Naan Mudhalvan & AICSCC UPSC Prelims Test Series 2024-25

General Studies (P)- TEST BOOKLET

Test 02-Polity

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

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1. Consider the following statements: How many of the statement(s) given
1. No Sovereign means no State. above is/are correct?
2. The State has authority inherent in (a) Only one
itself, whereas the government has (b) Only two
no inherent powers.
(c) All three
3. The State is a near permanent
(d) None
institution, whereas the government
is temporary.
4. Which one of the following statements is
How many of the above statement(s) is/ correct with respect to Schedules in the
are correct with respect to the nature of
Indian Constitution?
State and Government?
(a) The 6th Schedule of the Constitution
(a) Only one
deals with the management and
(b) Only two
administration of Scheduled Areas
(c) All three
and Scheduled tribes.
(d) None
(b) The 9th Schedule of the Constitution
2. Which one of the following statements is was inserted by the 4th amendment
not correct regarding the features of the Act of the Constitution.
Indian Constitution?
(c) The 1st Schedule of the Constitution
(a) Various amending procedures in the consists of both States and Union
constitution ensure it as both rigid Territories.
and flexible.
(d) The 4th Schedule of the Constitution
(b) Three lists mentioned in Schedule
deals with allocation of seats in the
VII of the Constitution ensure it as
State Legislative council.
Federal in character.
(c) Constituent power of the Parliament 5. Consider the following pairs:
ensures Parliament Sovereignty.
Schedule Part of
(d) Political equality is ensured through Constitution
the method of universal adult
1. Fourth Schedule Part V
franchise.
2. Fifth Schedule Part X
3. With reference to the structure of
the Indian Constitution, consider the 3. Tenth Schedule Part V
following statements:
4. Twelfth Schedule Part IX A
1. The original Indian Constitution had
395 Articles including Preamble. How many of the pair(s) given above
2. The original Indian Constitution was is/are correctly matched?
initially divided into 22 Parts and 8 (a) One pair only
Schedules. (b) Two pairs only
3. All provisions of the Indian (c) Three pairs only
Constitution were enforced on 26th
(d) All Four pairs
November 1949.

2
6. Consider the following statements (a) Berubari Union Case
with respect to Preamble in the Indian (b) Golaknath Case
Constitution:
(c) Kesavananda Bharati Case
1. Parliament shall not amend any part
(d) Minerva Mills Case
of the Preamble of the Constitution.
2. Preamble may be used by the 10. Constitution of India under Article 1(1)
Judiciary to validate or invalidate describes, India that is Bharat shall be
certain provisions of the law. (a) States and Union territories
Which of the statement(s) given above (b) Federation of States
is/are correct? (c) Territories of States
(a) 1 only (d) Union of States
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 11. Consider the following statements
regarding the relationship between
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Fundamental Rights (FRs) and Directive
7. In the context of Indian polity, which one Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
of the following statements best reflects 1. While citizens can approach the apex
the meaning of the term “Equality”? court directly to enforce their FRs,
(a) Absence of unequal distribution of the same is not available for DPSPs.
wealth among citizens. 2. While Judiciary has the power to
(b) Fair and equal application of law. declare a law unconstitutional if
(c) Equal representation of all it violates FRs, the same is not
communities in public office. applicable for DPSPs.
(d) Access to quality education and Which of the statement(s) given above
healthcare to all. is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
8. With reference to Indian Polity, consider (b) 2 only
the following terms:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Justice
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Liberty
3. Liberty of faith 12. With reference to the Directive Principles
4. Liberty of worship of State Policy (DPSP), consider the
5. Dignity of the individual following statements:
6. Unity and Integrity of the Nation 1. It embody the concepts of
How many of the above are mentioned in justice, equality, liberty and police
the Preamble of the Indian Constitution? state.

