UK-G11-PT-02-NEET

Test Code: UK-AT-06-25

Duration: 180 minutes Total Marks: 540

Physics

Q1: An average force of 125 N is applied on a machine gun firing bullets each of mass 10 g at the speed of
250 m/s to keep it in position. The number of bullets fired per second by the machine gun is:

A. 5 B. 50
C. 100 D. 25

Q2: A car is moving on a horizontal curved road with radius 50 m. If coefficient of friction between tyre and
road is 0.34. Then approximate maximum speed of car will be, [Take g = 10 ms ] −2

A. 3.4 ms −1
B. 22.4 ms −1

C. 13 ms −1
D. 17 ms −1

Q3: If μ r, μk and μ , represent the coefficients of rolling friction, kinetic and static friction, then
s

A. μ r = μs = μk B. μ r > μk > μs

C. μ r < μs < μk D. μ r < μk < μs

Q4: Find net force on the block placed in a lift as shown.

A. Ma/2 B. Mg
C. Ma D. 0

Q5: The angular velocity of a particle moving in circle of radius 50 cm, is increased from 200 revolution per
minute to 440 revolution per minute in 2 minutes. The tangential acceleration of the particle is

A. π

30
m/s
2
B. π

15
m/s
2

C. 1

30
m/s
2
D. 30 m/s 2

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Q6: A force of 100 N is applied on a block of mass 3 kg as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between
the surface of wall and the block is μ = 1
. The frictional force acting on the block is :-
√3

A. 15 N downwards B. 25 N upwards
C. 20 N downwards D. 30 N upwards

Q7: Assertion : A body is thrown with a velocity u inclined to the horizontal at some angle. It moves along a
parabolic path and falls to the ground. Linear momentum of the body, during its motion, will remain conserve.
Reason : Throughout the motion of the body, a constant force acts on it

A. Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a B. Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not
correct explanation for assertion a correct explanation for assertion
C. Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect D. Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

Q8: A mass of 2 kg is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at initial speed of 5 revolution per
minute. Keeping the radius constant, the tension in the string is doubled. The new speed is nearly

A. 2.25 rpm B. 7 rpm

C. 10 rpm D. 14 rpm

Q9: Rain appears to fall vertically to a man walking at 3 km/hr but when he change his speed to double, the rain
appears to fall at 45 :
∘

A. Velocity of rain is 2√3 km/hr with angle 45 ∘

B. Velocity of rain is 3√2 km/hr with angle 45 . ∘

D. The angle of fall of rain is 30 with velocity

∘

C. The angle of fall of rain is 60 .

∘

2√ 2 km/hr.

Q10: A gun fires two bullets at 60 and 30 with horizontal. The bullets strike at some horizontal distance. If the
∘ ∘

speed of projectionu is same in both the cases then the ratio of maximum height for the two bullets is in the ratio
of

A. 2 : 1 B. 3 : 1
C. 4 : 1 D. 1 : 1

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Q11: A solid sphere of 2 kg is suspended from a horizontal beam by two supporting wires as shown in figure.
Tension in each wire is approximately (g = 10 ms ) −2

A. 30 N B. 20 N
C. 10 N D. 5 N

Q12:
A particle revolving in a circular path completes first one-third of the circumference in 2 sec while next one third
in 1 sec. Calculate its average angular velocity :-

A. rad/sec B. rad/sec

C. rad/sec D. rad/sec

Q13:
Two trains, each of length 200 m are running on parallel track. One train overtakes the other in 20 s and one
crosses the other in 10 s. Then their velocities are:-

A. 30 ms–1, 20 ms–1 B. 20 ms–1, 10 ms–1

C. 5 ms–1, 15 ms–1 D. 30 ms–1, 10 ms–1

Q14: A balloon with mass 'm' is descending down with acceleration 'a' (a < g). How much mass should be
removed from it so that it starts moving up with acceleration 'a'

A. ma

g−a
B. 2ma

g+a

C. 2ma

g−a
D. ma

g+a

Q15: A cyclist taking turn bends inwards while a car passenger taking the same turn is thrown outwards. The
reason is

A. car is heavier than cycle B. car has four wheels while cycle has only two
D. cyclist has to counteract the centrifugal force while
C. difference in the speed of the two in the case of car only the passenger is thrown by this
force

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Q16: The initial velocity of oblique projectile is (8^i + 5j) m/s. The horizontal range of the projectile is
→
(g = −10 j m/s )
2

A. 8 m B. 11 m
C. 4 m D. 6 m

Q17: Swimming is possible on account of

A. first law of motion B. second law of motion

C. third law of motion D. newton's law of gravitation

Q18: Match the Column I (example of motion) with Column II (type of motion) and select the correct answer
from the codes given below.

