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Crosscountry 2025 Premock

The document outlines the Cross-Country KCSE 2025 series, a joint mock exam initiative involving top-performing national schools aimed at enhancing student preparedness for national examinations. It includes details on subjects tested, instructions for candidates, and specific exam papers for Christian Religious Education, History and Government, and Geography. The initiative seeks to foster academic excellence through collaboration among schools.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
314 views235 pages

Crosscountry 2025 Premock

The document outlines the Cross-Country KCSE 2025 series, a joint mock exam initiative involving top-performing national schools aimed at enhancing student preparedness for national examinations. It includes details on subjects tested, instructions for candidates, and specific exam papers for Christian Religious Education, History and Government, and Geography. The initiative seeks to foster academic excellence through collaboration among schools.

Uploaded by

cremy5171
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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CROSS-COUNTRY PREMOCK

KCSE 2025 SERIES

ALL SUBJECTS
Top-performing national schools come together for the "Cross-Country" joint mock
exam compilation in order to promote academic excellence. The rigorous tests in this
joint endeavor are intended to push students and improve their preparedness for
national examinations. By pooling resources and tactics, participating
schools hope to improve student performance and foster an achievement-oriented
culture

SUBJECTS TESTED;
Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE, IRE,
Geography, History, Business Studies, Agriculture, Home-science &
Computer Studies.

SUCCESS!

For Marking Schemes


Mr Isaboke 0746-222-000 /0742-999-000

MWALIMU CONSULTANCY
CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
313/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your Name and admission number in the spaces provided
2. Sign and write the date in the spaces provided.
3. This paper consists of six questions.
4. Answer any five questions in the foolscaps provided
5. Each question has 20 marks
6. Candidates are expected to write answers in English

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL
SCORE
STUDENT’S
SCORE

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
Answer any five questions in the foolscaps provided
1a) Give reasons why Christian Religious Education is taught in Kenyan schools today.
(7 marks)
b) Outline reasons why the Bible is referred to as the “Word of God”. (7 marks)
c) Identify six ways in which the Bible is misused in Kenya today. (6 marks)

2a) Describe the call of Abraham (Genesis 12:1-9). (8 marks)


b) Outline five instructions given to Abraham concerning circumcision in Genesis 17.
(5 marks)
c) Explain why some people in Kenya find it difficult to worship God. (7 marks)

3a) Give seven reasons why the Israelites demanded for a king. (I Samuel 8) (7 marks)
b) Outline the activities of King Jeroboam which made the Israelites in the Northern Kingdom to
turn away from God. (7 marks)
c) Identify factors that prevent political leaders from performing their duties efficiently in
Kenya today. (6 marks)

4a) Explain four categories of true prophets in the Old Testament. (8 marks)
b) Give reasons why Prophet Amos was against the way the Israelites worshipped God.
(6 marks)
c) State six reasons why Christians find it difficult to help the needy in the society today.
(6 marks)

5a) Describe the religious life of the Jews while in Babylonian exile. (5 marks)
b) Identify seven the occasions when Nehemiah prayed. (7 marks)
c) State the importance of prayer in the life of a Christian. (8 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
6a) State eight African traditional practices which demonstrated people’s belief in God.
(8 marks)
b) Give five reasons for singing and dancing during initiation in Traditional African community.
(5 marks)
c) Identify seven ways in which Kenyans show respect to places of worship. (7 marks)

Mwalimu Consultancy wishes you Success!

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
313/2
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, school and admission number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
3. This paper consists of six questions.
4. Answer any five questions in the spaces provided.
5. Each question carries 20 marks.
6. Candidates are expected to write answers in English

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


Question Total score

Candidates’ score

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
Answer any five questions in the spaces provided.
1. (a) Outline what Angel Gabriel revealed about John the Baptist to Zechariah in Luke 1:14-17

(6marks)

(b) Give the differences between the work of John work and that of Jesus Christ. (8marks)

(c)State six ways in which in which a Christian couple should respond to the challenge of

being childless. (6marks)

2. (a)State five reasons why Jesus used parables in His teaching. (5marks)

(b)Describe the parable of the Good Samaritan. (Luke 10:29-37) (8marks)

(c)Give seven reasons why some Christians find it difficult to help the needy. (7marks)

3. (a)Outline the instructions that Jesus gave to the seventy two disciples when He sent them

On a mission. (7marks)

(b)Outline six signs of the end times as taught by Jesus in Luke 21:5-38 (6marks)

(c)Give seven ways in which Christians are preparing for the second coming of Jesus Christ.

(7marks)

4 . (a) Give seven reasons why Jesus sent the Holy Spirit to the disciples after His ascension.

(7marks)

(b)Explain how the unity of believers is expressed in the concept of the vine and the

branches. (8marks)

(c) State five reasons why Christians in Kenya should work in unity. (5marks)

5. (a) Explain Christian teaching on human sexuality. (6marks)

(b)Give seven reasons why Christians in Kenya condemn homosexuality. (7marks)

(c)Identify seven reasons why the youths engage in pre-marital sex. (7marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
6. (a)Outline seven features of traditional African marriage. (7marks)

(b)Give seven reasons why some young people are choosing to remain unmarried in

Kenya today. (7marks)

(c) Identify six ways in which the Church is helping to solve the problem of domestic

violence in Kenya today. (6marks)

Mwalimu Consultancy wishes you Success!

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
311/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 This paper consists of three sections A,B,C
 Answer all questions in section A, choose three questions in section B and two questions
in section C
 Answers to all questions must be written in the answer booklet provided
 Candidates should answer questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY


SECTION SECTION B SECTION C GRAND
A TOTAL
1-17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
SECTION A (25MKS)
Answer all questions in this section
1. State two ways through which archeologists obtain information on the History of Kenya.
(2mks)
2. State one similarity in the political organization of the Ameru and Abaluyha of Kenya during
the 19th century. (1mk)
3. Name two important landmarks that were built by the Portuguese along the coast of East
Africa. (2mks)
4. Give two reasons why the government may limit a person’s freedom of speech. (2mks)
5. Identify the constitutional amendment that made Kenya return to a multi party state. (1mk)
6. State the main function of the Kenyan Bill of Rights. (1mk)
7. Give two reasons why the British used the Imperial British East Africa Company (IBEA Co)
to administer its possession in Kenya. (2mks)
8. Name the body that made laws in Kenya during the colonial period. (1mk)
9. Give the main reason why the colonial government created African Reserves in Kenya. (1mk)
10. State two grievances raised by the Asians in Kenya that were addressed by the Devonshire
white paper of 1923. (2mks)
11. Give the main Political contribution of Christian missionaries in Kenya during the struggle
for independence up to 1939. (1mk)
12. State two challenges that the independent schools faced in Kenya during the colonial period.
(2mks)
13. What was the main contribution of Joseph Thomas Mboya to the History of Kenya. (1mk)
14. Name two finance committees of Kenyan parliament. (2mks)
15. State the military power of the president in Kenya. (1mk)
16. Name two superior courts in the Kenyan Judiciary. (2mks)
17. Name one elective seat in the county government in Kenya. (1mk)

SECTION:B (45 MARKS)


Answer All Questions In This Section
18a) State three political functions of the council of elders among the Luo in Pre-Colonial
Kenya. (3mks)
b) Describe the Social Organisation of the Agikuyu during the Pre-Colonial period. (12mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
19a) State five political roles played by the African Election Members of the Legislative council
during the struggle for independence in Kenya. (5mks)
b) Explain the role of Women in the struggle for independence in Kenya. (10mks)

20a) Identify five challenges that Kenyatta encountered as president of Kenya. (5mks)
b) Explain six contributions of Professor Wangari Maathai in the politics of Kenya. (10mks)

SECTION: C (30 MARKS)


Answer Two Questions From This Section
21a) State three reasons why parliament is Supreme in Kenya. (3mks)
b) Explain six functions of the Independent Electoral and Boundaries Commission. (12mks)

22a) List down five factors that may undermine the administration of justice in Kenya. (5mks)
b) Explain five functions of the National Police Service in Kenya. (10mks)

END

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
311/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 This paper consists of three sections A,B,C
 Answer all questions in section A, choose three questions in section B and two questions
in section C
 Answers to all questions must be written in the answer booklet provided
 Candidates should answer questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY


SECTION SECTION B SECTION C GRAND
A TOTAL
1-17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
SECTION A (25MKS)
Answer all questions in this section
1. Give the name of the tools made by early man during the New Stone Age period(1 mark)
2. State two distinct characteristics of Homo Erectus. (2 marks)
3. Identify one form of writing during the early civilizations resulting from early agriculture.
(1 mark)
4. State two factors that promoted large-scale farming in Britain during the Agrarian
Revolution. (2 marks)
5. State two ways in which poor transport system has contributed to food shortages in Africa.
(2 marks)
6. Identify two political benefits of Trans-Saharan-trade to the people of Western Sudan.
(2 marks)
7. State twocharacteristics of Macadamroads. (2 marks)
8. Give one early source of energy. (1 mark)
9. State two political results of industrial Revolution in Europe. (2 marks)
10. State one contribution of Joseph Lister in the field of medicine in the nineteenth century.
(1 mark)
11. Identify two factors that facilitated colonization of Africa in the nineteenth century.(2 mrks)
12. Give one reason why the Shona supported the British forces against the Ndebele during
the Anglo-Ndebele war of 1893. (1 mark)
13. State one reason why Kabaka Mwanga of Buganda collaborated with the British. (1 mark)
14. Give two political developments in South Africa which facilitated establishment of a multi-
racial government. (2 marks)
15. Give the name given to Germany and her supporters during the First World War. (1 mark)
16. Give the main reason why the League of Nations was established in 1919. (1 mark)
17. State one aims of the Commonwealth. (1 mark)

SECTION B (45 MARKS)


Answer any three questions from this section in the answer booklet provided.
18. (a) State five reasons why man turned from hunting and gathering to agriculture. (5marks)
(b) Explain five effects of Agrarian revolution in United States of America (USA). (10marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
19. (a) Identify five ways in which iron working spread in Africa. (5 marks)
(b) Explain five factors that led to emergence of Japan as an industrial power. (10 marks)

20. (a) Give five causes of the Maji Maji rebellion of 1905 to 1907 in Tanganyika. (5 marks)
(b) Explain five reasons why Samori Toure resisted the French for so long. (10 marks)

21. (a) Give five qualifications for one to be assimilated in Senegal. (5 marks)
(b) Describefive effects of direct rule in Zimbabwe. (10 marks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)


Answer any two questions from this section in the answer booklet provided.
22. (a) State three economic activities of the Baganda during the pre-colonial period. (3 marks)
(b) Describe the social organization of Asante Kingdom in the eighteenth Century. (12 marks)

23. (a) Identify three roles of the church in promoting African Nationalism in South Africa.
(3 marks)
(b) Explain six problems encountered by African Nationalists in South Africa. (12 marks)

24. (a) State threefunctions of the Assembly of the League of Nations. (3 marks)
(b) Describe six achievements of the League of Nations. (12 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
GEOGRAPHY
312/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper has two sections: A and B.
(c) Answer all the questions in section A.
(d) Answer question 6 (compulsory) and any other two questions from section B.

For Examiner’s Use Only


SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S SCORE
SCORE
A 1-5 25
6 25
B 25
25
Total Score 100

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
SECTION A (25 Marks)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided below each question
1. (a) State three reasons why it is important to study Geography. (3 marks)
(b) What is the relationship between Geography and Agriculture? (2 marks)
2. (a) What is weather forecasting? (2 marks)
(b) List three elements of weather. (3 marks)
3. Study the diagram below and use it to answer questions (a) and (b) below:

(a) Identify the feature marked X. (1 mark)


(b) Describe how the feature is formed. (4 marks)
4.(a) What is karst landscape? (2 marks)
(b) State three factors that influence the occurrence of underground water. (3 marks)
5. The diagram below shows lowland glaciated features. Study the diagram and answer questions
(a) and (b).

(a) What is an outwash plain? (2 marks)


(b) Name the features marked U, V and W. (3 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other TWO questions from this section.
6. a i. Give the longitudinal extent of the area covered by the map 2mks
Ii Convert the scale of the map into statement scale 2mks
b. Describe the relief of the are covered by the map 8mk
c. i.Identify any 3 drainage patterns in the area covered by the map 3mks
ii.Give the direction of Butula Muandas school from Mungabo school 2mks
d.Citing evidence from the area covered by the map explain 4 factors that have influenced
settlement in the area covered by the map 8 mks

7. (a) (i) Differentiate between rocks and minerals. (2 marks)


(ii) Describe the following characteristics of minerals.
 Color. (2 marks)
 Hardness. (2 marks)
(b) (i) What are igneous rocks? (2 marks)
(ii) State three differences between plutonic and volcanic rocks. (3 marks)
(c) Describe the formation of the following rocks.
(i) Mechanically formed sedimentary rocks. (3 marks)
(ii) Chemically formed sedimentary rocks. (3 marks)
(d) (i) Identify the missing type of rocks. (3 marks)
Original rock Metamorphic rock
Limestone (i)
(ii) Graphite
Granite (iii)
(ii) Suppose you were to carry out a field study on rocks at the Kenyan coast. State two reasons
as to why you would ask for permission from the school administration. (2marks)
(iii) What reasons would you give for the widespread of sedimentary rocks at the
coastal plain? (3marks)

9. (a) (i) Name three types of river erosion (3 marks)


(ii) Describe the following river erosional presses.
 Abrasion (4 marks)
 Solution (3 marks)
(b) (i) What is river rejuvenation (2 marks)
(ii) Identify three features that result from river rejuvenation. (3 marks)
(c) (i) Name two types of submerged highland coasts. (2 marks)
(ii) State two factors influencing deposition by ocean waters. (2 marks)
(d) Explain three significance of oceans to human activities. (6 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
10. (a) (i) Differentiate between soil texture and soil structure. (2 marks)
(ii) Apart from living organisms, name four other components of soil. (4 marks)
(b) The diagram below shows different layers of soil. Use it to answer questions (b) (i), (ii) and (ii)

Z
(i)Name the soil layers X ,Y and Z (3 marks)
(ii) Give two main processes of soil formation which takes place in horizon W.
(2 marks)
(iii) State four characteristics of soil in horizon X. (2 marks)
(c)Explain how the following farming practices may result to loss of soil fertility
(i) Continuous irrigation. (2 marks)
(ii)Over grazing. (2 marks)
(iii) Over cultivation. (2 marks)
(d) Explain ways in which natural vegetation may prevent soil from erosion. (4 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
GEOGRAPHY
312/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 This paper has two sections. A and B.
 Answer ALL the questions in section A. In section B answer question 6 and any other two
questions.
 All answers must be written in the booklet provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
A 1–5 25
B 6 25
25
25
Total Score 100

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
SECTION A
1. (a) Apart from polders, name two other reclaimed areas in the Netherlands. (2mks)
(b) Apart from irrigation, name three methods of land reclamation used in Kenya. (3mks)
2. (a) Name two forest reserves in Kenya. (2mks)
(b) State three characteristics of equatorial rain forest. (3mks)
3. (a) Name two primary sources of population data. (2mks)
(b) State three negative effects of high population to a developing country. (3mks)
4. (a) Give three factors to be considered when choosing a method of mining. (3mks)
(b) Name two examples of fossil fuels. (2mks)
5. (a) Define non-renewable energy sources. (2mks)
(b) State any two effects of charcoal burning in the environment. (3mks)

SECTION B
6. The table below shows forestry products from various countries of Africa. (1000 tonnes)

Country Production (1,000 tonnes)


DRC 450
Swaziland 170
Zambia 140
Ghana 110
Uganda 30
Tanzania 50

a) (i) Using a radius of 4cm,draw a pie chart to represent the data above. (7mks)
(ii) State any three advantages of using a pie-chart to represent data. (3mks)
b) Explain three factors that influence the distribution of soft-wood forests in Kenya. (6mks)
c) (i) Identify three provinces in Canada with extensive soft wood forests. (3mks)
(ii) Explain three reasons why only a small part of Kenya is forested. (6mks)

7. (a) Name three types of dairy cattle kept in Kenya. (3mks)


(b) (i) State four conditions that favour dairy farming in Kenya highlands. (4mks)
(ii) Explain three problems facing dairy farmers in Kenya. (6mks)
(c) (i) State three measures the government of Kenya is taking to improve dairy farming. (3mks)
(ii) Compare dairy farming in Kenya and Denmark. (4mks)
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
(d) You intend to carry out a field study in a dairy farm.
(i) Give three methods you would use to collect information. (3mks)
(ii) State two follow up activities you would carry out after the field study. (2mks)

8. (a) (i)Define land Rehabilitation (2mks)


(ii)State four benefits of land Rehabilitation in Kenya. (4mks)
(b) (i) Explain four factors that led to the successful establishment of Pekerra irrigation scheme.
(8mks)
(ii)State three problems facing Pekerra irrigation scheme (3mks)
(i) List four main crops grown in Pekerra irrigation scheme. (4mks)
(c) State four advantages of irrigation farming to the economy of Kenya (4mks)

9. (a) (i) Define the meaning of the term census. (2mks)


(ii) Give two primary sources of population data. (2mks)
(iii) What information can be derived from a population pyramid? (3mks)
(b) Describe three ways in which the population of Kenya differs from that of Sweden. (6mks)
(c) Explain three causes of rural-rural migration in Kenya. (6mks)
(d) You intend to carry out a field study on the population within the vicinity of your school.
(i) State three preparations you would make for the study. (3mks)
(ii) State three methods you would use to record information. (3mks)

10. a) i) Identify two types of open cast mining. (2mks)


ii) Describe the stages involved in deep-shaft mining. (6mks)
b) State three negative effects of mining on the environment. (3mks)
c) Give two reasons why Kenya import her oil in crude form. (2mks)
d) Explain four ways in which mining contributes to the economy of Kenya. (8mks)
e) Explain how the following factors influence exploitation of minerals.
- Technology (2mks)
- Quality of the ore. (2mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
ENGLISH
101/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
(Functional Skills)

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Answer all the questions.
2. All your answers must be written in spaces provided.
3. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and
no questions are missing

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


Question Maximum Score
1. 20
2. 10
3. 30
Total 60

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
QUESTION 1: FUNCTIONAL WRITING 20 MARKS
Imagine you are the head of the Students’ Council in your school. There have been complaints about
insecurity in the school. The Principal has formed a committee of six members who include two
cooks, two teachers and two students, you being one of them. You are the secretary to that
committee. You are to write a report after the committee investigates the problem, and submit it
to the principal within a month. Write the report.
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For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
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For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
QUESTION 2: CLOZE TEST 10 MARKS
Fill in each of the blank spaces in the following passage with the most appropriate word.
When the Covid-19 pandemic hit the country, the government shut 1 all learning
institutions forcing them to adopt e-learning.
However, internet connectivity 2 a significant challenge. The Kenya Coast
National Polytechnic (KCNP) quickly navigated the turbulence 3
technology and currently, the national polytechnic has embraced blended learning (physical
4 online).
Through funding 5 East African Skills and Transformation and
Regional Integration Program, the national polytechnic developed a Kshs 8 million on-line
Learning Management System (LMS), supporting other 6 in the region
to embrace on-line studies.
“We are the centre and pioneer of LMS in the region; eight institutions have
7 the on-line studies anchored on our programme. 8 realised many
students come from humble backgrounds and could not 9 smart gadgets,
10 hindered us from fully operating LMS,” said the KCNP principal.