(a) Only three 2. It imposes limitations on State’s

executive function but not on its
(b) Only four
legislative function.
(c) Only five
Which of the statement(s) given above
(d) All six is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
9. In which of the following cases did the
Supreme Court first explicitly recognize (b) 2 only
the Preamble as a part of the Indian (c) Both 1 and 2
Constitution? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3
13. Consider the following statements with 15. Consider the following Directive Principles
reference to the Directive Principles of of State Policy (DPSP) provisions:
State Policy (DPSP):
1. Organisation of agriculture and
1. The Indian Constitution classifies animal husbandry.
various provisions of the DPSP as
2. Provision for just and humane
Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal -
Intellectual Principles. conditions of work and maternity
relief.
2. It embodies the object of state under
the Republican Constitution. 3. Organisation of village panchayats
3. Promoting the educational interests 4. Separation of judiciary from
of weaker sections of society and executive.
protecting them from exploitation
How many of the above provision(s)
is one of the Gandhian principles of
is/are socialistic principles of DPSP?
DPSP.
(a) Only one
Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct? (b) Only two
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Only three
(b) 2 only (d) All four
(c) 2 and 3 only
16. With reference to the National Legal
(d) 1 and 3 only
Services Authority (NALSA), consider the
14. Which of the following Directive Principles following statements:
of State Policy is/are added through the 1. The NALSA organize Lok Adalats for
42nd Amendment Act of 1976?
amicable settlement of disputes on
1. The state promotes voluntary Civil cases but not on criminal cases.
formation, autonomous functioning,
2. The Chairperson of NALSA is
democratic control and professional
management of co-operative appointed by the Central government
societies. through a selection committee
2. The state promotes equal justice and headed by the Minister of Law and
to provide free legal aid to the poor. Justice.
3. The State minimises inequalities 3. A person who is a member of a
in income, status, facilities and Scheduled Tribe, or industrial
opportunities. workman, or a victim of a natural
4. The state securing the participation disaster is eligible for free legal aid
of workers in the management of under NALSA.
industries.
How many of the above statement(s)
Select the correct answer using the codes is/are correct?
given below:
(a) Only one
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) Only two
(c) 2 and 4 only (c) All three
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None

4
17. With reference to Gram Nyayalayas, Which one of the following is correct in
consider the following statements: respect of the above statements?
1. The Gram Nyayayalas Act is (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
applicable to whole of India. are correct and Statement-II is the
2. It is the responsibility of the state to correct explanation for Statement-I.
establish Gram Nyayalayas for every (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
Panchayat at intermediate level. are correct and Statement-II is not the
3. The Gram Nyayalaya is bound by correct explanation for Statement-I.
the rules of evidence provided in the (c) Statement-I is correct but
Indian Evidence Act of 1872. Statement-II is incorrect.
Which of the statement(s) given above (d) Statement-I is incorrect but
is/are correct? Statement-II is correct.
(a) 1 and 2 only
20. Consider the following statements with
(b) 2 only
reference to election of the President in
(c) 2 and 3 only
India:
(d) 3 only
1. All elected Members of the Legislative
18. With reference to the Fundamental Assembly from the states have equal
Duties, which of the following statements values of votes to ensure uniform
is correct? representation across the States.
(a) It is a duty of every Indian citizen to 2. All elected members from both
provide educational opportunities houses of the Parliament have equal
for children under eighteen years of values of votes.
age. 3. Both elector and candidate can
(b) It is the duty of state to separate approach Supreme court in case of
judiciary from executive for effective disputes in election.
justice. Which of the statement(s) given above
(c) It is the duty of every citizen to is/are correct?
promote liberty, equality and (a) 1 and 3 only
fraternity amongst all the people of
(b) 2 only
India.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) It is a duty of every Indian citizen
to safeguard public property and to (d) 1, 2 and 3
abjure violence.
21. The terms ‘Sora’, ‘Pika’ and ‘Haiper’ which
19. Consider the following statements with are recently seen in the news are related
respect to Fundamental Duties in the to:
Constitution: (a) Nomenclature of the cheetahs
Statement I: transferred from Namibia.
They are not enforceable through writ. (b) Tools that can synthesize videos
from textual descriptions.
Statement II:
(c) Anti-Ballistic Missiles used by Israel
There is no provision in the
against Iran’s attack.
Constitution for direct enforcement of
any of the duties nor for any sanction (d) Tribes living in the Sahel region of
to prevent their violation. Africa.

5
22. Consider the following Statements 25. Consider the following statements
regarding ‘High Altitude Pseudo-Satellite’ regarding the ‘Chief Election
(HAPS): Commissioner and Other Election
1. It is an aerial target designed to Commissioners (Appointment,
provide a realistic threat scenario for Conditions of Service and Term of Office)
practicing weapon systems. Act, 2023’:
2. It is developed by the Defence
1. The selection committee for
Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO). appointing Election Commissioners
Which of the statement(s) given above includes the Prime Minister, the
is/are correct? Leader of the Opposition in the Lok
(a) 1 only Sabha and the Chief Justice of India.
(b) 2 only 2. The salary and conditions of
(c) Both 1 and 2 service for the CEC and ECs will be
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 equivalent to the salary of a Supreme
23. Consider the following: Court Judge.
1. Paternity testing Which of the statement(s) given above
2. Criminal investigation is/are correct?
3. Exact age of the person (a) 1 only
4. Ethnic background
(b) 2 only
5. Genetic diseases
How many of the above are the (c) Both 1 and 2
applications of ‘DNA Fingerprinting’? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only two
(b) Only three 26. Consider the following statements:
(c) Only four 1. The Prime Minister can vote in the
(d) All five election of the President even if
he/she is a nominated Member of
24. Consider the following statements with
the Parliament.
reference to the ‘GSLV LVM-3’:
1. The cryogenic engine used in the 2. The Prime Minister submits his/her
upper stages of this vehicle is entirely resignation to the Speaker or the
indigenous in design. Chairman of the House of which he/
2. This vehicle launched the entire she is a member.
series of Chandrayaan missions.
Which of the statement(s) given above
3. This vehicle has a perfect launch
record with no failures. is/are correct?

