Complete Syllabus of NEET

Instructions:
(i) Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

(ii) The Test consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.

(iii) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Biology having 45 questions
each in Physics and Chemistry and 90 questions in Biology).

(iv) Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.

(v) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(vi) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.

(vii) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(viii) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(ix) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
 PHYSICS

1. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 4. A vessel contains gas A at pressure P, volume V and
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). temperature T. Another vessel contains gas B at pressure
Assertion (A): The absolute error has the same unit as the 2P, volume
V
and temperature 2T. Ratio of number of
quantity itself. 2

Reason (R): Fractional error has no unit. molecules of B to A will be

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer (1) 1

from the options given below. 2

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (2) 2
(1)
explanation of (A) (3) 4
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2) (4) 1

explanation of (A) 4

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false 5. Which of the following figures shown below is correct
regarding the steady flow of an ideal liquid?
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
2. A car accelerates from rest at constant rate of 2 m/s2 for
some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate of 3 (1)
m/s2 to come to rest. If total time taken for the motion is 40
seconds then maximum velocity achieved by the car during
motion is
(1) 40 m/s
(2) 48 m/s
(2)
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 60 m/s

3. In a car lift, compressed air exerts a force F1 on a small

piston having a radius of 10 cm. This pressure is transmitted
to a large piston of radius 20 cm as shown in figure. If the (3)
mass of the car to be lifted is 1500 kg, the value of F1 will be

(4)

6. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A digital circuit that follows logical
relationship between the input and output voltages are
generally known as logic gates.
Reason (R): NOR and NAND gates are not considered as
universal gates.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below.

(1) 1.5 × 104 N Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1)
explanation of (A)
(2) 1.5 × 107 N Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
explanation of (A)
(3) 3.75 × 103 N
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) 7.5 × 104 N
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

2
7. The mass of a proton is 1.0073 u and that of neutron is 11. Match column I with column II.
1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit). The binding energy of Column-I
4
2He is (mass of helium nucleus = 4.0015 u) (Types of EM Column-II (Production)
waves)
(1) 28.4 MeV
Rapid vibration of electrons in
(2) 0.061 MeV A. Infra-red P
aerials
(3) 3.05 MeV Electrons in atoms emit light when
B. Radio Q they move from higher to lower
(4) 305 MeV energy level.
8. Consider the following statements: C. Light R Klystron valve
A. Average power supplied to an inductor by an ac source
D. Microwave S Vibration of atoms and molecules
over one complete cycle is zero.
B. Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to both
(1) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q
frequency of ac source and capacitance.
C. Power factor of AC series LCR circuit is equal to the (2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
product of resistance and impedance of the circuit.
The correct statement(s) is/are (3) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

(1) Both (B) and (C) (4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q

(2) Both (A) and (B) 12. Two batteries one of emf 18 V and internal resistance 3 Ω
while other of emf 12 V and internal resistance 2 Ω are
(3) Both (A) and (C) connected in parallel with positive terminals together at one
(4) All (A), (B) and (C) point and negative terminals together to other point. If
across these points an ideal voltmeter is connected, the
9. reading of voltmeter will be
A bar magnet has length 3 cm, cross-sectional area 2 cm2
and magnetic moment 3 A m2. The intensity of (1) 16 V
magnetisation of bar magnet is (2) 14.4 V
(1) 2 × 105 A/m (3) 15.3 V

(2) 3 × 105 A/m (4) 12.6 V

13. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes an

(3) 4 × 105 A/m
adiabatic process from temperature 300 K to 600 K. Work
(4) 5 × 105 A/m done by this ideal gas in the process is
(1) 600R
10. Consider statements (A) and (B) given below:
A. Thermodynamics deals with the process of conversion of (2) –200R
heat into work only.
(3) –450R
B. Heat given to a system and work done by the system are
state variables in thermodynamics. (4) –900R
Choose the correct option.
14. In the graph shown, if the Young’s Modulus of material A is
(1) Statement (A) is correct but statement (B) is incorrect Y, then the Young’s Modulus for material B is
(2) Statement (A) is incorrect but statement (B) is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