QUESTION 3: ORAL SKILLS 30 MARKS


a) Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow.
How doeth the little busy bee
Improve each shining hour
And gather honey all the day
From every opening flower

How skillfully she builds her cell!


How neat she spreads the wax!
And labours hard to store it well
With the sweet food she makes.

In works of labour or of skill


I would be busy too
For Satan finds some mischief still
For idle hands to do.

In books or works or healthful play


Let my first years be past,
That I may give for every day
Some good account to last.

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QUESTIONS
i) Identify four pairs of rhyming words in the poem. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) Give two examples of alliteration in the poem. (2 marks)
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iii) Supply words that are pronounced the same as: (3 marks)
flower
too
past
iv) Suppose you were watching a live performance of this poem. List four things you would
do to benefit most from the listening and watching experience. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Your friend attended a job interview. After the interview, he was informed that he was
unsuccessful. Give five reasons that could have led to your friend’s failure. (5 marks)
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c) Your school has been invited for a debating activity by your neighbouring school. You are
one of the speakers to represent you school.
i) Give two things you will do as preparation for the debate. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) Mention two things you will do during the debate so as to be successful. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) You have visited Kakuzi Farm Limited for the first time. Below is a part of the conversation that
takes place between you and the marketing officer. Fill in the missing parts. (8 marks)
Marketing officer: Welcome to Kakuzi Farm Limited. My name is Wairagu and I am in
charge of taking you round.
You:……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………. (3 marks)
Marketing officer: The total area of this farm is 100 acres. We rear cows and goats.
You:……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….(1 mark)
Marketing officer: Other than learning about rearing these domestic animals, people come
here to learn about growing fruit trees such as avocados.
You:……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………. (2 marks)
Marketing officer: In deed yes. It generates a lot of revenue and we are doing very well. We
charge shs 100 entry fee per person, and shs 500 for each lesson taken.
You:……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………(1 mark)
Marketing officer: Thank you. Our work is to educate Kenyans about good farming practices.
You:……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………(1 mark)
Marketing officer: Most welcome.

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
ENGLISH
101/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
(Comprehension, literary Appreciation and Grammar)

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS
a) All questions in this paper are compulsory.
b) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided.

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY


Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 20
2 25
3 20
4 15
TOTAL 80

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1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.20 mks
Poor generation Z. Amid a time of cultural tumult, today’s teens, inheritors of our future challenges,
are ever our cultural curiosity. Every few days another article lending another attempt at cultural
anthropology of our wayward Tiktok generation pops up. Combed through with a needle-toothed
comb, dissected under a mega-zoom, and surveyed through X-ray glasses, one wouldn’t blame
them for feeling a bit, eh, under the microscope.
Our collective observations are but an introductory point for subsequent hand-wringing about a
generational apocalypse. And there’s a lot to be nervous about, at least if the studies and the
articles are to be believed: According to various pieces, Gen-Z’s are addicted to social media, with
short attention spans and severe screen addictions. They’re addicted to the dopamine rush from
the click-click-click and instantaneous gratification. As such, their sleep schedules are messed
up and they’re sacrificing their social lives for a near perpetual screen-induced zombie-like
addictive paralysis.
Thanks to a 24/7-tech-based existence, Gen-Z’s don’t hang out with their friends. They aren’t forming
relationships. And, as such, they’re afraid of growing up. They’re so depressed they’re committing
suicide in massive numbers. They’re more tolerant photogenically but they’re the most fragile
ideological generation ever recorded. Burrowed behind the safety of their screens, they feel
hopeless about their prospects, and as such are the most politically radical generation on record.
They feel disenfranchised from society even more than their millennial predecessors, and are less
trusting and more fearful. They cling to each other for a sense of moral direction, and reject the
lessons of their parents. Having never faced “real” hardship, they have a tendency to make
mountains out of molehills with a general inability to distinguish things that are truly important
from those they merely wish were important. The list goes on.
Generation Z are the guinea pigs showing us both the opportunities and the pitfalls in our social
media-based new world order. They're the first ones whose entire existence has been awash in
this new reality. Their struggles are easier to put in context once you imagine yourself in a body
in which the 24/7 social media dopamine world has never not been the order of the day. While
Facebook stresses everybody out, it’s made abundantly less destructive on the fibers of one’s
consciousness when you’re old enough to remember a time when you could step away and breathe
the fresh air. That isn't an option for the Gen-Z's.
Not only does the eternal social media landscape and rat race for instantaneous approval they eternally
face breed competitiveness and insecurity – these are reported on extensively – but, perhaps more
importantly, it has cultivated an endless relentlessness of interactivity that almost paradoxically
has offered them very little sense of agency, autonomy, or ownership in the world. This is an
entirely different kind of public square from what we’ve known in the past. Reddit, for instance,
one of the favorite Gen-Z playgrounds, is amazing, connected, fun, and egalitarian. With no
barrier to entry, anyone can engage on anything, and the scoring of anyone's opinion is governed
only by whether their peers agree with it. It truly is a portal to the world, and it’s fun to seek the
approval of one’s peers. But it doesn’t build the tactile confidence that used to derive from taking
one’s place in a public square that carried with it a higher barrier to entry and a greater burden of
consequence. There’s nothing quite like waiting your turn to finally get your moment in the

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spotlight, putting your reputation on the line, stepping up to the microphone, grabbing the sides
of the podium, looking directly into the eyes of your audience, speaking calmly and confidently
to them with confidence and gravitas, and owning the room to warm smiles, constructive
disagreement, authentic learning, and healthy dialogue.
This new egalitarian ease of the internet has drowned out the processes that used to give people their
sense of mission, purpose, and accomplishment in life, and it’s made it so the rest of us have no
idea who to listen to. When everything is accessible, nothing is, because the kinds of efforts it
would take to get noticed in the past no longer offer a value-add. And when everybody has a voice,
nobody does, because, well, most voices aren’t really worth listening to. When the entire world is
easy, quick, egalitarian, and faceless, and when reward comes not from a sense of genuine
accomplishment but from instantaneous dopamine-fueled peer approval, it also runs the risk of
being soulless and leaving people wandering the wilderness for their sense of personal obligation
or practical achievement. It leaves many Gen-Z's feeling like they don’t have a voice, and like
they can’t break in in a more meaningful way. All of the things that are harming their prospects
are a natural follow-on.
Questions
a) Why are Gen-Z referred to as a cultural curiosity? 2mks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Is there a need to worry about Gen-Z according to the passage? 3mks


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Why are Gen-Z referred to as guinea pigs? 3mks


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Identify an instance of the use of parenthesis. 1mk
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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e) What is the tone of the passage? 3mks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

f) Explain the paradox in the last paragraph? 2mks


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g) In note form, state the effects of technology on Gen-Z’s interaction with society. 3mks
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h) Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the passage: 3mks
i) egalitarian
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) disenfranchised
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) awash
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………

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QUESTION2. QUESTIONS BASED ON EXTRACT FROM SETBOOK (25MARKS)
Read the following extract from the play “The Samaritan”by John Lara and then answer the
questions after.
Seymour: (Springing to his feet with clenched fists) That cannot be possible. Nobody can
write that kind of thing about me in this world!
Harvester: (Looking at Ted and Seymour) Copies of indisputable documentary evidence
to that effect were all over today’s newspapers and are being shared in all
media platforms.
Seymour: (Resuming his seat and swearing with trembling voice) Those are fake documents!
These are all barefaced falsehoods! And I can assure you one thing: Those behind
the allegations now have their appointment with fate! Certainly!
Ted : (Sitting properly and looking up for the first time) Supply of air? I am beginning
to think this is serious.Could we end up in Baneta Express Prison?
Harvester:(Turning pages of his note book)But that is only one of the allegations ,there are
many more ,including drug trafficking,grabbing of public land,inflation of the cost of
municipal projects, use of proxies to secure municipal tenders, undertaking shoddy public
works, murder and gang warfare. The information is very detailed on the people and companies
involved .
Mossi: There is a lot of personal information on municipal leaders on that evil
thing , too; including lifestyles of individual municipal officials,where they
live, the kind of houses they live in, their businesses, the vehicles they own,
other properties in their possession, when the properties were acquired, and
a lot of other personal details I don’t want to mention here. (Looking at Bembe)
There was a lot of talk yesterday on the Madingo Golf Club, with everyone
Wondering where you got the money to put it up.
Bembe: (Sitting up with an expression of horror on his face) The Madingo Golf Club? No!
I have always been very discreet about my private affairs! How did they get the
Information it is mine?
Mossi: You see, there is hardly anything on earth you can do without somebody knowing
About it. You should also remember that those we regard as our friends are
Sometimes wolves in sheep’s clothing. And they may have a lot of information
About us,which could be damaging!
Bembe: This might be our worst nightmare!
Mossi: What worries me most is the recent formation of a lobby group,an amorphous
virtual group, comprising mostly of lawyers,calling itself The Samaritan. It is calling
upon the people to volunteer as witnesses and help in the prosecution of those
involved in corruption and abuse of office in the Municipality.They are also
planning to petition the Local Government Minister ,the Prime Minister,and the
Chief Justice to take action.The situation is not pretty at all.
Ted: (Looking at Justice Jaden)Can such online allegations form a strong basis for
prosecution and conviction?
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Jaden: (Adjusting his eyeglasses) Yes, they can;provided there are valid documents
supporting the allegations.
Bembe: (Throwing his hands in the air) I think we have no choice other than ban that
thing within Maracas Municipality! The Municipal Council needs to pass a by-law
to that effect urgently. I will enforce it immediately!
Jaden: (Adjusting his eyeglasses and then his tie) I think we need to be careful and strategic.
On what basis do you ban it? And how can you police the use of mobile phones to
ensure the ban is effective?
Seymour: We can think creatively about that.For example, we can claim that municipal
authorities are concerned that suspect Apps,particularly spy Apps, are finding
their way into our municipality. This may lead to theft of confidential
information such as bank account details.We can also cite issues of cyberbullying
and the sharing of pornographic materials in schools
QUESTIONS
a)What is Seymour referring to at the beginning of the excerpt ? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b)Identify and illustrate two aspects of style in this excerpt. (4mks)


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c)Discuss two themes evident in this excerpt (4mks)


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d)Discuss one character trait of Seymour and one character trait of Mossi as presented in this
excerpt. (4mks)
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e)From your knowledge of the rest of the play, what two things does Mossi suggest could be done
to control the use of the Samaritan App? (2mks)
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f) From your knowledge of the rest of the play, briefly explain the origin of the Samaritan App.
(4mks)
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g)Explain the meaning of the following words and phrases as used in the excerpt (5mks)
i)Supply of air …………………………………………………………………………………
ii)inflation …………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)discreet ……………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)amorphous ………………………………………………………………………………………
v)petition ……………………………………………………………………………………………

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3 Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow 20mks
MY FATHER BEGAN AS A GOD
My father began as a god,
full of heroic tales
of days when he was young.
His laws were as immutable
as if brought down from Sinai,
which indeed he thought they were.

He fearlessly lifted me to heaven


by a mere swing to his shoulder,
and made me a godling
by seating me astride
our milch-cow's back, and, too
upon the great white gobbler
of which others went in constant fear.

Strange then how he shrank and shrank


until by my time of adolescence
he had become a foolish small old man
with silly and outmoded views
of life and of morality.

Stranger still
that as I became older
his faults and his intolerances
scaled away into the past,
revealing virtues
such as honesty, generosity, integrity.

Strangest of all
how the deeper he recedes into the grave
the more I see myself
as just one more of all the little men
who creep through life
no knee-high to this long-dead god.

(By Ian Mudie)

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a) Who is the persona in the poem? 2mks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) What is the poem about? 4mks


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c) Comment on the suitability of the title of the poem. 2mks


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d) What is the attitude of the persona towards his father? 3mks


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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e) Identify any three stylistic devices used in the poem. 6mks


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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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f) Why do you think the persona feels that his father has shrunk? 2mks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

g) Give the antonym of the word recedes as used in the poem. 1mk
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4 Grammar (15mks)
a) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each. Do not change
the meaning. (3mks)
i) Sharleen said the young girls had stolen her macaroons. (Rewrite beginning with: Sharleen…)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) It required a lot of planning and great courage to introduce free primary education in Kenya.
(Begin: The…)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………......…………………………………………………………..
iii) She wondered what her daughters knew about F.G.M. (identify by underlining the noun clause
in the given sentence)

b) Filling in the blanks with the correct form of the word given in bracket. (3mks)
i) Women in most societies strive to fight against …………………. cultures. (patriarchy)
ii) The issue was …………………………. by prejudices. (devil)
iii) She ran into an old ………………………………. at the bank. (acquaint)

c) Fill in the blank spaces using the most appropriate pronoun. (3mks)
i) Between you and …………………………… who is wiser. (1, me)
ii) It was………………………… that reported the matter to the area chief. (her, she)
iii) The teacher sent James and ………………… to the library. (me,1)
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d) Complete the following sentences with the most appropriate phrase to complete the idiom.
(3mks)
i) Getting fired turned out to be a blessing ………………………...………………...
ii) After some reflection, he decided to bite…………………...………………………
iii) I go out for walks once……………………………………………………………...

e) Fill in the blank spaces in each of the following sentences with the most appropriate
preposition. (3mks)
(i) The president will preside ......................... the function.
(ii) The exercise was conducted in accordance .............................. the regulations.
(iii) inoculation gives protection ………………………… infection.

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
ENGLISH
101/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
(Creative Composition and Essay Based on Set Text)

NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES


1. Write your details in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
2. Answer three questions only.
3. Questions one and two are compulsory.
4. In question three choose only one of the optional texts you have prepared for.
5. Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional text, only the first one to appear
will be marked.
6. Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words.
7. Candidates should check to ascertain that no questions are missing.
8. Candidates must answer the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only


Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
1 20
2 20
3 20
Total 60

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1. IMAGINATIVE COMPOSITION (COMPULSORY) 20 MARKS
EITHER
(a) Write a composition ending with the following words
--------------------since that day, I have always promised myself to remain focused in my studies.
OR
(b) Write a composition explaining what Kenyan youths can do to help in the fight against
corruption.

2. (COMPULSORY) 20 MARKS
Seeking revenge results in more pain. Using illustrations from Paul B. Vitta’s novel, “Fathers of
Nations”, show the validity of the statement. (20 Marks)

3. EITHER
(a) The short story ( a silent song and other stories)
Some cultural practices do not add value hence should be done away with. Show the truth in this
statement basing your illustrations from Eric Ng’maryo’s Ivory Bangles..

OR

(b) The novel-Kazuo Ishiguro. An Artist of the Floating World


War has a way of affecting not only property but also people’s lives. Drawing examples from the
life of Masuji Ono in Ishiguro’s An Artist of The Floating World, write an essay to show the
truth of this statement.

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
102/1

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 1 (INSHA)
MUDA: SAA 1¾

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………..

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI………………………..

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………….