How many of the above statement(s) (a) 1 only

is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None
6
27. Consider the following statements 3. The President of India appoints
regarding the Attorney General of India: the Advocate General based on the
1. He/she should be qualified to be recommendation of the Governor of
the concerned State.
appointed as a Judge of the Supreme
Court. How many of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
2. He/she shall have the right of
audience in all courts in the territory (a) Only one
of India. (b) Only two
3. The remuneration of the Attorney (c) All three
General is mentioned in the Second (d) None
Schedule of the Constitution.
How many of the above statement(s) 30. Consider the following statements:
is/are correct? 1. The right to access information from
(a) Only one public authorities under the Right to
(b) Only two Information Act, 2005 can be availed
(c) All three only by the citizens of India.
(d) None 2. The Right to Information is a
fundamental right under Article 19
28. Consider the following statements of the Constitution.
regarding the Union Public Service
Which of the statement(s) given above
Commission (UPSC):
is/are correct?
1. A member of the UPSC can be
removed by the President on the (a) 1 only
grounds of misbehaviour only based (b) 2 only
on the report of the Supreme Court. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The salaries and pensions of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
members of the UPSC are charged
on the Consolidated Fund of India. 31. Consider the following statements
3. The UPSC presents a report annually regarding the Law Commission of India:
as to the work done by it to the 1. It is a non-statutory body constituted
Parliament. under the Ministry of Law & Justice.
How many of the statement(s) given above
2. The first Law Commission in India
is/are correct?
was established under the Charter
(a) 1
Act of 1833.
(b) 2
3. Its chairperson is appointed by the
(c) 3
Appointments Committee of Cabinet
(d) None
headed by the President of India.
29. Consider the following statements with How many of the above statement(s)
respect to the Advocate General: is/are correct?
1. He/she is full-time counsel for the (a) Only one
State Government.
(b) Only two
2. He/she acts as the ex-officio
(c) All three
Chairman of the Bar Council of the
concerned state. (d) None

7
32. Consider the following statements 2. The President has been authorized
regarding ‘Special Category Status’ for by the Constitution to determine the
states: qualifications of the members and
1. The Constitution was amended to the manner in which they are to be
make a provision for ‘Special Category appointed.
Status’, as per the recommendation Which of the statement(s) given above
of the 5th Finance Commission. is/are correct?
2. The 14th Finance Commission has (a) 1 only
recommended to abolish ‘Special (b) 2 only
Category Status’ for all states. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statement(s) given above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are correct?
35. Consider the following:
(a) 1 only
1. Prime Minister of India
(b) 2 only
2. Chief Ministers of all the States
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Governors of all the States
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Chief Ministers of Union Territories
with legislature
33. Consider the following statements
5. Lt. Governors of Union Territories
with reference to the ‘Administrative
without legislature
Tribunals’:
How many of the above are part of NITI
1. A new Part XIV-A was added to
Aayog’s Governing council?
the Constitution by the 44th
(a) Only two
Amendment Act of 1978 based on
(b) Only three
the recommendation of the Swaran
Singh Committee. (c) Only four

