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Đề TA

This document is an official exam paper for selecting outstanding students for the provincial English competition for the academic year 2024-2025. It includes sections on listening, phonetics, vocabulary and grammar, reading comprehension, and writing tasks. The exam is scheduled for September 16, 2024, and consists of various types of questions to assess students' English proficiency.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
10 views8 pages

Đề TA

This document is an official exam paper for selecting outstanding students for the provincial English competition for the academic year 2024-2025. It includes sections on listening, phonetics, vocabulary and grammar, reading comprehension, and writing tasks. The exam is scheduled for September 16, 2024, and consists of various types of questions to assess students' English proficiency.

Uploaded by

lengodailoc
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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PHÒNG GD&ĐT THẠCH THÀNH THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI DỰ THI
CẤP TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2024-2025
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 16/9/2024
(Đề thi gồm có 08 trang)

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15
giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.

Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài
trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.

Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Question I. Listen to a telephone conversation between a hotel receptionist and a caller


making a reservation. Complete the form by using NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer. (5pts)
Silver Tulip Hotel
1. Number of nights: (1)__________________________
2.Type of room: (2) _______________________bed
3. Name: (3) EDWARD_________________
4. Transport: (4)__________________________
5. Date of arrival: (5)__________________________

Question II. Listen to Tyrone calling his local swimming pool. Decide whether each of
the following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5 pts)
6. There are four different age groups that play water polo. T/F
7. Tyrone wants to join the under 14s club. T/F
8. The under 16s water polo team trains three times a week. T/F
9. Water polo matches are played on Saturdays. T/F
10. You need to bring a photo to register at the swimming pool. T/F
Question III. Listen to the speaker talking about the Maasai and the lions. Answer the
questions by choosing A, B, C or D. (5 pts)
11. How did the Maasai people feel about lions in the past?
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A. Strongly disliked them. B. Ignore them


C. Loved them. D. Honor them
12. What is the aim of the Lion Guardians scheme?
A. To move the lions to a safer area. B. To train local people to breed the lions.
C. To allow experts to do the research. D.To train local people to protect the lions.
13. Why did Olubi Lairumbe change his mind about killing lions?
A. He found it dangerous. B. He felt sad about having killeda pregnant lion.
C. He realized he was wrong. D.He has killed seven lions in his lifetime.
14. How do Maasai warriors get a lion name, traditionally?
A. By killing a lion B. By doing something brave
C. By raising a lion D. By hunting a lion
15.What do the Lion Guardians do to help people see lions as part of the community?
A. Give people photos of the lions B. Tell people stories about the lions.
C. Give the lions Maasai names D. Give lion names to boys.
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I . Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
the rest in the same line. (3 pts)

16. A. listened B. learned C. naked D. rugged

17. A. duvet B. ballet C. amulet D. gilet

18. A. expansion B. decision C. conclusion D. inclusion

Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other
three words in each question. (2 pts)

19. A. ingenuity B. bacterium C. phenomenon D. pneumonia

20. A. compromise B. correspond C. interview D. innnocent.

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)


Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write
the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

21. There will be a one-hundred-dollar ______ for anyone who finds my Slamese cat.

A. bonus B. donation C. reward D. award

22. Blue eyes and red hair ______ in my family. Only my aunt has brown eyes.

A. hold B. run C. keep D. catch

23. Despite the financial problems, she managed to ______ her fortune.

A. hold on to B. catch up with C. keep back D. carry away


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24. Thanh: “Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti or something different?”

Hoa: “ ______”

A. Anything will do B. Yes, please C. Never mind D. I’m fine

25. He does spend money like water; he will pay through the ______ for small things
such as a pair of jeans.

A. mouth B. ear C. nose D. eye

26. Tom: "Could I use your telephone?" Jane: " ______!"

A. Please feel free B. OK. It’s my turn C. OK. See you D. Certainly, I do

27. Very little was said about his failure, _________ ?

A. was it B. wasn’t it C. was there D. wasn’t he

28. There is a small number involved, possibly ______ a hundred.

A. as many as B. as little as C. as few as D. as much as

29. The size and shape of a nail depend primarily on the function ______ intended.

A. which it is B. which it is C. for which it is D. which it is for

30. This ugly furniture does not ______ justice to this magnificent house.

A. make B. mean C. set D. Do

31. _______ is not clear to researchers.