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

Maagizo
a) Andika insha mbili.
b) Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima
c) Kisha chagua insha nyingine kutoka tatu zilizobakia.
d) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400
e) Kila insha ina alama 20
f) Watahiniwa lazima waangalie kama kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa sawasawa na
kuwa maswali yote yamo.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE


SWALI UPEO ALAMA
1. 20
2. 20
3. 20
4. 20
JUMLA 40

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MASWALI.
1.Wewe ni chifu wa Kata ya Mwangaza. Umeandaa mkutano wa wanakata wako. Andika hotuba
utakayo toa kuhusu mambo yanayoathiri utangamano wa kitaifa na hatua zinazoweza
kuchukuliwa.

2.Fafanua hatua ambazo zimechukuliwa nchini ili kukabiliana na tatizo la unyanyasaji wa jinsia ya
kike.

3.Andika insha itakayo dhihirisha maana ya methali hii.


Ukicheza ujanani utalipa uzeeni

4 .Andika kisa kitakacho malizikia kwa maneno yafuatayo.


...sasa ninaelewa maneno yake kuhusu kufanya maamuzi ya busara. Sasa nimepata baraka za
wazazi na ridhaa yakuishi pamoja.

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
102/2

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 2 (LUGHA)
MUDA: SAA 2½

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………..

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI………………………..

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………….

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

MAAGIZO
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
c) Jibu maswali yote.
d) Majibu yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
e) Majibu yote yaandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTIHANI PEKEE


SWALI UPEO TUZO
1. UFAHAMU 15
2. UFUPISHO 15
3. MATUMIZI YA 40
LUGHA
4. ISIMU JAMII 10
JUMLA 80

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1. UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)
Soma taarifa ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali uliyopewa.
Taifa la Kenya limekuwa na tatizo la njaa kwa muda mrefu na hili ni tatizo ambalo hutokea
mwaka baada ya mwaka. Kuna sababu kadhaa ambazo zimelifanya tatizo hili likithiri. Wananchi wengi
hutegema ukulima kujipatia pato pamoja na chakula. Jambo hili limekuwa shida kubwa kwa vile
kilimo hutegemea mvua isiyotabirika. Watabiri wa hali ya hewa huwashauri wakulima wapande
mbegu zitakazohimili jua lakini mvua nayo inakuwa nyingi na kuharibu mimea.
Bidhaa za ukulima kama mbegu za kupanda, mbolea, dawa za kunyunyizia na zinginezo,
zimekuwa ghali. Kuna sehemu kubwa ya ardhi ambayo ni kame na haiwezi kutumika kwa kilimo.
Mazao yanayotolewa shambani hayahifadhiwi vizuri. Mengine yanaharibikia shambani na mengine
yanavamiwa na wadudu kiasi kwamba hayawezi kutumika.
Tatizo lingine ni vita vya kikabila. Kabila tofauti zinapopigana, watu huhama na kuacha
mashamba ilhali wengine huchoma maghala ya chakula. Wafanyabiashara pamoja na serikali
huwanunulia wakulima mazao yao kwa bei ya chini sana mpaka wanakosa shauku ya kuyashughulikia
mashamba yao. Siku hizi wakulima hawashughuliki tena kuzuia mmomonyoko wa udongo. Hivyo
mvua inaponyesha rotuba yote inachukuliwa. Serikali haina sera mwafaka za kukabiliana na njaa.
Hii ndiyo sababu sehemu zingine kama Turkana na Marsabit zimekabiliwa na njaa kwa muda mrefu.
Tatizo hili linaweza kutatuliwa ikiwa wakulima wataelimishwa juu ya mbinu bora za
ukulima. Pia wakulima waishio katika sehemu ambazo hazina mvua ya kutosha wapewe mbegu
ambazo zitahimili kiangazi. Ukulima wa kunyunyuzia mimea maji unafaa kuzingatiwa. Mazao
yanayotolewa shambani yahifadhiwe vizuri kwa kuwekwa dawa za kuwaua wadudu.
Sehemu kubwa za ardhi ambazo hazitumiwi zitolewe kwa kilimo. Ni muhimu wakulima
waelimishwe kuhusu jinsi ya kuzuia mmomonyoko wa udongo na umuhimu wake. Wakulima
wanunuliwe mazao yao kwa bei nafuu ili wajibidiishe katika kazi yao. Serikali inafaa iwe na sera
mwafaka ili iweze kutatua tatizo hilo ambalo limekuwa ni janga kuu.

MASWALI
1. Eleza mbinu tano zinazoweza kutumiwa kutatua tatizo kuu linalozungumziwa. (al 5)
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2. Fafanua matatizo mbalimbali yanayolikumba Taifa la Kenya. (al 4)
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3. Onyesha ukulima ulivyo uti wa mgongo wa uchumi wa Taifa la Kenya (al 2)


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4. Vita vya kikabila husababisha njaa. Dhibitisha kwa mujibu wa kifungu. (al 2)
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5. Eleza maana ya maneno haya kama yaliyotumika katika kifungu. al 2)


i) Kukabiliana

ii) Janga

2. UFUPISHO (ALAMA 15)


Sawia na inavyotumika katika kukuza uchumi, teknolojia haiwezi kuepukika katika malezi enzi hizi
na zijazo. Watalaamu wa malezi dijitali wanasema ingawa wazazi wanafaa kuhakikisha watoto
wao wanakingwa na hatari za mtandao, unaweza kutumiwa kukuza talanta zao.
Kulingana na mtaalamu wa malezi, wazazi wanaweza kutumia mitandao ya kijamii kukuza vipawa
vya watoto wao huku wakihakikisha usalama wao. Watoto wanaweza kutumia mitandao kuandika
blogu au kujifunza kupiga, kutangaza na kuuza picha na video. Wanaweza kunoa vipawa vyao
katika michezo pia. Hivyo basi, wazazi wanapaswa kuwahimiza waingie katika mtandao na kuwa
wabunifu.

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Wataalamu wanasema wazazi wanaowaruhusu watoto wao kuanza kutalii mtandao kwa lengo la
kukuza talanta zao huwa wanawapa ufunguo wa ufanisi wa maishani. Mtaalamu mmoja kwa jina
Aluoch alieleza kuwa, kukumbatia mtandao ni njia moja ya mtoto wako kuweka rekodi ya ufanisi
wake. Iwe ni picha wakipokea zawadi, wakishiriki na kushinda mechi au wakiwa kwenye hafla
muhimu kwa maisha yao. Jambo hili linaweza kuwatia moyo kukuza talanta zinazoweza kuwafaa
katika maisha yao ya baadaye.
Hata hivyo, wazazi wanafaa kuchunguza na kupitisha chochote watoto wao wanapakia au kuchapisha
kwenye mtandao ili wasihatarishe maisha yao na ya familia zao. Ni muhimu kuwa makini ili
watoto wasiandike maelezo au kuchapisha chochote kinachoeleza wanakoishi, wanakosemea au
wanakoshinda wakicheza. Vitu vinazoweza kuepukwa ni kama sare za shule, picha zinazoonyesha
nyumba yako au anwani ya nyumba au chapisho lolote linalotangaza watakakokuwa na wakati
watakuwa hapo.

Maswali
a) Fupisha aya tatu za kwanza. ( maneno 80-85). (alama 9, moja ya
mtiririko)
Matayarisho
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Jibu
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b) Fupisha aya ya nne. (maneno 35-40) (alama 4, moja ya


mtiririko)
Matayarisho
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Jibu
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3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)
a). Andika sauti zanye sifa zifuatazo: (al 2)
i) Kipasuo, si ghuna cha ufizi

ii) Kikwamizo, ghuna cha ufizi

iii) Nazali, ghuna ya kaakaagumu

iv) Irabu ya mbele, juu, tandazwa

b) Tunga neno lenye sauti mwambatano ya ufizi. (al 1)

c) Kwa kutoa mifano, eleza tofauti ya silabi wazi na funge. (al 2)

d) Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika umoja. (al 2)


Tukipanda ndizi hizi vyema, vijiji hivi vitakuwa na vyakula vya kutosha.

e) Tunga sentensi yenye muundo ufuatao (al 2)


KN(W+V) + KT (t+ s)

f) Ainisha viambishi awali na tamati katika neno lifuatalo. (al 2)


Ulijuaje

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g) Onyesha na kutoa mifano, miundo miwili ya nomino katika ngeli ya KI-VI. ( al 2)
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h) Yakinisha sentensi hii katika nafasi ya pili. ( al 1)


Wasiposoma kwa bidii hawatapita mtihani.

i) Akifisha sentensi ifuatayo. (al 3)


tafadhali nipe maji ninywe nina kiu mkimbizi alimwambia

j) Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika hali ya udogo umoja. ( al 1)


Ngoma hizo zao zilipasuliwa na vijana wale.

k) Tunga sentensi moja ukitumia vitenzi vifuatavyo katika kauli ya kutendua. ( al 2)


Funga

Chomeka

l) Unda vivumishi kutokana na vitenzi vifuatavyo kisha utunge sentensi ukitumia vivumishi
ulivyotunga. ( al 2)
i) Cheka
Kivumishi…………………………………………………………………………………

Sentensi……………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Pika
Kivumishi………………………………………………………………………………….
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Sentensi…………………………………………………………………………………….

m) Tumia neno hadi katika sentensi kama kihusishi cha: (al 2)


i) wakati

ii) mahali

n) Tambua aina za vielezi katika sentensi ifuatayo: (al 2)


Kipusa mrembo sana alitembea kitausi shuleni jana.

o) Huba ni kwa penzi, heshima ni kwa …………………na ruhusa ni kwa ….………. (al 1)

p) Tambua aina za vitenzi katika sentensi ifuatayo. (al 2)


Kijana aliyekuwa hapa ndiye mtoto wake.

q) Tambua shamirisho na chagizo katika sentensi ifuatayo. (al 3)


Vijana hawa hulipiwa karo mapema.

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r) Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa kielelezo cha jedwali. (al 2)
Zawadi nzuri niliyomtunuku mwanawe ilimpa furaha tele.

s) Tunga sentensi mbili ukitumia neno “komaa” kama: (al 2)


Kivumishi

Nomino

t) Ainisha virai katika sentensi ifuatayo; (al 3)


Ndovu amelala kando ya mti.

u) Tunga sentensi moja kudhihirisha maana tofauti za maneno; Fuma (al 1)

4. ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)


i) Soma makala yafuatayo kisha ujibu maswali.
Ahabu: Likizo ilikuwa fupi tumerudi kwa vitabu sasa.
Munini: Huu ni wakati wa kipindi cha lala salama, lazima tujikaze.
Ahabu : Usemavyo ni real.
Munini: Bidii ndiyo itakayotuokoa.
Ahabu : Ulimaliza ile assignment. Maze mimi nilishindwa.
Munini: Shsss… ndo huyo mwalimu.
Bw. Juma: Nani hao wanaongea? Nyamazeni! Tumekuja hapa kusoma sio kupiga kelele.
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Maswali
a) Tambua sajili inayorejelewa katika kifungu hiki. (alama 1)

b) Fafanua sifa nne za sajili hii kama zilivyojitokeza katika kifungu (alama 4)

ii) Taja nadharia tatu zinazoeleza chimbuko la lugha ya Kiswahili. (alama 3)

iii) Eleza istilahi zifuatazo katika isimu jamii (alama 2)


a) Usanifishaji

b) Lafudhi

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KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 3 (FASIHI)
MUDA: SAA 2½

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………..

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI………………………..

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………….

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

MAAGIZO KWA WATAHINIWA


a) Andika jina lako, shule, nambari ya mtihani kisha utie sahihi katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo
juu
b) Jibu maswali manne pekee
c) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima
d) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki yaani Riwaya,
Tamthilia, Hadithi fupi na Ushairi
e) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE


SWALI UPEO ALAMA
1. 20
20
20
20
JUMLA

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SEHEMU A: USHAIRI (ALAMA 20)
1. LAZIMA
Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali.
Alikwamba wako mama, kajifanya hupuliki,
Kakuasa kila jema, ukawa ng’oo!Hutaki,
Sasa yamekusakama, popote hapashikiki,
Uliyataka mwenyewe!

Babayo lipokuonya, ukamwona ana chuki,


Mambo ukaboronganya, kujifanya hushindiki,
Sasa yamekunganya, kwa yeyote hupendeki,
Uliyataka mwenyewe!

Mazuri uliodhania, yamekuletea dhiki,


Mishikeli miania, kwako ona haitoki,
Mwanzo ungekumbukia, ngekuwa huaziriki,
Uliyataka mwenyewe!

Dunia nayo hadaa, kwa fukara na maliki,


Ulimwenguni shujaa, hilo kama hukumbuki,
Ya nini kuyashangaa? Elewa hayafutiki,
Uliyataka mwenyewe!

Mwenyewe umelichimba, la kukuzika handaki,


Ulijidhania samba, hutishiki na fataki,
Machungu yamekukumba, hata neno hutamki,
Uliyataka mwenyewe!
Kwa mno ulijivuna, kwa mambo ukadiliki,
Na tena ukajiona, kuwa wewe mstahiki,
Ndugu umepatikana, mikanganyo huepuki,
Uliyataka mwenyewe!
Maswali
1.Shairi hili ni la aina gani? Eleza (alama 2)
2.Ukizingatia vigezo vifuatavyo,taja aina za bahari za shairi (alama 3)
i. Kibwagizo
ii. Vina
iii. Vipande
3.Tambua kwa kutoa mifano mitatu ya mbinu ambazo mshairi ametumia ili kutosheleza mahitaji ya
kiarudhi. (alama 3)
4.Eleza muundo wa ubeti wa tano. (alama 4)
5.Taja na utoe mifano ya aina zozote mbili za tamathali za usemi zilizotumika katika
shairi. (alama 2)
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6.Bainisha toni ya shairi hili. (alama 2)
7.Andika ubeti wa pili kwa lugha ya nathari. (alama 4)

SEHEMU B:TAMTHILIA
Timothy M.Arege :Bembea ya Maisha
Jibu swali swali la 2 au la 3
2. “Maisha ya sasa hayana fundi.Yanamwendesha kila mtu kama tawi lililosukumwa hadi likang’oka
kutoka taagani na kupeperushwa na upepo…Ulimwengu wa sasa haubagui. Wadogo kwa
wakubwa”.
a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)
b) Huku ukitoa mifano, changanua mbinu tano za uandishi ambazo zimejitokeza
katika nukuu. (alama 10)
c) Kukatika kwa bembea haiwi mwisho wa mchezo huunganishwa na mchezo kuendelea.
Kwa kutoa mifano sita onyesha jinsi wahusika mbalimbali walivyounganisha bembea
yao ya maisha. (alama 6)

3. Mabadiliko katika maisha ya mwanadamu hayana budi kumfika.Wakati mwingine mabadiliko


haya huleta heri au mahangaiko. Jadili kwa kutoa mifano jinsi wahusika mbalimbali
walivyokumbwa na mabadiliko haya ukirejelea tamthilia ya ‘Bembea ya Maisha’.
(alama 20)

SEHEMU C: RIWAYA
Clara Momanyi: Nguu za Jadi
Jibu swali la 4 au 5
4. “Tangu lini mke amuulize mumewe kule aendako au atokako?.....Ama kweli, wanawake wa kisasa
wanavunja kila mwiko uliowekwa na wazee.”
i) Yaweke maneno haya katika muktadha wake. (alama4)
ii) Kwa kutoa mfano,taja mbinu ya lugha iliyotumika. (alama2)
iii) Eleza umuhimu wa msemaji (alama4)
(iv) Kwa kutoa mifano kumi kutoka riwayani, fafanua jinsi mwanamke amesawiriwa katika jamii
ya Matuo. (alama 10)

5. Jamii ya Matuo katika riwaya ya ‘Nguu za Jadi’ imekumbwa na usaliti si haba. Kwa kutoa mifano
mwafaka riwayani, onyesha ukweli wa kauli hii. (alama20)

SEHEMU D: HADITHI FUPI


MAPAMBAZUKO YA MACHWEO NA HADITHI NYINGINE
Jibu swali la 6 au 7
‘Mapambazuko ya Machweo’
6. “Una pesa ya kulipa teksi?”
a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)
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b) Taja mbinu mbili za lugha ambazo zimejitokeza katika dondoo hili kwa kutoa mifano.
(alama2)
c) Kwa kutolea hoja nne, onyesha umuhimu wa mnenewa katika kukuza vitushi vya hadithi hii.
(alama 4)
d) Eleza jinsi anwani ‘Mapambazuko ya Machweo’ ilivyoafiki hadithi hii kwa kutoa mifano kumi
kutoka hadithini . (alama 10)

“Fadhila za Punda”
7. “Yu wapi kirukanjia wako? Wajua yuko wapi? Uliacha mbachao kwa msala upitao. Atakutunza
nani, maana kwako fadhila za punda ni mashuzi!”
a) Yaweke maneno haya katika muktadha wake. (alama 4)
b) Tambua tamathali mbili za usemi zilizotumika katika dondoo hili. (alama 2)
c) Fafanua sifa zozote nne za anayeambiwa maneno haya. (alama 4)
d) Kwa kurejelea hadithi ‘Fadhila za Punda’ onyesha jinsi wanawake wanadhulumiwa na jinsia ya
kiume kwa kutoa mifano kumi mwafaka kutoka hadithini. (alama10)

SEHEMU E: FASIHI SIMULIZI


Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali.
8. Hapo zamani za kale paliishi sungura na ndovu.Wanyama hawa waliishi baharini. Mauluna
alikuwa amewatunukia mapenzi si haba. Makazi yao yalikuwa yamepambwa yakapambika.
Walitegemea matunda mbalimbali yaliyokuwa baharini kama mapera, matomoko, matikitimaji na
kadhalika.
Siku moja usiku wa manane, maji yakaanza kupwa. Ndovu aliathirika zaidi. Alijaribu kuinama majini
lakini hakuweza. Alimwita sungura amsaidie lakini sungura alikuwa ametoweka.
Ndovu aliamua kwenda kumtafuta sungura. Alimtafuta hadi msituni lakini hakumpata. Alihofia
kurudi baharini na hadi wa leo yumo msituni.