Column I Column II
A. Free fall 1. One-dimensional motion
B. Projectile motion 2. Two-dimensional motion
C. Circular motion 3. Three-dimensional motion
D. Motion along a straight road

A. A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 1 B. A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 2
C. A - 1, B - 2, C - 2, D - 1 D. A - 1, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1

Q19:
Horizontal range and maximum height for a projectile are respectively 12 m and 4 m. Velocity of projection is :-

A. B.

C. D.

Q20:
2

The dimensions of a × b in the relation E =

b−x

at
, where E is the energy, x is the displacement and t is time are

A. M L 2
T B. M −1 2
L T

C. M L 2
T
−2
D. M LT −2

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Q21: Find the magnitude of the horizontal force F required to hold the block of mass ‘m’ in equilibrium as
shown in figure.
(acceleration due to gravity is g)

A. B.
4mg 3mg

3 4

C. D.
4mg 2mg

5 3

Q22: A body executing circular motion has at any instant its velocity vector and its acceleration vector

A. along the same direction B. in opposite direction

C. can be anything D. normal to each other

Q23: A block pressed against the vertical wall is in equilibrium. The minimum coefficient of friction is:-

A. 0.4 B. 0.2
C. 0.5 D. None of these

Q24: If unit of length and force are increased 4 times. The unit of energy

A. is increased by 4 times B. is increased by 16 times

C. is increased by 8 times D. remains unchanged

Q25: Assertion : Uniform circular motion is uniformly accelerated motion.

Reason : Kinematics equations for uniform acceleration motion cannot be applied in the case of uniform circular
motion.

A. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and B. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. D. Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

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Q26: If x = a – b, the maximum percentage error in the measurement of x will be :-

A. B.

C. D.

Q27: A body of mass M resting on a smooth horizontal plane starts moving under a constant force F during
its rectilinear motion. The angle θ between the direction of force and horizontal plane varies as θ = kx, where K
is constant and x is the distance travelled by the body from the initial position. Velocity of the body is

A. √ F sin θ

mK
B. √ 2F sin θ

mK

C. √ F cos θ

mK
D. √ 2F cos θ

mK

Q28: Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii r and r with
A B

speed v and v respectively. Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of angular speed of A to that of
A B

B will be

A. 1 : 1 B. r A : rB

C. v A : vB D. r B : rA

Q29: A block of mass 10 kg is kept on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. A force of 3N is applied on
the block. The coefficient of static friction between the plane and the block is 0.6. What should be the minimum
value of force P , such that the block does not move downward?
(take g = 10 ms ) −2

A. 32 N B. 18 N
C. 23 N D. 25 N

Q30: A particle moves in the X - Y plane with a constant acceleration 1.5 m/s in the direction making an angle
2

of 37 with the X-axis. At t = 0 the particle is at the origin and its velocity is 8.0 m/s along the X -axis. Find the
∘

position of the particle at t = 4.0 s.

A. (41.6 m, 7.2 m) B. (50.3 m, 8.2 m)

C. (60.2 m, 8.2 m) D. (11.2 m, 8 m)

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Q31: Two particles start moving from same position on a circle of radius 20 m with speeds 18π m/s and 14π m/s
respectively in the same direction. The time after which they will collide again is

A. 5s B. 10s
C. 15s D. 20s

Q32: The motion of particle is described by the equation x = a + bt , where a = 15 cm and b = 3 cm/sec . Its
2 2

instant velocity at time 3 sec will be

A. 36 cm/sec B. 9 cm/sec
C. 4.5 cm/sec D. 18 cm/sec

Q33: Assertion : For the motion of electron around nucleus, Newton's second law is used.
Reason : Newton's second law can be used for motion of any object.

A. Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a B. Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not
correct explanation for assertion. a correct explanation for assertion
C. Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect D. Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

Q34: A particle is moving in straight line and velocity versus time graph is shown in figure.

Corresponding displacement-time graph is.

A. B.

D.
C.

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Q35: An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very slowly. The coefficient of friction between the insect and
the surface is 1/3. If the line joining the centre of the hemispherical surface to the insect makes an angle α with
the vertical, the maximum possible value of α so that the insect does not slip is given by

A. cot α = 3 B. sec α = 3
C. cosec α = 3 D. cos α = 3

Q36: A particle starts moving from position of rest under a constant acceleration. If it travels a distance x in t
second, what distance will it travel in next t second?

