression technique for a multimedia application, the primary trade-
off is between:

a) Compatibility with different devices and file size

b) Cost of the compression software and processing speed

c) Ease of use for content creators and editing capabilities

d) Aesthetics of the compressed media and audio quality

Answer: a) Compatibility with different devices and file size

10. You are tasked with compressing a large text file containing a historical novel. Which
compression algorithm would be most suitable for this task and why?

a) Run-length encoding (RLE)

b) Huffman coding

c) JPEG compression (designed for images)

d) DEFLATE (used in ZIP files)

Answer: (b) Huffman coding

Which of the following is the primary goal of machine learning?

(a) To write complex computer programs manually.
(b) To enable computers to learn from data without explicit programming.
(c) To connect computers to the internet.
(d) To create realistic simulations of human emotions.
Answer: (b) To enable computers to learn from data without explicit programming.
2. You are building a spam filter for emails. Which machine learning algorithm would be
most suitable for this task?
a) K-Nearest Neighbors (KNN)
b) Linear Regression
c) Support Vector Machine (SVM)
d) Decision Tree
Answer: (d) Decision Tree
3. An example of an unsupervised learning task is:
(a) Predicting house prices based on square footage and location.
(b) Clustering news articles into different topics.
(c) Recognizing faces in images.
(d) Recommending movies based on user ratings.
Answer: (b) Clustering news articles into different topics.
4. What is the process of evaluating a machine learning model's performance called?
(a) Optimization
(b) Training
(c) Validation
(d) Deployment
Answer: (c) Validation
5. Deep learning is a subfield of machine learning characterized by:
(a) Limited data requirements and simple models.
(b) Focus on symbolic reasoning and rule-based systems.
(c) The use of artificial neural networks with multiple layers.
(d) Guaranteed interpretability of all model decisions.
Answer : (c) The use of artificial neural networks with multiple layers.
6. Reinforcement learning differs from supervised learning in that:
(a) Reinforcement learning models receive feedback in the form of rewards and penalties.
(b) Reinforcement learning is always used for tasks involving image or text data.
(c) Supervised learning models require a pre-defined set of categories for classification.
(d) Reinforcement learning is not suitable for real-world applications due to instability.
Answer: (a) Reinforcement learning models receive feedback in the form of rewards
and penalties.
7. A major advantage of ensemble learning methods in machine learning is:
(a) Reduced computational complexity compared to single models.
(b) Improved model interpretability and understanding of predictions.
(c) Reduced risk of overfitting the training data, leading to better generalization.
(d) Ensemble methods always outperform single models in all tasks.
Answer: (c) Reduced risk of overfitting the training data, leading to better
generalization.
8. When evaluating the performance of a machine learning model, which metric is MOST
appropriate for a classification task with imbalanced classes?
(a) Accuracy
(b) Precision
(c) Recall
(d) F1-score
Answer : (d) F1-score
9. One approach to mitigating bias in machine learning datasets is:
(a) Collecting an even larger dataset to dilute potential biases.
(b) Identifying and removing data points that deviate significantly from the norm.
(c) Employing data augmentation techniques to create a more diverse dataset.
(d) Using complex algorithms that are inherently resistant to bias.
Answer : (c) Employing data augmentation techniques to create a more diverse
dataset.

10. An e-commerce platform wants to recommend products to users based on their past
purchases and browsing history. What type of machine learning approach would be most
appropriate for this task?
a) Supervised learning with a classification model (predicting product categories)
b) Supervised learning with a regression model (predicting purchase price)
c) Unsupervised learning for customer segmentation based on browsing behavior
d) Reinforcement learning for optimizing product placement on the website
Answer: (c) Unsupervised learning for customer segmentation based on browsing
behavior
KNOWLEDGE MANAGEMENT QUESTION AND ANSWER FOR MODEL EXAM
Choose the correct answer
1. Which one of the following is true about explicit knowledge?

A/It can be shared formally and systematically in the form of data, specifications,
manuals, drawings and audio
B/ It focuses on beliefs relating sequences of steps or actions to desired or undesired
outcomes.
C/ Identifying the specific product features a specific customer likes is also an example
of Explicit knowledge.
D/ It includes insights, intuitions, and hunches
2. Which one of the following statement is false about Knowledge management?

