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f1 Midterm 2 Set 1 Exam

The document outlines the Form 1 Midterm 2 Exam Set 1 for the 2022 academic year, including instructions for candidates and contact information for marking schemes and educational resources. It contains sections for Mathematics and English, with various questions and problems to be solved by students. The exam aims to assess students' understanding and application of mathematical concepts and English language skills.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
29 views108 pages

f1 Midterm 2 Set 1 Exam

The document outlines the Form 1 Midterm 2 Exam Set 1 for the 2022 academic year, including instructions for candidates and contact information for marking schemes and educational resources. It contains sections for Mathematics and English, with various questions and problems to be solved by students. The exam aims to assess students' understanding and application of mathematical concepts and English language skills.

Uploaded by

casiavugwa94
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
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FORM 1 MIDTERM 2 EXAM SET 1

ALL SUBJECTS

2022 ACADEMIC YEAR.

Contact Mr Machuki 0768321553/0795491185 For


Marking Schemes

We offer:
Form 1-4 termly set exams, Updated Schemes of
Work, Lesson notes, Setbooks revision Kits,
Form 4 top Predictions & Mocks

Kenya Educators Publishers Contacts:


+254768321553
+254795491185
[email protected]

Contact Kenya Educators via the above contacts for


more E-learning Resources

Contact Kenya Educators 0768321553/0795491185 for Marking Schemes


NAME …………………………………………………………. ADM NO ………………….

SCHOOL …………………………………………………………… DATE …………………

CANDIDATE’S SIGNATURE …………………..

MATHEMATICS
FORM 1

TIME: 𝟐 𝟏⁄𝟐 𝐇𝐎𝐔𝐑𝐒

MID TERM 2 EXAM


INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, admission number and school in the spaces provided.
2. This paper consists of two sections; Section I and Section II.
3. Answer ALL the questions in Section I and Section II.
4. All answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces
provided below each question.
5. Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answer at each stage in the space
provided below each question.
6. Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
7. Non programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may
be used except where stated otherwise.
8. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
FOR EXAMINORS USE ONLY
SECTION I
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL
Marks
SECTION II

Question 17 18 19 20 21 TOTAL
Marks
Grand Total

121 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 1


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SECTION I (50 Marks)
Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
1. A farm worker digs a rectangular farm which is 35 metres by 45 metres. If should be
paid Sh. 2 000 per hectare, calculate how much he should be paid. (3 marks)

2. Find the least number of sweets that can be packed into polythene bags which
contain either 9 or 15 or 20 or 24 sweets with none left over. (3 marks)

3. Evaluate; (3 marks)
1 1 3 1
14 ÷ 3 𝑜𝑓 5 4 + 3 × 13
4

4. A water pipe has an external radius of 4.9 cm and internal radius of 3.5 cm. Find the
mass of 20 m of the pipe if it is made of material of density 10 𝑔𝑐𝑚−3. (3 marks)

121 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 2


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5. Simplify the expression
2
(3𝑥 − 2)– ¾ (2𝑥 − 2) (3 marks)
3

𝑢𝑣
6. If 𝑓= , find 𝑓 correct to 3 d.p, given that 𝑢 = 0.5 and 𝑣 = 0.8. (3 marks)
𝑢+𝑣

7. A square has an area of 36 𝑐𝑚2 . If the perimeter of the square increases by 30%,
calculate the new perimeter. (3 marks)

8. A man is 𝑥 years old now. In 10 years’ time, he will be twice as old as he was 5 years
ago. How old will he be in 10 years’ time? (3 marks)

121 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 3


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9. A Kenyan tourist left America through South Africa. While in South Africa, she
bought a wrist watch worth 24 dollars. Given that 1 𝑆𝑜𝑢𝑡ℎ 𝐴𝑓𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑛 𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑑 =
0.15 𝑑𝑜𝑙𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑠 and 1 𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑑 = 11.24 𝑘𝑒𝑛𝑦𝑎 𝑠ℎ𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑔𝑠, find the value of the watch in;
a) South African rands. (1 mark)

b) Kenya shillings. (2 marks)

10. A solid block in the shape of a cylinder has a height of 14 cm and weighs 22 kg. If it
22
is made of material of density 5 𝑔𝑐𝑚−3 , find the radius of the cylinder. Take 𝜋 = 7
(3 marks)

11. Evaluate 162 × 252 by factorization leaving your answer as a product of prime
factors. (3 marks)

12. An arc PQ of a circle of radius 15 cm subtends an angle of 160° at the centre of the
circle. Find the length of the arc PQ correct to 2 significant figures.(Take 𝜋 = 3.142).
(4 marks)

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13. Evaluate;
a) 56 ÷ −8 × 7 + 5 − 2 (2 marks)

b) −(−32) ÷ −4 (2 marks)

• •
14. Express the following recurring decimal as a fraction 0.1 45 3 (3 marks)

15. A church service lasted 2 hours 35 minutes. What time did it start if it ended at 12.15
p.m?
Express your answer in 24 – clock system. (3 marks)

121 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 5


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16. Use tables of squares and square roots to evaluate; (3 marks)
11.982 + √231.5

SECTION II (50 Marks)


Answer all question in the spaces provided.
17. a) Half the sum of the present ages of a mother and her daughter is equal to the
difference between their ages now. In ten years time the mother’s age will be exactly
twice the daughter’s age. Calculate their present ages. (3 marks)

b) In fourteen years’ time, a mother will be twice as old as her son. Four years ago,
the sum of their ages was 30 years. Find how old the mother was, when the son was
born. (4 marks)

121 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 6


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c) Khadija and Kagendo bought the same types of pens and exercise books from the
same shop. Khadija bought 2 pens and 3 exercise books for Sh 78. Kagendo bought
3 pens and 4 exercise books for Sh 108.Calculate the cost of each item. (3 marks)

18. The inside of a rectangular hall measures 15 m long, 9 m wide and 3 m high. There
are two doors each measuring 2 m by 2.2 m and six windows each measuring 1.5 m
by 1.5 m. The walls are to be painted.
a) Calculate the total area of the walls to be painted. (4 marks)

b) To paint an area of 2.5 𝑚2 requires one litre. If the paint is sold in 4 litre tins,
determine the number of tins of paint that should be bought. (3 marks)

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c) The cost of a 4 litre tin of paint is Sh. 1 700. The painter is paid fixed charge of
Ksh. 2 000 and Ksh. 30 per square metre of the wall painted. Calculate the
total cost of painting the walls. (3 marks)

19. A cylindrical container of diameter 14 cm and depth 20 cm is half full of juice.


a) Calculate the volume of juice in the container in cubic metres. (3 marks)

b) The juice is to fill a rectangular tank whose dimensions are 1.5 𝑚 𝑏𝑦 1 𝑚 𝑏𝑦 0.5 𝑚.
Calculate the number of cylindrical containers required to fill the tank to the
nearest whole number. (3 marks)

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c) A cube has a surface area of 216 𝑐𝑚3
i. Calculate the volume of the cube in cubic metres. (3 marks)

ii. Find the capacity of the cube in litres. (1 mark)