A. x B. 2x
C. 3x D. 4x

Q37: What will be the maximum acceleration of the truck so that the block of mass 5 kg placed upon it doesn't
slip :-

A. 3m/sec2 B. 2m/sec2
C. 1m/sec2 D. zero

Q38: In addition of two vectors A→ and B

→ , resultant vector is R
→ . Which of the following is correct.

A. R 2
= A
2
+ B
2
+ 2AB sin θ → = A→ + B
B. R →

C. α = β D. None

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Q39: Match Column I with Column II.

Column-I Column-II
A. Displacement (1) Slope of x − t graph
B. Velocity (2) Slope of tangent to x − t curve
C. Acceleration (3) Area under v − t curve
D. Instantaneous velocity (4) Slope of v − t graph

A. (A) → (4); (B) → (2); C→ (1); (D) → (3) B. (A) → (2); (B) → (4); C→ (3); (D) → (1)
C. (A) → (3); (B) → (1); C→ (4); (D) → (2) D. (A) → (2); (B) → (4); C→ (1); (D) → (3)

–
–
–
Q40: The resultant of the three vectors
OA, OB, OC , as shown figure.

A. r B. 2r
C. 3r(1 + √2) D. r(√2 − 1)

Q41: Two bullets are fired horizontally with different velocities from the same height on Earth. Which will reach the
ground first?

A. Slower one B. Faster one

C. Both will reach simultaneously D. It cannot be predicted

Q42: If |A→ + B|
→ = |A→ − B|
→ , which of the following options is not true?

A. A→ is a null vector → is a null vector

B. B
C. A→ is ⊥ to B
→ D. A→ is ∥ to B
→

Q43: A block is released from rest on the top of a incline of angle 53 . The surface of incline is rough with
∘

coefficient of friction μ = . If the block is released from a height 20 m above the ground, then find the speed
3

with which it reaches the bottom. (g = 10 m/s ) 2

A. 3√5 m/s B. 5√7 m/s

C. 7√5 m/s D. 7√3 m/s

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Q44: A body in uniform circular motion has

A. centripetal acceleration only. B. tangential acceleration only.

C. both centripetal acceleration and
D. None of these.
tangential acceleration.

Q45: If rope of lift breaks suddenly, the tension exerted by the surface of lift (a = acceleration of lift)

A. mg B. m(g + a)
C. m(g − a) D. 0

Chemistry

Q46: If N is Avogadro's number then number of electrons in 4.2 g of N

A
3−
:

A. 2.1 N A
B. 3 N A

C. 6 N A
D. N A

Q47: Oxidation number of potassium in K 2

O, K 2 O 2 and KO , respectively, are:
2

A. +2, +1 and + 1

2
B. +1, +1 and +1
C. +1, +4 and +2 D. +1, +2 and +4

Q48: Statement I : Different number of electron pairs are present in resonating structures.
Statement II : Resonating structures do not differ in the location of electrons around the constituent atoms.

A. Both statement I and II are correct. B. Both statement I and II are incorrect.
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. D. Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.

Q49: An oxide of metal M has 40% by mass of oxygen. Metal M has atomic mass of 24. The empirical formula
of the oxide is:

A. M 2
O B. M 2
O3

C. M O D. M 3
O4

Q50: Statement I : The elements silicon, germanium and arsenic are called metalloids.
Statement II : Metalloids have properties similar to both metals and non-metals.

A. Both statement I and II are correct. B. Both statement I and II are incorrect.
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. D. Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.

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Q51: Which is not the disproportionation reaction ?

A. 3H P O 2 → 2H 3 P O 2 + P H 3 B. H CH O + OH −
→ H COO
−
+ CH 3 OH

C. N H 4 N O3 → N 2 O + 2H 2 O D. 3Cl 2 + 6OH
−
→ 5Cl
−
+ ClO
−

3
+ 3H 2 O

Q52: Match List I with List II and choose the correct option.

List I List II
(Species) (Hybridisation)
A) N H 3
I) sp d
3 3

B) P Cl 5
II) sp d3

C) XeF 4
III) sp 3

D) I F7
IV) sp d3 2

A. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

C. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II D. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Q53: 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated yields a metallic residue weighing:

A. 2.16 g B. 2.48 g
C. 2.32 g D. 2.64 g

Q54: Assertion: N a O is a basic oxide, whereas Cl O, is an acidic oxide. '

2 2

Reason: Elements on extreme left form basic oxides whereas elements on extreme right form acidic oxides.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
the correct explanation of assertion. not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false. D. if both assertion and reason are false.