Maswali
a)Tambua utanzu huu na kipera chake. (alama2)
b)Eleza sifa tano za utanzu wa kipera hiki. (alama3)
c)Eleza umuhimu wa fomyula ya kuhitimisha katika aina hii ya ngano. (alama 3)
d)Wewe ni fanani anayewasilisha kipera hiki kwa hadhira.Taja mambo matatu ambayo utafanya
kuhakikisha umefanikiwa katika uwasilishaji wako. (alama 3)
e)Taja manufaa mawili ya ngano katika jamii. (alama 2)
f)Kipera hiki kinaendelea kudidimia katika jamii yako.Eleza mbinu tano utakazozitumia
kukidumisha katika jamii ya leo. (alama5)

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443/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

Instructions
This page consists of three sections A, B and C.
Answer ALL the questions in sections A and B and only two questions from section C.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY


MAXIMUM CANDIDATE
SECTION QUESTION SCORE SCORE
A 1-15 30
B 16-17 20
C 18-20 40

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SECTION A (30MKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. Givefour advantages of large scale farming. (2mks)
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2a) Define nomadic pastoralism (1mk)


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b) State two advantages of nomadic pastoralism. (1mk)


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3. State four factors which determine soil depth. (2mks)


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4. Give four natural factors that would encourage the gully erosion on a farm. (2mks)
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5. State four ways in which trees help in soil conservation. (2mks)


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6. State four disadvantages of communal land tenure system. (2mks)


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7. State four factors that should be considered when selecting a forage crop species to be
established in a given area. (2mks)
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8. What do you understand by the following terms. (3mks)


Seed dressing
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Seed inoculation
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Chitting
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9. Give two advantages of compound fertilizers (1mk)


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10. State two effects of varying spacing in maize production. (2mks)


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11. State four symptoms of viral diseases in crop production. (2mk)
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12. List four branches of livestock farming. (2mks)
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13. Name four varieties of dry beans (2mks)
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14. Give four precautions taken to prevent pest attack in stored produce. (2mks)
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15. What is organic farming? (1mk)
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SECTION B (20MKS)
16. Study the diagrams below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

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a)Identify the pests labelled A and B (2mks)
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b) State two effects the pest labelled A causes on a maize plant. (2mks)
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c) List three effects of pest B in stores. (3mks)


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d)State three methods of controlling striga weed. (3mks)


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17.The diagram below shows a field management practice carried out on a fruit crop.Study it
carefully and answer the question that follow.

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a) Identify the practice (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Give two reasons for carrying out the above practice. (2mks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) State three reasons for storing beans after harvesting. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) State three advantages of processing farm produce. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Define the term drainage. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION C (40MKS)
Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided.
18a) Describe eight farming activities that would encourage soil erosion (8mks)
b) Describe the harvesting of cotton. (8mks)
c) Describe seedbed preparation for carrot production. (4mks)

19a) Describe ten factors that would determine the nutrient content of hay. (10mks)
b)Describe ten advantages of using organic matter for mulching. (10mks)

20a)Explain six morphological features of weeds that influence selectivity of herbicides.(6mks)


b)Give five disadvantages of zero grazing system. (5mks)
c) Describe nine factors considered in the selection of planting materials. (9mks)

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
AGRICULTURE
443/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and random number in the spaces provided.
2. This paper consists of three sections A,B and C
3. Answer all Questions in Section A and B and any Two questions in section C in the spaces
provided

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY


SECTION QUESTION MAX.SCORE CANDIDATE SCORE
A 1-19 30
B 20-23 20
C 24-26 40
TOTAL SCORE 90

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SECTION A (30MKS)
Answer all questions the question in the section in the spaces provided.
1. Name one intermediate host for each of the following livestock parasites.
i) Liverfluke(fasciola sp) ( ½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Tape worm(Taenia sp.) ( ½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Name the breed of goat kept for hair production ( ½ mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Give two reasons for having a footbath in a cattle deep. (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Differentiate between the following tool


a) Bastard file and rasp file (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Copying saw and hack saw (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. State any two reasons why ewes disown lambs. (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. List any four qualities of good creep feed. (2 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Name two livestock diseases that are caused by protozoa (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. State four parasites that a farmer should carry out to reduce egg eating habits in poultry
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. State two ways of preparing the saw for furrowing. `(1 mark
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. List four predisposing factors to livestock diseases. (2 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. State four management practices that would ensure maximum harvest of fish from fish pond.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. State two advantages of using wood in the construction of farm building. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. State four conditions inhibiting milk let down. (2 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. State what happens on the following parts of a hen during egg formation.
i) Magnum (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Isthmus (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. State four desirable features of a rabbit hutch. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. State two physical features of a good layer (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. State four factors considered when sitting an apiary. (2 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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18. Give two reasons for foot trimming in sheep. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. a) Give four features of a good laying nest. (2 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give three reasons why a young calf must be fed on colostrums during the first few days of life.
(1 ½ marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (20 MARKS)


Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided
20. a) The diagram below illustrates the farm tools labeled A, B and C.Study them and answer the
questions that follow

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a) State THREE proper uses for the tool labeled A. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) State THREE field conditions under which the tool labeled B would be more suitable for use
than tool C. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. A diagram of a sheep is shown below. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow

i) What operation is usually carried out on the part labeled A? (1mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Give two reasons for carrying out the operation stated in a(i) above? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) At what age should the operation in a(i) above be carried out? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) Give two methods of carrying out the operation in a(i) above. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

v) Which routine is usually carried out on the part labeled B. (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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vi) Name the disease that is likely to affect the sheep if the operation stated in a(v) above is not
carried out. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
vii) Explain how the sheep should be restrained when shearing the wool around the belly
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. The diagrams bellow illustrates a livestock activity and livestock handling structure. Study the
diagram and answer the questions that follow.

a) Identify the activity in C and the structure in D


C (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
D (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) i)State two hygienic precautions to be taken in activity C. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Name the materials used in constructing parts E and F in structure D. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) What is the purpose of G an D (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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23. The following diagram illustrates a symptom of a disease in poultry. Study it carefully and
answer the questions that follow.

a) Identify
i) The disease (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) The causal organism (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) State two control measures for the disease. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C (40 MARKS)


Answer any two questions in this section in the spaces provided after question 26
24. a) Discuss any six signs of Trypanosomiasis in livestock. (6 marks)
b) Explain the use of the fences in the farm (8mks)

c) Explain various preparations carried out on fish before preservation. (6 marks)

25. a) Discuss any three breeding practices carried out on animals in the farm. (9 marks)
b) Explain any three types of metals used in construction. (6 marks)
c) Outline any five factors considered in selecting materials for construction of farm structures.
(5 marks)
26. a) Discuss the various methods of disease control in livestock production. (10 marks)
b) Describe the digestion of grass in the rumen of an adult ruminant. (8 marks)
c) Explain two reasons why raddling is necessary in sheep management. (2 marks)

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
BUSINESS STUDIES
565/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
i. Write your name and admission number in the space in provided above.
ii. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
iii. Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY


QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
SCORE

QUESTION 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
SCORE

TOTAL SCORE

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1. Highlight three benefits of business to a society. (3 marks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. State four advantages of locating a firm near the source of raw materials. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3.Highlight four trends in communication. (4 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4.Outline four advantages of a rapidly growing population. (4 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Outline four ways through which peace within a country benefits a business. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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6.Primary level is the major contributor of gross domestic product in developing countries as
compared to other levels of production.State four reasons for this. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7.State four advantages of using intermediaries in the distribution of goods. (4 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8.Highlight four differences between acooperative societies and private limited company.
(4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9.State four advantages of using modern technology in an office. (4 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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10. The following information was extracted from the books of Venus traders as at 31st
December 2024:
Details shs
5 years loan 256,700
Land 120,000
Cash 24,600
Creditors 37,400
Building 430,500
Prepare Venus traders balance sheet as at 31st December 2024. (4 marks)

11.Outline four factors that may hinder geographical mobility of labour. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12.The following relate to Furaha Traders for the year 2024


i)closing capital (31.12.2020) sh 300,000
ii)the owner converted his personal computer valued at sh 35,000 into business use.
iii)the owner had withdrawn goods worth sh 40,000 for personal use.
iv) incurred losses amounting to sh 65,000
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
Determine Furaha Traders intial capital on(1.01.2024). (4 marks)

13.For each of the following source documents ,indicate the book of original entry:(4 marks)
Source document Book of original entry
Received receipt
Incoming invoice
Outgoing credit note
Incoming cash sale slips

14.Highlight four measures that a government may take to reduce the mortality rate in a
country. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15.The following balances were extracted from the books of Mavuno Traders for the
year ended 31st march 2025.
Gross profit. 186,200
Discount allowed. 7,400
Carriage outwards. 13,500
Rent received. 34,300
Office expenses. 19,600
Salaries. 57,000

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
Prepare a profit and loss for the ended 31st march 2025 (5 marks)

16.State four factors that determine the amount of money held for precautionary motive.
(4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17.State four methods of sale promotion a business may adopt. (4 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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18.State four reasons why consumers have to make a choice between competing needs.
(4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Identify the retailers described in the statement given below (4marks


Statement Retailers
a)sell goods by displaying them along the
street
b)move from one place to another on foot
selling their products
c)Dispenses goods with the use of coins
operated machines
d)Meet on designated days in open ground
to sell their goods.

20.State four ways a business can use to motivate it's work force. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21.List four types of businesses activities. (4 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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22.Highlight four benefits of selling goods online. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23.Identify four circumstances under which an insurance contract may be terminated.(4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

24.State four characteristics of a successful entrepreneurs. (4 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25.Show the effect of each of the following transaction to capital,assets and liabilitiesindicating if
its increasing(+),decreasing(-) or nil(0). (4 marks)
Transaction Capital Asset Liability

a)Converted private house into business premises

b)Paid creditors in cash

c)Sold a business car valued at sh 400,000 for sh 300,000


on credit
d)Sold goods on credit

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
BUSINESS STUDIES
565/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES


 Answer any five questions.
 Write your answer in the answer booklet provided.
 All questions carry equal marks.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:-


Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

Marks

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1. a).Explain five factors that may promote entrepreneurship in Kenya (10mks).
b). Explain five Factors that may have led to increase in demand for soft drinks in Kenya. (10mks)

2. a). Explain five features that would be considered when establishing a warehouse for imported
goods (10mks)
b). On 1st September 2015, Mwangaza Traders had shs 55, 000 in hand and shs 250,000 in Bank.
During the month, the following transactions took place. (10mks)
Sept: 2: cash sales were banked shs. 35,260.
3: Bought ribbons in cash shs. 4,500.
8: Paid Wangila creditor shs. 94, 000 by cheque,
In full settlement of his account after deducting 6% cash discount.
12: received a cheque for shs. 58,800 from macharia after allowing him cash
discount of shs. 1,200
15: Paid salaries of shs 34,000 in cash.
25: withdrew shs. 50,000 from bank for office use.
28: Wanjiku a debtor paid her account of shs. 75,000 by cheque less 10% cash discount
30: Deposited all the cash into the bank except shs. 13,700.
Required: Prepare Mwangaza Traders 3 –column cash book and balance it off (10mks)

3. a). Explain five benefits that a private limited company may enjoy by changing to a public
Limited company (10mks)
b). Explain the functions of the following documents as used in home trade (10mks)
i). Invoice
ii). Debit note
iii). Credit note
iv). Receipt
v). Statement of account

4. a). Explain any five sources of monopoly power in a monopoly (10mks)


b). Explain five factors that may be considered when choosing a method of product promotion
(10mks)

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5. (10mks)
a). Outline any five principles of insurance
b). The following trial balance relates to Kilifi Ltd.
Kilifi limited
Trial Balance
As at 31st Dec. 2013.

Details Dr CR
Kshs Kshs
Capital 800,000

Opening stock 200,000


Purchases 680,000
Returns 50,000 80,000
Discount 80,000 45,000
Carriage inwards 42,000
Debtors and creditors 200,000 105,000
Sales 1,200,000
Motor vehicles 750,000
Furniture and fittings 250,000
Rent 50,000 60,000
Bank overdraft 42,000
Carriage outwards 30,000

Additional information:
Closing stock was valued at shs. 80,000
Required:

Prepare Kilifi limited Trading, profit and loss account (10mks).

6. a). Unemployment has been major problem that the Kenyan government has been trying
to solve. Explain any five measures that the Kenyan government has taken to solve this
Problem (10mks).
b) Explain any five sources of public finance (10mks)

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
BIOLOGY
231/1 (THEORY)
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
a) Write your Name, Class and Adm NO in the spaces provided above.
b) Answer all the questions in this paper in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:


Question Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
1 - 27 80

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Attempt All the Questions
1. Some form one students wanted to collect the following animals for study in the laboratory.
State the suitable apparatus they should use.
i) Housefly (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Scorpion (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Ants (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. State two reasons why a snake is classified as a reptile. (2 mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. (a) Explain the role of oxygen in Active transport (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name two processes that depend on Active transport in animals (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Explain how sunken stomata lower the rate of transpiration (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. State how xylem vessel is adapted to its function (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
6). a) Define the term immunity. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Distinguish between natural immunity and acquired immunity. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Identify one immunizable disease in Kenya. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. (a) State two adaptations of the alveolus to its functions. (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Suggest a reason for asthmatic patient producing a wheezing sound during breathing? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) What is the significance of the cartilage found in the human trachea being incomplete (c-
shaped rings) (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Define the following terms;


(i) Inter specific competition. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(ii) Carrying capacity (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Suggest two methods that can be used to determine the type of food eaten by animals. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. (a)State one significance of genetics counseling (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Part of a strand of DNA molecules was found to have the following sequence
A-T-C-G-G-G-A-T-C-T. What is the sequence?
(i) Of the complementary strand? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) On a m- RNA strand copied (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11). The paddles of whales and the fins of fish adapt these organisms to aquatic habitats.
a) Name the evolutionary process that may have given rise to these structures. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) What is the name given to such structures? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Give two examples of vestigial organs in man. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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12. Name the organelles that carry out the following functions (4mks)
(i) Destroy old and worn-out organelles
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Formation of spindle fibres
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Osmoregulation
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Selective passage of substances into the cell
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. (a) Why would you give an athlete glucose and not sucrose after a race? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What happens to lactic acid after oxygen debt recovery? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14.State the difference between glycolysis and kreb”s cycle based on the following.
a) where they occur . (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Amount of energy produced. (1 mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) End product(s) (1 mk )
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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15. a) Under which of the following magnifications would one see a larger part of the specimen
X40 0r X500? Give a reason. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State how magnification is worked out in a light microscope. (1 mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. The illustration below shows a transverse section through a mammalian kidney.

(a) Name the structures labelled X and Y.


X …………………………………………………………………………………………………
( 1mk)
Y …………………………………………………………………………………………………
(1mk)
(b) State the process in Q that leads to the formation of glomerular filtrate. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) State one function of sebum (1 mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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17. State three differences in composition between umbilical artery and umbilical vein. (3 marks)
Umbilical vein Umbilical artery

18. (a)What is meant by the term taxonomy? (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)When are two organisms considered to belong to the same species. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19).The diagram below shows part of alimentary canal of a mammal

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(i)Name the parts labeled A and C (2mks)
A …………………………………………………………………………………………
C ………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii)State the function of the part labeled B. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20). The graph below shows the relationship between body temperatures and external temperatures
in a human being and a snake. Study it and answer questions that follow.

a) What happens to the temperature of each organism as the external temperature increases. (2 mks)
Human
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Snake
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Humans are described as homoithermic. State the advantage of this condition. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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21.a)State three differences between light stage and dark stage of photosynthesis. (3 mks)
Light stage Dark stage

22. Define;
i) Pulmonary circulation (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Systemic circulation (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23 .The diagram below represents a plant cell that was subjected to a certain treatment.

At the start At the end of the experiment


a) Account for the shape of the cell at the end of the experiment. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) Draw a diagram to illustrate how an animal cell would appear if subjected to the same
treatment. (1mk)

24. a) Give a reason why each of the following steps are followed when preparing cross sections of
a leaf for examination under a microscope.
i) Cutting thin sections. (2 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Placing the sections in water. (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. Explain why the population of people with sickle cell anaemia is higher in malaria prone areas.
(3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. The diagram below is of a stage in cell division

With a reason identify the stage.


Stage (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Reason (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

27. The graph below represents growth pattern in a group organism

(a) Name the type of growth curve (1 mk)


……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name the phylum that shows this type of pattern (1 mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) State one disadvantage of this type of pattern (1 mk)


……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
BIOLOGY
231/2 (THEORY)
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

Instructions to candidates
a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above
c) This paper consists of two sections; A and B.
d) Answer all questions in section A in the spaces provided.
e) In section B answer question 6 (compulsory) and either and either 7 and 8 in the spaces provided
after question 8.