2. Central Administrative Tribunal’s (d) All five

(CAT) jurisdiction extends to 36. Consider the following statements
disputes related to the appointment regarding the pardoning powers of the
of civilian employees of both Union President and Governor in India:
government and Defense services. 1. Both the President and the Governor
Which of the statement(s) given above can grant pardon, only on the
is/are correct? advice of their respective Council of
Ministers.
(a) 1 only
2. The President can suspend, remit,
(b) 2 only
or commute a death sentence given
(c) Both 1 and 2 by any court, while the Governor
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 cannot suspend or remit a death
sentence given by any court.
34. Consider the following statements with Which of the statement(s) given above
respect to the Finance Commission: is/are correct?
1. The Composition of the Finance (a) 1 only
Commission is mentioned
(b) 2 only
under Article 280 of the Indian
Constitution. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8
37. Under Article 324 of the Constitution, of each constituency and the number
the Election Commission of India is of seats is the same throughout the
competent to supervise, direct and state.
control elections to which of the following? Select the correct answer using the codes
1. Office of the President of India given below:
2. Office of the Vice-President (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Panchayat (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
4. Municipalities
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Council of States
6. State legislative councils 40. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. The qualifications for appointing
given below: a person as the Prime Minister is
(a) 1 and 2 only mentioned in the Constitution.
(b) 1, 2 and 5 only 2. The Council of Ministers holds office
(c) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only during the pleasure of the President
and is collectively responsible to the
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
House of the People.
38. Consider the following statements 3. The Council of Ministers with the
regarding the Delimitation Commission Prime Minister as the head, aid and
of India: advise the President in the exercise
1. It is constituted by the Election of his/her functions.
Commission of India. How many of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
2. Its orders have the force of law and
cannot be challenged in any court. (a) 1
(b) 2
3. The Chief Election Commissioner
shall act as the ex officio Chairperson (c) 3
of it. (d) None
Which of the statement(s) given above 41. Consider the following statements with
is/are correct? respect to Capital Gains Tax in India:
(a) 1 and 3 only 1. Gains from the sale of capital assets,
(b) 2 and 3 only both movable and immovable, are
(c) 2 only subject to capital gains tax.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Transfer of agricultural land in rural
areas is exempt from capital gains
39. With reference to the functions of the
tax.
Delimitation Commission, which of the
following statements is/are correct? 3. Capital losses can be set off against
1. It determines the number of seats to capital gains in the same financial
be reserved for Scheduled Tribes in year.
each state Which of the statements given above are
2. It can increase or decrease the total correct?
number of Lok Sabha seats allocated (a) 1 and 2 only
to each state (b) 2 and 3 only
3. It allocates seats in such a manner (c) 1 and 3 only
that the ratio between the population (d) 1, 2 and 3

9
42. With reference to the concept of bail in How many of the pair(s) given above
India, consider the following statements: is/are correctly matched?
1. In bailable offences, bail is a matter (a) One pair only
of right and cannot be refused by the (b) Two pairs only
police or the court.
(c) All three pairs
2. For non-bailable offences, a
(d) None
Magistrate or a Sessions Court has
the authority to grant bail. 45. Consider the following pairs:
3. Anticipatory bail can be granted
Port Well known as
by both High Courts and Sessions
Courts under Bharatiya Nagarik 1. Kamarajar First major port in
Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS). Port India registered as a
How many of the above statement(s) company
is/are correct? 2. Mundra Largest privately
(a) Only one Port owned port in India
(b) Only two 3. Jawaharlal Largest container port
(c) All three Nehru Port in India
(d) None
How many of the pair(s) given above
43. Consider the following statements about is/are correctly matched?
‘Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada (a) One pair only
Yojana’ (PMMSY): (b) Two pairs only
1. The scheme aims to double fishers’ (c) All three pairs
and fish farmers incomes and (d) None
generate employment for coastal
communities with exclusive focus on 46. Identify the incorrect statement?
marine fisheries development.
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
2. It also provides nutritional and introduced provincial autonomy and
livelihood support to fishermen created a federal structure in India.
families during fishing bans and
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1861 separated
lean periods.
the executive and legislative
Which of the statement(s) given above
functions of the Governor-General’s
is/are correct?
Council.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (c) Regulating Act, 1773 established
(c) Both 1 and 2 the office of the Governor-General of
Bengal, which marked the beginning
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
of centralized administration in
44. Consider the following pairs: India.
Power Plants Places (d) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 established
1. Kiru Hydel Project Bihar dual control over India by setting
2. Barh Super Thermal Jammu and up the Board of Control in Britain
Power Project Kashmir to oversee the political affairs of the
3. Singareni Thermal Telangana East India Company.
Power Plant