Q55: BF is planar and electron deficient compound Hybridization and number of electrons around the central
3

atom, respectively are:

A. sp and 8
2
B. sp and 4
3

C. sp and 6
3
D. sp and 6
2

Q56: Four elements are given, choose the correct order of their 1st ionisation potential:

A. 1s 2
2s
1

B. 1s 2
, 2s 2p
2 6

C. 1s 2
, 2s 2p
2 2

D. 1s 2
, 2s 2p
2 1

A. A > B > C > D B. D > C > B > A

C. B > C > D > A D. B > D > C > A

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Q57: Statement I : In a reaction

Zn(s) + CuSO 4 (aq) → ZnSO 4 (aq) + Cu(s)

Zn is a reducing agent but itself get oxidized.

Statement II: In a redox reaction, the oxidant is reduced by accepting electrons, and the reducing agent is
oxidized by losing electrons.

A. Both statement I and II are correct. B. Both statement I and II are incorrect.
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. D. Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.

Q58: If 1.6 g of SO and 1.5 × 10 2

22
molecules of H 2
S are mixed and allowed to remain in contact in a closed
vessel until the reaction
2H 2 S + SO 2 → 3 S + 2H 2 O

Proceeds to completion. Which of the following statement is true?

A. Only ′
S
′
and ′
H2 O
′
remain in the reaction vessel. B. ′
H2 S
′
will remain in excess
C. ′
SO
′
2
will remain in excess D. None

Q59: If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is 1.73 B. M , it may be:

A. O or O−
2
+
2
B. O or O 2
+
2

C. O or O2
−
2
D. O 2, O2
−
or O +
2

Q60: The species with a radius less than that of N e is

A. M g 2+
B. F −

C. O 2−
D. K +

Q61: The oxidation number of sulphur in S 8, S 2 F 2 , H2 S ,H 2 S2 O7 ,H 2 S2 O8 respectively, are

A. 0, +1 and -2,+6,+6 B. 0,+2, −2 and +6,+7

C. 0, +1 and +2,+6,+6 D. −2, +1 and -2,+6,+7

Q62: If 0.5 mole of barium chloride is mixed with 0.2 mole of sodium phosphate, the maximum number of mole
of barium phosphate that can be formed is:

A. 0.7 B. 0.5
C. 0.30 D. 0.1

Q63: According to molecular orbital theory, the species among the following that does not exist is

A. N 2
+
B. Be 2

C. H e +

2
D. O 2−

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Q64: Number of electrons transferred in each case when KM nO acts as an oxidising agent to give
4

, M n(OH ) and M nO are respectively

2+ 2−
M nO , M n
2 3 4

A. 3, 5, 4 and 1 B. 3, 4, 1 and 5
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 D. 3, 5, 1 and 4

Q65: After understanding the assertion and reason, choose the correct option.
Assertion: In the bonding molecular orbital (M O) of H , electron density is increased between the nuclei.
2

Reason: The bondingM O is Ψ + Ψ , which shows destructive interference of the combining electron waves.
A B

A. Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. B. Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.

C. Assertion and reason are correct and reason is D. Assertion and reason are correct, but reason is
the correct explanation for the assertion. not the correct explanation for the assertion.

Q66: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The geometry of P Cl is trigonal bipyramidal.
5

Reason (R) : Geometry of compound is decided by minimum repulsion of bond pair and lone pair of electrons.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
B. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
C. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
explanation of (A)

Q67: The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic number 119 would be:

A. U ue B. U ne
C. U nh D. U un

Q68: The shape of SF molecule and the total number of fluorine atoms at equatorial positions in SF molecule are
6 6

respectively:

A. Trigonal and 2 B. Square pyramidal and 4

C. Octahedral and 6 D. Octahedral and 4

Q69: Which of the following contains the least number of molecules?

A. 4.4 g CO 2 B. 3.4 g N H 3

C. 1.6 g CH 4 D. 3.2 g SO 2

Q70: Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of least negative to most negative
electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F and O?

A. Al < Ca < O < C < F B. Al < O < C < Ca < F

C. C < F < O < Al < Ca D. Ca < Al < C < O < F

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Q71: Among the following, which is the strongest oxidising agent?

A. O 2 B. F 2

C. Br 2 D. I 2

Q72: Which one of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole moments for both members?