A/ KM has focused on managing important knowledge that may reside solely in the
minds of organizations‟ experts.
B/ KM systems does not provide access to explicit company knowledge
C/ Knowledge management efforts typically focus on organizational objectives
D/It is doing what is needed to get the most out of knowledge resources.
3.Which one of the statement is true about KM infrastructure?
A/ It is organizational or structural means used to promote knowledge management.
B/ It is information technologies that can be used to facilitate knowledge management.
C/ It reflects the long-term foundation for knowledge management.
D/ It is the broad processes that help in discovering, capturing, sharing, and applying
knowledge.
4.Which one of the following is used to involves converting tacit knowledge into explicit
forms such as words, concepts, visuals, or figurative language
A/ Knowledge capture B/ Combination C/ Internalization D/ Externalization

5. Which process helps individuals acquire knowledge but usually through joint activities
such as meetings,
A/ Socialization B/ Combination C/ Internalization D/ Externalization
6. Which one of the statement is true about KM impacts on the process
A/ Efficiency is Performing the processes in a creative and novel fashion that improves
effectiveness
 B/ Effectiveness is Performing the most suitable processes and making the best possible
decisions.
C/ Innovation is Performing the processes quickly and in a low-cost fashion
D/None
7. Apiece of recorded knowledge that exists in a format that can be retrieved to be used by
others is;
A/ Corporate Memory B/ Knowledge Sharing Systems C/ Knowledge artifacts D/ All
8. The main function of a knowledge sharing system is:
A/ Maximization of up-front knowledge engineering.
B/ Active presentation of irrelevant information

C/ Collection and systematic organization of information from only one source

D/ to enhance the organization‟s competitiveness by improving the way it manages its
knowledge
9. Which one of the following is the first requirement for knowledge discovery?
A/ Business understanding B/ Data understanding C/ Data collection D/ Data description
10. Which one of the following statement is true about web mining technique?

A/ Linguistic analysis is similar to the TFIDF function

B/ Linguistic Analysis / NLP is used to identify key concept descriptors which are
embedded in the textual documents.
C/ Statistical and neural network can reveal conceptual associations
D/ None
ANSWERS FOR KNOWLEDGE MANAGEMENT
1/A 2/B 3/C 4/D 5/A 6/B 7/C 8/D 9/A 10/ B

Project management Question and answer for model exam

1. Which one of the following is used to develop and confirm a common understanding
of the project scope among key project stakeholders?

A/ Project scope statement B/ Project justification C/ Project justification D/

Project constraints
2. One of the following is used to describes the communities or groups of beneficiaries
that will benefit from the project outcomes and the locations were the project will
work
 A/ Project scope statement B/ Project justification C/ Project justification D/
Project constraints
3. One of the following statement is not true about The Project Work Breakdown
Structure(WBS)
A/ It is an outcome oriented analysis of the work involved in the project and defines the
total scope of the project.
B/It is a project management technique for defining and organizing the total scope of a
project, using a hierarchical tree structure
C/ The highest level of the WBS represent a work package.
D/ It uses information from the project design done at the Project Initiation Phase

4. Which one of the following is true about Project Scope Change Control Plan
A/ Scope change analysis is used to record any request for changes to the project scope
coming from any project stakeholders, specially the donor or the beneficiaries.
B/ Project change request form analysis is done to determine the impact to the project by
the change, in some cases the change may be a new activity in substitution of another activity
with no impact to the schedule or budget
C/ The purpose of this plan is to maximize scope creep which is the natural tendency of all
projects for increasing the project scope without compensating the other project constraints
D/ The scope of the communication will depend on the significance of the change.
5. The various responsibilities and authority levels so that routine changes can be dealt with
efficiently but significant changes receive due management attention is:
A/Scope change plan B/ Scope of work C/ Terms of reference D/ Work assignment
sheet
6. In precedence diagram method Which relationship is the most commonly used?
A/ Start to finish B/ Finish to start C/ Finish to finish D/ Start to start
7. Which one is true about Critical path method?
 A/ It is is a technique used for constructing a schedule model in which activities are
represented by nodes
B/ It is graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence
in which the activities are to be performed.
C/ It is the series of activities that determines the earliest time by which the project
can be completed.
D/ None
8. The process of monitoring the status of project activities to update project progress and
manage changes to the schedule baseline to achieve the plan is:
A/ Developing schedule B/ Estimating activity duration
C/ Sequencing activity D/Controlling the schedule

9. Which one of the following is the main input of schedule control?

A/ Work performance data B/ Schedule forecasts
C/ Project document Updates D/ Project management plan updates
10. Which one of the following is not the main processes involved in project time
management
A/ Defining Activities B/ Modeling techniques
C/ Sequencing Activities D/Estimating activity duration

ANSWERS FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT

1/A 2/B 3/C 4/ D 5/ A 6/ B 7/ C 8/D 9/ A 10/ B

Which one is true about concurrency control?