10
47. Consider the following statements with 2. Its members of the assembly were
respect Government of India Act 1909 indirectly elected by both the
and 1919: Provincial Assemblies and Princely
1. While the 1909 Act gave separate states.
electorate for Muslims, 1919 Act 3. The Assembly adopted the
extended the separate electorates for Constitution of India on 26th
Sikhs, Marathas, Indian Christians, January 1950.
Anglo-Indians and Europeans. How many of the statement(s) given
2. While 1909 Act gave responsible above is/are correct?
government at the provincial (a) Only one
level, 1919 Act gave a responsible (b) Only two
government at the central level (c) All three
through a system called Dyarchy.
(d) None
Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct? 50. Consider the following statements with
respect to Constituent Assembly of India:
(a) 1 only
1. Begum Aizaz Rasul was the only
(b) 2 only
Muslim woman member in the
(c) Both 1 and 2 Constituent Assembly.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Objective Resolution was adopted by
the Constituent Assembly on 26th
48. Consider the following statements with November 1949.
respect to Charter Act 1833:
3. Drafting committee headed by Dr.
1. It made the Governor-General of
Ambedkar was established on 29th
Bengal as the Governor General of
August 1947.
India and vested in him all civil and
Which of the statements given above are
military powers.
correct?
2. The Constitutional position of the
(a) 1 and 2 only
British territories in India was
(b) 1 and 3 only
explicitly defined for the first time.
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. It stated that Indians should not be
debarred from holding any place, (d) 1, 2 and 3
office and employment under the 51. Consider the following statements:
company. 1. Tej Bahadur Sapru Committee
Which of the statement(s) given above in 1945 recommended for the
is/are correct? classification of rights in the
(a) 2 only Constitution as justiciable and non-
(b) 2 and 3 only justiciable.
2. Rights mentioned in Part IV of the
(c) 1 and 3 only
Constitution are qualified rights.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statement(s) given above
49. Consider the following statements with is/are correct?
respect to Constituent Assembly of India: (a) 1 only
1. It was established based on the (b) 2 only
recommendation of the Mountbatten (c) Both 1 and 2
plan. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

11
52. Consider the following: 55. Consider the following statements
1. Prime Minister with respect to Parliamentary form of
2. Speaker of Lok Sabha Government in the Indian context:
3. Minister-in-Charge of Ministry of 1. It is a system of government which
Home Affairs does not represent truly the principle
4. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha of separation of powers.
and Rajya Sabha
2. Council of ministers can be taken
5. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
from either houses of the legislature,
How many of the above members are
whereas it is responsible to the lower
part of the Selection committee for
house of the legislature.
appointment of National Human Rights
Commission (NHRC) ? Which of the statement(s) given above
(a) Only two is/are correct?
(b) Only three (a) 1 only
(c) Only four (b) 2 only
(d) All five
(c) Both 1 and 2
53. Which one of the following statements (d) Neither 1 nor 2
best reflects the chief purpose of the
‘Constitution’ of a country? 56. With reference to Indian polity, consider
(a) To eliminate inequality in social and the following statements:
political aspects. 1. Parliament may alter the name of a
(b) To ensure economic growth and state even without the consent of the
development of the country. concerned state.
(c) To establish the supremacy of elected
2. A bill diminishing the area of a state
members over civil servants.
must be passed by Parliament only
(d) To ensure the duties of both the
state and citizens. after the state legislature passes a
resolution of approving it.
54. Consider the following statements:
3. The prior recommendation of the
1. The power of the State legislature to
President is necessary for Parliament
initiate a bill to amend certain parts
to pass a bill, while altering the
of the Constitution.
boundaries of a state.
2. The existence of an independent
judiciary to resolve disputes between How many of the statement(s) given
the Centre and the states. above is/are correct?
3. The presence of an All India service. (a) Only one
How many of the above features represent
(b) Only two
the federal character of the Indian Polity?
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) All three
(d) None

12
57. Which one of the following is the correct 2. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act,
chronological order of the formation of 2019, allows certain individuals who
the following as full states of the Indian have resided in India for at least
Union? five years to be eligible to apply for
citizenship by Naturalization.
(a) Nagaland - Gujarat - Haryana -
Manipur Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
(b) Gujarat - Nagaland - Manipur -
Haryana (a) 1 only

(c) Gujarat - Nagaland - Haryana - (b) 2 only

Manipur (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Nagaland - Gujarat - Manipur - (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Haryana
60. Consider the following Fundamental
58. Consider the following statements Rights enshrined in the Constitution of
regarding Citizenship Act in India: India:
1. The State legislature has no authority 1. Article 14
to make any provision with respect 2. Article 15
to the acquisition and termination of 3. Article 20
citizenship.
4. Article 25
2. The Citizenship Act has been
How many of the above rights are available
amended six times since its to Citizens but not to the foreigners
enactment in 1955. residing in India?
3. The Citizenship (Amendment) (a) Only one
Act, 2019, envisages providing (b) Only two
Indian citizenship to persecuted
(c) Only three
religious and linguistic minorities
(d) All four
from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and
Pakistan. 61. With reference to term ‘Pineapple Express’
How many of the statement(s) given which one of the following statements is
above is/are correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) A Brand for pineapples cultivated
through the ‘Half Moon’ water
(b) Only two
retention method in Niger and other
(c) All three Sahel region, promoted by FAO.
(d) None (b) The Export policy of China to
further the pineapple production in
59. Consider the following statements
Guangdong province.
regarding the process of acquiring Indian
citizenship by Naturalization: (c) A ‘cluster bomb’, developed by
DRDO and Armament Research &
1. A person must possess adequate
Development Establishment (ARDE).
knowledge of any Indian language
(d) A strong atmospheric river that is
listed in the Eighth Schedule
capable of bringing moisture from
before applying for citizenship by
the tropics near Hawaii.
Naturalization.