A. SiF and N O 4 2 B. N O and CO 2 2

C. N O and O 2 3 D. SiF and CO 4 2

Q73: 50cm of 0.04M K Cr O in acidic medium oxidizes a sample of H S gas to suphur. Volume of
3
2 2 7 2

0.03M KM nO required to oxidize the same amount of H S gas to sulphur, in acidic medium is
4 2

A. 60cm 3
B. 80cm 3

C. 90cm 3
D. 120cm 3

Q74: Considering the elements B, Al, M g and K the correct order of their metallic character is:

A. B > Al > M g > K B. K > M g > B > Al

C. M g > Al > K > B D. K > M g > Al > B

Q75: N and O are converted into monoanions, N

2 2 2
−
and O respectively. Which of the following statements is
−
2

wrong?

A. In N −

2
,N − N bond weakens B. In O −

2
,O − O bond order increases
C. In O −

2
,O − O bond order decreases D. N −

2
becomes paramagnetic

Q76: The equivalent weight of F eS in the given reaction is: 2

(Molecular weight of F eS = M ) 2

[O]

F eS 2
− → F e 2 O 3 + SO 2

A. M

1
B. M

C. M

9
D. M

11

Q77: Metal hydrides are ionic, covalent or molecular in nature. Among LiH , N aH , KH , RbH , CsH , the correct
order of increasing ionic character is

A. LiH > N aH > CsH > KH > RbH B. LiH < N aH < KH < RbH < CsH

C. RbH > CsH > N aH > KH > LiH D. N aH > CsH > RbH > LiH > KH

Q78: An organic compound containing C, H and O has 49.3% carbon, 6.84% hydrogen and its vapour density is
73 then molecular formula of the compound is :-

A. C 3 H5 O2 B. C 4 H 10 O 2

C. C 6 H 10 O 4 D. C 3 H 10 O 2

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Q79: Consider the following ionization enthalpies of two elements 'A' and 'B'.

Element Ionization enthalpy (kJ /mol)

1st 2nd 3rd
A 899 1757 14847

B 737 1450 7731

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Both 'A' and 'B' belong to group-1 where 'B' comes B. Both 'A' and 'B' belong to group-1 where 'A ' comes
below 'A'. below 'B'.
C. Both 'A' and 'B' belong to group-2 where 'B' comes D. Both 'A' and 'B' belong to group-2 where 'A' comes
below 'A'. below 'B'.

Q80: The number of moles of KM nO reduced by one mole of KI in alkaline medium is:
4

A. One fifth B. Five

C. One D. Two

Q81: Statement-I : I ion is linear.

−

Statement-II : In I ion, iodine is in 'sp' hybridised state.

−

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
incorrect.
C. Statement I is correct and Statement II is D. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
incorrect correct

Q82: In the reaction

−
OH
−
−
P4 → P H3 + H2 P O
2

How many moles of hypophosphite ion are produced from ten moles of phosphorous?

A. 10 B. 30
C. 1 D. 5

Q83:
Consider the balanced chemical reaction:
aI2O5 + bBrF3 → cIF5 + dO2+ eBr2
Calculate the value of (b + c + e) / (a).

A. 10 B. 7
C. 6 D. 3

Q84: The correct order of bond dissociation energy of N 2, O2 , O2

−
is

A. N 2
> O
−
2
> O2 B. O −
2
> O2 > N2

C. N 2
> O2 > O
−
2
D. O 2
> O
−
2
> N2

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Q85: Assertion (A) : Radius of Al (143pm) ≥ Ga(135pm).

Reason (R) : Contraction takes place in case of Ga due to presence of low shielding 10-d electrons.

A. If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct B. If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A). explanation for (A).
C. If (A) is true but (R) is false. D. If both (A) and (R) are false.

Q86: Match List-I with List-II.

List I List II
(Hybridisation) (Orbital involved in Hybridisation)
A) sp d 3
I) d 2
x −y
2

B) sp d 3 2
II) d xy

C) dsp 2
III) d z
2

D) d 2
sp
3
IV) d yz

A. A-I, B-I, III, C-III, D-I, II, III B. A-III, B-I,III, C-I, D-I,III
C. A-III, B-I,II, C-I, D-I,II,III D. A-III, B-IV, III, C-II, D-I, III, IV

Q87: Which of the following is not correct ?

A. F −
> Na
+
> Mg
+2
> Al
+3
(Ionic size) B. B < C < N < O(I . E. 1 )

C. I < Br < F < Cl(E. A. ) D. Li < N a < K < Rb (Metallic radius)

Q88: In the reaction,

2Al(s) + 6H Cl(aq) → 2Al
3+
(aq) + 6Cl
−
(aq) + 3H 2 (g) ,

A. 6L H Cl(aq) is consumed for every 3L H 2

(g) B. 33.6 L H 2
(g) is produced regardless of temperature
produced and pressure for every mole Al that reacts
C. 67.2 L H 2
(g) at STP is produced for every mole Al D. 11.2 L H (g) at STP is produced for every mole
2

that reacts H Cl(aq) consumed

Q89: Statement I: Oxidation number of Cr in CrO is +6. 5

Statement II: Peroxide bond is present in CrO . 5

A. Statement I and Statement II both are correct. B. Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
C. Statement I is correct, but Statement II D. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
is incorrect. is correct.