20. Jane is a sales executive earning a salary of Ksh. 20,000 and a commission of 8% for
the sales in excess of Ksh 100,000. If in January 2010 she earned a total of Ksh.48, 000
in salaries and commissions.
a) Determine the amount of sales she made in that month (4 marks)

b) If the total sales in the month of February and March increased by 18% and then
dropped by 25% respectively. Calculate
i. Jane’s commission in the month of February (3 marks)

121 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 9


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ii. Her total earning in the month of March (3 marks)

21. In order to start a business, three businessmen Macharia, Omondi and Kimtai
contributed Sh 25 000, Sh 35 000 and Sh 45 000 respectively as business capital. They
also had to pay Sh 15 000 more as rental fee for business premises. The rental fee
was shared equally among the partners. The three partners agreed to put 25% of the
annual profits back in the business and share the rest in the ratio of their
contributions. During the first year the business realized Sh 128 000 in gross profits.
a) Find the ratio in which they contributed business capital and rental fees.2 marks)

b) Calculate;
i. The profits shared. (2 marks)

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ii. Each partner’s share of the profits. (6 marks)

121 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 11


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Name ……………………………………………………… Adm. No. …………… Class ……….

Signature ……………………………. Date ………………………

101/1
ENGLISH
FORM 1
COMBINED PAPER
Time: 2 ½hours

MID TERM 2 EXAM


Instructions to candidates

(1) Wrote your name, admission number in the spaces provided.


(2) Sign and write the date of the examination in the space provided.
(3) Answer all questions provided in this question paper.
(d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(5) Check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no
questions are missing.

FOR EXAMINTER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Student’s Score


1 20
2 10
3 20
4 20
5 10
6 10
7 10
Total Score 100
This paper consists of 11 printed pages

101 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 1


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1. WRITING (20 MKS)

Your friend in primary school is in form one in Bidii Secondary of P.O. Box 341,
Kisimani. She has written to you telling you about her new school. She has also requested
you to carry your end of term one examinations so that you compare the performance.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. CLOZE TEST (10 MKS)

A neighbor had left (1) ……………………… store unattended (2) ……………………….


she heeded the cries of her (3) …………………….. baby. Her kitchen caught fire, and
the flames (4) ……………………… to the neighbouring shacks in (5) ……………………
There was no (6) …………………………………… available and nor fire (7)
…………………………. For the people to call. (8) ………………… that the assembled
crowd of hundreds (9)………………………………….. do was gather buckets of sand
and (10) …………………………. into flame.

3. Read the comprehension below and answer the questions that follow.

PEER PRESSURE AND SELF-ESTEEM

Positive self-esteem is essential to forming solid foundation in one’s life. This is in


terms of Choosing a job or vocation, friends or even whom to marry.

Self-esteem is the value we place on ourselves. This is what we believe and feel about
ourselves. It means that you have accepted yourself with your faults as well as your
strengths and you feel you deserve the respect of others. You have learned to build on
these strengths and to compensate for the weaknesses. What you have been unable to
change, you have learned to live with. It does not mean that you are puffed up with
self-importance and make false claims but are sincere and accept yourself as a
worthwhile individual.

Such a healthy self-respect frees one to turn their attention to others. One is tolerant to
others’ weaknesses and able to realize people’s uniqueness and potential. This
eventually helps one to escape the snares of negative peer pressure. Peer pressure refers
to the force of persuasion to adopt particular values, conform to the beliefs and goals of
a peer group. A peer group refers to age-mates who have the same outlook on life.
They have similarities in what thy like, how thy talk, the way they dress and their focus
on life issues. The group also has the same beliefs and written or unwritten rules.

A child is first exposed to peer pressure in school. It is in the class that a child meets
new friends and they spend leisure time together. This is the time that peer pressure

101 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 3


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manifests itself. Due to competition, a leader stands out in the crowd and somehow
imposes or enforces his/her beliefs and way of life on others. This leader seems to have
more control than others do. Since peer groups are dynamic, they change with timer
depending on the control of the leader.

In this day and age, the leader does not necessarily have to be a single person. With the
current globalization through television, radio, the internet, books and magazines, peer
groups are taking on a global nature. Groups look the same in each country and
continent. If one is able to control peer pressure early enough, one will be able to cope
as an adult. The pressure is more real and impacts more vigorously in the ‘adult’ world,
when one has achieved independence. A person with high self-esteem will question the
direction of the peer group but one who has a low self-esteem will succumb and
conform to peer pressure without questioning where the group is going.
The consequences of a poor self-esteem are numerous: It limits your capacity to love
and accept others. This is because if we do not feel worthwhile at the very core of our
beings, we cannot like or respect others. Low self-esteem may encourage one to engage
in sex as a way of seeking affection. This, of course, leads to other complications like
unwanted pregnancies, sexually transmitted infections, the deadly HIV/AIDs, cervical
cancer and even the use of pornography. Self-dislike tends to make people highly
sensitive to blame and praise. This is because the way one accepts compliments
indicates how much respect one has for oneself. Feelings of inferiority evidence
themselves in day-dreaming. Day-dreaming is an effort to escape reality.
Unfortunately, the more one daydreams, the worse one feels about oneself. This low
opinion decreases efficiency at school or work. The grades will be affected as one lacks
confidence to do what one is engaged in.

A low self-concept also influences one’s choice of friends and a marital partner. It even
affects couples’ sex life in marriage due to a preoccupation with their physical
appearances. One who is dissatisfied with their bodies cannot understand how anyone
else could find them attractive. This eventually hinders him/her from forming genuine
relationships, which require one to forget about self and concentrate on the needs of
others.

Low self-esteem will hinder one’s spiritual growth and divert their attention to false
goals. If one feels they are worthless in certain areas, they may try to gain acceptance by
achieving goals that will bring acceptance and approval of others. Real achievements
involve developing good character traits. Good inward qualities show up in actions.
Some of these actions will be an ability to build a healthy relationship and trust in God
to keep one focused in life.

101 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 4


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Questions (20 mks)

1. What is the importance of having a positive self-esteem? (2 mks)


……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. According to the passage, what is self-esteem? (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. Where does a child first experience peer-pressure? (2 mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. Why are peer-groups said to be dynamic? (2 mks)


……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. What difference is there between someone with low self-esteem and someone with
high self-esteem? (2 mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

6 Give any three results of poor self-esteem. (3 mks)

101 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 5


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……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. How does low self-esteem affect the following? (3 mks)
(i) Friendship –

…………………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) Marriage –

…………………………………………………………………………………………….
(iii) Spiritual growth –

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

8. Identify the statement which indicates that a peer-group can be led by more than one
person.
(1 mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the passage. (3 mks)
(a) Peer pressure –
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Day-dreaming –

………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Hinders –

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

101 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 6


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4. GRAMMAR ( 20 MKS)

(i) Choose the correct forms for each of the following words given in brackets. (3 mks)

(a) Jack and James …………………… (is, are) over the hill.

(b) There …………………………(goes, go) Julius and his favourite bag.

(c) Susan is one of the singers who ………………….. (is, are) always off key.

(ii) Replace the underlined words with a pronoun. (5 mks)

(a) The glasses were kept under the table.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Emma fed the children.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) The chicken was slaughtered.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) They ate fish and chips.

