f1 Midterm 2 Set 1 Exam
f1 Midterm 2 Set 1 Exam
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MATHEMATICS
FORM 1
Question 17 18 19 20 21 TOTAL
Marks
Grand Total
2. Find the least number of sweets that can be packed into polythene bags which
contain either 9 or 15 or 20 or 24 sweets with none left over. (3 marks)
3. Evaluate; (3 marks)
1 1 3 1
14 ÷ 3 𝑜𝑓 5 4 + 3 × 13
4
4. A water pipe has an external radius of 4.9 cm and internal radius of 3.5 cm. Find the
mass of 20 m of the pipe if it is made of material of density 10 𝑔𝑐𝑚−3. (3 marks)
𝑢𝑣
6. If 𝑓= , find 𝑓 correct to 3 d.p, given that 𝑢 = 0.5 and 𝑣 = 0.8. (3 marks)
𝑢+𝑣
7. A square has an area of 36 𝑐𝑚2 . If the perimeter of the square increases by 30%,
calculate the new perimeter. (3 marks)
8. A man is 𝑥 years old now. In 10 years’ time, he will be twice as old as he was 5 years
ago. How old will he be in 10 years’ time? (3 marks)
10. A solid block in the shape of a cylinder has a height of 14 cm and weighs 22 kg. If it
22
is made of material of density 5 𝑔𝑐𝑚−3 , find the radius of the cylinder. Take 𝜋 = 7
(3 marks)
11. Evaluate 162 × 252 by factorization leaving your answer as a product of prime
factors. (3 marks)
12. An arc PQ of a circle of radius 15 cm subtends an angle of 160° at the centre of the
circle. Find the length of the arc PQ correct to 2 significant figures.(Take 𝜋 = 3.142).
(4 marks)
b) −(−32) ÷ −4 (2 marks)
• •
14. Express the following recurring decimal as a fraction 0.1 45 3 (3 marks)
15. A church service lasted 2 hours 35 minutes. What time did it start if it ended at 12.15
p.m?
Express your answer in 24 – clock system. (3 marks)
b) In fourteen years’ time, a mother will be twice as old as her son. Four years ago,
the sum of their ages was 30 years. Find how old the mother was, when the son was
born. (4 marks)
18. The inside of a rectangular hall measures 15 m long, 9 m wide and 3 m high. There
are two doors each measuring 2 m by 2.2 m and six windows each measuring 1.5 m
by 1.5 m. The walls are to be painted.
a) Calculate the total area of the walls to be painted. (4 marks)
b) To paint an area of 2.5 𝑚2 requires one litre. If the paint is sold in 4 litre tins,
determine the number of tins of paint that should be bought. (3 marks)
b) The juice is to fill a rectangular tank whose dimensions are 1.5 𝑚 𝑏𝑦 1 𝑚 𝑏𝑦 0.5 𝑚.
Calculate the number of cylindrical containers required to fill the tank to the
nearest whole number. (3 marks)
20. Jane is a sales executive earning a salary of Ksh. 20,000 and a commission of 8% for
the sales in excess of Ksh 100,000. If in January 2010 she earned a total of Ksh.48, 000
in salaries and commissions.
a) Determine the amount of sales she made in that month (4 marks)
b) If the total sales in the month of February and March increased by 18% and then
dropped by 25% respectively. Calculate
i. Jane’s commission in the month of February (3 marks)
21. In order to start a business, three businessmen Macharia, Omondi and Kimtai
contributed Sh 25 000, Sh 35 000 and Sh 45 000 respectively as business capital. They
also had to pay Sh 15 000 more as rental fee for business premises. The rental fee
was shared equally among the partners. The three partners agreed to put 25% of the
annual profits back in the business and share the rest in the ratio of their
contributions. During the first year the business realized Sh 128 000 in gross profits.
a) Find the ratio in which they contributed business capital and rental fees.2 marks)
b) Calculate;
i. The profits shared. (2 marks)
101/1
ENGLISH
FORM 1
COMBINED PAPER
Time: 2 ½hours
Your friend in primary school is in form one in Bidii Secondary of P.O. Box 341,
Kisimani. She has written to you telling you about her new school. She has also requested
you to carry your end of term one examinations so that you compare the performance.