Q90: The minimum amount of O 2

( g) consumed per gram of reactant is for the reaction:

A. 4F e(s) + 3O 2
( g) → 2F e 2 O 3 (s) B. P 4
( s) + 5O 2 ( g) → P 4 O 10 ( s)

C. C 3
H 8 ( g) + 5O 2 ( g) → 3CO 2 ( g) + 4H 2 O(l) D. 2 M g(s) + O 2
( g) → 2M gO(s)

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Biology

Q91: Under normal field conditions, which one is the limiting factor in photosynthesis?

A. CO 2 B. Light
C. Water D. None of these

Q92: Which one of the following reactions is an example or oxidative decarboxylation?

A. Conversion of succinate to fumarate. B. Conversion of fumarate to malate.

C. Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA . D. Conversion of citrate to isocitrate.

Q93: Match the column- I with column - II and select the correct option from the codes given below:

Column - I Column - II
A. Tidal volume i. 2500 − 3000 mL of air
B. Inspiratory reserve volume ii. 1000 mL of air
C. Expiratory reserve volume iii. 500 mL of air
D. Residual volume iv. 4000 − 4600 mL of air
E. Vital capacity v. 1100 − 1200 mL of air

A. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(v) B. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(iv)
C. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(v), E-(ii) D. A-(v), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii), E-(iv)

Q94: Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

A. Partial pressure of CO can interfere with O

2 2 B. Higher H concentration in alveoli favours the
+

binding with haemoglobin. formation of oxyhemoglobin.

C. Low pCO in alveoli favours the formation of
2 D. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly
oxyhemoglobin related to partial pressure of O . 2

Q95: Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle?

A. There is one point in the cycle where F AD is+

B. During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid,
reduced to F ADH . 2 a molecule of GTP is synthesised.
C. The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group D. There are three points in the cycle where N AD is +

(acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid. reduced to N ADH + H . +

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Q96: In the given columns, column-I contain complexes and column-II contain their alternative names. Select
the correct match from the option given below.

Column - I Column - II
A. Complex I P. Cytochrome bc complex 1

B. Complex II Q. NADH dehydrogenase

C. Complex III R. FADH dehydrogenase
2

D. Complex IV S. Cytochrome c oxidase

A. A - R, B - Q, C - P, D - S B. A - R, B - P, C - Q, D - S
C. A - Q, B - R, C - P, D - S D. A - S, B - P, C - Q, D - R

Q97: Assertion (A): The proton gradient is important to the synthesis of NADPH.
Reason (R): Due to chemiosmosis the proton gradient develops which activates ATP synthase enzyme that
catalyses the formation of ATP.

A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true, and B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true, but
Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A) Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A)
C. Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false D. Assertiosn (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.

Q98: Air is breathed through

B. Nose - larynx - pharynx - bronchus - alveoli -

A. Trachea - lungs - larynx - pharynx - alveoli
bronchioles
C. Nostrils - pharynx - larynx - trachea - bronchi -
D. Nose - mouth - lungs
bronchioles - alveoli

Q99: Cyclic and non-cyclic flow of e is used in plants to

−

A. meet the AT P demands of Calvin-cycle. B. avoid producing excess N ADP H + H . +

C. balance AT P and N ADP H + H ratio in

+

D. All of the above

chloroplasts.

Q100: C -cycle is also known as

2

A. Glycolate cycle B. Calvin cycle

C. Kreb's cycle D. TCA-cycle

Q101: Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain which donates electrons to oxygen is:

A. cyt. b B. cyt. c
C. cyt. D. cyt. a 3

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Q102: "Emphysema" is a condition in which

A. Respiratory centre is inhibited B. There is lot of fluid in the lungs

C. Respiratory surface in Alveoli reduced D. Lungs have more O 2

Q103: Assertion: Photosynthetically C plants are more efficient than C plants.

4 3

Reason: The operation of C pathway requires the involvement of only bundle-sheath cells.
4

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
B. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
correct explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
C. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
explanation of (A)

Q104: Which of the following statements regarding effect of temperature on photosynthesis is incorrect ?