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(e) Jane is the new waitress.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Write the past tense forms of each of the verbs in brackets in the following
sentences.
(4 mks)

(a) The chef ……………………………. a delicious cake (bake)

(b) He ………………………… to the classroom. (hurry)

101 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 7


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(c) He got ……………………………. by the teacher (annoy)

(d) She ……………………………. the whole incident. (plan)

(iv) Give the plural of each of the following nouns. (5 mks)

(a) Furniture - ………………………………

(b) Sheep - ………………………………

(c) Echo- ………………………………

(d) Chief- ………………………………

(e) Cactus - ……………………………….

(v) Choose the correct word from the choices given to complete the given sentences.

(a) The ……………………………. (principle, principal) of Mbare High School is sick.

(b) Who will give us the correct ……………………………..(defination, definition) of the


word ‘Queen’?

(c) The …………………………….(stationary, stationery) includes books, pencils and


rubbers.

5. POEM

Read the poem below and answer the questions based on it. (10 mks)

The wind howls, the trees sway


The loose house-top sheets clatter and clang
The open window shuts with a bang
And the sky makes night of day.

Helter skelter the parents run


Pressed with a thousand minor cases
“Hey you there! Pack the house wares
And where on earth is my son.?”

Home skip the children!

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“Where have you been you naughty boy?”
The child can feel nothing but joy.
For he loves the approach of rain.

The streets clear, the houses fill.


The noise gathers as children shout.
To rival the raging wind without
and naught that can move is still.

A bright flash!- a lighted plain


Then, from the once blue heavens
Accompanied by noise that deafens,
Steadily pours the rain.

by Pius Oleghe

Questions

1. Give evidence in stanza one that shows that a storm is approaching. (3 mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. What are the parents doing in stanza two? (2 mks)


……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. Why are the children joyous? (1 mk)


……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. How are the children competing with the wind? (1 mk)

101 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 9


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……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Explain the meaning of the following lines: (3 mks)

(a) And the sky makes night of day.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Pressed with a thousand minor cases.


…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Steadily pours the rain.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. ORAL LITERATURE

Read the following riddling process and answer the questions based on it.

CHALLENGER: Riddle! Riddle!

RESPONDENT: ……………………………………………………………………..

CHALLENGER: It is small but it can challenge you to a fight.

RESPONDENT: ……………………………………………………………………..

CHALLENGER: Wrong

RESPONDENT: ………………………………………………………………………

CHALLENGER: Wrong again. Give me a prize.

RESPONDENT: ………………………………………………………………………

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CHALLENGER: I accept I will go to Nairobi city and have a nice ride around
the
streets of Nairobi.
The answer is a bee.

Questions

1. Fill in the blank spaces with appropriate responses. (4 mks)

2. Identify the stages in the riddling process. (6 mks)

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.………………………………………………………………………………………………
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.

7. ORAL SKILLS – 10 MKS

(i) In the following sets of words, identify the underlined speech sound that is odd
from the rest and write it down. (5 mks)

Example Cup, Queen, Kettle, Cease - Cease

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(i) Gene, Judge, June, Gap ………………………………..

(ii) Chair, Chord, Chore, Chain ……………………………….

(iii) Phase, Plight, Fame, Freight ……………………………….

(iv) Think, Than, Theatre, Thought ………………………………..

(v) Cynic, Census, Sugar, Sample ………………………………..

(ii) For each of the following words, write a word that is pronounced the same way.

(5 mks)

(i) Principle – ……………………………….

(ii) Dye - ………………………………………

(iii) Weak - …………………………………….

(iv) Stationery - ………………………………..

(v) Sent - ……………………………………..

101 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 12


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JINA:-------------------------------------------------------------KIDATO:-----------------------------

TAREHE:------------------------------------------------------NAMBARI:----------------------------------
102
KISWAHILI
KIDATO CHA KWANZA
MUDA: SAA 2 ½

MID TERM 2 EXAM


MAAGIZO
Jibu maswali Yote.

SWALI UPEO ALAMA


A INSHA 20
B UFAHAMU 15
C SARUFI NA MATUMIZI YA 40
LUGHA
D ISIMUJAMII 10
E FASIHI SIMULIZI 15
JUMLA 100

SEHEMU YA A: INSHA (ALAMA 20


1. Tunga kisa kitakachomalizikia kwa maneno yafuatayo
……………………….hadi leo jitihada zangu za kuweka kumbukumbu za tukio hilo katika
kaburi la sahau zimekuwa kama dau la mnyonge ambalo haliendi joshi. Hazifanikiwi.

102 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 1


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SEHEMU YA B: UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kasha ujibu maswali
Kamusi ya Kiswahili inafasili neno ‘dawa’ kama ‘kitu kinachopewa mtu ili apone
ugonjwa alio nao.” Neno ‘dawa’ pia hutumiwa kumaanisha kitu kinachopumbaza au kutia
sumu au kuzua tumbuizo kwa kuduwaza akili. Kwa mfano, wataalamu wamefikia uamuzi
kuwa pombe, kwa mazoea, hutuliza ubongo wenye uchovu ilihali bangi hutuliza maumivu
na kusababisha kusinzia; nayo majani ya mti unaotumiwa kutengeneza kokeini, hufisha
ganzi na kumwezesha mtu kuvumilia uchungu au uchovu.
Na je, uraibu ni nini? Uraibu ni hali ya kuzizoeza au kutumia kitu mara kwa mara hadi
kutegemea hicho ambacho mtu amekizoea. Kwa hivyo, uraibu ni mazoea ambayo mtumizi
ameshindwa kuyaacha. Hali hiyo ya uraibu huanza kwa kitendo amabacho huonekana
kana kwamba hakiwezi kamwe kumdhuru anayetumia dawa. Lakini, baada ya muda, fikira
zake huanza kuzoea hivi kwamba, hata kabla ya mwili kuanza kutegemea dawa hiyo, akili
huitarajia. Hii ni kwa sababu, punde baada ya matumizi, mtu huhisi hali ya utulivu ambao,
kwa kweli, si wa hakika bali ni kama uliotiwa chumvi kwani hasa, hamna mashiko.
Kuna aina tofauti za dawa ambazo hutumiwa vibaya na watu. Baadhi ya dawa hizo
huzua hisia za kumtia mtu chonjo isiyo ya kawaida. Zingine husababisha ulegevu ambapo
mtumizi hihisi usingizi au ‘ufu’ bada ya uti wa mgongo kuathiriwa kasha mtu akakumbwa