A. One transaction is executed at one time
B. Multiple transaction is executed at different time
C. Multiple transaction is executed at one time
D. One transaction is executed many times
2. Which one of the following allows one transaction is executed completely
before Starting another transaction?
A. Serial Schedule B. non-Serial Schedule
C. Serializable schedule D. All
3. Which one is not true about NULL VALUE?
A. A field that contains no value B. A field that contains a blank value
 C. A field that contains zero value D. None
4. Which state of transaction is save all effects on the database?
A. Active B. partially committed C. Failed D. committed

5. Which one of the following is true about encryption and decryption?

A. encryption: convert cipher text into plain text
B. encryption: convert plain text into cipher text
C. decryption: convert cipher text into plain text
D. decryption: convert plain text into cipher text
E. A and D F. B and C
6. Which command is used to delete the complete data from the table without
affecting table structure?
A. delete B. truncate C. drop D. remove
7. Which type of constraint main used to uniquely identifies a record in any of
the given database table?
A. unique B. Primary key C. Foreign Key D. Index
8. Which one of the following is SQL keyword used in conjunction with the
select statement to eliminate all the duplicate records and fetching only unique
records?
A. where B. Distinct C. Select D. AND
9. Which one is true about non-prime attribute?

A. The attribute other than super key

B. The attribute other than candidate key
C. The attribute other than composite key
D. The attribute other than primary key
10. Which command is used to delete objects from database?

A. DELETE B. RENAME C. REMOVE D. DROP

Which declaration is contained in the method signature?

A. Method name and parameter list C. Access Modifier and return types
B. Method name and return types D. Access Modifiers and Parameter List
5. Which one of the following is true about method overloading?
A. Two methods with the same name and parameter lists
 B. Two methods with the same name and different parameter lists
C. Two methods with the same name and parameter lists and different return types
D. Two methods with the same name and parameter lists and exactly the same return
types
6. Which one of the following is true about method overriding?
A. Two methods with the different name and parameter lists
B. Two methods with the same name and different parameter lists
C. Two methods with the same name and parameter lists and different return types
D. Two methods with the same name and parameter lists and also the same return types
E. Which one of the following Systems evaluates an organization's
performance by comparing current with previous outputs?
A. Transaction processing Systems B. Management Information Systems
C. Decision Support Systems D. Executive Information Systems
5. Which management level has the responsibility to carry out the plan?
A. Strategic level B. Tactical level C. Operational level
D. Strategic and Tactical level E. Strategic, Tactical, and Operational
level
Which one of the following is the major activities for project management of
information system?
A. Scope, Time, Control, Cost, and Risk
B. Scope, Time, Control, Quality, and Risk
C. Scope, Time, Control, Quality, and Cost
D. Scope, Time, Cost, Quality, and Risk.
21. What is the primary benefit of integrating an ERP system within an organization?
E) Reducing the need for IT support
F) Eliminating the need for employee training
G) Enhancing data accuracy and accessibility across the organization
H) Increasing the number of employees required to manage business processes

Answer: C

22. What is a common challenge when implementing an ERP system?

E) Immediate improvement in all business processes
F) High implementation costs and time-consuming processes
G) Decrease in data accuracy
H) Reduction in overall business complexity
Answer: B

23. Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of an ERP system?

E) Inventory management
F) Human resources management
G) Word processing
H) Financial management

Answer: C

24. Which ERP implementation phase involves customizing the system to fit the specific
needs of the organization?

E) Planning G) Design
F) Analysis H) Configuration

Answer: D

25. Which of the following is a key benefit of CRM systems?

E) Improved product manufacturing
F) Enhanced customer relationships
G) Reduced need for customer feedback
H) Increased operational costs

Answer: B

26. Which component of CRM focuses on the automation of sales activities?

E) Customer service management G) Marketing automation

F) Sales force automation H) Analytical CRM

Answer: B

27. Which of the following is a key objective of a supply chain management system?
E) Increase inventory levels
F) Improve demand forecasting
G) Reduce product quality
H) Increase delivery times

Answer: B

28. Which technologies are commonly used to improve supply chain visibility?
 E) GPS G) ERP
F) CRM H) RFID

Answer: D

29. Which term refers to the strategic coordination of traditional business functions across
business units?
E) Supply Chain Management
F) Human Resources Management
G) Financial Management
H) Customer Relationship Management

Answer: A

30. Which of the following best describes "scalability" in an enterprise system?

E) The ability to handle increased workloads by adding resources
F) The ability to integrate with other systems
G) The ability to ensure data accuracy
H) The ability to maintain security standard

