Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
REGION III
SCHOOLS DIVISION OF PAMPANGA

DIVISION POSTTEST in SCIENCE 7

School Year 2024-2025

Instructions: Read each item carefully. Choose the most appropriate option for each of the questions
given. Write its corresponding letter on the answer sheet.

1. According to the Particle Model of Matter, what is matter made up of?

A. Solid blocks C. Waves of energy
B. Tiny particles D. Continuous material with no gaps

2. Why do solids possess hardness and rigidity?

A. This is due to the easy flow of particles in solids.
B. This is because the particles in solids are closely packed.
C. This is because the particles in solids can slide past each other.
D. This is because the particles in solids have freedom of movement.
3. Jhon put the butter out of the fridge and put it in the pan. What phase change will butter undergo?
A. Liquid to solid C. Solid to liquid
B. Solid to gas D. Solid to solid
4. Which of the following statements accurately describes the characteristics of particles in solids,
liquids, and gases?
A. Gases have definite a definite volume. C. Solids take the form of their container.
B. Liquid particles are far from each other. D. Solids have definite shapes and volumes.
5. The two components of a solution are solute and solvent. Which statement describes the solute?
A. It is the solid formed in the solution.
B. It is the liquid component of the solution.
C. It is the component of a solution in bigger quantity.
D. It is the component of a solution in smaller quantity.
6. Why is it important to have a detailed method or procedure in a scientific investigation?
A. To confuse other scientists
B. To reduce the need for materials
C. To ensure the experiment can be replicated
D. To make the investigation more complicated
7. What skill is a scientist using when he/she listens to the sounds that whales make?
A. Interpreting Data C. Making a hypothesis
B. Drawing conclusions D. Making an observation
 8. Leah put a teaspoon of coffee in a glass of hot water. She mentioned that “hot water
dissolved the coffee granules.” How would you describe the statement?
A. A problem C. A conclusion
B. A prediction D. A procedure
9. What term describes a solution if it contains as much dissolved solute as it can hold under
a given set of conditions?
A. Saturated C. Concentrated
B. Unsaturated D. Supersaturated
10. Which standard unit would you use to measure the volume of a liquid in a beaker?
A. Grams C. Meters
B. Liters D. Seconds
11. A piece of jewelry is made up of 18K. It means that the jewelry is made up of
.
A. 9 parts are made up of gold and 9 parts are copper.
B. 18 parts are made up of gold and 6 parts are copper.
C. 18 parts are made up of copper and 6 parts are gold.
D. 18 parts of the jewelry are made up of the finest gold suited for the purpose.
12. Which of the following materials contains acidic mixtures?
A. Shampoo C. Chlorinated water
B. Fruit drinks D. Detergent powder
13. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning acids and bases?
A. Acids mixed with bases make stronger acids
B. Acids and bases do not react with each other
C. Acids mixed with bases neutralize each other
D. Acids mixed with bases make stronger bases
14. Which of the following organelles is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?
A. Nucleus C. Ribosomes
B. Chloroplast D. Mitochondria
15. What is the primary function of the cell wall in plant cells?
A. To store genetic information
B. To produce energy for the cell
C. To provide structural support and protection
D. To control the movement of substances in and out of the cell
16. Which of the following is a characteristic of multicellular organisms?
A. Lack of specialized cells C. Can only reproduce asexually
B. Composed of a single cell D. Made up of many specialized cells
17. Why do multicellular organisms have increased complexity compared to unicellular
organisms?
A. They have more DNA
B. They lack cell specialization
C. They have a larger surface area-to-volume ratio
D. They consist of many specialized cells working together
 18. During which phase do chromosomes first become visible?
A. anaphase C. telophase
B. metaphase D. prophase
19. Meiosis results in .
A. 4 haploid daughter cells C. 2 haploid daughter cells
B. 2 diploid daughter cells D. 4 diploid daughter cells
20. Human reproduction involves which of the following?
A. Sex cells C. Body cells
B. Skin cells D. Bone cells
21. Which sequence best represents sexual reproduction?
A. mitosis → gametes → zygote → fertilization
B. fertilization → gametes → meiosis → zygote
C. meiosis → gametes → fertilization → zygote
D. gametes → meiosis → mitosis → fertilization
22. Asexual reproduction requires
A. two clones to produce offspring C. only one parent to produce offspring
B. two parents to produce offspring D. a combination of parents to produce offspring
23. Which of the following is not an example of asexual reproduction?
A. Breeders cross different dogs to develop a new breed of dog
B. Bread mold spreads on a slice of bread at the back of the fridge
C. New raspberry shoot sprouts in the lawn near the raspberry patch
D. Geneticists grow a field of blight-resistant wheat using the cells of a single plant
24. To describe the velocity of an object, you need to know the .
A. Speed and time
B. Speed and direction
C. Speed and acceleration
D. Direction and acceleration
25. Which of the following statements about heat and temperature is INCORRECT?
A. Heat is the total energy of the motion of the molecules of a substance. In contrast, temperature
refers to the measure of the average energy of the motions of the molecules in the substance.
B. Temperature is the total energy of the motion of the molecules of a substance. In contrast, heat
refers to the measure of the average energy of the motions of the molecules in the substance.