A. Tropical plants have a higher temperature optimum than B. The dark reaction being enzymatic are temperature
the plants adapted to temperate climates. controlled.
C. The temperature optimum for photosynthesis of
D. The C plants respond to higher temperature and show
3
different plants also depends on the habitat that they
high rate of photosynthesis.
are adapted to.

Q105: Which of the following process occurs in glycolysis?

A. Oxidation B. Reduction
C. Hydrogenation D. Fixation

Q106: Which of the following statements are true/false?

I. The blood transports carbon dioxide comparatively easily because of its highest solubility.
II. Approximately 8.9% of carbon dioxide is transported being dissolved in the plasma of blood.
III. The carbon dioxide produced by the tissues, diffuses passively into the blood stream and passes into red
blood corpuscles and react with water to form H CO . 2 3

IV. The oxyhaemoglobin (H bO ) of the erythrocytes is basic.

2

V. The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance.

A. I, III and V are true, II and IV are false B. I, III and V are false, II and IV are true
C. I, II and IV are true, III and V are false D. I, Il and IV are false, III and V are true

Q107: Which of the following is amphibolic in nature?

A. Glycolysis B. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate

C. TCA cycle D. Oxidative phosphorylation

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Q108: The correct sequential stages of calvin cycle are:

A. Carboxylation, Reduction and Regeneration B. Carboxylation, Regeneration and Reduction

C. Reduction, Carboxylation and Regeneration D. Regeneration, Reduction and Carboxylation

Q109: Match the column–A with column–B :

Column-A Column-B
(a) Pyruvic acid → Lactic acid (i) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(b) Pyruvic acid → Acetaldehyde (ii) Lactate dehydrogenase
(c) Acetaldehyde → Ethanol (iii) Pyruvic decarboxylase

A. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i) B. (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii)
C. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii) D. (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii)

Q110: Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. As the diaphragm relaxes, air is expelled from the

B. During inspiration the lungs act as suction pump.
respiratory system.
C. Cells utilise oxygen for metabolism and energy D. An increase in pulmonary volume decreases the
consumption. intra-pulmonary pressure.

Q111: Acceptor of acetyl Co-A in Kreb's cycle is:

A. malic acid B. fumaric acid

C. α-keto glutaric acid D. oxaloacetic acid

Q112: The structure which does not contribute to the breathing movements in mammals is

A. larynx B. ribs
C. diaphragm D. intercostal muscles

Q113: Match List-I and List-II to find out the correct option w.r.t ETS in chloroplasts.

List I(Process) List II(Location)

I. Photolysis of water A. Outer side of the thylakoid membrane
II. Location of primary accepter of electrons in ETS B. Stroma of the chloroplast
III. Space with high proton concentration C. Associated with PS II
IV. Space with less proton concentration D. Lumen of the thylakoids

A. I(C), II(B), III(D), IV(A) B. I(A), II(B), III(D), IV(C)

C. I(D), II(A), III(C), IV(B) D. I(C), II(A), III(D), IV(B)

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Q114: Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on

A. membrane potential
B. accumulation of Na ions

C. accumulation of K ions D. proton gradient

Q115: Nearly A⁡ ⁡percent of CO is carried as bicarbonate whereas B⁡percent of CO is transported by RBCs.

2 2

Identify the option describing A and B correctly.

A. 20 − 25% 70% B. 70% 7%

C. 70% 20 − 25% D. 20 − 25% 7%

Q116: Respiratory part of the respiratory system consist of;

A. the part starting with external nostrils up to

B. alveoli and their ducts.
terminal bronchioles.
C. the parts starting with external nostrils up to the
D. terminal bronchioles and alveoli.
alveoli.

Q117: Which one is the correct summary equation of photosynthesis?

B. C H
6 12 O 6 + 6O 2 + 6H 2 O ⟶ 6CO 2 + 12H 2 O+
A. C 6 H 12 O 6 + 6O 2 ⟶ 6CO 2 + 6H 2 O+ energy
energy
Light
− Light 6CO 2 + 12H 2 O → 6O 2 + C 6 H 12 O 6 + 6H 2 O D.
6CO 2 + 6H 2 O
− → 6H 2 O + C 6 H 12 O 6C. Chlorophyll

Chlorophyll

Q118: The major reason that glycolysis is not as energy productive as respiration is that

A. N AD is regenerated by alcohol or lactate

+

B. it is the pathway common to fermentation

production, without the high-energy electrons passing
and respiration.
through the electron transport chain.
C. it does not take place in a specialized membrane- D. pyruvate is more reduced than CO ; it still
2

bound organelle. contains much of the energy from glucose.

Q119: Intercostal muscles occur in the __________.