A. Why dinosaurs having become extinct. B. Why dinosaurs became extinct

C. Did dinosaurs become extinct D. Dinosaurs became extinct

32. Neither the director nor his assistants ............. yet.

A. has come B. hasn’t come C. have come D. haven’t come

33. My wife backed me _______ over my decision to quit my job.

A. down B. up C. of D. for

34. The bomb_______ when he rang the bell.

A. went over B. went on C. went out D. went off

35. Does this jacket_______ my trousers?


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A. go with B. go through with C. go ahead D. go off

Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (8 pts)

36. The knife is very blunt. It needs……………………… (SHARP)

37. She divorced him because of his……………… to the children. (KIND)

38. …………to a new environment is a difficult thing for old people. (ADAPT)

39. They frequently ……… the traffic as they march through the streets. (MOBILE)

40. He shook his head in ……………… (APPROVE)

41. He fought the illness with courage and ……………… (DETERMINE)

42. She seems ……………… happy in her new job. (REASON)

43. She was very……………… during my father’s illness. ( SUPPORT)

Question III: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in
parentheses.
44. You always (complain)……………….……about my cooking.

45. She didn’t see anyone but she ( watch) ……………………

46. I don't like dogs because I'm very afraid of ( bite ) …………………

47-48 .He (work) …………hard all the week, but today he (have) …………a good time.

49-50. We (have)…… only bread and butter to eat with our tea as the other tourists (eat)
…………all the sausage and cakes.

Question IV. Each sentence has one mistake. Find and corect it. (5pts)

51. She always makes her children to pick up their toys before going to bed.

52. What happened in the house that day were a secret because nobody was allowed to
enter.

53. To open the door, put the key in the lock and then turning it.

54. There seem to be less tourists coming to the city this year.

55. The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and cruel .
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SECTION IV: READING. (25 pts)

Question 1: Read the following passage then fill in each gap with ONE suitable
word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 points)
A lot of people are familiar with the story of Brace Gelert, the dog that faithfully
defended the prince's baby son, but which was then killed while it was fast asleep
through a terrible misunderstanding. (56)……….., only a few people know that the story
is really a pack of lies. Let me explain. About a hundred or so years ago, there was a
hotel owner in Wales who was (57) ……………….. up with business being so bad. His
hotel was stuck in the middle of nowhere and hardly (58) ……………….. came to stay.
Then, one day, he had an idea. A famous prince called Llewellyn had lived in the area
during the Middle Ages and had been (59) ……………….. of dogs. This is hardly
surprising as hunting was extremely popular at that time. So what he did was to (60)
……………….. the story of the brave and faithful Gelert and how he had been killed by
his ungrateful master.
Of course, people would be far more (61) ……………….. to believe the story if there
was something they could see. Therefore, one day, the hotel keeper went to the top of a
high hill and (62) ………….. a sort of monument from the stones he found (63)
……….around. A friend of his, who was, incidentally, an accountant, helped him to
construct it. The 'legend' soon caught (64) ………………..and developed a life of its
own. Afterwards, people came from far and wide to see the spot where the
hound was buried. (65)……………..to say, business became very good for the hotel
owner!
Question 2: For each gap, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits the
context. (10 pts)
The thought of taking a year out from studying is (66)………… . fun, freedom,
adventure, perhaps even money seem to be on offer for a year. So why not go (67)
………… it? A year out can provide all of these things. But before you make a firm
decision, take some time to think about whether a year out is really what you want. If it
is, then do make sure you know what you want to do with it. A year with nothing
planned can be depressing and a (68)………… waste of time.

You need to take a positive attitude if you are to benefit. You need to start preparing for
it well before the time comes to take the (69)………… . Most universities and employers
look favourably on such applicants if they have shown good reasons for taking a year out
and have not just (70)………… into it. They value the maturity, confidence, social and
other skills a gap year can bring. Colleges find that gap year students (71)………… to be
more mature and motivated. They mix better with their fellow students and work harder
because they have a better idea of where they want to go. They also (72)………… more
to college life in general, because they are used to being a part of a team, either at work
or study. Employers also look kindly on (73)………… gap year students. They want
employees who are experienced and mature and can deal better with the unexpected. If
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their year out has also equipped them with skills which other applicants may not have,
such as a better (74)………… of a foreign language, then that too is a plus.
Your family may well have (75)………… feelings. On the one hand, they will be proud
of your independence; on the other hand, there will be worries about your safety.
66 A. disparaging B. intimidating C. alarming D. enticing
67 A. at B. for C. in D. off
68 A. deep B. large C. sheer D. full
69 A. plunge B. dive C. jump D. spin
70 A. drifted B. floated C. flopped D. flown
71 A. happen B. look C. tend D. end
72 A. present B. participate C. contribute D. involve
73 A. old B. former C. later D. present
74 A. grasp B. grab C. grapple D. hold
75 A. different B. crossed C. muddled D. mixed

Question 3: Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question.