102 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 4


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na hali ya usahaulifu halafu asiweze kufuatiliza fikira kwa mantiki kama kawaida ya
binadamu mwenye akili razini hadi kufikia kupoteza fahamu.
Matokeo ya matumizi ya dawa zisizofaa huwa ni mtu kukumbwa na hali hiyo ambapo
anajihisi ‘akiwa juu” na hutamani mno kuendeleza hisia hizo hadi anapokuwa hajiwezi
wala kujimundu ndiposa watu huanza kumsema mtu kama huyo – kwamba amehusudu
kupindukia hali hiyo ambapo, uraibu huwa umetimia.
Dawa za kulevya zinaweza kulinganishwa na kisu kinachotumiwa jikoni. Kisu hicho kina
kazi maalum. Kazi yake ni kukata mboga kama kabeji, karoti, nyanya, vitunguu na vyakula
kama mikate na vinginevyo. Lakini kisu chicho hicho kinaweza kutumiwa kumkata shingo
binadamu! Basi hapo kitakuwa kimenajisiwa – yaani kutumiwa kwa njia isiyofaa.
Kila mara mtu anapomeza tembe au dawa yoyote yenye uwezo wa kusisimua sehemu ya
mbele ya ubongo, mtu huyo huhisi msisimuko.
Bangi, miraa, pombe (kama chang’aa, busaa, muratina, kwete, kaluvu na zinginezo) na
sigara zina mnato ambao humzuzua mtumizi hadi asiweze kujizuia na hata akapuuza
mambo mengine muhimu angalau apate hisia hizo za kusisimua. Mtu kama huyu, ingawa
anatambua kuwa anatumia dawa hizo, hatambui kamwe jinsi zinavyoathiri ubongo wake.
Na jinsi zitakavyomdhuru siku za usoni.
Baadhi ya wanaouza dawa hizo kwa vijana huwa wanahoji: “Iwapo vijana hawa ni
wajinga kufikia kiwango cha kujiruhusu kukubali kuharibiwa miili yao hivyo, basi name
nitakuwa mjinga kama wao iwapo name sitatumia ujinga huo wao kujipatia faida.”
Kwa nduli mwenye maoni kama hayo, wasia ambao tunaweza kumpa ni huu: iwapo haja
yako kuu maishani ni kujipatia faida, basi tambua kwamba hucheka kovu asiyefikwa na
jeraha. Na iwapo wewe ni mmoja wa wanaotumia dawa za kulevya na unaishi kwa
mwelekeo wa kujistarehesha kwazo, basi umo kwenye hatari kubwa ya kuwa mtumwa wa
hao wanaotafuta faida. Je, unafikiri umo duniani kwa haja ya kujitumbuiza huku ukidhuru
mwenyewe?

Matumizi mabaya ya dawa za kulevya huathiri mwili, akili na roho. Kila mtu anapaswa
kujali maslahi ya wenzake katika jumuiya anamoishi na kwa hivyo ni wajibu wa kila mtu
kudumisha desturi yenye maadili na kuepuka kutumia dawa zinazovuruga akili na
kudhoofisha mwili. Kwa kifupi, matumizi ya dawa za kulevya ni upumbavu mtupu.
Baadhi ya matokeo ya matumizi mabaya ya dawa ni hisia za pumbao la mawazo, kutojali
mambo hatari, hamu ya kula kupindukia, ulegevu, vitendo vya kihuni, wasiwasi usio na
sababu na hata wazimu. Matokeo mengine hasa ya dawa kama bangi, chang’aa, pombe na
nyingine zinapotumiwa kwa wingi ni kwamba humfanya mtu asiweze kupumua vyema
awe chonjo kuzidi kawaida, mkakamavu kuliko anavyopaswa, mwenye wasiwasi,
anayesinzia kila mara, anayehisi kutapika, anayetetemeka viungo, anayeshuku watu kuwa
102 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 5
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wananuia kumdhuru, anayetenda vitendo hatari kwake mwenyewe na kwa wenzake na
hatimaye husababisha kupoteza fahamu na hata kufariki.
Mtu anapokolewa na dawa mwilini, tabia zake hudhihirisha kuchanganyikiwa akili,
kutotambua baina ya hali halisi na hali inayotokana na fikira potofu, kutotambua wakati na
kutojali lolote.

Maswali
(a) Teua anwani mwafaka kwa taarifa hii. (alama 2)

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(b) Taja matokeo ya matumizi mabaya ya dawa za kulevya kwa mujibu wa kifungu hiki.
(alama 4)

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© Eleza vile walanguzi wa dawa za kulevya wanavyohalalisha vitendo vyao. (alama 2)

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(d) taja dalili za kuthibitisha kuwa utumiaji wa dawa za kulevya amezidiwa na kiwango cha
dawa mwilini. (alama 3)

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(e) Eleza maana ya maneno haya kama yalivyotumiwa katika kifungu. (alama 4)

(i) Duwaza

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(ii) Fisha ganzi

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(iii) Razini

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(iv) Mnato

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SEHEMU C: SARUFI NA MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)

1. Andika sauti ambazo zina sifa zifuatazo. (alama 3)

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(i) Irabu ya mbele juu
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(ii) Kiyeyusho cha mdomo
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(iii) Nazali ya ufizi

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2. Huku ukitoa mfano eleza maana ya sauti mwambatano (alama 2)

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3. Eleza miundo miwili ya ngeli ya U – ZI (alama 2)

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4. Kanusha sentensi ifuatayo.(alama 2)

Nimemshukuru kwa kazi yake nzuri.

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5. Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa njia ya mstari. (alama 2)

Sisi tutampata katika msitu.

6. Huku ukitoa mifano eleza matumizi ya viakifishi vifuatavyo. (alama 2)

(i) Kistari kifupi.

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(ii) Kituo

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7. Tumia ‘O’ rejeshi tamati katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 2)

Mwanafunzi ambaye hukosea mwalimu huadhibiwa.

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8. Andika kwa ukubwa wingi. (alama 2)

Mji wetu umerembwa ukarembeka.

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9. Tunga sentensi ukitumia kivumishi cha sifa pamoja na nomino katika ngeli ya A- WA.
(alama 2)

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10. Eleza maana ya: (alama 2)

(i) silabi

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(ii) silabi funge

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11. Yakinisha. (alama 2)

Mvua isiponyesha mimea haitanawiri.

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12. Bainisha viambishi awali na tamati katika neno: (alama 2)

Tuliwapigia

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13. Bainisha matumizi ya neno vizuri katika sentensi.

102 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 10


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(i) Vitabu vizuri vimenunuliwa. ----------------------------------------------------------------------------
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(ii) Anafanya kazi yake vizuri. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------


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(iii) Vizuri vitanunuliwa na mwalimu. --------------------------------------------------------------------


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14. Weka shadda kwenye neno lifuatalo ili kubainisha maana kwenye mabano. (alama 2)

(i) Ala (kifaa/zana)

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(ii) Ala (kihusishi)

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15. Sahihisha kwa njia tatu. (alama 3)

Mahali huku penu mna siafu.

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16. Tunga sentensi moja ili kubainisha maana ya vitate. (alama 2)

(i) Kiza:

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(ii) Kisa

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17. Unganisha (alama 2)

(i) Kamau hali wali.


(ii) Kamau hali pure

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18. Ainisha vihusishi katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 2)

Mimi niliwasili mapema kuliko wengine.