13
62. Consider the following with respect to Which of the statement(s) given above
‘Wetland City Accreditation’ (WCA): is/are correct?
1. It is a voluntary accreditation (a) 1 only
system established by the Ramsar (b) 2 only
Convention.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. None of the Indian cities have been
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
accredited or nominated for ‘Wetland
City Accreditation’. 65. Consider the following statements
3. The validity of such accreditation is regarding the ‘Motion of Thanks’ in the
for 6 years. Parliament:
How many of the above statement(s) 1. Members who are to move and
is/are correct? second the Motion are selected by
(a) 1 the Speaker.
(b) 2 2. It can either be passed or rejected
(c) 3 but cannot be amended.

(d) None 3. The failure to pass this motion

amounts to the defeat of the
63. Consider the following countries: government.
1. Germany How many of the statement(s) given
2. Poland above is/are correct?
3. France (a) Only one
4. Britain (b) Only two
5. Italy (c) All three
Which of the above countries are part of (d) None
the ‘Weimar Triangle’?
66. Which of the following rights mentioned
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
in the constitution are available only to
(b) 1, 2 and 5 only
the citizens of India?
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
1. Right to freedom of Speech and
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only expression

64. Consider the following statements 2. Right to property

regarding the ‘Household Consumption 3. Right to Vote
Expenditure Survey’ (HCES):
4. Right to Public employment
1. It is conducted by the National
Select the correct answer using the codes
Statistical Office (NSO) every
given below:
year to collect information on the
consumption of goods and services (a) 1 and 3 only
by households. (b) 1 and 4 only
2. The share of expenditure on food has (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
gradually increased for both urban
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
and rural households.

14
67. With reference to the fundamental rights How many of the above writ(s) is/are
enshrined in the Constitution of India, available against both public and private
consider the following rights: offices?
1. Abolition of titles (a) Only one
(b) Only two
2. Equality of opportunity in matters of
public employment (c) Only three
(d) All four
3. Free access to education
4. Abolition of untouchability 70. In the context of Indian Polity, Right to
choose the life partner of one’s choice is a:
How many of the above are incorporated
in the “Right to Equality”? (a) Constitutional right
(b) Legal right
(a) Only one
(c) Fundamental right
(b) Only two
(d) Natural right
(c) Only three
(d) All four 71. Consider the following statements with
respect to preventive detention enshrined
68. Consider the following statements with in the Constitution of India:
respect to Fundamental Rights in Part III 1. The State does not require to
of the Indian Constitution: provide the right to be informed of
1. The right to protect language, script the grounds of arrest under certain
and culture is ensured only for circumstances.
minorities in India. 2. Both Parliament and State
2. These Fundamental Rights though legislatures have the power to make
justiciable, are not absolute. laws on preventive detention.
3. The Constitution empowers both Which of the statement(s) given above
the Union and State legislature to is/are correct?
impose restrictions on rights in the (a) 1 only
interest of public good. (b) 2 only
How many of the above statement(s) (c) Both 1 and 2
is/are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one
72. Which one of the following statements
(b) Only two
best reflects the concept of ‘ Due process
(c) All three of Law’ ?
(d) None (a) A Law that is just, fair and reasonable
with proper procedural safeguards.
69. With reference to Article 32 of the Indian (b) A Law that is enacted following
Constitution, consider the following proper legislative procedures and
writs: parliamentary rules.
1. Habeas Corpus (c) A Law that provides reasonable
2. Quo Warranto opportunities for hearing and
3. Certiorari representation.
4. Mandamus (d) A Law that provides safeguards from
arbitrary action of the State.