Answer: A

31. What is the principle of least privilege in information security?

E) Granting users, the minimum level of access to perform their job
F) Ensuring that all users have equal access to system resources
G) Allowing unrestricted access to all systems for trusted users
H) Providing maximum access to administrators for troubleshooting

Answer: A

32. Which of the following is a common method used to ensure data integrity?
E) Encrypting data in transit
F) Using digital signatures and checksums
G) Implementing strong authentication mechanisms
H) Performing regular backups

Answer: B

33. Which of the following hashing algorithms is considered cryptographically secure?

 E) MD5 G) SHA-256
F) SHA-1 H) CRC-32

Answer: C

34. Which of the following encryption algorithms is asymmetric?

E) AES G) DES
F) RSA H) Blowfish

Answer: B

35. What is the primary purpose of encryption?

E) To compress data
F) To securely transmit and store data
G) To obscure data from being accessed
H) To authenticate users

Answer: B

36. What is a vulnerability in the context of information systems security?

E) A technique applied to protect a system from any threat or attack
F) A possible danger to a system that could exploit a weakness
G) A point where a system is susceptible to an attack
H) An actual security breach made by a threat

Answer: C

37. What is the primary objective of implementing security controls in an information

system?
E) To reduce system performance
F) To protect the system from threats and vulnerabilities
G) To increase the cost of the system
H) To complicate system access for authorized users

Answer: B

38. What is a common method used in social engineering attacks?

E) Encrypting sensitive data
F) Installing antivirus software
G) Sending phishing emails to trick users
 H) Performing regular software updates

Answer: C

39. What does the term 'Denial of Service (DoS) attack' refer to?
E) Gaining unauthorized access to a computer system
F) Stealing physical hardware from an organization
G) Blocking access to a network service for legitimate users
H) Encrypting data to prevent unauthorized access

Answer: C

40. What is considered a physical vulnerability in information system security?

E) A weak password policy
F) Outdated software with unpatched vulnerabilities
G) Inadequate firewalls
H) Lack of proper environmental controls in server rooms

Answer: D

1. If you stored five elements or data items in an array, what will be the index number of the
array's last data item?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6

2. Which of the following gives the 4th element of the array?

A. Array[0];
B. Array[1];
C. Array[3];
D. Array[4];

Which of the following statements is correct about the formal parameters in C++?

a. Parameters with which functions are called

b. Parameters which are used in the definition of the function
c. Variables other than passed parameters in a function
d. Variables that are never used in the function

Which of the following transmission directions listed is not a legitimate channel?

a. Simplex
b. Half Duplex
c. Full Duplex
d. Double Duplex

What kind of transmission medium is most appropriate to carry data in a computer

network that is exposed to electrical interferences?

a. Unshielded twisted pair

b. Optical fiber
c. Coaxial cable
d. Microwave

Which software prevents the external access to a system?

a. Firewall
b. Gateway
c. Router
d. Virus checker

Which of the following statements could be valid with respect to the ICMP (Internet
Control Message Protocol)?

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a. It reports all errors which occur during transmission.
b. A redirect message is used when a router notices that a packet seems to
have been routed wrongly.
c. It informs routers when an incorrect path has been taken.
d. The "destination unreachable" type message is used when a router cannot
locate the destination.

Consider the following:

1. Twisted pair cables

2. Microwaves and Satellite Signals
3. Repeaters
4. Analog Transmissions
5. Fiber optics

Which of the above is consider as (a) signal transmission medium is data

communications?

a. (1) and (5)

b. (1) and (2)
c. (1) (2) and (5)
d. (1) (2) (3) and (5)

Which of the following address belongs class A?

a. 121.12.12.248
b. 130.12.12.248
c. 128.12.12.248
d. 129.12.12.248

What IP address class allocates 8 bits for the host identification part?

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

In which of the following switching methods, the message is divided into small packets?

a. Message switching
b. Packet switching
c. Virtual switching
d. Multiplexing

Which of the following servers allows LAN users to share data?

a. Data server
b. Point server
c. File server
d. Communication server

Which of the following layers does the HTTP protocol work on?

a. Physical layer
b. Data-link layer
c. Application layer
d. Network layer

What network utility uses the time-To-Live (TTL) field in the IP header to elicit ICMP error
messages?

a. Ping
b. Route
c. Traceroute
d. Ifconfig

During normal IP packet forwarding by a router, which of the following fields of the IP
header is updated?
a. Repeater
b. Source address
c. Destination address
d. Checksum