A. abdomen B. thigh
C. ribs D. diaphragm

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Q120: Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II
A. Chloroplasts i. Colourless plastids
B. Chromoplast ii. Yellow, orange or red coloured plastids
C. Leucoplsts iii. Green Plastids

A. (A-iii), (B-i), (C-ii) B. (A-iii), (B-ii), (C-i)

C. (A-i), (B-iii), (C-ii) D. (A-i), (B-ii), (C-iii)

Q121: Assertion (A): The respiratory pathway is better to be considered as an amphibolic pathway rather
than as a catabolic one.
Reason (R): The respiratory pathway is involved in both anabolism and catabolism.

B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but

A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and
Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion
Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(A).
C. Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. D. Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

Q122: Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t factors affecting photosynthesis

B. Despite the presence of a green leaf and optimal

A. The internal factors which affect photosynthesis are
light and CO conditions, the plant may not
2
dependent on the genetic predisposition of the plant.
photosynthesis if the temperature is very low.
C. Increase in concentration of CO upto 0.05 per cent D. At low light conditions both C and C
2 3 4

can cause an increase in CO fixation rates.

2 plants respond to high CO conditions.2

Q123:
In the production of ethanol, Pyruvic acid is first converted to acetaldehyde by the enzyme:

A. Alcohol dehydrogenase B. Alcohol oxidase

C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase D. Pyruvate decarboxylase

Q124: The vomit centre and pneumotaxic centre are respectively present in

A. Pons and medulla oblongata B. Medulla oblongata and medulla oblongata

C. Medulla oblongata and pons D. Medulla oblongata and hypothalamus

Q125: The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is-

A. Quinone B. Cytochrome
C. Iron-sulphur protein D. Ferredoxin

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Q126: Categorise the given equations under respective phases and select the correct option.

A. (I - Glycolysis), (II - Fermentation), (III - Krebs' B. (I - Krebs' cycle), (II - Fermentation), (III -
cycle) Glycolysis)
C. (I - Krebs' cycle), (II - Glycolysis), (III- D. (I - Glycolysis), (II - Krebs' cycle), (III-
Fermentation) Fermentation)

Q127: Statement I: Carbonic anhydrase is present in the erythrocytes.

Statement II; In erythrocytes the carbon dioxide combine with water and is transported.

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct D. Both statement I and statement II are correct

Q128: The diagram below shows the movement of substances into in and out of a chloroplast with labelling A,
B, C & D.

What do labels A to D represent?

A. A - CO ; B - AT P ; C - H
2 2
O ; D - Starch B. A - CO ; B - H
2 2
O ; C - Sugar; D - O 2

C. A - H 2
O ; B - O ; C - CO ; D - Sugar
2 2
D. A - Sugar; B - H 2
O ; C - ATP; D - O 2

Q129: Statement I: The electrons, as they move through the electron transport system, absorb energy and
directly synthesize ATP.
Statement II: O2 is the ultimate acceptor of electrons in ETS of mitochondria and it gets oxidised to water.

B. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is

A. Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
incorrect.
C. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
D. Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
correct.

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Q130: Asthma is due to;

A. inflammation in alveoli.
B. inflammation in trachea.
C. inflammation in bronchi.
D. inflammation in bronchioles.

A. A and B B. Only C
C. C and D D. Only D

Q131: In a plant cell, which of the following pigments participates directly in the light reactions of
photosynthesis ?

A. Chlorophyll a B. Chlorophyll b
C. Chlorophyll d D. Carotenoids

Q132: How much percentage of CO is transported by RBCs as carbamino haemoglobin from tissue level to
2

alveolar level :-

A. 70% B. 20 − 25%
C. 7% D. 97%

Q133: Assertion (A): C pathway of CO fixation is found in some tropical plants.

4 2

Reason (R): In this pathway, CO is fixed by 3C compound.

2

A. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
B. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
correct explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
C. (A) is not correct but ( R ) is correct
explanation of (A)

Q134: The diagram summarises the pathway of glucose breakdown.

When two steps result in a net increase of ATP?

A. A and C B. A and D
C. B and D D. B and E

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Q135: Listed below are four respiratory capacities (A-D) in column I and four jumbled respiratory volume of a
normal human adult in column II.

Column I (Respiratory
Column II (Respiratory volumes)
capacities)
A. Residual volume I. Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration
B. Vital capacity II. Total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal expiration
C. Inspiratory reserve volume III. Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration.
IV. The maximum volume of air a person can breath in after a forced
D. Inspiratory capacity
expiration
Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volume?

A. A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV. B. A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II.

C. A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I. D. A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II.

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