For Examiner’s Use Only


Section Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 8
2 8
A 3 8
4 8
5 8
6 20
B
20
Total Score 80

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SECTION A (40 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. The figure below represents structures located in plant leaves. Use them to answer the questions
that follow.

(a) How is the structure, labelled D, adapted to its function? (2 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name the parts labelled (2 marks)


A ……………………………………………………………………………………………….
B ……………………………………………………………………………………………….

(c) Using photosynthesis theory, briefly explain how the part marked A in the Figure II changes to
part marked A in the Figure I. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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2. In an experiment, black mice were crossed with brown mice. All the offspring had patches of
black and brown in equal proportion. Using letter B to represent the gene for black colour, and b
to represent the gene for brown colour:
(a) Work out the phenotypic ratio of F2 generation (3 marks)

(b) What is genetic engineering? (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Explain why drosophila melanogaster is suitable for use in genetic experiment. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) State two advantages of polyploidy in wheat farming (2 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The photograph below shows an organism from a certain class of organisms

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a. Name the class from which the organism belongs (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. Using observable features from the photograph state two reasons for your answer in (a) above
(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c. State two ways in which the organism is important to the environment (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d. Name the kingdom to which bacteria belongs (1 mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e. State two bacterial diseases in humans (2 mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. A freshly obtained dandelion stem measuring 5 cm long was split lengthwise to obtain two similar
pieces. The pieces were placed in solutions of different concentrations in petri dishes (L1 and L2)
for 20 minutes. The appearance after 20 minutes is shown below.

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a. Account for the appearance of the pieces in solutions L1 and L2 (6 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. State the significance of the biological process involved in the experiment (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. a. State two adaptations of the frogs skin to gaseous exchange (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c. Explain how the human nasal cavity is adapted to gaseous exchange (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d. Explain why amoeba does not require an elaborate gaseous exchange system (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e. Name the respiratory disease caused by Bordetellapartusis (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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SECTION B (40 MARKS)
Answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 and 8 in the spaces provided.
6. A culture of bacteria was taken at intervals in order to estimate the number of bacteria in the
population. The data is as provided in the table below.
Time in hours 0 5 15 20 25 30 35 40 45
Number of living
10 20 1000 1000 1000 800 400 250 50
cells (millions)
(a) On the grid provided, draw a graph of the number of living cells against time (6 marks)

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(b) Account for the shape of the graph below:
i) 0 – 5 hours (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) 5 – 15 hours (2 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) 15 – 25 hours (2 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) When was the population of bacteria 750 million? (2 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Give two reasons for the trend between 25 – 45 hours (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(e) Suggest what would happen to the population of bacteria if the temperature was lowered to 0 oC
after incubating for 12 hours. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(f) Give a reason for your answer in e) (i) above (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(g) To obtain the observed results, state two variables that were kept constant during the investigation.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. a. Describe the functions of human blood in the human body (10 marks)
b. How are respiratory surfaces in mammals adapted to their functions (10 marks)

8. Describe various evidences which show that evolution has taken place (20 marks)

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BIOLOGY
231/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

REQUIREMENTS
Each candidate will require the following
Question 1
You are provided with the following materials;
 Specimen A –Ripe banana
 Scalpel
 50ml beaker
 Glass rod
 8cm visking tubing
 2 pieces of strings
 20ml distilled water in a wash bottle
 100ml beaker
 10ml Iodine solution

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
BIOLOGY
231/3 (PRACTICAL)
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

Instructions to Candidates
 Write your name, Admission number and your other details in the spaces provided above.
 Spend the first 15 minutes of the time allocated to read through the question paper before
commencing your work
 Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
 Additional pages must not be inserted

For Examiner's Use Only


Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 13
2 13
3 14
Total Score 40

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1. You are provided with the following materials;
 Specimen A
 Scalpel
 50ml beaker
 Glass rod
 8cm visking tubing
 2 pieces of strings
 20ml distilled water in a wash bottle
 100ml beaker
 10ml Iodine solution
1. You are provided with a specimen labeled A. Make a transverse section of the specimen.
(a) Draw and label the section (3mks)

(b) What type of fruit is specimen A? (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Slice off about 2cm thick disc from the specimen. Peel it. Place the piece into a beaker and mash
it into a paste using a glass rod. Add 20ml of distilled water and stir. Tie one end of the
transparent tubing provided. Decant the extract into the tubing and tie the other end tightly,
ensuring there is no leakage.
Immerse the tubing with its contents in a 100ml beaker containing Iodine solution for 20 minutes.
(i) Record your observations in the table below (4mks)
Extract inside visking tubing Iodine solution outside the visking tubing

Before the
experiment
After the
experiment

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(i) Explain the results obtained from c(i) above. (5mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Study the photographs below and answer the questions that follow.

(a) With observable reasons identify the class of the specimen in the photograph .
(i) Class………………………………………………………………………….. (1mk)
(ii) Reasons (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………...……….
……………………………………………………………………………………
(b) (i) Name the structures labeled (4mks)
P …………………………………………………………………………………………...
Q …………………………………………………………………………………………...
R …………………………………………………………………………………………...
S …………………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) State the function of the parts labeled (2mks)
U …………………………………………………………………………………………...
V …………………………………………………………………………………………...
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(c) Study the photographs below depicting plants growing in different habitats.

(i) Identify the habitats in which they are found (2mks)


Y …………………………………………………………………………………………...
Z …………………………………………………………………………………………...

(ii) State the significance of the following structures found in the specimens shown above (2mks)
R …………………………………………………………………………………………...
S …………………………………………………………………………………………...

3. Below are photographs showing some observable features of animals

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(a) Using the features in the order given below, construct a dichotomous key that can be used to
identify the specimens in the photographs. (10mks)
 Presence or absence of backbone
 Presence or absence of wings
 Presence or absence of scales
 Presence or absence of pouch
 Bipedal or quadrupedal

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) Study the photographs below showing blood vessels in man.

(i) Using observable features identify the blood vessels (2mks)


E …………………………………………………………………………………………...
F …………………………………………………………………………………………...

(ii) Using observable features only, give two differences between the two blood vessels (2mks
E F

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
CHEMISTRY
233/1 (THEORY)
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and Adm number in the spaces provided above
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided
3. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided
4. All working must be clearly shown where necessary.

FOR EXAMINAER’S USE ONLY


Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1-28 80

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1. a) State Graham’s law of diffusion. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) 50cm³ of nitrogen (ii) oxide was allowed to diffuse through a porous membrane in 20 seconds.
Calculate the time taken by equal volume of carbon (ii) oxide to diffuse through the same
membrane. (C=12, N=14, O=16). (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. State two functions of a fume chamber in a laboratory. (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The diagram below shows a structure of water molecule.

Name the bonds labelled. (2mks)


i) A
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) B
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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4. Two samples of water were put in separate beakers. They were boiled for sometime and allowed
to cool. Equal volumes of soap were added to each sample and stirred. Water in beaker C readily
formed lather with soap while water in beaker D required more soap to lather.
i) Write the formula of one salt likely to be in water in beaker. (2mks)
a) C
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) D
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Name one method that can be used to soften water in beaker D. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Describe how you would prepare lead (ii) sulphate given the following reagents: dilute nitric (v)
acid, distilled water, sodium sulphate solid and lead metal. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. During manufacture of sulphuric (vi) acid, sulphur (iv) oxide is oxidised to sulphur (vi) oxide in
the presence of vanadium oxide catalyst as shown below:

The reaction is carried out at a pressure of 3 atmospheres and a temperature of 4500C. State and
explain the effect on the yield of sulphur (vi) oxide if the reaction is:
a) Carried out at 3 atmospheres and 6000C. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) In absence of a catalyst. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. a) Hydrogen gas was passed over 4.64g of an oxide of iron in a combustion tube until there was
no further change. The mass of the final substance was found to be 3.36g. Determine the
empirical formula of the oxide. (Fe=56, O= 16). (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State the property of hydrogen demonstrated in the experiment above. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Atoms of element X exist as 14 6X and 12 6 X.


a) What name is given to the two types of atoms? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Use dot (.) and (x) diagram to represent electrons draw the atomic structure of x. (2mks)

9. Hydrogen sulphide gas was passed through a solution of iron (ii) chloride.
i) State two observations made. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) Write an equation for the reaction taking place in (i) above. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Two clean iron nails of the same size were connected with wire to magnesium and silver stripes
as shown.

State and explain the observation made on nail x and y if they were left in the open for 2 weeks.
(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. The diagram below shows an incomplete setup used to prepare sulphur (iv) oxide in the
laboratory.

a) Identify solid H. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Complete the set up above to show how dry sulphur (iv) oxide may be collected. (2mks)

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12. Some average bond energies are given below.
Bond Energy in kJ/MOL
C-C 348
C-H 414
Cl- Cl 243
H-Cl 340
C – Cl 432

Determine whether the reaction below is exothermic or endothermic. (3mks)


C2 H6(g) + Cl2(g) C2H5Cl(g) + HCl(g)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. Study the scheme below and answer questions that follow

a) Identify reagent A. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Name process B (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) What does PVC stand for? (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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14. Ethanedioic acid (H2C2O4) is used instead of methanoic acid (HCOOH) to prepare carbon (ii)
oxide in the laboratory. It gives equal volume of carbon (ii) oxide and carbon (iv) oxide.
a) Write an equation for the dehydration of ethanedioic acid. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain how pure carbon (ii) oxide can be obtained from the mixture. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. The diagram below represents a set-up of apparatus used to investigate the effect of an electric
current on lead (ii) bromide.

a) Describe the observation made at electrode C. (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State two applications of electrolysis. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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16. The set up below was used to investigate a property of ammonia gas.

i) What property of ammonia gas is being investigated? (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) The experiment above is commonly known as ‘the fountain experiment’; explain. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Identify another gas that may be used instead at ammonia gas. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. Draw a well labelled diagram to show how crystals of sodium chloride can be obtained from
sodium chloride solution. (3mks)

18. a) Define the term solubility. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) 40g of a saturated solution yields 15g of salt when evaporated to dryness. Calculate the solubility
of the salt. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Increased levels of carbon (ii) oxide leads to global warming. Give two reasons why the amount
of carbon (iv) oxide in the atmosphere is increasing gradually. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. Explain the observation made when a blue litmus paper is dipped in methylbenzene in which
hydrogen chloride gas is bubbled through. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. The reaction between hydrogen gas and oxygen releases energy. A student drew the reaction
profile for the reaction between hydrogen gas and oxygen gas.

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State two errors made when drawing the reaction profile. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

22. Both water (18) and hydrogen sulphide (34) are molecular substances. However water has a
higher boiling point than hydrogen sulphide. Explain. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. The grid below represents part of a periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

E A X

R G C
Q
a) How do the atomic radii of R and G compare. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) How do the pH of the oxides of A and E compare. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) On the grid, indicate with a tick () the position of K which is found on the third period and
forms K3- ions. (1mk)

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24. The curves below were obtained when equal volumes of nitric (v) acid of same concentration
were reacted with 25.0g of calcium carbonate, labelled Y. In one case, the acid was first warmed
before the reaction.

a) Which curve represents the reaction involving warm nitric (v) acid? (1mk)

b) Sketch the curves obtained if the graph of the volume of CO2 produced against time were plotted.
(NB: on the same axis) (2mks)
25. i) State two observations made when a small piece of potassium metal is put in a beaker full of
water. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Name the group of the periodic table to which potassium belongs. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. When a hydrocarbon with formula CxHy burns in chlorine gas, black specks and a colourless gas
are obtained.
a) To which homologous series does the hydrocarbon belong? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Write the general equation for the reaction between the hydrocarbon and chlorine gas. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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27. The diagram below represents a set up for large scale manufacture of hydrochloric acid. Study it
and answer the questions that follow.

i) Name the substance X. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) What is the purpose of glass beads? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Give one use of hydrochloric acid. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

28. When 25cm³ of 0.5M HCl is added to 25cm³ of 0.5M NaOH, the temperature of the solution
rose from 230C to 260C. Given that the density of the solution is 1g/cm³ and its specific heat
capacity is 4.2Jg-1k-1.
a) Determine the amount of heat evolved that caused the temperature to rise. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Work out the molar enthalpy of neutralization for this reaction. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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CHEMISTRY
233/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, admission number in the space provided.
2. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
3. Mathematical tables and scientific calculators may be used.
4. All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY
QUESTION MARKS CANDIDATES SCORE
1 13
2 11
3 12
4 10
5 11
6 12
7 11
TOTAL 80 MARKS

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1. The table below shows some elements in the periodic table. Use it to answer the questions that
follow. The letters are not the actual symbols of the elements.

F
A G E B D
C

a) i) Show the electron arrangement of ions of elements:


A (½mk)
................................................................................................................................................................
B (½mk)
................................................................................................................................................................
ii) Using dots (.) and crosses (x) to represent electrons draw a diagram to show how elements C and
oxygen combine to form a compound. (O = 8) (1mk)

b) Show on the grid above an element Y whose ion Y2- has an electron configuration of 2.8.8.
(1mk)
c) Compare the following with explanation.
i) The reactivity of A and C. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Atomic radii of elements A and B. (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) The melting point of the oxide of element G and the oxide of D. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Name the type of bond formed when E and D react. Explain your answer. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) The ionic radius of element E is bigger than its atomic radius. Explain. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. The following diagram below shows a series of steps followed in the manufacture of sodium
carbonate.

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a) Name substances A and B (2mks)
A.............................................................................................................................................................
B.............................................................................................................................................................

b) Write equations for the reactions taking place in:


i) The solvay tower. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Chamber E. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) i) Identify substance G. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) State one laboratory use and one industrial use of substance G.
I. Laboratory use (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Industrial use (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Name one most important industry where sodium carbonate is used as a raw material. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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e) The reaction equation below represents a chemical change that occurs when hydrated sodium
carbonate is exposed to the air for 24 hrs.

i) Give the name of the chemical change represented by the above equation. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) What observable change is accompanied by the above reaction? (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. a) Draw the structures of the following compounds. (2mks)


i) 2 – methylbut-2-ene

ii) heptanoic acid

b) Describe a physical test that can be used to distinguish between methanol and hexanol. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) Use the flow chart below to answer the questions that follow.

i) Name:
I. The type of reaction that occurs in step VII. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Substance B
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) What conditions and reagents are necessary to convert CH3CH2OH to CH3CH2COOCH2CH3 in
step II
Conditions (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Reagent (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Give the formula and name of substance C. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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iv) Give the reagent and conditions necessary for the reaction in step IV. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

v) i)Draw and name the structure of polymer P. (1mk)

ii) Name one use of the polymer P. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. a) Two reagents that can be used to prepare chlorine gas are manganese (IV)oxide and
concentrated hydrochloric acid.
i) Write an equation for the reaction. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Give the formula of another reagent that can be reacted with concentrated hydrochloric acid to
produce chlorine gas. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Describe how the chlorine gas could gas could be dried in the laboratory. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) In an experiment dry chlorine gas was reacted with aluminum as shown in the diagram below.

i) Name substance A. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Write an equation for the reaction that took place in the combustion tube. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) 0.84g of aluminium reacted completely with chlorine gas. Calculate the volume of chlorine gas
used. (Molar gas volume is 24dm³ Al = 27). (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) Give two reasons why calcium oxide is used in the set-up. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. The combustion of propane can be represented by the following equation:


C3H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) 3CO2 (g) + 4H2O (l)
a) i) Define the term ‘molar enthalpy of combustion’ of a compound. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) Use the thermo chemical equations below to answer the questions that follow.
1. C(graphite)(s) + O2 (g) CO2 (g) ∆H1 = - 393.5kJ/mole
2. H2 (g) + ½O2 (g) H2O (l) ∆H2 = -285.8kJ/mole
3. 3C(graphite)(s) + 4H2 (g) C3H8 (g) ∆H3 = - 103.7kJ/mole
I. Name the type of enthalpy change represented by ∆H3. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

II. Draw an energy level diagram for the reaction represented by equation 1. (3mks)

iii) Using energy cycle diagram, calculate the molar enthalpy of combustion of propane. (3mks)

b) The enthalpy of formation of ethanol (CH3CH2OH) is -3239Kj/mole. Use the bond energies
given below to calculate the bond energy of formation of O-H. (3mks)
C-C = -346kJ/mole
C-H = -414kJ/mole
C-O = -360kJ/mole
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6. Equal volumes of dilute sulphuric (vi) acid of various concentrations were placed in five test
tubes. 0.26g of zinc granules was used in each experiment and time taken for each experiment to
be completed noted. The table below shows the results obtained.
Acid concentration 0.25M 1.5M 1.6M 2.6M 3.5M
Time in sec 500 250 67.5 40 30
1
time( s 1 )
1
a) i) Complete the table above by calculating (2mks)
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒

1
ii) Using the grid provided plot a graph of against concentration of the acid. (3mks)
time( s 1 )

iii) Using the graph determine the rate of reaction when the concentration is 1.5M. (1mk)
iv) Briefly explain the relationship between the rate of reaction and concentration. (2mks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

v) Identify any other condition if carried would increase the rate of reaction between Zinc and
Dilute suplhuric (vi) acid. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) What volume of hydrogen gas is evolved when all the zinc is reacted with excess dilute sulphuric
(vi) acid. (Zn = 65.4, molar gas volume = 22.4 litres) (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Study the scheme below and answer the questions that follow.