–
(1) √3 Y

(2) Y/3
(3) 3Y
(4) 2Y

3
15. A uniform circular disc of mass 2 kg and radius 100 cm 20. A steel wire 0.50 m long has a mass of 4.0 × 10–3 kg. If the
(hinged at centre) is subjected to a constant torque of 4 Nm. wire is under a tension of 80 N, the speed of transverse
If the disc was initially at rest, then its angular speed after 4 waves on the wire is
s will be
(1) 93 m s–1
(1) 16 rad/s
(2) 4 rad/s (2) 100 m s–1
(3) 2 rad/s (3) 50 m s–1
(4) 8 rad/s
(4) 98 m s–1
16. If potential energy is assumed to be zero at infinity, then
21. Consider the experimental setup for single slit diffraction
The total energy of an orbiting satellite is negative of its experiment, given in diagram.
(1)
potential energy.
The potential energy of an orbiting satellite is twice of its
(2)
total energy
The potential energy of an orbiting satellite is negative
(3)
of its kinetic energy
The total energy of an orbiting satellite is twice of its
(4)
kinetic energy
17. A swimmer can swim with speed of 8 m/s in still water. 800
m wide river is flowing with speed of 4 m/s. Swimmer wants
to cross the river in minimum time. Velocity of swimmer with
respect to ground is (approximately)
(1) 9 m/s Wavelength of light is 800 nm. The first dark fringe obtained
(2) 10 m/s at angle θ is at a distance 0.8 mm from central bright. The
width of central bright fringe is
(3) 12 m/s
(1) 0.8 mm
(4) 5 m/s
(2) 0.16 mm
18. Two masses each equal to M are moving on a circular path
(3) 1.6 mm
of radius R about a common centre. The gravitational force
of attraction between the masses has magnitude (4) 0.08 mm

(1) F =
GM
2
22. The sun delivers about 1400 watt/m2 of electromagnetic
2
R

flux to Earth’s surface. If the flux falls on a roof of

(2) F =
GM
2
dimensions 8 m × 20 m normally, then total power incident
4R
2
on the roof will be

(3) F =
4GM
2
(1) 224 kW
2
R

(2) 112 kW
2

(4)
GM
F =
2R
2
(3) 32 kW

19. A string is fixed at both ends and the vibrations of string is (4) 96 kW
given by the equation y = 10sin(2x)cos(2t)
where x, y are in cm and t is in second. Nearby node from
left end at x = 0, is at a distance
π
(1) 2
cm

(2) π cm
(3) 2 cm
(4) 4 cm

4
23. A Gaussian surface encloses three of five positively 25. Variation of current I flowing through a conducting wire with
charged particles as shown in the figure. The particles time t is given in the graph below.
which contribute to the electric field at point A on the surface
are

(1) q1 , q2 and q5 only

(2) q4 and q5 only

The amount of charge flowing through the wire in time
(3) q3 , q4 and q5 only interval t = 2 s to t = 12 s, will be
(4) q1 , q2 , q3 , q4 and q5 (1) 20 C

24. Let us consider three initially uncharged identical (2) 40 C

capacitors having capacitance C. Space between the plates (3) 60 C
of two of the three capacitors is now filled with a di-electric
material of di-electric constant K and 2K and each capacitor (4) 80 C
is now connected across identical batteries, as shown in
figure. 26. A conducting rod PQ of length 4L is rotating about a point O
→
in a uniform magnetic field B directed into the paper as
shown in the figure. Given that PO = L and OQ = 3L, then

The ratio of charge stored in all three capacitors in steady

state will be
(1) 1 : K : 2K
(2) 1 : 1 : 2K Potential difference between ends P and Q is

(3) 1 : K : 3K (1) 1

2
BωL
2

(4) 2K : 3K : 5K (2) 4BωL2

(3) 1

4
BωL
2

(4) 9

2
BωL
2

27. Consider a hypothetical hydrogen like atom. Wavelength of

spectral lines corresponding to transition of electron from n
= m to n = 1 are given by
2

λ =
1800m
Å (m = 2, 3, 4, 5, .... ∞)
m2 −1

Minimum energy of emitted photon is nearly

(1) 5.2 eV
(2) 7.03 eV
(3) 10.2 eV
(4) 13.6 eV

5
28. Two blocks A and B are released from rest on two inclined 32. Which of the following example does not represent SHM?
planes as shown in the figure.
(1) Oscillations of a spring block system
Motion of ball bearing inside smooth curved bowl, when
(2)
released slightly away from equilibrium position
(3) Motion of oscillating mercury column in vertical U-tube
(4) Rotation of earth about its own axis
33. When 150 gm of ice at 0°C is mixed with 60 gm of water at
50°C in a container, the resulting temperature is
The ratio of the accelerations ( a A /aB ) is (1) 2.7°C