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3. Read the comprehension below and answer the questions that follow.
Self-esteem is the value we place on ourselves. This is what we believe and feel about
ourselves. It means that you have accepted yourself with your faults as well as your
strengths and you feel you deserve the respect of others. You have learned to build on
these strengths and to compensate for the weaknesses. What you have been unable to
change, you have learned to live with. It does not mean that you are puffed up with
self-importance and make false claims but are sincere and accept yourself as a
worthwhile individual.
Such a healthy self-respect frees one to turn their attention to others. One is tolerant to
others’ weaknesses and able to realize people’s uniqueness and potential. This
eventually helps one to escape the snares of negative peer pressure. Peer pressure refers
to the force of persuasion to adopt particular values, conform to the beliefs and goals of
a peer group. A peer group refers to age-mates who have the same outlook on life.
They have similarities in what thy like, how thy talk, the way they dress and their focus
on life issues. The group also has the same beliefs and written or unwritten rules.
A child is first exposed to peer pressure in school. It is in the class that a child meets
new friends and they spend leisure time together. This is the time that peer pressure
In this day and age, the leader does not necessarily have to be a single person. With the
current globalization through television, radio, the internet, books and magazines, peer
groups are taking on a global nature. Groups look the same in each country and
continent. If one is able to control peer pressure early enough, one will be able to cope
as an adult. The pressure is more real and impacts more vigorously in the ‘adult’ world,
when one has achieved independence. A person with high self-esteem will question the
direction of the peer group but one who has a low self-esteem will succumb and
conform to peer pressure without questioning where the group is going.
The consequences of a poor self-esteem are numerous: It limits your capacity to love
and accept others. This is because if we do not feel worthwhile at the very core of our
beings, we cannot like or respect others. Low self-esteem may encourage one to engage
in sex as a way of seeking affection. This, of course, leads to other complications like
unwanted pregnancies, sexually transmitted infections, the deadly HIV/AIDs, cervical
cancer and even the use of pornography. Self-dislike tends to make people highly
sensitive to blame and praise. This is because the way one accepts compliments
indicates how much respect one has for oneself. Feelings of inferiority evidence
themselves in day-dreaming. Day-dreaming is an effort to escape reality.
Unfortunately, the more one daydreams, the worse one feels about oneself. This low
opinion decreases efficiency at school or work. The grades will be affected as one lacks
confidence to do what one is engaged in.
A low self-concept also influences one’s choice of friends and a marital partner. It even
affects couples’ sex life in marriage due to a preoccupation with their physical
appearances. One who is dissatisfied with their bodies cannot understand how anyone
else could find them attractive. This eventually hinders him/her from forming genuine
relationships, which require one to forget about self and concentrate on the needs of
others.
Low self-esteem will hinder one’s spiritual growth and divert their attention to false
goals. If one feels they are worthless in certain areas, they may try to gain acceptance by
achieving goals that will bring acceptance and approval of others. Real achievements
involve developing good character traits. Good inward qualities show up in actions.
Some of these actions will be an ability to build a healthy relationship and trust in God
to keep one focused in life.
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3. Where does a child first experience peer-pressure? (2 mks)
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5. What difference is there between someone with low self-esteem and someone with
high self-esteem? (2 mks)
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(ii) Marriage –
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(iii) Spiritual growth –
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8. Identify the statement which indicates that a peer-group can be led by more than one
person.
(1 mk)
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9. Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the passage. (3 mks)
(a) Peer pressure –
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(b) Day-dreaming –
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(c) Hinders –
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(i) Choose the correct forms for each of the following words given in brackets. (3 mks)
(a) Jack and James …………………… (is, are) over the hill.