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a) What property of mixture S is shown in step 1. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Name the following. (1mk)
i) Solid U
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Solid V
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Write the formula of precipitate R. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Identify the ions present in solution T. (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Write an ionic equation for the reaction between solution T and Barium chloride solution. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
f) Identify mixture S. 1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
g) i) Write a chemical equation for the reaction in which the white precipitate dissolves in excess
reagent in Step II. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Name the complex ion formed in Step III. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
h) Starting with lead (II) oxide, describe how a pure sample of lead (II) sulphate can be prepared in
the laboratory. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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233/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

CONFIDENTIAL
The information contained in this confidential is to enable the head of institution and the teacher in
charge of chemistry to make adequate preparations for the practical examination.
Note: No one else should have access to this information either directly or indirectly
INSTRUCTIONS
In addition to the laboratory fittings each candidate requires the following:
1. Solid E – potassium chlorate 2.0 g accurately weighed in a dry boiling tube.
2. Solid A – 0.3 g magnesium powder
3. 70 cm3 of Solution B- 1M HCI
4. 120 cm3 of Solution C – 0.1M NaOH
5. 2 conical flasks.
6. Solid G – 0.2 g of maleic acid in a stoppered container
7. Solid F- 0.2g of magnesium sulphate.
8. 0.2 g of solid Na2CO3.
9. A burette (50ml)
10. A pipette (25ml) and pipette filler
11. Thermometer (-10oC – 110oC)
12. Volumetric flask(250ml)
13. Complete retort stand
14. A white tile
15. Six test tubes in a rack
16. One boiling tube
17. Test tube holder
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18. 10ml measuring cylinder
19. 500ml distilled water in a wash bottle
20. One metallic spatula
21. one label
Access to:
1. Source of heat
2. Water bath
3. 2M NaOH solution
4. 2M dilute nitric (V) acid
5. 2M aqueous ammonia
6. 1M barium nitrate
7. 1M lead (II) nitrate
8. 1M sodium sulphate supplied in a dropper bottle
9. Acidified potassium manganate (VII) solution
10. Phenolphthalein indicator.

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CHEMISTRY
233/3 (THEORY)
PAPER 3
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and Index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper
3. You are not allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 2 ¼ hours
allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you read the question paper and make sure you
have all the chemicals and apparatus that you may need.
4. Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used
5. ALL workings MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

FOR EXAMINER’SUSE ONLY


QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S
SCORE
1 23
2 10
3 7
TOTAL SCORE 40

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1. a) You are provided with;
 0.3 g of metal A
 70cm3 of 1.0 M hydrochloric acid solution labelled as solution B.
 100cm3 of 0.1 M sodium hydroxide labeled solution C.
 Phenolphthalein indicator.
You are required to determine the relative atomic mass of metal A
Procedure I
(i) Using a burette measure 50cm3 of solution B into a 250ml beaker.
(ii) Add the whole amount of solid A provided into the beaker containing 50.0cm3 of solution B and
swirl carefully until ALL the solid reacts completely.
(iii) Transfer the mixture left in the beaker after the reaction into a 250ml volumetric flask.
Rinse the beaker with distilled water and transfer all the rinsing’s into the volumetric flask.
Make up the volume of the solution in the volumetric flask up to the mark with distilled water,
shake well and label the solution D.
(iv) Fill a clean burette with solution D.
(v) Pipette 25cm3 of solution C into a 250ml conical flask, add 3 drops of phenolphthalein indicator
solution and titrate against solution D from the burette. Record your results in table I below.
(vi) Repeat the titration TWO more times to complete table I.

Table I (4marks)
I II III
Final burette reading, cm3
Initial burette reading, cm3
Volume of solution D used, cm3

a) Calculate the average volume of solution D used, cm3 (1mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) Calculate
(i) Calculate the number of moles of HCI in 50.0 cm3 of solution B. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Determine the number of moles of NaOH in 25.0 cm3 of solution C. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Determine the number of moles of HCl in the average volume of solution D used in the
titration. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Calculate;
(i) The number of moles of HCl in 250cm3 of HCI solution D. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) The number of moles of HCl that reacted with metal A. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(d) Given that metal A forms a divalent cation,
(i) Determine the moles of metal A that reacted with hydrochloric acid. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Determine the Relative atomic mass of metal A. (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. (b)
You are provided with
 2.0g of solid E in a dry boiling tube.
 A thermometer
 Distilled water
 Hot water bath
You are required to determine the temperatures at which solutions of known concentrations of
compound K becomes saturated and plot a solubility curve.
Procedure II
(i) Using a burette, add 5.0 cm3 of distilled water into the boiling tube with solid E.
(ii) Place the boiling tube into a water bath and warm it while stirring with a thermometer until all
the solid dissolves.
(iii) Remove the boiling tube from the hot water and allow the content to cool slowly while
stirring with the thermometer. NOTE the temperature at which crystals start to appear and
record this temperature in table II.
(iv) Add a further 2.0 cm3 of distilled water from the burette into the boiling tube containing the
mixture and repeat steps (c) and (d) above.
(v) Repeat the procedure (e) above until the volume of water added is 15.0 cm3.
(vi) Complete table II by calculating the solubility of compound E in water at different
temperatures.
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Table II (5 marks)
Total volume of water Temperature at which crystals first Solubility of substance E
added (cm3) appear. (oC) in g/100g water.
5.0

7.0

9.0

11.0

13.0

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On the grid provided plot a graph of solubility of compound E (vertical axis) against temperature.
(3 marks

(i) From the graph determine the temperature at which the solubility of E in water at 35.0 oC/100g
of water (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(ii) Determine the mass of crystals formed when a hot saturated solution of compound E is cooled
from 70oC to 45oC (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) What is the relationship between the solubility of compound E and change in temperature
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. You are provided with solid F. Carry out the tests below and record your observations and
inferences in the spaces provided.
Place all the solid F provided in a boiling tube. Add 10 cm3 of distilled water and shake well.
Divide the resulting solution into five portions of 2 cm3 each.
(i)

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1mark)

(ii) To the first portion, add 2 drops of barium nitrate solution followed by 2 cm3 of dilute nitric (V)
acid.

Observations Inferences

(1mark) (½mark)

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(iii) To the second portion, add 2-3 drops of lead (II) nitrate solution followed by 2 cm3 of
dilute nitric (V) acid.

Observations Inferences

(1mark)
(½mark)

(iv) To the third portion add about 2-3 drops of sodium sulphate.

Observations Inferences

(1mark) (1 mark)

(v) To the 4th portion add sodium hydroxide dropwise until in excess.

Observations Inferences

(1mark) (½ mark)

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(vi) To the 5th portion add ammonia solution dropwise until in excess.

Observations Inferences

(1mark) (½ mark)

3. You are provided with solid G. Carry out the tests below and record your observations and
inferences in the spaces provided.
(a) Scoop a little of solid G using a metallic spatula and burn it in a Bunsen burner flame.

Observations Inferences

(1mark) (1mark)

(b) To the remaining portion of solid G, add about 6cm3 of distilled water and shake. Divide the
mixture into two portions.

Observations Inferences

(1mark)
(1mark)

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(c) To the first portion add 2-3 drops of acidified potassium manganate (VII) solution.

Observations Inferences

(1mark) (1mark)

(d) To the second portion add solid sodium carbonate provided.

Observations Inferences

(½mark) (½mark)

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PHYSICS
232/1 (THEORY)
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:


 Write your Name, Admission Number and Class in the spaces provided above.
 Answer all the questions both in section A and B in the spaces provided below each question
 All workings must be clearly shown; marks may be awarded for correct steps even if the answers
are wrong.
 Let g = 10m/s2
For Examiner’s Use
SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S
SCORE SCORE
A 1-10 25
B 11 09
12 14
13 11
14 10
15 11
TOTAL 80

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SECTION A 25 MARKS:
Attempt all the questions in this section
1. The figure below shows a piece of metal stuck in a hollow glass pipe. .Explain how temperature
change may be used to separate them (2mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Form four students were playing football game during which the ball got deflated. Explain what
happened to its density (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Micrometer screw gauge A has a zero error of – x mm. Micrometer screw gauge B has a zero
error of x mm When used to measure the diameter of a tube the difference between their readings
is 0.04mm. If the actual diameter of the tube is 5.56mm determinex hence state the reading of
micrometer screw gauge A (3 marks)

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4. A car of mass 1000kg travelling at a constant velocity of 40m/s collides with a stationary metal
block of mass 800kg. The impact takes 3s before the two move together. Determine the impulsive
force (3marks)

5. The figure below shows a drop of water about to fall from a pipette and after falling. Explain why
the shapes of the drop are different (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Figure shows a liquid manometer. The gas pressure is 755mmHg and that of the surround is
760mmHg. The height h is 80mm. Determine the density of the liquid. (Take density of mercury
= 13600kgm-3 and g =10Nkg-1) (3 marks)

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7. A student balances a V - shaped uniform wire on a tight string as shown in A and B. With reason
state the one which is easier to do (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. The figure below shows a Bunsen burner. Explain how air is drawn into the burner when the gas
tap is opened. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. The figure shows a uniform metal bar of length 10m and weight W = 200N held at equilibrium
by a light chain fixed at the cog and tethered on the floor using a light chain. Determine the
tension of the chain (3marks)

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10. A student set up the apparatus as shown below. The boiling tube was heated in the middle as
shown

a. State the role of the lead shot in the experiment (1mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. With reason, state the wax that will melt first (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B 55 MARKS
Attempt all the questions in this section
11. Marble A is projected horizontally from the top of a cliff at a velocity of 50m/s. The height of the
cliff from its foot is 31.25m. At the same time another marble B is projected horizontally from the
same point. The figure below shows the trajectories taken by the marbles

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Determine
a. The distance of marble A from the foot of the cliff as it hits the ground (3marks)

b. Vertical velocity of marble A as it hits the ground (2marks)

c. Horizontal velocity of marble B as it hits the ground (2marks)

d. The shortest distance between the marbles upon hitting the ground (2marks)

12. The figure below shows two identical light springsand other apparatus used in an experiment

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After the data was collected the following graph was obtained

a. State two measurements taken in the experiment (2mark)

b. Explain how the measurements can be used to come up with the graph (2marks)

c. Explain the graph in sections


i. AB (2marks)

ii. CD (2marks)

d. Determine the spring constant of each spring (3marks)

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e. Determine the work done in section CD (2marks)

f. On the same axes sketch the graph expected when the experiment is repeated using one of the
springs only (1mark)
13. The figure below shows an inclined plane on which a trolley of mass 30kg is pulled up a slope by
a force of 100N, parallel to the slope. The trolley moves so that its centre of mass travels from
points A to B.

(i) Determined the work done on the trolley against the gravitational force in moving from A to B.
(2 marks)

(ii) Determine the work done by the force in moving the trolley from A to B. (3 marks)

(iii)Determine the percentage of the work input that goes to waste (3 marks)

(iii) Determine the frictional force. (1 mark)

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(v) Determine the mechanical advantage of the system. (1 mark)

(vi) Find the velocity ratio (1 mark)

14. a. The figure below shows a set-up that can be used to determine the specific heat capacity of a
metal block.

I) Other than temperature and current, state two measurements that should be taken in the
experiment to determine the specific heat capacity of the block. (2marks)

II) Describe how the method can be used to determine the specific heat capacity of the metal block.
(3marks)

III) State the purpose of oil in the set-up. (1mark)

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(ii) A well lagged copper can together with a copper stirrer of total heat capacity 60JK -1 contains 200g
of water at 200C. Dry steam at 1000C is passed in while the water is stirred until the content reach
a temperature of 500C. Determine the mass of condensed steam. (Specific latent heat of
vaporization of water is 2.26 X 106 J/kg and specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J/kgK)
(4marks)

15. a) A uniform metal strip is 3.0cm wide 0.6cm thick and 100cm long. The density of the metal is
2.7g/cm3.
I. Determine the weight of the metal strip. (2marks)

The strip is used to support two masses in equilibrium by applying force F as shown below.

II. Determine the value of F (3 marks)

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III. Determine reaction R due to the pivot (2 marks)

b) The Figure belowshows a set up that may be used to verify a gas law.

I. State the law being verified (1mark)

II. State two functions of the concentrated Sulphuric acid in the experiment (2mrks)

III. State one assumption in the experiment (1mark)

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
PHYSICS
232/2 (THEORY)
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, index number, admission number and sign in the spaces provided above.
2. This paper consists of two sections A and B.
3. Answer all the questions in sections A and B in the spaces provided.
4. All workings must be clearly shown where applicable.
5. All numerical answers must be expressed in decimal form
6. Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used
where applicable.
For Examiner’s use only
Section Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
A 1 – 12 25

13 12
14 15
B 15 13
16 8
17 7
TOTAL 80

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer ALL the question in this section in the spaces provided
1. The figure below represents a point image formed by a mirror.

image

eye
mirror

Sketch rays to show how the image is formed and seen by the eye. (2 mks)

2. State any two ways of increasing the size of an image formed by a pinhole camera. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. A form one student was investigating the brightness of bulbs when set up in circuits. He used
identical bulbs and cells.

i. State which set up had the brightest bulb (1 mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Explain the answer in (i) above. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. A lady holds a large concave mirror of focal length 1.8m from her face. State two characteristics
of her image in the mirror (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. The figure below shows two parallel thick copper conductors connected to a d.c power supply.
A rider made from a thin copper wire is placed on the conductors as shown.

rider
N

thick copper conductors

State and explain what is observed on the rider when the switch is closed. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. The figure below shows how the displacement varies with time for a certain wave.
Displacement (m)

0.2

0.1
0
0.25 0.50 0.75 1.00 1.25
Time (s)
-0.1
-0.2

Determine the frequency of the wave. (3 mks)

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7. Two pins are hanging from a magnet S shown in diagram below.

Explain why the nails do not hang vertically downwards. (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Draw diagrams to illustrate what happens when plane waves are incident on a slit. When the
width of the slit is large compared with the wavelength of the waves. (2mks)

9. Determine the reading of the ammeter in figure below. (2mks)

10. A ray of light is incident on a glass-oil interface as shown in fig. below. Determine the value of
r.(Take refractive index of glass and oil as 3/2 and 8/5 respectively) (2mk)

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11. Distinguish between hard and soft magnetic materials. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. An electric heater is found to have a resistance of 950Ω when operating normally on 240 V
mains. Find the power rating of the heater. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (55 MARKS)


Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided
13. a) State one difference between light and sound waves (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State two factors that affect speed of sound in solid. (2mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Explain how an increase in temperature affects the velocity of sound in air. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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d) The figure below shows a set up made by a Form 2 student to study an aspect of a wave.

Electric bell

Steam from boiling water

Water

(i) State what happens to the sound from the bell as the bottle and its contents are cooled to 0°C
(1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Explain the observation in (i) above (2 mks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) A boy stands some distance from a high wall and claps his hands. He claps again each time he
hears an echo.
(i) What two measurements would need to be made in order to determine the speed of sound?
(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ii) The boy’s friend notes that it takes 10 s to make 10 claps. Determine how far the boy is from the
wall, given that the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. (2 mks)

14. a) State Ohm’s law. (1 mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) You are provided with connecting wires, ammeter, voltmeter, cells in a cell holder, variable
resistor, switch and a conductor. With an aid of a diagram, describe an experiment to verify
Ohm’s law for a wire. (4 mks)
DIAGRAM

Procedure
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) (a) Study the circuit diagram below and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Calculate the effective resistance of the circuit. (3mks)

(ii) Find the voltmeter reading. (3mks)

(b) c) The graph below shows the variation of potential difference V with current I for a certain cell.

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From the graph determine
i). The internal resistance of the cell (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii). The e.m.f of the cell (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. a) State two conditions necessary for total internal reflection to occur. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) The figure below shows the part of a ray of yellow light through a glass prism. The
speed of yellow light in the prism is 1.88 x 108 m/s.

o
60

i) Determine the refractive index of the prism material (Speed of light in air, C = 3.0 x 10 8 m/s)
(2 mks)

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ii) Show on the figure the critical angle C, and determine its value. (3 mks)

iii) Given that r = 21.2o, determine angle 𝜃. (2 mks)

c) The figureshows two rays A and B entering a semi-circular glass block which has a
critical angle of42o. The rays are incident at point O.

0 air

o
30
ss
gla
o
45

B
A
(i) Complete the path of the two rays from point O. Label A1 and B1 the corresponding rays.
(2 mks)

(ii) Calculate the refractive index of the semicircular glass block. (2 mks)

16. a) define the term eclipse of the moon 1 mark


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) differentiate between umbra and penumbra shadows. 2marks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c ) An incident ray forms an angle of 45 degrees with the mirror at point of incidence .If The
position of the incident ray is kept constant while the mirror is rotated at an angle of 20 degrees
.Find the angle through which the reflected ray is rotated 2 marks

d) A tree 25 m high stands, 50 m in front of a pinhole camera whose screen is 30 cm behind the
pinhole. What is the height of the image of the tree formed on the screen. 3mks

17. a) Define capacitance of a capacitor (1mk)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State two factors that affect the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c. The figure below shows a voltmeter connected across two charged parallel plates.