(1) 1 (2) 3.7°C

(2) 2 (3) 5.7°C

(3) 1.5 (4) 0°C

(4) 0.8 34. Beta positive decay is

29. A bob of mass m is suspended by light string of length l The conversion of neutron into proton along with
(1)
such that it is free to rotate in vertical circular plane as neutrino and electron
shown in the figure. At lowest position it is imparted a The conversion of proton into neutron along with
−−
−
horizontal velocity √5gl such that it just completes circular (2)
antineutrino and electron
trajectory in vertical circle. Ratio of its KE at B and C will be
The conversion of neutron into proton along with
(3)
positron and antineutrino
The conversion of proton into neutron along with
(4)
neutrino and positron

35. In the I-V characteristics of a silicon p-n junction diode, the

current varies from 10 mA to 20 mA when applied voltage
varies from 1 V to 1.2 V in linear portion of forward biasing.
The dynamic resistance of diode will be
(1) 10 ohm
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 20 ohm
(2) 3 : 1 (3) 30 ohm
(3) 5 : 3 (4) 40 ohm
(4) 3 : 2 36. If E is the energy of nth orbit of hydrogen atom, the energy
30. Consider a system of two identical particles. One of the of nth orbit of He+ ion will be
particles is at rest and the other has an acceleration a. Their
centre of mass has an acceleration (1) E

(1) Zero (2) 2E

a (3) 3E
(2) 2

(4) 4E
(3) a
37. A glass sheet is grinded to form a double convex lens. The
(4) 2a
radius of curvature of two surfaces are 15 cm and 10 cm
31. The force acting on a particle is ( î + 2 ĵ + 3k and the focal length of lens is 12 cm. Refractive index of
) N . Find the
ˆ
glass sheet is
torque (in N m) of this force about origin if position vector of
(1) 1.2
the particle is ˆ
(7 î + 3 ĵ + 5k) m.
(2) 1.4
(1) ˆ ˆ ˆ
i + 16 j − 11 k
(3) 1.5
(2) ˆ ˆ ˆ
− i − 16 j + 11 k (4) 1.6

(3) ˆ ˆ ˆ
i + 16 j + 11 k

(4) ˆ ˆ ˆ
− i + 9 j + 11 k

6
38. In Young’s double slit interference pattern, the fringe width 42. n identical small drops of water having radius r coalesce to
increases with form a bigger drop. If surface tension of water is T then
excess pressure in bigger drop will be
(1) Increasing slit to screen distance
(1)
3
n 4T
(2) Increasing wavelength r

(3) Decreasing slit width 2T

(2) 1

(4) All of the above n 3 r

39. Pick out wrong statement about the Kirchhoff’s laws of (3) 4T

nr

electric circuit.
(4) 2T

Outgoing currents adds up and are equal to incoming n r

3

(1)
currents at a junction
43. In an experiment on photoelectric emission for incident light
(2)
Starting with any point if we come back to same point, of wavelength 1.98 × 10–7 m, stopping potential is found to
total potential change must be zero be 2.5 V.
(3) Junction rule is based on conservation of energy law What is maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron?

Bending or reorienting the wire does not change the (1) 6.25 eV
(4)
validity of Kirchhoff’s junction rule. (2) 2.5 eV
40. → (3) 3.75 eV
A particle is projected with a velocity ˆ ˆ
v = (3 i + 4 j ) m/s in
→
(4) Zero
the presence of uniform acceleration .
2
a = (4 î − 3 ĵ ) m/s
44. A particle of mass 4 kg is performing S.H.M. in a straight line
The path of the particle will be under the action of force F = (15 –3x) N.
(1) Straight line Equilibrium position of particle will be

(2) Parabolic (1) x = 3 m

(3) Circular (2) x = 5 m

(4) Elliptical (3) x = 7 m

(4) x = 10 m
41. In projectile motion if air resistance (or any of such force
opposing motion) is taken into consideration, then 45. A charge q = 1.6 × 10–12 C moving with speed of v m s–1
Projectile would deviate from its idealised parabolic →
(1) crosses electric field
∣ ∣ 4 –1
V m and magnetic field
trajectory. ∣ E ∣ = 6 × 10
∣ ∣

(2) Range would be less than that in absence of air. ∣

→
∣
∣ B ∣ = 1.2 T . The electric field and magnetic fields are
Maximum height attained would be greater than that in ∣ ∣
(3)
absence of air. crossed and velocity v is also perpendicular to both. If the
charge particle crosses both fields undeflected, the value of
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct. v is