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19. Chanda ni kwa kidole ilhali konde ni kwa -------------------------------------------------------------


----------- (alama 1)

SEHEMU YA D: ISIMUJAMII (ALAMA 10)

1(a) Sajili au rejista ni nini katika isimujamii? (alama 2)

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(b) Taja kaida zozote tatu za matumizi ya lugha. (alama 3)

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2. X: Mmoja wenu afute ubao ili kipindi hiki king’oe nanga.
Y: Tafadhali……… naomba niulize swali kabla ya kuanzisha mada ya leo.
X: Uliza

(a) Tambua sajili ya makala uliyopewa. (alama 1)

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(b) Taja sifa za sajili uliyotaja (alama 4)

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102 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 13


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SEHEMU YA E: FASIHI SIMULIZI (ALAMA 15)

1(a) Eleza maana ya ngano. (alama 2)

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(b) Ngano zina umuhimu gani katika jamii?(alama 5)

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2. Fafanua vipera vifuatavyo vya hadithi. (alama 2)

(i) Hekaya:------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
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(ii) Hurafa:-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
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3. Taja vipera viwili vya ushairi simulizi. (alama 2)

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4(a) Eleza aina mbili za hadhira katika fasihi simulizi. (alama 2)

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(b) Eleza sifa za mtambaji bora. (alama 2)

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102 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 15


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Name: …………………………………………………………… Adm No: ………………………………

School: …………………………………………………………. Candidate’s Sign: …………………….

Date: ………………………………………………………….

BIOLOGY
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:-

• Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided.


• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
• Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used
• All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

For Examiner’s Use Only:

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1-16 100 MARKS

231 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 1


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1. Biology is derived from two Greek words bios and logos. What is the meaning of

Bios (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Logos (1mk)
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2. List three main branches of biology and for each give its definition (6mks)

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3. Describe six characteristics observed among living organisms (12mks)

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4. Identify the following apparatus and for each state the function (6mks

(a)

Name
231 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 2
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Function
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(b)
Name
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Function
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(c)
Name
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Function
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. Outline the four precautions to be observed during collection and observations of organisms
during practical study. (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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6. The diagram below shows an instrument used in the laboratory

(a) Name the instrument (1mk)


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(b) Label the parts (3mks)
X

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Y

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Z
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(c) What is the function of the instrument?

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(d) The student observed the housefly whose actual length was 8cm. she used the apparatus
named above 6(a) above and the total magnification was X4. Calculate the length of the
drawing. Show your working. (3mks)

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7. (a) What is classification? (1mk)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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(b) What is the need for classification? (4mks)

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8. Fill the table below by identifying the correct kingdom and appropriate representative in each
case (5mks)

Kingdom representative
a) Hydra
b) Protozoa
c) Yeast
d) Monera
e) Garden pea
9.
a) Distinguish between magnification and resolution (2mks)

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b) Fill the table below (3mks)

Eye-piece lens Objective lens Total magnification

X30 (i) ………………………………. X600

X14 X5 (ii) ………………………………

(iii) ……………………… X40 X2000

c) Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow
The diagram represents the field of view observed under the light microscope during the
form one practical lesson.

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If the students counted 10 cells across the field of view, calculate the size of one cell in
micrometers. Show your working. (3mks)
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10. What is the importance of the following practices in biological preparation of the specimen?
i) Cutting very thin sections (1mk)

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ii) Staining the cells using common dyes (1mk)

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iii) Adding a drop of water on the cell (1mk)

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11. Distinguish between unicellular and multicellular organisms. (2mks)

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12. Identify three types of cells found in plants. (3mks)

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13. The figure shows a microscope

231 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 6


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a) Name the parts of the microscope shown below. (4mks)

A
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C
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J
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D
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b) State the functions of the parts (5mks)
B
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E
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F
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G
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H
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14. State three importance of studying biology (3mks)
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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15. For the table below, identify the cell organelle and state the appropriate function (10mks)
CELL ORGANELLE FUNCTION

a) Cell wall ……………………………………………………………

b) …………………………………… Add carbohydrates to protein and transport them in


the cell

c) Nucleus …………………………………………………………

d) Nucleolus …………………………………………………………

e) …………………………………… Protein synthesis

f) Chloroplast …………………………………………………………

g) ……………………………………… Contain lytic enzymes

h) Rough endoplasmic reticulum …………………………………………………………….

i) ……………………………………… Transport lipids

j) ……………………………………… Site for respiration

16. Name the taxonomic units of classification in order of hierarchy (7mks)

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17. (a) What is the name given to the double naming of living organisms? (1mk)

231 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 8


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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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(b) The scientific name of a cat is Felis catas. Which taxonomic group does the name Felis and
catas refer to? (2mks)

Felis
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Catas
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(c) Outline four principles used in double naming system of living organisms (4mks)

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231 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 9


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Name: …………………………………………………………… Adm No: ………………………………

School: …………………………………………………………. Candidate’s Sign: …………………….

Date: ………………………………………………………….

CHEMISTRY
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:-

• Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided.


• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
• Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used
• All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

For Examiner’s Use Only:

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1-25 80 MARKS

233 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 1


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1 [a] What is Chemistry? {1mk}
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[b] Define the following terms as used in chemistry;
{i}Matters {1mk}
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{ii}Mixture {1mk}
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2. Explain how you would distinguish a solid from a liquid {2mks}
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3 {a} what is a drug {1mk}
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{b} State two long term effects of drug abuse to the user {2mks}
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
{c} A form one student went to the school clinic and was prescribed malarial drugs to
take 2 x3
i} Explain how the student was supposed to take the drugs {2mks}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
{ii} Supposing the student took the drugs at 7.00a.m in the morning. Calculate the
other hours of the day when he is expected to take the other drugs {2mks}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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4. State three ways in which chemistry has helped improve living standards in the society
{3mks}
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5. State any four difference between luminous and non-luminous flame {4mks}
Luminous Non-luminous

6. {a} Other than Bunsen burner name two other apparatus that are used in heating
substances in the laboratory {2mks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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{b} Most of the laboratory apparatus are made of glass. Give three reasons {3mks}
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{c} Name the apparatus used to measure the following;
{i} Accurate volume of liquids {three apparatus } {3mks}

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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{ii} Amount of solid [one] apparatus {1mk}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
{iii} Temperature of boiling water [one]apparatus {1mk}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. Putting off flames not in use is one of the safety rules of laboratory to avoid injuries. List four
other safety rules applied {4mks}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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8. Draw and label a non-luminous flame {4mks}

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9. {a} Name three major parts of bursen burner {3mks}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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{b} State the functions of each of the part named in {a} above {3mks}
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10. The diagrams below are some common laboratory apparatus. Name each apparatus and
state its use
{8mks}
APPARATUS NAME USE

(i)

(ii)

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(iii)

(iv)

11 {a} What is a flame {1mk}


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
{b} Wooden splint W and Y were placed in different zones of a bursen burner flame. The
diagram below shows the observations that were made:

{i} State the zone of the flame that made


[a] the observation for W {2mks}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
{b} the observation for Y
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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{ii} Explain the difference between W and Y {2mks}

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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{iii} Identify the most ideal flame used in the experiment above {1mk}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. Study the set-up shown below and answer the questions that follow;’

{a} Name:
Apparatus A {3mks}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Apparatus C
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Apparatus D
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
{b} Name the method of separation shown above {1mk}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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{c} {i} Distinguish between a filtrate and residue {2mks}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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{ii} Identify them from the set-up above {2mks}
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
{d} Why is it possible to separate the mixture above using the method named in {b}
above{1mk}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. The set-up below was used to separate a mixture of liquid M and N with boiling points of
680C and 780 respectively by the use of method K

{a} Name the method K {1mk}


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

{b} Name the apparatus {5mks}

(i) A………………………………………………….........................................................