15
73. Consider the following statements 75. Consider the following statements:
with respect to ‘86th Constitutional 1. The Constitution of India recognises
Amendment Act, 2002’: minorities only on the basis of
1. It inserted a new right under Right religion and language.
to Equality in the Fundamental 2. Minority educational institutions
Rights of the Constitution to provide are excluded from the provisions
free and compulsory education for mentioned under Article 15(5) of the
all children in the age group of six to Constitution.
fourteen years.
Which of the statement(s) given above
2. Along with changes in the is/are correct?
Fundamental Rights, the
(a) 1 only
amendment brought changes in
(b) 2 only
Directive Principles of State Policy
and Fundamental Duties too. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. It imposes a legal obligation on both (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Central and State Governments
76. In the context of Indian polity, which of
to implement the right.
the following statements captures the
Which of the statement(s) given above essence of the term ‘Rule of Law’?
is/are correct?
(a) Prescribing equal punishment for all
(a) 1 only
crimes.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Absence of any forms of
(c) 1 and 3 only
discrimination in laws.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Making all persons to accept the
74. Which one of the following statements authority of law.
best defines the term ‘State’ in the context (d) Uniform application of law
of Part III of Indian Constitution ? irrespective of the cultural diversity.
(a) A community of persons
77. Consider the following statements
permanently occupying a definite
territory independent of external 1. The Protection of Human Rights Act
(PHRA), 1993 defines Human Rights
control and possessing an organized
and provides for its enforceability in
government.
courts.
(b) It consists only of the executive,
2. National Human Rights Commission
judiciary and the legislature and
(NHRC) can intervene in any
does not include the corporations of proceeding involving an allegation
Public importance. of violation of human rights pending
(c) The legislatures of the Union and before a court.
the States, along with the executives Which of the statement(s) given above
and the judiciary, in their entirety. is/are correct?
(d) The Government and Parliament of (a) 1 only
India, Legislature of each individual
(b) 2 only
state, as well as all local and other
(c) Both 1 and 2
public authorities within India’s
territory. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

16
78. Consider the following Fundamental Select the correct answer using the codes
Rights in the Constitution: given below:
1. Equality of Opportunity in matters (a) 2 only
of Public Employment
(b) 1 and 2 only
2. Abolition of Titles
3. Abolition of Untouchability (c) 3 only
4. Prohibition of discrimination on (d) 1, 2 and 3
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex
or place of birth 81. Consider the following statements with
Which of the above Rights best reflects respect to ‘Jal Jeevan Mission’:
the character of Equal Protection of Law? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme to
(a) 1 only provide Functional Tap Connection
(b) 1 and 2 only (FTC) to every rural household.
(c) 3 and 4 only 2. It also provides FTC to Schools,
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Anganwadi centres, Health and
79. Consider the following statements: wellness centres and community
buildings.
1. No criminal proceedings can be
instituted or continued against the Which of the statement(s) given above
President in any court during his is/are correct?
term of office.
(a) 1 only
2. No process for the arrest or
(b) 2 only
imprisonment of the President, shall
issue from any court during his term (c) Both 1 and 2
of office. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Except impeachment process, The
President cannot be removed from 82. Consider the following countries:
his office before the expiry of the
1. China
term.
How many of the above immunities 2. Vietnam
is/are ensured under Article 14 of the 3. Brunei
constitution for the President of India?
4. Japan
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 5. Taiwan

(c) All three 6. South Korea

(d) None How many of the above countries border
the East China Sea?
80. Which of the following provisions in the
constitution justifies affirmative action of (a) Only three
a State? (b) Only four
1. Preamble
(c) Only five
2. Fundamental Rights
(d) All six
3. Directive principle of state policy

17
83. Consider the following statements 85. Consider the following statements with
regarding the Bharat Ratna Award: respect to ‘Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti
1. It is awarded in recognition of Nirman’ (PM POSHAN):
exceptional service/performance
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme
of the highest order in any field of
to provide one hot cooked meal in
human endeavour.
Government and Government–aided
2. This award cannot be used as a
schools.
prefix or suffix to the recipient’s
name. 2. It covers all school children studying
3. The Award does carry a monetary in Classes I-VIII in Government in
grant of ` 1,00,000. addition to children in pre-schools
4. The formal recommendations for or Bal Vatika.
Bharat Ratna should be made by
the Union Cabinet to the President 3. It is implemented by the Ministry of
of India. Women and Child Development.
How many of the statement(s) given How many of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (a) Only one

(c) Only three (b) Only two

(d) All four (c) All three
84. Consider the following with respect to (d) None
‘Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram
Abhiyan’ (PMJUGA): 86. Consider the following statements with
1. It is an umbrella package to reference to Legislative power of the
implement existing schemes in Governor:
selected Scheduled Tribe majority
villages. 1. The Governor may withhold his
2. It has been designed along the assent to any bill passed by the State
lines of the Pradhan Mantri Janjati Legislature.
Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM-
2. The Governor cannot reject and
JANMAN).
return money bill.
3. The scheme is implemented by 17
ministries but the allocation of fund Which of the statement(s) given above
is solely from the Ministry of Tribal is/are correct?
Affairs.
(a) 1 only
How many of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None

18
87. Consider the following statements with Which of the statement(s) given above
respect to office of Comptroller and is/are correct?
Auditor General of India (CAG): (a) 1 only