A folk culture is small, isolated, cohesive, conservative, nearly self-sufficient group that
is homogeneous in custom and race, with a strong family or clan structure and highly
developed rituals. Order is maintained through sanctions based in the religion or family,
and interpersonal relationships are strong. Tradition is paramount, and change comes
infrequently and slowly. There is relatively little division of labor into specialized duties.
Rather, each person is expected to perform a great variety of tasks, though duties may
differ between the sexes. Most goods are handmade, and a subsistence economy prevails.
Individualism is weakly developed in folk cultures, as are social classes. Unaltered folk
cultures no longer exist in industrialized countries such as the United States and Canada.
Perhaps the nearest modern equivalent in Anglo--America is the Amish, a German
American farming sect that largely renounces the products and labor saving devices of
the industrial age. In Amish areas, horse-drawn buggies till serve as a local transportation
device, and the faithful are not permitted to own automobiles. The Amish's central
religious concept of Demut, "humility", clearly reflects the weakness of individualism
and social class so typical of folk cultures, and there is a corresponding strength of
Amish group identity. Rarely do the Amish marry outside their sect. The religion, a
variety of the Mennonite faith, provides the principal mechanism for maintaining order.
By contrast, a popular culture is a large heterogeneous group, often highly individualistic
and constantly changing. Relationships tend to be impersonal, and a pronounced division
7

of labor exists, leading to the establishment of many specialized professions. Secular


institutions, of control such as the police and army take the place of religion and family
in maintaining order, and a money-based economy prevails. Because of these contrasts,
"popular" may be viewed as clearly different from "folk".
The popular is replacing the folk in industrialized countries and in many developing
nations, Folk-made objects give way to their popular equivalent, usually because the
popular item is more quickly or cheaply produced, is easier or time saving to use, or
lends more prestige to the owner.
76. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Two decades in modern society
B. The influence of industrial technology
C. The characteristics of "folk" and "popular" societies
D. The specialization of labor in Canada and the United States
77. The word "homogeneous" is closest in meaning to ....
A. uniform B. general C. primitive D. traditional
78. Which of the following is typical of folk cultures?
A. There is a money-based economy.
B. Social change occurs slowly.
C. Contact with other cultures is encouraged.
D. Each person develops one specialized skill.
79. What does the author imply about the United States and Canada?
A. They value folk cultures. B. They have no social classes.
C. They have popular cultures. D. They do not value individualism.
80. Which of the following would probably NOT be found in a folk culture?
A. A carpenter B. A farmer C. A weaver D. A banker

SECTION V: WRITING

Question 1: Complete the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the
same as the
81. I was too scared to tell him what I really thought.

→ I lacked .......................................................................................

82. It’s a widespread assumption that George was wrongly accused.

→ George ..............................................................................................

83. He declared his disapproval of the behaviour of some of his supporters.

→ He let it ...................................................................................................

84. The collision didn't damage my car much.


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→ Not a great ..............................................................................................

85. It is thought that the accident was caused by human error.

→ The accident………………………………………….……..

Question 2: . Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to
write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence. Do not change the form of the given word(s).

86. His arrival was completely unexpected. (TOOK)


……………………………………………………………………………………….

87. I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test. (CAME AS)
……………………………………………………………………………………….
88. It was Walter Raleigh who introduced potatoes and tobacco into England. (OWE)
……………………………………………………………………………………….
89. You can’t possibly expect me to have supper ready by 8 o’clock. (NO QUESTION)
……………………………………………………………………………………….
90. In the end, I felt I had been right to leave the club. (REGRETS)

……………………………………………………………………………………….
Question 3: Paragraph writing: (Từ 91- 100)

Write a short passage about 150 words about one of the festivals you know.

-----THE END-----
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu kể cả từ điển; Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm)

Họ và tên thí sinh: ............................................................. SBD: ..........................

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