(c) Susan is one of the singers who ………………….. (is, are) always off key.
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(iii) Write the past tense forms of each of the verbs in brackets in the following
sentences.
(4 mks)
(v) Choose the correct word from the choices given to complete the given sentences.
5. POEM
Read the poem below and answer the questions based on it. (10 mks)
by Pius Oleghe
Questions
1. Give evidence in stanza one that shows that a storm is approaching. (3 mks)
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6. ORAL LITERATURE
Read the following riddling process and answer the questions based on it.
RESPONDENT: ……………………………………………………………………..
RESPONDENT: ……………………………………………………………………..
CHALLENGER: Wrong
RESPONDENT: ………………………………………………………………………
RESPONDENT: ………………………………………………………………………
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(i) In the following sets of words, identify the underlined speech sound that is odd
from the rest and write it down. (5 mks)
(ii) For each of the following words, write a word that is pronounced the same way.
(5 mks)
TAREHE:------------------------------------------------------NAMBARI:----------------------------------
102
KISWAHILI
KIDATO CHA KWANZA
MUDA: SAA 2 ½
Matumizi mabaya ya dawa za kulevya huathiri mwili, akili na roho. Kila mtu anapaswa
kujali maslahi ya wenzake katika jumuiya anamoishi na kwa hivyo ni wajibu wa kila mtu
kudumisha desturi yenye maadili na kuepuka kutumia dawa zinazovuruga akili na
kudhoofisha mwili. Kwa kifupi, matumizi ya dawa za kulevya ni upumbavu mtupu.
Baadhi ya matokeo ya matumizi mabaya ya dawa ni hisia za pumbao la mawazo, kutojali
mambo hatari, hamu ya kula kupindukia, ulegevu, vitendo vya kihuni, wasiwasi usio na
sababu na hata wazimu. Matokeo mengine hasa ya dawa kama bangi, chang’aa, pombe na
nyingine zinapotumiwa kwa wingi ni kwamba humfanya mtu asiweze kupumua vyema
awe chonjo kuzidi kawaida, mkakamavu kuliko anavyopaswa, mwenye wasiwasi,
anayesinzia kila mara, anayehisi kutapika, anayetetemeka viungo, anayeshuku watu kuwa
102 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 5
Contact Kenya Educators 0795491185/0768321553 for Marking Schemes
wananuia kumdhuru, anayetenda vitendo hatari kwake mwenyewe na kwa wenzake na
hatimaye husababisha kupoteza fahamu na hata kufariki.
Mtu anapokolewa na dawa mwilini, tabia zake hudhihirisha kuchanganyikiwa akili,
kutotambua baina ya hali halisi na hali inayotokana na fikira potofu, kutotambua wakati na
kutojali lolote.
Maswali
(a) Teua anwani mwafaka kwa taarifa hii. (alama 2)
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(b) Taja matokeo ya matumizi mabaya ya dawa za kulevya kwa mujibu wa kifungu hiki.
(alama 4)
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© Eleza vile walanguzi wa dawa za kulevya wanavyohalalisha vitendo vyao. (alama 2)
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(d) taja dalili za kuthibitisha kuwa utumiaji wa dawa za kulevya amezidiwa na kiwango cha
dawa mwilini. (alama 3)
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(e) Eleza maana ya maneno haya kama yalivyotumiwa katika kifungu. (alama 4)
(i) Duwaza
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(ii) Fisha ganzi
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(iii) Razini
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(iv) Mnato
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2. Huku ukitoa mfano eleza maana ya sauti mwambatano (alama 2)
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4. Kanusha sentensi ifuatayo.(alama 2)
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(ii) Kituo
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7. Tumia ‘O’ rejeshi tamati katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 2)
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8. Andika kwa ukubwa wingi. (alama 2)
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10. Eleza maana ya: (alama 2)
(i) silabi
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(ii) silabi funge
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12. Bainisha viambishi awali na tamati katika neno: (alama 2)
Tuliwapigia
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13. Bainisha matumizi ya neno vizuri katika sentensi.