(ii) B……………………………………………………………………………………….

(iii)C………………………………………………………………………………………..

(iv) D……………………………………………………………………………………….

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(v) F………………………………………………………………………………………..

{c} State two properties of liquid M and N that makes them possible to separate by
method K shown above {2mks}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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{d} State one function of glass beads {1mk}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

{e} Which letter represent;


{i} Water outlet in apparatus C {1mk}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
{ii} Water inlet in apparatus C {1mk}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
{f} What is the effect of interchanging the water inlet and water outlet in apparatus C
{1mk}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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{g} What general name is given to the liquid collected in apparatus p {1mk}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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{h} Give an example of two liquids that can be separated by method K {1mk}
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

*******

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Name: …………………………………………………………… Adm No: ………………………………

Class: …………Candidate’s Sign: …………………….Date: ………………………………………….

PHYSICS
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:-

• Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided.


• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
• Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used
• All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

For Examiner’s Use Only:

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1-19 100 MARKS

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1. Define physics ( 1 mk )
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. The following are branches of physics.
Explain what each one of them deals with.

a) Mechanics ( 1 mk )
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b) Atomic physics ( 1 mk )

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c) Geometrical optics ( 1 mk )
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d) Waves ( 1 mk )
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3. Explain how physcics is applied in

a) Geography ( 2 mks )
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b) Home science ( 2 mks )

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4. State 3 laboratory rules a student should follow to avoid electrical shocks. ( 3 mks )
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5. State the first aid measure for each of the cases.

a) A cut from glass apparatus. ( 1 mk )

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b) When a chemical lands in the eye ( 1 mk )
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c) When an acid burns a hand ( 1 mk )


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d) An electric shock ( 1 mk )

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6. Differentiate between basic physical quantities and derived quantities. (2 mks )

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b) Give two examples of derived quantities . ( 2 mks )

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c) Fill in the table below. ( 10 mks )

Basic physical quantity S.I. Unit Symbol of unit

Electric current

luminous intensity

Time

Amount of substance

Mass

7. Determine the density in kg/m3 of a solid whose mass is 1080g and whose dimensions in cm are
length=3,width= 4 and height= 3 . ( 3 mks )

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8. Record accurately the mass indicated by the pointer in the figure below. ( 2 mks )

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9. What are the readings shown on the metre rule below. ( 5 marks )

P1 =……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
P2 =……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
P3 =……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
P4 =……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
P5 =……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. A) Define force and state its SI Units ( 2 mks )

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) State 3 effects of force on a body. ( 3 mks )

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11. When a ball bearing is dropped in water and then in glycerine . It is observed that it takes more
time to reach the bottom in glycerine.

Explain this observation. ( 3 mks )


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12. The figure below shows water drops on two surfaces.

a) glass surface smeared

b) clean glass surface with wax

Explain the difference in the shapes of the two drops of water ( 2 mks )

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. State 2 ways of reducing surface tension in liquid. ( 2 mks )

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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14. A body weighs 120N in air and 70N when submerged in water. Calculate the upthrust acting on
the body. ( 3 mks )

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15. Give a reason why weight of a body varies from one place to another. ( 1 mk )

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16. a) Define pressure and state its SI unit. ( 2 mks )
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b) State 2 factors that determine the pressure at a point in a liquid. ( 2 mks )

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c) State pascal’s principle of transmission of pressure in fluids. ( 1 mk )
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17. A brick 20 cm long, 10 cm wide and 2 cm thick has a mass of 5 kg. Determine the
a) Maximum pressure that can be exerted by the brick on a flat surface. ( 3 mks )
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Minimum pressure that can be exerted by the brick on a flat surface. ( g = 10N/kg ) ( 2 mks )
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18. The figure below shows a U-tube.

a) State what happens to the flow if the system above were put in a vacuum. ( 1 mk )

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) The density of L1 and L2 are 1.8g/cm3 and 0.8g/cm3. If h1 = 8 cm Determine h2 . ( 3 mks )

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) The density of mercury is 13,600kg/m3, Determine the pressure at a point 76 cm below the
surface of mercury. ( g = 10N/kg ) ( 3 mks )

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. The mass of a density bottle is 20.g when empty, 70g when full of water and 55g when full of
second liquid

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Calculate;

a) Mass of water ( 1 mk )

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Mass of liquid ( 1 mk )
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) Volume of water ( g w = 1 g/cm3 ( 1 mk )

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d) Density of liquid in g/cm3. ( 2 mks )

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Name: …………………………………………………………… Adm No: …………………………

School: …………………………………………………………. Candidate’s Sign : ………...............

Date: ………………………………............................................

312
GEOGRAPHY
FORM 1
TIME: 2 ¾ HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

• This paper consist of two Sections A and B.

• Answer all questions in both sections.

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1. a) i) What is Geography? (2 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
ii) Give the two Greek words from which the term Geography is derived.(2 mks)

_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
b) i) Define the term environment. (2 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
ii) Identify two type of environment. (2 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
2. a) State any three areas of study in practical geography. (3 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
b) Explain any four importance of studying geography. (8 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
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3. a) For each of the following statements, identify the subject which is applied.
i) Identifying the types of rocks in the earth’s crust. (1 mk)
_________________________________________________________________________________
ii) Studying atmospheric conditions of an area. (1 mk)
_________________________________________________________________________________
iii) Study of solar energy. (1 mk)

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_________________________________________________________________________________
iv) Calculation of areas, distance and densities in geography. (1 mk)
_________________________________________________________________________________
b) i) What is orbit? (1 mk)
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
ii) With the aid of a diagram show the order of the planets based on their
distance from the sun. (8 mks)

4. a) i) Give the specific shape of the earth. (1 mk)


_________________________________________________________________________________
ii) Name three forces responsible for the shape of the earth. (3 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
b) State four reasons why the earth is believed to be spherical in shape. (4mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

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_________________________________________________________________________________
5. a) One of the theories used to explain the origin of the solar system is the passing star theory.
Give three weaknesses of this theory. (3 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
b) List down three effects of the earth’s revolution. (3 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
6. a) With the aid of a well labeled diagram, describe the occurrence of a solar eclipse. (6
mks)

b) Give two differences between solar eclipse and lunar eclipse. (4 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

7. a) Give the specific dates of the year when overhead position of the midday sun is on
the following latitudes.
i) Tropic of cancer (1 mk)
________________________________________________________________________________
ii) Tropic of Capricorn (1 mk)
________________________________________________________________________________

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iii) Equator (1 mk)
________________________________________________________________________________
b) If the local time in Sydney (600W) is 7.30 a.m. What time is it at Wajir (400E)?(4 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

8. a) Name three minerals that makes up the earth’s crust. (3 mks)


_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
b) State three characteristics of the mantle. (3 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
9. a) List down any four elements of weather. (4 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
b) State four factors that determine the amount of solar radiation reaching the earth’s
surface. (4 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

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_________________________________________________________________________________

10. a) Give the purpose for each of the following items in a weather station.
i) Stevenson screen (1 mk)
_________________________________________________________________________________
ii) Hygrometer (1 mk)
_________________________________________________________________________________
iii) Barometer (1mk)
_________________________________________________________________________________
b) Name four main zones/layers of the atmosphere. (4 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
11. a) With the aid of a well labeled diagram describe the formation of relief rainfall.
(7 mks)

b) i) Name three high clouds. (3 mks)

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_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
ii) Highlight four significance of weather forecasting. (4 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
END

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NAME: ……………………………………………………………. ADM NO: ..…..…...