(1) 7.2 × 105

(2) 7.2 × 104

(3) 5 × 105

(4) 5 × 104

CHEMISTRY

7
46. A hydrocarbon contains 80% carbon by mass. The 52. Incorrect statement among the following is
empirical formula of the hydrocarbon is
(1) Be2 molecule does not exist
(1) CH
(2) Boiling point of HF is higher than HCl
(2) CH2
(3) BrF5 is trigonal bipyramidal in shape
(3) CH3
(4) Sulphur in SOCl 2 is sp3 hybridised
(4) CH4
53. If ΔfH° of CaCO3(s), CaO(s) and CO2(g) are –1200, –630
47. Correct expression for Heisenberg uncertainty principle is
and –400 kJ mol –1 respectively then ΔrH° of the reaction
(1) Δx × Δvx ≥
h

4π CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) is

(1) –170 kJ mol –1

h

(2) Δx × Δvx ≥
4π m

(2) 170 kJ mol –1

(3) Δx × Δvx ≥
h

2π

h
(3) –2230 kJ mol –1
(4) Δx × Δvx ≥

(4) 2230 kJ mol –1

2π m

48. Which among the following set of quantum numbers is

54. For a reaction CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g) (KC = 0.5
incorrect?
n l m s molL–1), the maximum moles of CO2(g) formed at
(1) 4 2 –2 +1/2 equlibrium in 5 L container is
(2) 3 1 +1 –1/2 (1) 5
(3) 5 3 –2 –1/2 (2) 2.5
(4) 2 1 –2 +1/2
(3) 1.25
(1) (1) (4) 10
(2) (2)
55. Which is not correct match of disproportionation product of
(3) (3) given elements?
(4) (4) Reactants Products
Hydrogen
49. Correct order of first ionization enthalpies is (1) – Water and oxygen
peroxide
(1) Li < Be < B < C Octa sulphur in
(2) – Sulphide and thiosulphate ions
alkaline medium
(2) Li < B < Be < C
Phosgene and oxyanion of
(3) Li < C< Be < B Phosphorous in
(3) – phosphorous of +1 oxidation
alkaline medium
(4) Li < B < C < Be state
Chlorine in
50. Find out the true statement about electronegativity (4) – Chloride and hypochlorite ions
alkaline medium
(1) It is always constant for given element
(1) (1)
Electronegativity is inversely related to the metallic
(2)
properties of elements (2) (2)
IE1 − EA1 (3) (3)
Electronegativity on mulliken scale = where IE1
(3) 2

(4) (4)
and EA1 are in eV atom–1
56. Products obtained when SiO2 reacts with NaOH and HF
Allred – Rochow scale is the most widely used to
(4) respectively are
express electronegativity
51. Select the incorrect statement. (1) Na2SiO3 and SiF2

(1) Resonance stabilizes the molecule (2) Na2Si2O7 and SiF4

Resonance averages the bond characteristics as a (3) Na2SiO3 and SiF4

(2)
whole
(4) Na2Si2O7 and Na2SiF6
(3) Resonance hybrid is least energetic structure
(4) There is equilibrium between the canonical forms

8
57. Incorrect statement among the following is 61. In Daniell cell of Zn and Cu electrodes, if applied external
opposite voltage is more than 1.1 V then select the correct
Tert-butyl carbocation is more stable than benzyl option
(1)
carbocation (a) No flow of current is observed
(2) Neopentyl carbocation does not show hyperconjugation (b) Flow of electrons is from Zn electrode to Cu electrode
(c) Cell is acting as electrolytic cell
Total number of resonating structures of CH2=CH–CHO (d) Zinc electrode is acting as cathode while copper acting
(3)
is 2 as anode

(4)
∙ ∙
(1) Only a
CH2 = CH − CH2 is more stable than C6 H5 CH2

(2) Only b
58. During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic
compound by Kjeldahl’s method the ammonia evolved from (3) Only c and d
0.4 g of compound is neutralised by 10 mL of 1 M sulphuric (4) Only b, c and d
acid solution. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound
is 62. Mechanism of hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 → 2XY, is
(1) 56 % given below

(2) 28 % (i) X2 ⇌ 2X(fast)

(3) 70 % (ii) X + Y2 → XY + Y (slow)