14. Weka shadda kwenye neno lifuatalo ili kubainisha maana kwenye mabano. (alama 2)
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(ii) Ala (kihusishi)
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16. Tunga sentensi moja ili kubainisha maana ya vitate. (alama 2)
(i) Kiza:
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(ii) Kisa
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18. Ainisha vihusishi katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 2)
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2. X: Mmoja wenu afute ubao ili kipindi hiki king’oe nanga.
Y: Tafadhali……… naomba niulize swali kabla ya kuanzisha mada ya leo.
X: Uliza
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(b) Taja sifa za sajili uliyotaja (alama 4)
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(b) Ngano zina umuhimu gani katika jamii?(alama 5)
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(i) Hekaya:------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
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4(a) Eleza aina mbili za hadhira katika fasihi simulizi. (alama 2)
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(b) Eleza sifa za mtambaji bora. (alama 2)
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Date: ………………………………………………………….
BIOLOGY
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM
Bios (1mk)
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Logos (1mk)
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2. List three main branches of biology and for each give its definition (6mks)
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3. Describe six characteristics observed among living organisms (12mks)
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4. Identify the following apparatus and for each state the function (6mks
(a)
Name
231 ©2022 Mid Term 2 Exams Page 2
Contact Kenya Educators 0795491185/0768321553 for Marking Schemes
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Function
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(b)
Name
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Function
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(c)
Name
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Function
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5. Outline the four precautions to be observed during collection and observations of organisms
during practical study. (4mks)
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(c) What is the function of the instrument?
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(d) The student observed the housefly whose actual length was 8cm. she used the apparatus
named above 6(a) above and the total magnification was X4. Calculate the length of the
drawing. Show your working. (3mks)
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7. (a) What is classification? (1mk)
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8. Fill the table below by identifying the correct kingdom and appropriate representative in each
case (5mks)
Kingdom representative
a) Hydra
b) Protozoa
c) Yeast
d) Monera
e) Garden pea
9.
a) Distinguish between magnification and resolution (2mks)
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b) Fill the table below (3mks)
c) Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow
The diagram represents the field of view observed under the light microscope during the
form one practical lesson.
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ii) Staining the cells using common dyes (1mk)
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iii) Adding a drop of water on the cell (1mk)
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11. Distinguish between unicellular and multicellular organisms. (2mks)
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12. Identify three types of cells found in plants. (3mks)
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13. The figure shows a microscope
A
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C
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D
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b) State the functions of the parts (5mks)
B
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14. State three importance of studying biology (3mks)
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c) Nucleus …………………………………………………………
d) Nucleolus …………………………………………………………
f) Chloroplast …………………………………………………………
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17. (a) What is the name given to the double naming of living organisms? (1mk)
Felis
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Catas
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(c) Outline four principles used in double naming system of living organisms (4mks)
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Date: ………………………………………………………….