311

HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT

TIME : 2 HOURS

FORM ONE

MID TERM 2 EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE

1. Write your name and your admission number in the spaces provided above.

2. The paper consists of three sections; A, B and C.

3. Answer all the questions in all the sections in the spaces provided after each question.

4. Candidates should answer the questions in English.

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SECTION A

Answer all the questions in this section

1. State one unwritten source of history and government (1 mk )

2. Name one method of dating used by archaeologists (1 mk )

3. Name two archaeological sites in Tanzania (1 mk )

4. Give two species of Homo Sapiens (2 mks )

5. Identify the person who put forward the evolution theory (1 mk )

6. Name two tools made by early man (2 mk )

7. State one theory that explains the theory of origin of Agriculture (1 mk )

8. Name one river that was used in Mesopotamia for irrigation. (1 mk )

9. Identify two methods of irrigation used in Egypt (2 mk )

10. Name the person who invented the steel plough (1 mk )

11. List one economic activity of the Luo (1 mk )

12. Give two sub – groups of the highland Nilotes (2 mk )

13. Identify the cultural practices borrowed by Agikuyu from the Cushites (2 mk )

14. Other than the Arabs, name two other early visitors to Kenyan coast (2 mk )

15. Name two early missionaries who came to Kenya in 1844 (2 mk )

16. Name two county members of parliament (2 mk )

17. Name one arm of government in Kenya (1 mk )

2
SECTION B

Answer all the questions in this section.

18. (a) State five methods used by archaeologists to locate archaeological sites (5 mks)

(b) Explain five economic practices of Homo Sapiens Sapiens (10 mks)

19. (a) Name three crops grown in Mesopotamia (3 mks)

(b) Explain six factors that led to the early agriculture in Mesopotamia (12 mks)

20. (a). Sate three ways in which the Abagusii and the Kipsigis interacted during the pre-

colonial period. (3 mks)

20.(b). Explain six factors that led to the migration of western Bantus in to Kenya. (12 mks)

SECTION C

Answer all the questions in this section.

21. (a) State five reasons for the coming of Arabs to the East coast of Africa (5 mks)

(b) Explain five reasons for the decline of Portuguese rule along the coast (10 mks)

22. (a) Mention three values of a good citizen. (3 mks)

(b) Explain six rights and freedoms of citizens (12 mks)

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3
Name…………………………………………………….. Adm No……………………………
Class: …….……………………………………………… Candidate’s Sign: ………………..
Date: ……………………………………………………...

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION


FORM 1
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

• This paper consist of six questions


• Answer any five questions from in the answer booklet provided.

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

MARKS

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1. a) Explain 7 reasons why Christian religious education is taught in Kenyan secondary
schools. (7mks)
b) Identify the national goals of education achieved through the study of CRE(6mks)
c) State the ways in which God speaks to us today. (7mks)

2. a) Explain 6 reasons why the bible is referred to as the word of God (6mks)
b) Write down 7 prophetic books in the Old Testament (7mks)
c) Give reasons why Christians should read the bible (7mks)

3. a) State 6 similarities in the biblical stories of creation in Gen 1 & 2 (6mks)


b) Discuss the attributes of God from the two creation accounts. (8mks)
c) Why is man superior to other creatures of God? (6mks)

4 a) From Gen 3 – 11 explain the consequences of sin. (7mks)


b) Explain the 4 differences between the African view of evil and the biblical concept of sin.
(8mks)
c) What are the causes of evil in the traditional African society (5mks)

5 a) Describe the background to the call of Abraham (7mks)


b) Identify 8 promises that God gave to Abraham (8mks)
c) Give the lessons that Christians learn from the call of Abraham. (5mks)

6. a) List down 6 characteristics of a covenant (6mks)


b) Explain the importance of circumcision to Abraham and his descendants. (7mks)
c) Write down the reasons why Christians condemn traditional female circumcision in
Kenya today.
(7mks)

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Name: …………………………………………………………… Adm No: ………………………………

Class: ……………………………………………………………. Candidate’s Sign: …………………….

Date: ………………………………………………………….

BUSINESS STUDIES
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
• Write your name and Admission Number in the spaces provided.
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.

For Examiner’s Use Only:

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1-25 100 MARKS

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1. Define the following terms as used in Business studies.
a) Business. (2mks)

b) Goods. (2mks)

c) Production. (2mks)

d) Services. (2mks)

e) Business studies. (2mks)

2. List four types of Business activities. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)

3. Outline four characteristics of Human Wants. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)

4. List four types of utilities. (4mks)

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a)
b)
c)
d)

5. Give components of Business studies. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)

6. Highlight four reasons for starting a business. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)

7. State four characteristics of Basic Human Wants. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)

8. Outline four characteristics of direct production. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)

9. State four benefits of studying business studies to a individual. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)

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d)

10. State four elements of internal business environment. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)
11. List four characteristics of goods. (4mks)
a)
b)
c)
d)

12. Outline four activities that one would engage in at primary level of production. (4mks)
a)
b)
c)
d)

13. State four elements of external Business environment. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)

14. State four characteristics of economic resources. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)

15. List four factors of production. (4mks)


a)

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b)
c)
d)

16. List four types of business resources. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)

17. Give four characteristics of services. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)

18. State four characteristics of land as a factor of production. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)

19. Outline four ways of maintaining a Healthy Business environment. (4mks)


a)
b)
c)
d)

20. With an appropriate example, differentiate between renewable and Non-renewable resources.
(4mks)

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21. Classify each of the following activities into its appropriate level of production. (4mks)

a) Harvesting maize_________________________________________________________________

b) Oil refining _____________________________________________________________________

c) Advertising _____________________________________________________________________

d) Fishing_________________________________________________________________________

22. Differentiate between:


a) Producer and consumer goods.

b) Perishable goods and durable goods.

23. List four functions of an entrepreneur. (4mks)

a)

b)

c)

d)

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24. Define specialization as used in business. (2mks)

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Name: …………………………………………………………… Adm No: ………………………………

Class: …………Candidate’s Sign: …………………….Date: ………………………………………….

AGRICULTURE
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
• Write your name and Index number and sign in the spaces provided above.
• Answer ALL the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided in this booklet.
• Answer any two questions in section C in the spaces provided after the last question.