When a thin sheet of mica is inserted between the plates, the reading of the voltmeter is observed to
reduce. Explain this observation. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Figure 2 below shows a positive charge near a plate carrying negative charge. Draw the electric
field between them. (2mks)

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

PHYSICS CONFIDENTIAL
QUESTION 1
You are provided with:
 One dry cell and a cell holder
 One milliammeter (0 - 1 mA)
 A resistor labelled k (resistance of k =1 k Ω)
 A chain of six resistors arranged as shown below.
 A switch
 Connecting wire

QUESTION 2
Each student should have the following:
 A metre rule.
 A retort stand, boss and clamp.
 A stop watch
 An overflow can
(volume <180 ml. To be shared if the volume greater than 180 ml)
 Two 50 ml beakers labelled X and Y
 A 25 ml measuring cylinder
 two pieces of thread; 30cm and 100cm
 Mass labelled M
 A 250ml beaker containing 200 ml of liquid L
 A 250ml beaker with water
 Electric beam balance
 Tissue paper

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.
(b) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
1
(c) You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠 allowed for this paper reading
2
the whole paper carefully before commencing the work.
(d) Marks are given for a clear record of the observations actually made, their suitability, accuracy
and the use made of them.
(e) Candidates are advised to record their observation as soon as they are made.
(f) Non programmable silent electronic calculators may be used.
(g) Candidates should answer the questions in English.
For Examiner’s Use Only
Question 1
a b c d e
Maximum Score 2 6 5 3 4 TOTAL
Candidate’s Score

Question 2
a b c d e g h i j
Maximum Score 2 3 2 3 2 1 3 2 2 TOTAL
Candidate’s Score

GRAND
TOTAL
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QUESTION 1 (20 marks)
You are provided with the following apparatus;
 One dry cell and a cell holder
 One milliammeter
 A resistor labelled K
 A chain of six resistors
 A switch
 Connecting wire

Proceed as follows:
(a) Set up the circuit as shown in Figure 1

i) Switch on the circuit to obtain a positive deflection in the milliammeter. Record the reading I1 of
the milliammeter. (1mk)

I1 = ……………………………………mA

ii) Remove the crocodile clips from the ends of the chains of resistors and connect them across two
resistors in the resistance chain that adds up to 3.0 kΩ. Record the reading of the milliammeter,
I2. (1mk)

I2 = ……………………………………mA

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(b) Repeat the procedure in (a) ii) for other values of resistance R shown in Table 1 and complete it.
(6mks)
(The values of R may be obtained by combining two or more resistors in the chain)
𝐑 1.00 1.33 1.50 2.50 4.00 4.32
× 𝟏𝟎𝟑 (𝛀)
I (mA)
I (A)
𝟏
(A-1)
𝐈

𝟏
(c) Plot graph of volume, (y-axis) against R
𝐈

(5mks)

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(d) Determine the slope, S of the graph (3mks)

(e) Given that the graph obeys the relationship provided in the equation
𝐄 = 𝐈(𝐑 + 𝐤)

I) Determine the value of E (2mks)

II) Determine the value of k (2mks)

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QUESTION 2 (20 marks)
You are provided with the following apparatus:
 A Metre rule.
 Two pieces of sewing thread; 30cm and100cm
 A retort stand, boss and clamp.  Mass labelled M
 A stop watch  A 250ml beaker containing about 200ml of
 An overflow can (about 180ml) liquid L
 Two 50 ml beakers labelled X and Y  A 250ml beaker with water
 A 25ml measuring cylinder  Electric beam balance
 Tissue paper

PART A
Proceed as follows:
(a) Using the beam balance, measure the mass of M and the mass of beaker X (2mks)

I) Mass, M = ………………………………….

II) Mass of beaker X, Mx = ………….……

(b) Fill the overflow can with water and until overflow through the spout stops. Place the beaker X
below the spout. Tie mass M with a 30 cm thread and gently immerse it into the overflow can.
Wait for about one minute.

i) Measure the mass of beaker with water and record it as M1. (1mk)
M1 = ………………………………..
ii) Find the mass of the overflowed water in the beaker X, Mw (1mk)
Mw = ……………………………..

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iii) Pour the water in beaker X into the measuring cylinder and determine its volume. (1mk)
V = ……………………………..
(c) Remove mass M from water and empty the overflow can. Wipe to the dryness, the mass M,
beaker X and the overflow can using a tissue paper. Now, place beaker Y below the spout and
fill the can with liquid L until it overflows. Wait until the flow stops. Replace beaker Y with the
empty beaker X, and gently immerse mass M into the liquid.
i) After one minute, measure the mass, M2 of the beaker with liquid L. (1mk)
M2 = ……………………………..

ii) Determine the overflowed mass ML, of the liquid L. (1mk)

ML = ……………………………………………..

(d) Determine quantity R given by (2mks)

𝐌𝐋
𝐑=
𝐌𝐰

Hence, find the density of Liquid L (density of water = 1000 𝑘𝑔𝑚3) (1mk)

(e) Determine the density of the mass, M (2mks)

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PART B
(f) Set up the apparatus as shown in the figure below
Pieces of wood

L
stand

Adjust the length L, of the thread so that L = 70cm. Displace mass M slightly so that length L
makes small angle of about 100 from the vertical axis and then release it.
(g) Measure and record time t, for twenty (20) oscillations. (1mk)
t = ………………………………….
(h) Repeat (g) above for 15 oscillations and 10 oscillations respectively. Record the time in the table
below (3mks)
Number of oscillations 20 15 10
(n)
Time, t (s)
Periodic time,
𝐭
T = (s)
𝐧
(i) Find the average periodic time, Tav (2mks)

(j) Find the value of β given the equation below (2mks)


𝟏 𝟒𝝅𝟐 𝑳
(𝒇𝒂𝒗 )𝟐
=
𝜷

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
MATHEMATICS
121/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your name, admission number and school in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) The paper contains TWO Sections: Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer ALL the questions in Section I and only five questions from Section II.
(e) All answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below
each question.
(f) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces below
each question.
(g) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(h) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used
except where stated otherwise.
(i) Answer all the questions in English.
For Examiner’s Use Only
SECTION I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

SECTION II
GRAND TOTAL
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL

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SECTION I (50 marks)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided
−4{(−4+−15÷5)+−3−4÷2}
1. Evaluate (3 marks)
84÷−7+3−−5

 
2. Express 3.7 5 in the form a b hence find the absolute value in b  a . (3 marks)
c c

sin  2a  20 
0

3. Given that 0
 tan 450 , find the value of a (3 marks)
1 
cos  a  60 
2 

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4. A forex bureau in Nairobi buys and sells selected foreign currencies at the rates given in the table
below.
Currency Buying  Ksh  Selling  Ksh 
1 South African Rand 7.00 7.70
1 United Arab Emirates Dirham 36.14 37.50
A tourist arrived in Kenya from South Africa with 8,546,000 South African Rand. He converted the
whole amount to Kenya shillings through an agent at a commission 2% . While in Kenya, he spent
1
of this money and changed the balance to UAE Dirham . Calculate the amount of UAE Dirham
4
that he received. (3 marks)

5. The position vector of P and Q are OP  5i  4.5j and OQ  3i  1.5j .

Evaluate magnitude of PQ (3 marks)

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6. The figure below shows a circle centre O radius 3 2 cm. Given that the length of chord AB = 6
cm, calculate the area of the shaded region leaving your answer in terms of . (4 marks)

7. Use squares, square roots and reciprocals tables to evaluate, to 4 significant figures, the
expression:
1 3
+ (0.071)2 ( 3 marks)
√27.56

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8. Three space crafts in different orbits go around the earth at intervals of 3, 6 and 7 hours
respectively. An engineer at an observatory on earth first observes the three crafts cruising
above one another at 6.35 a.m. At what time in a similar configuration if the all revolve around
the earth from east to west? (3 marks)

9. The cost of providing a commodity consists of transport, labour and raw materials in the ratio
8:4:12 respectively. If the transport cost increases by 12%, labour cost by 18% and raw
materials by 40%, find the percentage increase of producing the new commodity. (3 marks)

10. A water tank has a capacity of 50 litres. A similar model tank has a capacity of 0.25litres. if the
larger tank has a height of 100cm. calculate the height of the model tank. (3mks)

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11. The following data was obtained from the mass of a certain animal. Complete the table and the
histogram below. (3 marks)
Mass(kg) frequency
41-50 20
51-55
56-65 40

1 1
12. Find the inverse of the matrix hence determine the point of intersection of the
3 1
lines. (4mks)
y +x=7
3x + y = 15

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13. Form the three inequalities that satisfy the given region (3 marks)

14. A boat is at point P, a distance of 100km from the bottom of a hill. The angle of elevation of the
top of the hill is 30o from P. The boat sails straight towards the hill to a point Q from where the
angle of elevation to the top of the hill is now 60o. Calculate the distance PQ (3 marks)

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15. Using a ruler and a pair of compasses only, construct a parallelogram ABCD in which AB =
7.2cm BC= 4.5cm and angle DAB = 1050. Drop a perpendicular from D to BA produced at M.
Measure the length of DM. (3 marks)

9a 2 y 16b 2 y 3
16. Simplify completely (3mks)
4by 2  3ay

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SECTION II: (50 MARKS)
Answer only FIVE question from this section.
17. Given that a line L1 passes through the points A(-1, 5) and B (3, -1), find
a) The equation of line L1 in the form y = mx + c (2 marks)

b) The equation of a line L2, which is a perpendicular bisector of L1 . Leave your answer in the
form ax + by = c where a, b, c are integers (3 marks)

c) Given that another line L3 is parallel to L2 and passes through point (-3, -5) and intersects lines
L1 at point P. Find the equation of L3 in the form ax + by +c = 0 (2 marks)

d) The coordinates of the point of intersection of lines L1 and L3 (3 marks)

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18. The figure below is a solid cuboid with a square base of 36 cm and a height of 42 cm. A conical
frustum with a vertical height of 12 cm is drilled. The top and the bottom radii of the frustum is
15 cm and 10 cm respectively. (Use π  3.142)

a) Calculate the slant height of the frustum. (3 marks)

b) Calculate:
(i) The total surface area of the solid. (4 marks)

(ii) The volume of the solid. (3 marks)

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5 8
19. (a)Given that matrix A    , find A
1
( 2 marks)
5 6

(b) Maya bought 25kgs of sugar and 40kgs of rice for Ksh. 11400 from a wholesale shop. Wanjiku
bought twice the amount of sugar Maya bought and 60 kgs of rice from the same wholesale shop
and spent Ksh. 8200 more than Maya. Taking x to represent the price of one kg of sugar and y to
represent the price of one kg of rice:
(i) Form two simplified equations representing the above information. (1 mark)

(ii)Use matrix method to determine the price of each item. (4 marks)

(c)The following month, the price of sugar increased in the ratio 5:4 while that of rice increased by
25%. Use matrix method to determine Maya’s expenditure for this month if she bought the same
quantities of sugar and rice. (2 marks)

(d) Hence find the percentage increase on Maya’s expenditure. (1 mark)

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20. (a) In the beginning of the year 2020, the size of Chalbi desert in Marsabit was approximately
75800 ha. The county government supported a tree planting exercise whose target was to reduce
the size of the desert by 3.5% p.a. Determine the size of the desert at the end of the year 2025 to
the nearest hectares. (3 marks)

(b) In the beginning of the year 2020, the forest cover in Baringo county was approximately 45000ha.
The county government supported a tree planting exercise aimed at increasing the forest cover by
2% every 3 months. Determine the size of the forest cover to the nearest hectares by the end of
the year 2025 (3 marks)

(c) Find the number of years at which the forest cover in Baringo county will be equivalent to Chalbi
desert in the year 2025 rounded off to the nearest 100 ha in (a) above. (4 marks)

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21. Two friends Jane and Bob live 40 km apart. One-day Jane left her house at 9.00 a.m. and cycled
towards Bob’s house at an average speed of 15 km/h. Bob left his house at 10.30 a.m. on the
same day and cycled towards Jane’s at an average speed of 25 km/h.
(a) Determine:
(i) The distance from Jane’s house to where the two friends met. (4 marks)

(ii) The time they met. (2 marks)

(iii) How far from Bob’s house when they met. (2 marks)

(b) The two friends took 10 minutes at the meeting point and then cycled to Bob’s house at an
average speed of 12 km/h. Find the time they arrived at Bob’s house. (2 marks )

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22. The ends of the roof of a workshop are segment of a circle of radius 10m. The roof is 20m long.
The angle at the center is 1200 as shown in the figure below.

10m 10m
1200

(a) Calculate:
(i) The area of one end of the roof. (4mks)

(ii) The area of the curve surface of the roof. (2mks)

(b) What would be cost to the nearest shilling of covering the two ends and the curved surface with
galvanized iron sheet costing sh.80 per square meter. (4mks)

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23. Five points, P, Q, R, V and T lie on the same plane. Point Q is 53km on the bearing of 055 0 of P.
Point R lies 1620 of Q at a distance of 58km. Given that point T is west of P and 114km from R
and V is directly south of P and S400E from T.
a) Using a scale of 1:1,000,000, show the above information in a scale drawing. (3 marks)

b) From the scale drawing determine:


i) The distance in km of point V from R. (2 marks)

ii) The bearing of V from Q. (2 marks)

iii) Calculate the area enclosed by the points PQRVT in squares kilometers. (3 marks)

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24. (a) On the grid provided below, plot the polygon A(3, 7), B(5, 5), C(3, 1), D(1, 5) on a cartesian
plane (2mks)

−6
(b) A1B1C1D1 is the image of ABCD under a translational T( ). Plot A1B1C1D1 and
−9
state its coordinates. (2mks)

(c) Plot A11B11C11D11, the image of A1B1C1D1 after a rotation about (-1, 0) through a
positive quarter turn. State its coordinates. (3mks)

(d) A111B111C111D111 is the image of A11B11C11D11 after a reflection in the line Y=x + 2.
Plot A111B111C111D111and state its coordinates (3mks)

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
MATHEMATICS
121/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

a) Write your name, index number and school, admission number and stream in the spaces
provided at the top of this page.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of two Sections; Section I and Section II.
d) Answer all the questions in Section I and any FIVE questions from Section II.
e) All answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below
each question.
f) Show all the steps in your calculation, giving your answer at each stage in the spaces provided
below each question.
g) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
h) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used,
except where stated otherwise.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:


SECTION I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

SECTION II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL GRAND
TOTAL

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SECTION I (50MARKS)
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
1. Three grades A,B and C of rice were mixed in the ratio 3:4:5 . The cost per kg of each of the
grades was ksh.120, ksh. 90 and ksh .60 respectively. Calculate;
a. The cost of one kg of the mixture. (2mrks)

b. The selling price of a kg of the mixture, given that the mixture was sold at 8% profit. (2mks)

st
2. Make S the subject of the formula in w  (3mks)
s

3. The cash price of agas cooker was ksh. 60000 .On hire purchase terms , adeposit of ksh. 7500
was paid followed by 11 monthly instalment of ksh. 6000 each .Calculate the percentage
increase in hire purchase price to the cash price. (3mks)

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4. Using completing square method ,solve for possible values of X in x  3  1 (3mks)
24 x2

5. The position vectors of points X and y are (3mks)

2i  j  3kand3i  2 j  2k respectively. Find xy

6. The equation of a circle is given as 4 x 4 y 8x  20 y  7  0 . Find the coordinates of the


2 2

centre and the radius of the circle. (3mrks)

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7. Expand 1  x  up to x 3 hence approximate the value of 0.98  correct to 3sf
5 5
(4mks)

8. Determine the interquartile range for the following data


4,9,5,4,7,6,2,1,6,7,8. (3mrks)

1 8
9. Write sin 45 in the form where a is a positive integer .Hence simplify
a 1  sin 45
(3mks)

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1
10. Atailor intended to subdivide a piece of cloth into 7 equal parts . she approximated to 0.14m.
7
Calculate th % error in the approximation. (3mks)

11. Without using mathematical table or calculator , evaluate


5
log 10 64  log 10 50  4 log 10 2 (3mks)
6

12. The 5th term of an AP is82 and the 12th term is 103 . Find the 1st term and the common
difference. (3mks)

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13. The figure below show a graph for the function of y  a sin(bx  30)  2

Using the graph above find the values of a and b (4mks)

14. In the figure below CAB  62 and CBA  41 ,BC = 8.4CM and CN is the bisector of
angle ACB.

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Calculate the length CN to 1 d.p (3mrks)

15. An arc 11cm long subtends an angle of 700 at the centre of a circle. Calculate the length correct
to one decimal place of a chord that subtends an angle of 90 0 at the centre of the same circle.
(3mks)

16. In a transformation, an object with an area of 5cm2 is mapped onto an image whose area is
x x  1
30cm2 . given that the matrix off the transformation is   find the value of X
2 4 
(3mks)

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SECTION II (50MARKS)
Answer any 5 questions in this section.
17. The cost p of producing q items varies partly as q and as the inverse of q . To produce two items
, it costs ksh. 135 and to produce three items it costs ksh. 140 . Find ;
a. The constants of the proportionality and hence state the law connecting P and q (5mks)

b. The cost of producing 10 items . (2mks)

c. The number of items produced at a cost of ksh. 756. (3mks)