C. Heat includes potential energy and temperature does not.
D. Heat is extensive and temperature is intensive.
26. Your mother is making a noodle soup using a pan made up of metal. How does the heat travel
through the pan? Heat travels through the pan by .
A. convection C. dispersion
B. conduction D. radiation
 27. Which of the following is NOT an effect of a force on an object?
A. Changing the mass of an object
B. Changing the shape of an object
C. Changing the speed of an object
D. Changing the direction of an object's motion
28. Friction will the amount of movement resistance between two objects.
A. increase C. speed up
B. decrease D. have no effect on
29. The support force of a table holding up a book is called .
A. applied force C. normal force
B. friction D. gravitational force
30. The graph at right shows an object:
A. with zero speed
B. moving towards you
C. with negative acceleration
D. maintaining a constant speed
31. What is meant by the term "displacement"?
A. The speed at which an object moves
B. The total path is taken from start to finish
C. The time it takes to travel from one place to another
D. The shortest path between the starting point and the endpoint, including direction
32. Which unit is typically used to measure speed?
A. meters C. kilograms
B. seconds D. kilometers per hour
33. What does a constant speed indicate in terms of velocity?
A. The object is stationary.
B. The object is accelerating.
C. The object has uniform velocity.
D. The object is moving in a zigzag pattern.
34. When does acceleration occur?
A. pause in motion
B. constant speed in a circular motion
C. constant movement in one direction
D. increase in speed or direction over time
35. What does the term heat refer to in the study of physics?
A. the temperature of an object
B. a specific type of energy that is visible
C. a measurement of how much light something emits
D. the movement of energy from a warmer object to a cooler one
36. Which unit is commonly used in the Philippines to measure how hot or cold something is?
A. Liters C. Celsius
B. Kelvin D. Pounds
 37. What does kinetic energy refer to?
A. energy of an object due to its motion
B. energy stored in bonds between atoms
C. energy released during a chemical reaction
D. energy an object possesses due to its position
38. What is the primary way heat is transferred in fluids?
A. Insulation C. Convection
B. Radiation D. Conduction
39. Which of the following best describes the epicenter of an earthquake?
A. The deepest point within the Earth is where the seismic energy is released.
B. The point on the Earth's surface is directly above the focus.
C. The point within the Earth where the fault rupture begins.
D. The area where the ground shaking is most intense.
40. What is the primary factor that determines the magnitude of an earthquake?
A. The depth of the earthquake's focus.
B. The distance from the epicenter to the affected area.
C. The amount of energy released by the seismic event.
D. The type of fault that is responsible for the earthquake.
41. Which of the following statements best describes the motion of Love waves during
an earthquake?
A. Love waves travel in a rolling motion parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
B. Love waves travel in a rolling motion perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
C. Love waves travel in a compressional motion parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
D. Love waves travel in a compressional motion perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation.
42. How do earthquakes that occur along subduction zones generate to the formation of
tsunamis?
A. Underwater earthquakes trigger volcanic eruptions, leading to the formation of tsunamis.
B. Subduction zone earthquakes cause the release of toxic gases, resulting in the formation of
tsunamis.
C. Subduction zone earthquakes cause the sudden uplift of the seafloor, displacing water and
generating tsunami waves.
D. Underwater earthquakes release energy that generates seismic waves, which propagate through
the water and create tsunami waves.
43. What is the CORRECT order of Earth's atmospheric layers from its surface?
A. stratosphere, mesosphere, troposphere, thermosphere, exosphere
B. stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, exosphere
C. troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, exosphere
D. troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, exosphere
44. Which layer of the atmosphere is the coldest?
A. troposphere C. mesosphere
B. stratosphere D. thermosphere
45. What factors determine the type of cloud that forms during cloud formation?
A. Wind speed C. Atmospheric pressure
B. Humidity levels D. Temperature and humidity
 46. Which of the following best describes the process of cloud formation?
A. Warm air rises and cools, causing water vapor to condense.
B. Cold air rises and warms, causing water vapor to condense.
C. Warm air sinks and cools, causing water vapor to evaporate.
D. Cold air sinks and warms, causing water vapor to evaporate.
47. What causes the sun to appear as it rises in the east and sets in the west?
A. Rotation C. Tilt of the earth
B. Revolution D. Earth’s gravitation
48. Which day in the northern hemisphere has the fewest hours of daylight?
A. Winter solstice C. Summer solstice
B. Vernal equinox D. Autumnal equinox
49. Which statement best describes topography?
A. It is the total distance above sea level.
B. It is the side of the mountain that experiences floods.
C. It is the curve of the earth and the distance from the equator.
D. It is an area's physical attributes, surface shapes, and features.
50. Which part of the mountain has more vegetation?
A. top C. sideward
B. leeward D. windward

“Whatever you do, work at it with all your heart, as working for the Lord, not for human masters…”
— Colossians 3:23. Take the exam with all your heart. God bless 