CHEMISTRY
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM
1-25 80 MARKS
4. State three ways in which chemistry has helped improve living standards in the society
{3mks}
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5. State any four difference between luminous and non-luminous flame {4mks}
Luminous Non-luminous
6. {a} Other than Bunsen burner name two other apparatus that are used in heating
substances in the laboratory {2mks]
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{b} Most of the laboratory apparatus are made of glass. Give three reasons {3mks}
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{c} Name the apparatus used to measure the following;
{i} Accurate volume of liquids {three apparatus } {3mks}
(i)
(ii)
(iv)
{a} Name:
Apparatus A {3mks}
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Apparatus C
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Apparatus D
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{b} Name the method of separation shown above {1mk}
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{c} {i} Distinguish between a filtrate and residue {2mks}
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{ii} Identify them from the set-up above {2mks}
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{c} State two properties of liquid M and N that makes them possible to separate by
method K shown above {2mks}
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{d} State one function of glass beads {1mk}
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PHYSICS
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM
a) Mechanics ( 1 mk )
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b) Atomic physics ( 1 mk )
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c) Geometrical optics ( 1 mk )
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d) Waves ( 1 mk )
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3. Explain how physcics is applied in
a) Geography ( 2 mks )
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b) Home science ( 2 mks )
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b) When a chemical lands in the eye ( 1 mk )
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d) An electric shock ( 1 mk )
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6. Differentiate between basic physical quantities and derived quantities. (2 mks )
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c) Fill in the table below. ( 10 mks )
Electric current
luminous intensity
Time
Amount of substance
Mass
7. Determine the density in kg/m3 of a solid whose mass is 1080g and whose dimensions in cm are
length=3,width= 4 and height= 3 . ( 3 mks )
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8. Record accurately the mass indicated by the pointer in the figure below. ( 2 mks )
P1 =……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
P2 =……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
P3 =……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
P4 =……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
P5 =……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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11. When a ball bearing is dropped in water and then in glycerine . It is observed that it takes more
time to reach the bottom in glycerine.
Explain the difference in the shapes of the two drops of water ( 2 mks )
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13. State 2 ways of reducing surface tension in liquid. ( 2 mks )
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15. Give a reason why weight of a body varies from one place to another. ( 1 mk )
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16. a) Define pressure and state its SI unit. ( 2 mks )
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b) State 2 factors that determine the pressure at a point in a liquid. ( 2 mks )
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c) State pascal’s principle of transmission of pressure in fluids. ( 1 mk )
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17. A brick 20 cm long, 10 cm wide and 2 cm thick has a mass of 5 kg. Determine the
a) Maximum pressure that can be exerted by the brick on a flat surface. ( 3 mks )
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a) State what happens to the flow if the system above were put in a vacuum. ( 1 mk )
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b) The density of L1 and L2 are 1.8g/cm3 and 0.8g/cm3. If h1 = 8 cm Determine h2 . ( 3 mks )
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c) The density of mercury is 13,600kg/m3, Determine the pressure at a point 76 cm below the
surface of mercury. ( g = 10N/kg ) ( 3 mks )
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19. The mass of a density bottle is 20.g when empty, 70g when full of water and 55g when full of
second liquid
a) Mass of water ( 1 mk )
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b) Mass of liquid ( 1 mk )
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d) Density of liquid in g/cm3. ( 2 mks )
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Date: ………………………………............................................
312
GEOGRAPHY
FORM 1
TIME: 2 ¾ HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
b) i) Define the term environment. (2 mks)
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ii) Identify two type of environment. (2 mks)
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2. a) State any three areas of study in practical geography. (3 mks)
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b) Explain any four importance of studying geography. (8 mks)
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3. a) For each of the following statements, identify the subject which is applied.
i) Identifying the types of rocks in the earth’s crust. (1 mk)
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ii) Studying atmospheric conditions of an area. (1 mk)
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iii) Study of solar energy. (1 mk)
b) Give two differences between solar eclipse and lunar eclipse. (4 mks)
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7. a) Give the specific dates of the year when overhead position of the midday sun is on
the following latitudes.
i) Tropic of cancer (1 mk)
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ii) Tropic of Capricorn (1 mk)
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10. a) Give the purpose for each of the following items in a weather station.
i) Stevenson screen (1 mk)
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ii) Hygrometer (1 mk)
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iii) Barometer (1mk)
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b) Name four main zones/layers of the atmosphere. (4 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
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11. a) With the aid of a well labeled diagram describe the formation of relief rainfall.
(7 mks)
311
TIME : 2 HOURS
FORM ONE
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1. Write your name and your admission number in the spaces provided above.