1. Parliament exercises control over (b) 2 only

public expenditure through CAG. (c) Both 1 and 2

2. The Public Accounts Committee (d) Neither 1 nor 2

scrutinizes the report of CAG.
90. Consider the following statements
3. The office of CAG was created regarding reservation of bills to the
through Cabinet resolution. President by the Governor under Article
4. CAG has the right to take part in the 201:
proceedings of parliament of India. 1. When the President directs the
How many of the above statement(s) Governor to return a bill, the State
is/are correct? Legislature is constitutionally
(a) Only one mandated to reconsider it within six
(b) Only two months
(c) Only three 2. If the State legislature passes the bill
(d) All four after reconsideration, the President
must assent to it.
88. Consider the following bodies:
1. NITI Aayog 3. When a Money Bill is reserved by
a Governor for the consideration of
2. Inter State Council
the President, he may assent to or
3. Goods and Service tax council
withhold assent from the Bill.
4. National Water Resources Council
Which of the above statements are
5. National Integration Council correct?
In how many of the above bodies does (a) 1 and 2 only
Prime Minister act as an ex-officio
(b) 2 and 3 only
chairman?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Only Two
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only Three
(c) Only Four 91. Which of the following statements best
(d) All Five explains the rationale behind choosing
an elected President for India?
89. Consider the following statements:
(a) To ensure stable Government.
1. The Constitution has defined socially
and educationally backward classes (b) To uphold collective responsibility.
under Article 342A. (c) To uphold the objectives outlined in
2. The President, after consulting the the Preamble.
Governor, can specify socially and (d) To ensure continuation of Public
educationally backward classes in Policy.
any State.

19
92. Consider the following elections in India: (d) The recommendation of election is
1. President made by the Election Commission
and the notification for election
2. Vice-President
is issued by the President and
3. Council of States Governors of the States concerned.
4. State Legislative Council
95. Consider the following statements with
5. House of People
reference to election disputes in India:
How many of the above elections adopted
1. The adjudication of disputes
proportional representation by means of regarding elections of a candidate
single transferable vote in the manner of in Parliament and state legislative
election? assemblies lies before the Supreme
(a) Only two Court and High Courts respectively.
(b) Only three 2. When a question arises regarding
a member of Parliament or State
(c) Only four
legislature disqualification under
(d) All five
Representation of People’s Act 1951,
President’s decision is final.
93. Consider the following statement
regarding office of Governor: Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
1. Article 153 permits the same person
to be appointed as Governor for two (a) 1 only
or more states simultaneously. (b) 2 only

2. Office of Governor has no security of (c) Both 1 and 2

tenure. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statement(s) given above
96. With reference to Vice-President elections,
is/are correct? consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. A person must be qualified for
(b) 2 only election as a member of either house
of the Parliament.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. He should not hold any office of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 profit under Government of India.

94. Which one of the following statements is 3. An election to fill a vacancy in the
office of Vice-President’s death or
correct?
resignation must be held within six
(a) The delimitation of constituencies months after the occurrence of the
for state legislature and Parliament vacancy.
elections are based on the 2011
Which of the statement(s) given above
Census.
is/are correct?
(b) Secret ballot voting is followed in
(a) 1 and 2 only
Rajya Sabha elections in India.
(b) 3 only
(c) Direct election and nomination
methods are followed in Lok Sabha (c) 2 only
elections in India. (d) 1 and 3 only

20
97. Which of the following reports is/are Select the correct answer using the codes
submitted by the President to the given below:
Parliament? (a) 1 and 2 only
1. The report of Comptroller and (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4only
Auditor General of India
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
2. The Report of Estimates committee
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. The report of National Commission
of Backward Classes 100. Which among the following rights are
4. The report of Finance Commission available to the Indian President in the
Parliament?
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: 1. Right to nominate members in both
houses of Parliament.
(a) 1 and 3 only
2. Right to send message in both
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
houses of the Parliament.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Right to address both the houses of
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Parliament.
98. With reference to the Council of Ministers 4. Right to summon and dissolve both
(CoM), consider the following statements: the houses of Parliament.
1. If the President requests for Select the correct answer using the codes
reconsideration of CoM’s advice, the given below:
reconsidered advice is binding on (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
the President. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
2. The advice tendered by the ministers (c) 2 and 3 only
to the President shall not be inquired
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
in any court.
Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

99. Who among the following persons

appointed by the President and their
tenure rest on the pleasure of the
President?
1. Governor
2. Solicitor General of India
3. Chief Information Commissioner
4. UPSC chairman
5. Central Vigilance Commissioner

21