For Examiner’s Use Only:

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE


A 1-14 30
B 15-17 20
C 18- 20 40
TOTAL 90

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SECTION A (30marks).
Answer all Questions in this section.
1. Agriculture is derived from two Latin terms state them and explain their meaning. (4mks)
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2. Define the term Agriculture. (1mk)
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3. State four factors that make agriculture an art subject. (4mks)
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4. Name three reasons why students should learn agriculture subject in schools. (3mks)
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5. State the meaning of the following terms as used in agricultural production. (5mks)
i) Soil science
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ii) Entomology
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iii) Crop pathology
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iv) Apiculture
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v) Aquaculture
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6. State four branches of agriculture. (4mks)
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7. Name four animals that are categorized as mammalian livestock. (4mks)
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8. State the difference between plantation farming and ranching. (2mks)
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9. List three methods a farmer can use to practice farming in Kenya. (3mks)
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10. State two advantages of practicing agroforestry in a farm. (2mks)
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11. State four factors that influence agriculture farming in Kenya. (4mks)
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12. Name two ways through which HIV/AIDS affect agriculture negatively. (2mks)

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13. Name two effects of wind on crop production. (2mks)
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SECTION B (20 MARKS)
Answer all questions in B.
14. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.

a) Identify the soil layers A, X, Y, Z, J in the diagram above. (5mks)


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b) Define the term soil profile. (1mk)
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c) State the name given to the zone found between any two bordering soil layers. (1mk)

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d) State five components that make up soil. (5mks)
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5. Study the diagrams below and answer the questions that follow.

M L

a) Identify the diagram K, L, M above. (3mks)


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b) State two reasons why soil structure K is not good for crop production. (2mks)
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16. Identify the farm tools and equipment shown below. (3mks)

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SECTION C (40 marks)


Answer only two questions in this section
17. a) State and explain five roles of agriculture in Kenyan economy today. (10mks)
b) State and explain five biotic factors that affect agricultural farming. (10mks)

18 a) Explain four aspects of rainfall that influence crop production. (8mks)


b) Explain four factors influencing soil formation. (8mks)
c) Name four effects of temperature on crops. (4mks)

19 a) Explain three aspects of light that influence crop farming. (6mks)


b) List four uses of water to crops. (4mks)
c) Giving an example in each, state five categories of farm tools and equipment. (10mks)

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NAME: ………………………………………….…………………….ADMNO:………….CLASS………..

COMPUTER STUDIES
FORM 1
TIME: 2 hours
MID TERM 2 EXAM

- Answer all the questions in the spaces provided-

1. Using arrows, match the following generations of computers with the technology which they
relied on. (4 marks)
GENERATION TECHNOLOGY
First Generation VLSI
Second Generation Thermionic valves
Third Generation ICs
Fourth Generation Transistors
2. Give three advantages of the second generation computers. (3 marks)
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3. Identify three major categories of computer hardware. (3 marks)
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4. The illustrations below represent two orientations of a very important part of a desktop
computer. Study them to answer the questions below:

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B

A
(a) Name the object represented in the above images. (1 mark)
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(b) Identify the orientations represented in orientations A and B. (2 marks)
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(c) Give four components that are houses inside the object represented in the above images. (2marks)
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5) Give three reasons why a mobile phone is regarded to be a computer (2 marks)
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6. (a) Define the term ‘computer laboratory’ (2 marks)

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(b) Give two factors to be considered when preparing a computer laboratory (2 marks)

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7. a) List down three safety precautions one should observe when entering a computer laboratory
(3 marks)

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b). Identify three facilities that will ensure proper ventilation in a room. (3 marks)

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8. State three reasons for warm booting your computer. (3 marks)

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9. (a) State two reasons why a computer needs to be connected to a stable power supply2 mark)

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(b) List down three functions of the uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) (3 marks)

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10. Mention two things that are likely to cause strain- in the computer room (3 marks)

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11. (a) What is a peripheral device? (1 mark)

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(b) Give three examples of common peripheral devices. (3 marks)
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12. What is the difference between analog and digital computers? (2 marks)
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13. Give two reasons why smaller computers like laptops tend to be more expensive than desktop computers.
(2 marks)

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14. Computers are classified using three criteria namely, functionality, purpose and physical size.
In each of these classes, name and describe:
(a) Three types of computers under classification by functionality. (3 marks)
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(b) Three types of computers under classification by purpose. (3 marks)
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15. (a) Explain the meaning of the following mouse techniques:


(i) Clicking (1 mark)
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(ii) Dragging (1 mark)
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(iii) Right clicking (1 mark)


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(b) Describe three categories of keys found on the keyboard. (3 marks)
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(c) Describe the following terms as used in computers: (2 marks)
(i) Cold booting
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(ii) Warm booting
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(d) Define the following terms: (4 marks)


(i) Information
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(ii) Processing
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(iii) Input
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(iv) Data
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16. (a) i) What is a softcopy output? (1 mark)
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ii) Give four differences between an impact and non-impact printer. (4marks)
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(b) Give five differences between a CRT and flat panel screen. (5 marks)
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(c) State five reasons why one may go for a hardcopy output. (5 marks)
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17. a) What do the following acronyms mean in full: (2mks)


i) VDU
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ii) LCD

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iii) VGA

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iv) XGA.

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b). State any five factors to consider when choosing a printer. (5mks)
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c) i) Briefly define a computer bus. (2mks)
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ii) Describe three types of computer buses. (6mks)


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iii) What is a drive? (2mks)
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iv) State four types of computer drives.


(4mks)
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Name: …………………………………………………………… Adm No: …………………………

School: …………………………………………………………. Candidate’s Sign : ………...............

Date: ………………………………............................................

441
HOME SCIENCE
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

• This paper consist of two Sections A and B.

• Answer all questions in both sections.

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SECTION A
Answer all the questions in this section
1. Mention three dangers that may arise due to misuse of cosmetics. (3mrks)
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2. Name the three types of skin. (3mrks)
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3. Give three functions of teeth. (3mrks)
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4. List down any three parts of a tooth that you know. (3mrks)
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5. What is the difference between a burn and a scald? (2mrks)
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6. Mention six items found in the first aid kit. (3mrks)
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7. State three benefits of home science to an individual. (3mrks)
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8. What is manicure and pedicure? (2mrks)
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9. Explain three ways you can use to prevent athletes foot. (3mrks)
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10. Mention any two diseases associated with teeth. (2mrks)
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11. Explain how you would thoroughly clean your handkerchief. (8mrks)
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12. What are cosmetics? (2mrks)
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13. Give the meaning of the following terms:

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Accessories (2mrks)
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Adolescence (2mrks)
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SECTION B:
Answer all the questions in this section
14. List down five practices carried out in personal hygiene in order to take care of the skin.
(5mrks)
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15. State five attributes of good grooming. (5mrks)
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16. Explain four practices we should avoid in order to care for our teeth. (4mrks)
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17. Suggest four ways of preventing cuts at home. (4mrks)
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18. State four courses related to home science in which one can pursue at the university level.
(4mrks)
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19. State the function of the following parts of the skin:
a) Sebaceous glands. (2mrks)
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b) Blood capillaries. (2mrks)
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c) Nerve endings. (2mrks)
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20. Explain three factors to have in mind while choosing clothes for a slim figure. (6mrks)
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21. Describe how you would thoroughly clean your natural hair. (8mrks)

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22. Suggest three ways of preventing young children from drowning. (6mrks)
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23. Explain four points on importance of the skin to our bodies. (8mrks)
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END

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