3. Answer all the questions in all the sections in the spaces provided after each question.
13. Identify the cultural practices borrowed by Agikuyu from the Cushites (2 mk )
14. Other than the Arabs, name two other early visitors to Kenyan coast (2 mk )
2
SECTION B
18. (a) State five methods used by archaeologists to locate archaeological sites (5 mks)
(b) Explain five economic practices of Homo Sapiens Sapiens (10 mks)
(b) Explain six factors that led to the early agriculture in Mesopotamia (12 mks)
20. (a). Sate three ways in which the Abagusii and the Kipsigis interacted during the pre-
20.(b). Explain six factors that led to the migration of western Bantus in to Kenya. (12 mks)
SECTION C
21. (a) State five reasons for the coming of Arabs to the East coast of Africa (5 mks)
(b) Explain five reasons for the decline of Portuguese rule along the coast (10 mks)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL
MARKS
2. a) Explain 6 reasons why the bible is referred to as the word of God (6mks)
b) Write down 7 prophetic books in the Old Testament (7mks)
c) Give reasons why Christians should read the bible (7mks)
Date: ………………………………………………………….
BUSINESS STUDIES
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
• Write your name and Admission Number in the spaces provided.
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
b) Goods. (2mks)
c) Production. (2mks)
d) Services. (2mks)
12. Outline four activities that one would engage in at primary level of production. (4mks)
a)
b)
c)
d)
20. With an appropriate example, differentiate between renewable and Non-renewable resources.
(4mks)
a) Harvesting maize_________________________________________________________________
c) Advertising _____________________________________________________________________
d) Fishing_________________________________________________________________________
a)
b)
c)
d)
AGRICULTURE
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
• Write your name and Index number and sign in the spaces provided above.
• Answer ALL the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided in this booklet.
• Answer any two questions in section C in the spaces provided after the last question.
M L
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COMPUTER STUDIES
FORM 1
TIME: 2 hours
MID TERM 2 EXAM
1. Using arrows, match the following generations of computers with the technology which they
relied on. (4 marks)
GENERATION TECHNOLOGY
First Generation VLSI
Second Generation Thermionic valves
Third Generation ICs
Fourth Generation Transistors
2. Give three advantages of the second generation computers. (3 marks)
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3. Identify three major categories of computer hardware. (3 marks)
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4. The illustrations below represent two orientations of a very important part of a desktop
computer. Study them to answer the questions below:
A
(a) Name the object represented in the above images. (1 mark)
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(b) Identify the orientations represented in orientations A and B. (2 marks)
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(c) Give four components that are houses inside the object represented in the above images. (2marks)
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5) Give three reasons why a mobile phone is regarded to be a computer (2 marks)
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6. (a) Define the term ‘computer laboratory’ (2 marks)
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(b) Give two factors to be considered when preparing a computer laboratory (2 marks)
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7. a) List down three safety precautions one should observe when entering a computer laboratory
(3 marks)
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b). Identify three facilities that will ensure proper ventilation in a room. (3 marks)
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8. State three reasons for warm booting your computer. (3 marks)
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9. (a) State two reasons why a computer needs to be connected to a stable power supply2 mark)
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(b) List down three functions of the uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) (3 marks)
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10. Mention two things that are likely to cause strain- in the computer room (3 marks)
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11. (a) What is a peripheral device? (1 mark)
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(b) Give three examples of common peripheral devices. (3 marks)
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12. What is the difference between analog and digital computers? (2 marks)
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14. Computers are classified using three criteria namely, functionality, purpose and physical size.
In each of these classes, name and describe:
(a) Three types of computers under classification by functionality. (3 marks)
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(b) Three types of computers under classification by purpose. (3 marks)
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iii) VGA
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iv) XGA.
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b). State any five factors to consider when choosing a printer. (5mks)
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c) i) Briefly define a computer bus. (2mks)
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Date: ………………………………............................................
441
HOME SCIENCE
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
MID TERM 2 EXAM
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES: