FM Formula Sheet
FM Formula Sheet
Cash & Bank Bal + Net Receivables + Marketable Securities Owned funds → Proprietary Ratio
Basic Defense Total Assets → Financed by
Interval Daily Operating Expenses / No. of Days [FA + CA] Borrowed funds → Debt to Total
or Assets Ratio
Interval Measure Current Assets – Inventories – Prepaid Expenses
Debt to Total Total Outside Liabilities Total Debt
Daily Operating Expenses OR
Assets Ratio Total Assets Total Assets
Proprietary Fund
Daily Operating Cost of Goods Sold + Selling, Admin & Other General Exp Proprietary Ratio
- Depreciation & Non Cash Exp Total Assets
Expenses
No. of Days in a year Fixed Cost Bearing Funds
Capital Gearing Non-Fixed Cost Bearing Funds
Net Working Ratio PSC + LTD
Current Assets – Current Liabilities =
Capital Ratio
ESC + R&S
Payables Cost of
Annual Net Credit Purchase COGS
(Creditors) Goods Sold x 100
Average Accounts Payables Sales
Turnover Ratio (COGS) Ratio
Operating Administrative exp. + Selling &
Payable
12 months/52 weeks/360 day Expenses Distribution OH
Velocity/ Average Accounts Payable x 100
OR Ratio
Average Sales
Average Daily Credit Purchases Payables Turnover Ratio
payment period Operating COGS + Operating Exp. x 100
Ratio Sales
Profitability Ratios
Financial Financial Exp x 100
Profitability Ratios Related to Sales Exp Sales
Ratio
a) Gross Profit Financial Exp = Interest + Equity & Pref Dividend
Gross Profit
x 100
Ratio Sales
Operating Profit
b) Net Profit Net Profit Earnings after taxes (EAT)
x 100 OR x 100
Ratio Sales Sales Sales Sales Sales Gross Profit Net profit
(-) COGS (-) [COGS (-) Op. cost (-) Op.Exp (-) Non
Pre-tax Profit Earnings before taxes (EBT) (-) Operating Operating
x 100 + Operating
Ratio Sales Exp Exp] income
(+) Non
Op Exp
Earnings before
c) Operating Operating Profitx x 100
100 OR interest & taxes (EBIT)
Profit Ratio Sales COGS Ratio + GP Ratio = 100%
Sales Op. cost ratio + Op. profit ratio = 100%
Profitability Ratios Related to Overall Return on Assets/ As Assets are also financed by lenders, hence ROA can be
Investments calculated as-
Return / Profit / Earnings Net Profit after taxes + Interest
a) Return on x 100
Investment ROA =
Investment Average Total Assets or Average Tangible Assets or
OR
(ROI) Average Fixed Assets
Profitability Ratio x Investment Turnover Ratio ii) Return on
Assets (ROA) EBIT (1-t)
Return on Total Assets (ROTA) =
The concept of investment varies and accordingly there are Average Total Assets
three broad categories of ROI
ROCE (Pre-tax) = EBIT x 100 EBIT (1-t)
Capital Employed Return on Net Assets (RONA) =
Average Net Assets
i) Return on
ROCE (Post-tax) = EBIT (1-t)
Capital x 100
Employed Capital Employed iii) Return on Net Profit after taxes − Preference dividend (if any) x 100
(ROCE) Equity (ROE)
Equity
ROCE (Post-tax) = PAT + Interest (1-t) x 100
Capital Employed As per Du Pont Model → ROE has three components
a) Earnings per Net profit available to equity shareholders Market Price per Share (MPS)
a) Price- Earnings
Share (EPS) Number of equity shares outstanding Ratio (P/E Ratio) Earning per Share (EPS)
Other Ratios related to DPS Earnings Yield or Earning per Share (EPS)
x 100
Earnings Price (EP)
Market Price per Share (MPS)
Retained Earning Retained Earning Ratio
per Share (REPS) Number of equity shares
Profitability Ratios related to market/ valuation/ Investors
EPS DPS + REPS
c) Market Value Average share price Closing Share Price
OR
Dividend Pay-out Total Eq. Dividend DPS /Book Value per Equity ÷ No. of equity
OR Equity ÷ No. of equity shares
Ratio (DPR) Share (MVBV) shares
Earning per Eq Share EPS
Total Eq. Dividend DPS Market Value of equity and liabilities
Dividend Rate OR
FVPS d) Q Ratio Estimated replacement cost of assets
FV of ESC
OR
Retention ratio Retained Earnings REPS Market Value of a Company
OR
[b] EFES EPS Assets’ Replacement Cost
Kd = Interest x (1-t)
NP Approximation Method YTM or IRR Method
Receive Cash Or Receive Specified
Calculate NPV of relevant cash no. of equity
➢ Net proceeds mean flows at 2 discount rates, such shares
issue price less issue (RV – NP) that
expenses. I (1-t) + NPV @ higher rate = -ve
n NPV @ lower rate = +ve → Calculation of cost of convertible
Kd =
➢ If current market price debentures is same as that of
is given in question, (RV + NP) Year Cash flows redeemable debentures
then Issue Price = CMP 1) Approximation method or,
2 0 NP or CMP 2) YTM/IRR Method
➢ If issue expenses are
not given then 1 to n Interest net of tax [I(1-t)] However difference lies in calculation of
assume, IE = 0 Redemption Value.
n Redemption value (RV)
➢ D1 = Expected Dividend Rm – Rf = Po D1 D2 D3 Po P1 P2 P3
➢ Po = Current Market Price (Ex Dividend) Market Risk Premium
➢ Ex Div Price = Cum Div Price (-) DPS D1 = D2 =
β (Rm – Rf) =
➢ If Floatation Cost is given, then subtract Security Risk Premium
it in denominator→ [ P0 – FC ] Calculate Ke by i) Calculate returns
➢ g = b (x) r using “YTM/IRR” of each year →
method
[Illus 10] (1 + r1) = P1+D1
Generally, Ke = Cost of Retained Earnings (Kr)
However, difference comes when floatation cost & personal tax exists Po
(1 + r2) = P2+D2
➢ If personal tax [tp] is given in ques P1
Kr = Ke (1-FC) (1-tp)
➢ If we have to calculate both Ke & Kr & Ques mentions → issue price, FC, & CMP {illu. 13} n (1+r1) x (1+r2)…….x (1+rn) - 1
Ke =
▪ For Ke (assuming new issue of equity shares) → Po = Issue Price – F.C
▪ For Kr → Po = C.M.P
Cost of Capital Or
VL = VuL + Tax Advantage - Cost of Financial Choose the alternative ▪ MPS = EPS x PE Ratio
Distress with highest EPS ▪ Calculate for each
alternative
As per trade off theory, as leverage (amt of debt) increases, there will be a trade- ▪ Choose the alternative
off between - Tax shield on interest [Tax adv] & Cost of Financial Distress with highest MPS
If question does NOT give value of “Expected EBIT” after Financial Break-Even Point [BEP]
additional investment, then –
1) First calculate “Existing ROCE” = Existing EBIT
It is the minimum level of EBIT needed to satisfy all the fixed financial charges,
Existing Cap. Employed. i.e. interest & pre. Dividend
2) Then assuming ROCE will remain same,
It is the Amount of EBIT where, EPS = 0 of a particular alternative of financing.
New EBIT = (New Cap Emp) x ROCE
(EBIT – Int) (1-t) - PD
Indifference point = 0
No. of Eq. shares
(EBIT1-Int)(1-t) - PD (EBIT2-Int)(1-t) - PD
=
No. of Equity shares No. of Equity shares Sales BEP Financial BEP
At what level (amt) of sales At what level (amt) of EBIT
▪ If amount of ESC is same under two financial plans
(alternative), then
EBIT = 0 EPS = 0
No Indifference Or Many (infinite)
Point Indifference points
OR
When Pref Div does not exist When PD exists Sales - BEP Sales
Degree of MOS = x 100
Operating Sales
% ∆ EBIT Contribution Contribution
Leverage DOL = DOL = DOL =
% ∆ Sales EBIT EBIT Sales-BEP Sales PV Ratio
MOS = x
Sales PV Ratio
Formula of BEP Sales Formula of MOS Sales Combined Analysis of DOL & DFL
DOL DFL Comments
Review
Payback Average annual cash in flow
Reciprocal
Purpose of Capital Budgeting Initial investment
2
Traditional OR Non-Discounting Time Adjusted OR Discounting Accounting
Techniques Or
Techniques rate of
return = 1
1) Payback Period
1) Net Present Value (NPV)
(ARR)
( Initial Invt. – Salvage Value) + Salvage
method 2 Value (SV)
2) Profitability Index (PI) Or
2) Payback Reciprocal
3) Internal Rate of return (IRR)
method
3) Accounting Rate of return = 1 Working
4) Modified IRR ( Initial Invt. – SV) + +
(ARR) SV Capital
5) Discounted Payback period 2
(if any)
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How to take decision as per NPV Method? NPV > 0 NPV = 0 NPV < 0
Net [+ve] [-ve]
Present NPV > 0 NPV = 0 NPV < 0 Profitability
Value
Index (PI)
(NPV)
Accept Accept/ Reject Reject
method P.I. > 1 P.I. = 1 P.I. < 1
NPV = Profit
Accept Accept / Reject Reject
1) When NPV is +ve → It means that the project is able to the the project the
generate return more than our project project
expectation [Ko]
Sum of PV of cF @ IRR = Initial Investment Step 1: All cashflows [except initial investment] are to be
re-invested till the end [terminal year] of the project,using
i.e, when IRR is discounting rate, then NPV = 0 WACC as compounding rate.
▪ When we actually receive money, due to purchase of Working WC Required (At Yr=0) → Cash Outflow
asset. Capital WC Released (At last year) → Cash Inflow
Adjusted PV = Base case NPV + PV of tax shield on Int. (-) Issue cost
0 10
NEW M/C
(total life 10 yrs)
ADJUSTED DISCOUNT RATE [ADR]
Balance (Additional) funds required for invt. xx r = Ke Constant co. 0 – 100% No co-relation
a. Zero growth 3)
• Current dividend • Expected to pay div.
D1 • Last year dividend D0 • Div at end of 1st year D1
Theoretical MPS = P0 = • Had paid dividend • Next year div.
Ke
❑ Expected to pay dividend → assuming dividends are expected to grow
b. Constant Growth Model [Gordon] by ___% → then consider DPS it “D0”
D0 (1+g) D1 E1 (1-b)
P0 = or or
Ke -g Ke - g Ke – b.r Traditional Theories of Dividend
When data of EPS [E] & retention ratio [b] is given in question, then
a) Graham & Dodd Model b) Linter’s model
prefer formula (3)
P0 = m DPS + EPS D1 = D0 + [(EPS × target DPR)-Do] × Af
c. Variable Growth model [not part of Gordon]
3
D1 D2 Dn Sv Note: Note:
Intrinsic value = + +………+ + Value of multiplier “m” will be Value of Adjustment factor [Af]
(1+Ke)1 (1+Ke)2 (1+Ke) n (1+Ke)n given in Question will be given in Question
D1 D1 D1 D2 RVn
Po = Po = Po = + +…+
Ke Ke - g n
1 + Ke (1 + Ke) 2 (1 + Ke)
Dividend
% ₹ per share %
Chp 9 – Unit 1
Approaches of WC Investment
➢ Working capital is the amount (capital) which is used by a
business organization to meet its current (short – term)
obligations. CONSERVATIVE
AGGRESSIVE MODERATE
➢ In other words, it is the amount used for carrying out day to • In between these • WC → high level
day operations of the organization. • WC is kept at two approaches • Adv. → higher sales
minimum level due to liberal credit
➢ The concept of working capital can be explained through two • Adv. → lower • Balance between policies, increase in
angles. financial cost risk & return, goodwill among
• Disadv. → stock due to efficient suppliers.
out situation use of funds. • Disadv. → cost of
ON BASIS OF VALUE ON BASIS OF TIME Capital , Bad debt ,
High risk & poor Inventory obsolete,
liquidity Shortage of liquidity
in long run.
Gross WC Net WC Higher
Return on total Low risk
Current Current (-) Current assets &
assets Assets liabilities Greater liquidity
(in short. term)
Lower return on
Total Assets
Permanent WC Fluctuation WC
• Aka. Base WC • Aka. Temporary WC
• Min. amount invested • Arises due to
in CA at all times fluctuation in
• Can be financed using sales, in order to
long – term sources of meet seasonal
finance demand.
2×𝑈×𝑃
Optimum cash balance C = → Miller orr Model is more realistic since it allows variations in cash
𝑆
balance within lower & upper limits.
Where, The finance manager can set limits according to firms liquidity
C = optimum cash Balance requirements.
U = Annual (or monthly) cash Disbursement [Requirement]
P = Fixed cost per transaction I. Economic order Quantity (EOQ)
S = opportunity cost per rupee per annum [or per month]
Chp 9 – Unit 3
2×𝐴×𝑂
II) Miller – orr cash management Model [1966] EOQ =
→ According to this model, net cash outflow is completely stochastic. 𝐶
[having random probability or pattern that may be analysed Where,
statistically but may not be predicted precisely] A = annual requirements of raw materials [or monthly]
C = carrying cost p. u. p. a.
→ When changes in cash balance occur randomly the application of O = ordering cost per order
control theory [like miller – orr model] serves useful purpose
→ In this model, control limits are set for cash balances these limits are II. Lead Time
“h” → upper limit i “z” → Return point, The no. of days / months it takes between when a purchase order is
zero → lower limit placed to replenish products & when the order is received in
Wherehouse.
• When cash balance reaches upper limit [h] III. Lead time consumption
Transfer of cash equal to “h - z” is invested in metastable securities 𝐿𝑒𝑎𝑑 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒
account. [Buy securities] LTC = Annual Requirement ×
365𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠/𝑤𝑒𝑒𝑘𝑠/12𝑚𝑜𝑛𝑡ℎs
Or Current Assets
Current Assets Current Assets
▪ When, (-) Core Current Assets
(-) Current Liab (-) 25% from long
Return on alternative Accept the discount Soft core C.A
< CNTD → WC Gap term sources
investment (opp. Cost) given by creditor (-) 25% from long
(-) 25% from long Bal C.A
term sources
term sources (-) Current Liab
Bal C.A
MPBF MPBF
(-) Current Liab
MPBF