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18. The marks scored by 40 students in a test were recorded as shown below;
Marks 48 - 52 53 - 57 58 - 62 63 - 67 68 - 72 73 - 77
No of 3 4 t 12 8 3
students
a. Find the value of t and state the lower boundary of the modal class. (3mks)

b. Using the assumed mean of 64, calculate ;


i. The mean mark. (3mks)

ii. Standard deviation . (3mks)

c. If the marks recorded were less by one for every student. Determine ;
i. The new mean mark (1mk)

ii. The new standard deviation (1mk)

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19. The table below shows values of x and some values of y for the curve of y  x 3 2 x 2 9 x  8 for
3 x  5 .
a. Complete the table below (2mks)
X -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5
y  x 3 2 x 2 9 x  8 -10 14 8 -10 4

b. On the grid provided , draw the graph of y  x 3 2 x 2 9 x  8 using the scale of


1 cm represent 1 unit on the x – axis and 2 cm represent 10 units on the y – axis. (3mks)

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c. i. Use the graph to solve the equation x 3 2 x 2 9 x  8  0 (1mk)

ii.By drawing a suitable straight line on the graph to solve the equation ;

x 3 2 x 2 11x  6  0 (4mrks)

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20. Two bags A and B contain identical balls except for the colour. Bag A has 4 red balls and 2
yellow balls; Bag B contains 2red balls and 3 yellow balls.
a. If a ball is drawn at random from each bag , find the probability that both balls are of the same
colour. (4mks)

b. If two balls are drawn from each bag one after the other without replacement , find the
probability that ;
i. The two balls drawn from bag A or bag B are red. (4mks)

ii. All the four balls drawn are red. (2mks)

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21. The table below shows income tax rates for a certain year.
Monthly income (ksh) Tax rate in each shillings %
0 -----------------10164 10%
10165------------19740 15%
19741------------29316 20%
29317------------38892 25%
Over 38892 30%
A tax relief of ksh. 1162 per month was allowed . In a certain month of that year , an employee’s
tax charged in the fifth band was ksh. 632.40.
a. Calculate ;
i. The employees total taxable income in that month. (2mks)

ii. The tax payable by the employee in that month. (5mks)

b. The employee’s income included a house allowance of ksh. 15000 per month. The employee
contributed 5% of the basic salary to a co-operative society. Calculate the employee net pay for
that month. (3mks)

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22. On the same diagram , construct ;
a.
i. Triangle ABC such that AB = 9 cm , AC = 7 cm and angle CAB = 600 . (2mks)
ii. The locus of a point P such that P is equidistant from A and B . (1mk)
iii. The locus of Q such that CQ ≤ 3.5 cm (1mk)
b. On the diagram in part (a ) above ;
i. Shade the region R containing all the points enclosed by the locus P and Q such that AP ≥ BP
(2mks)
ii. Find the area of the region shaded in part (b) i. above. (4mks)

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23. The figure below shows triangle OAB in which M divides OA such that
OA : MA = 5 : 3 and N divides OB in the ratio 4 : 1 . AN and BM intersect at X.

a) Given that OA = a and OB = b , express in terms of a and b


i. AN (1mk)

ii. BM (1mk)

b) If AX = s AN and BX = t BM, where s and t are constant, write two expressions for OX in
terms of a , b , s and t hence find the values of s and t. (6mks)

c) State the ratio in which X divides AN. (2mks)

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24. The coordinates of the vertices of a rectangle PQRS are P(1 , 1), Q(6 , 1), R(6 , 4) and S(1 , 4).
 i. Find the coordinates of the vertices of its image PI QI RI SI under the transformation defined
1  2
by the matrix   (2mks)
0 1 

ii) On the grid provide, draw triangle PQRS and its image. (2mks)

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iii. On the same grid , draw the image PII QII RII SII of PI QI RI SI under the transformation given
0 1
by   (3mks)
 1 0 

 Find a single matrix which will map PII QII RII SII onto PQRS (3mks)

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
COMPUTER STUDIES
451/1 (THEORY)
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

Instructions to Candidates
a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of TWO sections; A and B.
d) Answer ALL questions in section A.
e) Answer question 16 and any other THREE questions from section B.
f) All answers should be written in the spaces provided on the question paper.
For Official Use Only

SECTION QUESTION SCORE

A 1 - 15

B 16

TOTAL

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SECTION A (40 marks)
Answer ALL the questions in the section in the spaces provided.
1) Describe the following input/output terms as used in computer systems. Give an example for
each (3marks)
a) Read
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Write
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2) Using relevant examples distinguish between a formula and function. (3marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3) A publisher intends to use a desktop publishing programme to create a publication which is to


have many graphics. State three ways in which the graphics may be acquired for this purpose.
(3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. The management of an organisation intends to purchase a printer. State three factors that they
should consider during the purchase (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. State three reasons why it is important to define data types of fields in a database correctly.
(3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. An engineering company requires a computer system to design roads and bridges.(2 marks)
Explain one suitable choice for:
(i) output device;
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) software.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. State three circumstances under which the use of wireless communication would be preferred in
data communication. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Headache, back and neck pain may result from the use of computers. State how each of them can
be minimized (2 marks)
(a)Headache
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Back & Neck Pain
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. Explain the importance of each of the following in word processing:
(i) tab stops; (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Section breaks. (2 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. State three problems associated with using e-mail technology for communication(3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. State two ways in which each of the following can be prevented
(a) Software errors (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Computer fraud (1 mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Differentiate between analogue data and digital data as used in computers (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13. State four properties that an operating system displays about a file (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. State the functions of each of the following keys on the computer keyboard (2 marks)
(a) backspace;
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) insert (ins)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Give three file organization methods in a computer (3 marks)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (60 Marks)


Answer question 16 and any other THREE questions from this section in the spaces provided.
16.(a) State three ways in which a programmer can make program code easy to fol1ow(3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) Study the flowchart below and use it to answer the questions that follows;

(i) State the output of the above program flowchart for the inputs given below (3 Marks)
Amount = 15,000, 14,000 and 23,000 respectively
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State the purpose of the flowchart (1 Mark)


…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(iii) Write a pseudocode for the flowchart in question (16. c) above (8 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. (a) Interpret each of the following spreadsheet formula:


(i) = countif(A2:A9, “>=E7”) (2 marks)
(ii) =sumif(B2 :B10, “WP”, D3 :D11) (2 marks)
(b) The figure below shows relationships between tables in a database.

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Identify two primary and two foreign keys used in the relationship. (4 marks)
(c)(i) Convert the hexadecimal number C7D16 to its equivalent decimal number (2 Marks)
(ii) Using the twos compliment and 8-bit notation subtract 27 from 12 leaving your answer in
binary notation (5 Marks)

18. (a) Explain three circumstances under which observation method may be preferred during data
collection (6 marks)
(b) Describe each of the following types of maintenance
(i) Perfective; (2 marks)
(ii) Corrective; (2 marks)
(iii) Adaptive. (2 marks)

(c) Name three approaches that may be used to replace an old system with a new computerized
system (3 marks)
19. (a) With the aid of a diagram, describe the time sharing mode in computer data processing
(5 marks)
(b) A company’s management has opted to use computers to process data. State four factors that
the management needs to consider when selecting the company data processing mode.
(4 marks)
(c) Describe each of the following validation checks as used in data processing
(i) Preserve check (2 marks)
(ii) Data type check (2 marks)
(iii) Check digit (2 marks)

20. (a)State the function of each of the following


(a) Network Interface Card (1 mark)
(b) Modem (1 mark)
(c) Repeater (1 mark)
(d) Crimping tool (1 mark)

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(b) State any two reasons why the fibre optic cable is preferred for data transmission over the other
cables (2 marks)
(c) State three functions of networking operating systems other than providing network security.
(3 marks)
(d) A company has three branches X, Y and Z where X is the headquarter. The local area network
(LAN) at X is directly connected to the LAN at Y and directly to the LAN at Z. Explain two
benefits of having the LAN at Y also directly connected to the LAN at Z. (4 marks)
(e) The figure below shows a network topology . use it to answer the questions that follows:

(i) What is the name of the topology? (1 mark)


(ii) What is the work of the part labelled T. (1 mark)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
COMPUTER STUDIES
451/2 (PRACTICAL)
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

Instructions to candidates
a) Type your name and index number at the right hand corner of each print out
b) Write your name and index number on the REMOVABLE STORAGE provided
c) Answer all the questions
d) Passwords should not be used while saving your work
e) All answers should be saved in the REMOVABLE STORAGE provided
f) Make the print out of the answers on the answer sheets provided
g) Arrange your print out and staple them together
h) Hand in all the print outs and the REMOVABLE STORAGE provided
i) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that no question is missing.

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1) Excel school ordered computer accessories and the following suppliers provided the following
As illustrated below.
A B C D
1 Name Item Sold Amount Date
2 Joseph Mouse 200.00 2/11/2011
3 Peter System unit 5,000.00 3/11/2011
4 Tony Keyboard 200.00 4/11/2011
5 Mike CD Writer 2,000.00 5/11/2011
6 Joseph Computer1 System 2,000.00 6/11/2011
7 Peter Mouse 200.00 7/11/2011
8 Tony Mouse 200.00 8/11/2011
9 Mike System Unit 2,500.00 9/11/2011
10 Joseph Keyboard 200.00 10/11/2011
11 Peter CD writer 3,000.00 11/11/2011
12 Tony Computer System 5,400.00 12/11/2011
13 Mike Mouse 200.00 13/11/2011
14 Joseph System Unit 3,000.00 14/11/2011
15 Peter Keyboard 200.00 15/11/2011
16 Tony CD Writer 2,500.00 16/11/2011
17 Mike Computer system 6,000.00 17/11/2011

(a)Enter the data shown into a spreadsheet and save it the workbook as Excel. (11mks)
(b)Copy the content of Sheet 1 to Sheet 2 into the exact position and rename it as New price.
i. Insert a new row after the Amount row and label it “New price”. The suppliers of the items
decided to, increase all their items by 20%. Enter the percentage into cell A18.
ii. Using absolute referencing, calculate the New price of each of the items in the “New price”
column. (7mks)
(c)Copy the content of Sheet 1 to Sheet 3 and rename it as Subtotals. Using subtotals sheet Find
subtotals for each supplier and display the Grand Total. (6mks)
(d)Using the subtotals sheet, Create a column graph (bar graph) to compare the total cost of all
items bought from each supplier. The x-axis should be labeled as “Names” and the y-axis “cost
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items’. Each bar should display a total value it represents on top of it and the supplier’s Name
below it. The title of the graph should read, SUPPLIERS COMPARISON TOTALS. Place the
graph on a new sheet and rename the sheet as BAR GRAPH (8mks)
(e)Insert a new sheet into the workbook. Rename this sheet as “Filtered”. Open the subtotals sheet.
Filter the records of all suppliers whose New price is greater than or equal to 6000 or less than
250. Copy the results onto the “Filtered” sheet. (6mks)
(f)Open sheet 1. Restrict all the cells in the Amount column to allow entry of amounts between 0 and
6000. A message, “Input amount <= 6000” should be displayed whenever a cell is selected. In
case of an invalid entry, the message, “Amount >6000”, should be displayed. Put an inside and
outside border on data on sheet 1. (5mks)
(g)Put the sheet name as the header and your name. School and index number as footer for
every sheet in your workbook. Save your work on a removable storage media and print ALL the
worksheets

2) Using DTP software, create the following document as it is. Save it as COMPUTER
SOFTWARE . Print your publication. 50MKS

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CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
HOME SCIENCE
441/1 (THEORY)
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(i) Write your name and index number in the spaces above.
(ii) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
(iii) Answer all the questions in section A, Question 24 (Compulsory) in section B and any
two questions from section C.
(iv) Answers to ALL questions must be written in this booklet.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY


Section Question Maximum Score Student’s Score
A 1- 20 40
B 21 20
C 20
20
TOTAL SCORE 100

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1. Suggest two ways nutrients can be lost during storage (2mks)
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2. Give two advantages of grouping clothes before storage (2mks)


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3. Mention two ways of preventing mosquito bites in a house (2mks)


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4. Suggest two uses of a door in a pit latrine (2mks)


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5. List down two points to observe when using a sewing machine (2mks)
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6. Give two conditions suitable for growth of yeast (2mks)


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7. The size of a patch pocket depends on several factors. State 4 (2mks)


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8. State two points to note on the care of ears when cleaning the face daily (2mks)
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9. Differentiate between a dart and pleat in clothing construction (2mks)


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10. State 3 disadvantages of roasting as a method of cooking food (3mks)


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11. List four problems related to teething In small children (2mks)


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12. Differentiate between bound opening and continuous wrap opening (2mks)
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13. Explain the effect of hot water on each of the following (2mks)
i. Blood stains

ii. Grease stains

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14. What is the role of VCT in safe parenting (2mks)
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15. Give two reasons for an open and coarse texture in creamed cake mixtures (2mks)
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16. List items referred to as accessories in good grooming. Name six (3mks)
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17. What is food budget (1mk)


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18. Give 2 uses of pocket on garments (2mks)


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19. List 3 differences between brooms and brushes (3mks)


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Section B (20marks)
20. You have been left with the responsibility of taking care of the house.
a. Launder a viscose rayon blouse (7mks)
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b. Describe the procedure of weekly cleaning of a bedroom (8mks)


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c. Clean and sterilize a baby’s plastic cup (5mks)
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SECTION C
Answer any two questions in this section
21 After completing your cookery practical lesson you found that your white cotton apron has the
following stains.
i. Grease
ii. Coffee
a. State clearly how the stains can be removed (5mks)
i. Grease
ii. Coffee
b. What factors should be considered when choosing brooms and brushes (5mks)
c. Giving reasons in each case state five basic rules in the use of refrigerator (10mks)

21. A. Give five steps to ensure that a sewing machine gives good stitches when stitching (5mks)
B. A well drain house in a comfortable house to live in Give five points to support the above
statement (5mks)
C. Suggest five reasons why a family should prepare for a baby’s arrival (5mks)
D. Give five reasons for budgeting family income (5mks)
22. a. Give five points to consider when buying commercial paper patterns (5mks)
B. Give points to consider when entertaining visitors (5mks)
C. Discuss four points to consider when buying labour saving cleaning equipment (8mks)
D. State two reasons for using white ceramic tiles in the kitchen (2mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
HOME SCIENCE
441/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

CONFIDENTIAL
(Clothing and construction practical)

INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOLS
The following materials will be provided by the school:
1. Plain lightweight and light coloured cotton fabric 70cm long by 90cm wide;
2. Sewing thread to match the fabric.
3. Button 1.2cm diameter
FABRIC IN EXCESS OF THE AMOUNT SPECIFIED MUST NOT BE SUPPLIED TO THE
CANDIDATES.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
HOME SCIENCE
441/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

441/2
HOME SCIENCE CLOTHING AND CONSTRUCTION
PAPER 2
(PRACTICAL)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a. This paper consists 3 printed pages.
b. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.

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A pattern of an apron is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, instructions and layout
carefully before you begin the test.
Materials Provided
1. Pattern pieces:
A Apron skirt
B Bib
C Waistband
D Frill
E Pocket
2. Plain light weight cotton fabric 70cm long by 90cm wide.
3. Sewing thread to match the fabric.
4. A button 1.2cm diameter
4. One large envelope.

THE TEST
Using the materials provided, cut out and make the apron to show the following:
a) Cutting out (17mks)
b) The preparation of the bib, waistband and attachment of the bib to the waistband (18mks)
c) Preparation of the pleats on the frill and attaching the frill onto the skirt using an overlaid seam
(12mks).
d) Machine stitch the right hand edge of the skirt (6mks).
e) Working of gathers on the skirt and attaching to the waistband. Holding the underlap onto the
skirt using long and short tacking. Do not hem. (9mks)
f) Preparation and attachment of a patch pocket (11mks)
g) Working of the buttonhole and attaching the button (12mks).
h) Overall presentation (5mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
CROSS-COUNTRY KCSE PREMOCK
JOINT SERIES - 2025
HOME SCIENCE
441/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)


(FOOD & NUTRITION)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
PLANNING SESSION 30 minutes
PRACTICAL TEST SESSION 11/4 hour
Planning Session 30 min
Practical Session 1 ¼ hours

Instructions to Candidates
a) Read the test carefully
b) Write your name and Admission number on every sheet of paper used
c) Text books and recipes may be used during the planning session as reference materials
d) You will be expected to keep to your order of work during the practical session
e) You are only allowed to take your reference materials at the end of the planning session
f) You are not allowed to bring additional notes to the practical session.
g) Previously written plans are not allowed into the examination.
h) This paper consists of 2 printed pages.
i) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed.
j) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

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THE TEST

Your teenage sister has just come home from boarding school for half term break. Using the
ingredients below:
Prepare, cook and serve a one-course supper and a nutritious drink for both of you.

Ingredients
Spaghetti/rice/potatoes
Beef/chicken/green grams
Green leafy vegetables
Cooking oil/fat
Carrots
Capsicum
Tomatoes
Dhania
Salt
Sugar
Fruits in season
Onions

Planning Session - 30 minutes

Use separate sheets of paper for each task listed below and a carbon paper to make duplicate copies
then proceed as follows:
1. Identify the dishes and write down their recipes

2. Write down your order of work

3 Make a list of foodstuff and equipment you will require

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THE END

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