(iii) X + Y → XY (fast)
(4) 35 % Select the correct statements among a, b, c and d
(a) Order w.r.t. X2 is 1
59. Structure of gammaxane is
(b) Order w.r.t. Y2 is 0.5
(c) Overall order of reaction is 1.5
(d) Order w.r.t. X is 0.5
(1) Only c
(1)
(2) Only a and c
(3) Only b and d
(4) Only c and d

63. The correct order against the indicated property is

Melting pont : SbH­3 > AsH3 > PH3 >
(1)
NH3
(2)
Boiling point : SbH­3 > NH3 > AsH3 >
(2)
PH3

(3) Bond angle : PH3 > NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3

(4) Bond energy : NH3 > PH3 > SbH3 > AsH3

64. The shape of XeOF4, XeO3 and XeF4 respectively are

(3)
(1) Square pyramidal, Trigonal planar, see saw
(2) Tetrahedral, Pyramidal, see-saw
(3) Square pyramidal, Trigonal pyramidal, square planar
(4) Octahedral, Trigonal pyramidal, tetrahedral
(4) 65. In alkaline medium MnO4
−
oxidises −
I into

(1) IO
−

(2) IO −

60. Molality of an aqueous solution of urea in which mole 2

fraction of urea is 0.2, is (3) I2

(1) 12.33 m
(4) IO
−

(2) 13.88 m
(3) 10.33 m
(4) 11.23 m

9
66. Which of the following pairs of elements exhibit similar 69. Consider the following reaction sequence
radii? dry CH3 OH

PhCH2 Br + Mg −→
− A−−−−→B Product B is
(1) Zr, Hf ether

(2) Ti, Zr
(3) Cu, Ag
(4) Mn, Tc (1)
67. The incorrect statement regarding crystal field theory is
(1) It considered the metal-ligand bond to be purely ionic
The pattern of splitting depends upon the nature of the
(2)
crystal field
The degeneracy of five d-orbitals is lifted when negative
(3)
field of ligands surrounds the metal atom/ion (2)
In octahedral complexes, the orbitals d and d will
2
x −y
2
z
2

(4) be lowered in energy relative to average energy in the

spherical crystal field

68. Among the following which bromide will react fastest with
AgNO3 solution

(3)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(4)

10
70. In the given reaction sequence major product (B) is 72. Given below are two statements one is Assertion (A) other
is Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : 2p z orbital of one atom cannot combine
with the 2px or 2py orbital of the another atom.
Reason (R) : 2p z orbital and 2px or 2py orbitals have
different orientation.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1)
explanation of (A)
(1) (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4)
explanation of (A)
73. Given below are two statements one is Assertion (A) other
is Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : For an ideal gas undergoing adiabatic
(2) process, ΔU = W.
Reason (R) : In an adiabatic process, no heat is transferred
between the system and surrounding.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1)
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4)
explanation of (A)

74. Solution of 0.1 N NH4OH and 0.01 N NH4Cl has pH 10.25.

Then the pKb of NH4OH at 25°C is

(1) 5.75
(2) 3.75

(4) (3) 4.75

(4) 6.75

75. Given below are two statements one is Assertion (A) other
is Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The t-butyl free radical is more stable than
71. The ether which is most difficult to cleave on heating with ethyl free radical.
HBr is Reason (R) : The t-butyl free radical is stabilised by greater
+H and more +I.
(1) In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below.
(2) Ph–CH2–O–CH2 –Ph
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1)
(3) Ph–O–CH3 explanation of (A)

(4) Ph – O – Ph (2) (A) is true but (R) is false

(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4)
explanation of (A)

11
76. Out of the given species, how many are aromatic in nature? 81. Given below are two statements.
Statement (I) : o-Nitrophenol is more acidic than p-
Nitrophenol.
Statement (II) : pKa of o-Nitrophenol is lower than m-
Nitrophenol.
In the light of above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) 5
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) 6
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) 4
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) 3
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
77. Select the incorrect statement among following
82. Given below are two statements.
When concentration of electrolyte for equation Statement (I): Benzaldehyde is more reactive than
(1) Λ = Λ − A√−
m
0
m
−
C approaches zero, the molar propanal in nucleophilic addition reaction.
conductivity is known as limiting molar conductivity Statement (II): Carbonyl carbon of benzaldehyde is more
electrophilic than carbonyl carbon of propanone.
The value of constant ‘A’ is independent of solvent and In the light of above statements, choose the most
(2)
temperature for a given electrolyte appropriate answer from the options given below.
(3) The value of constant ‘A’ for NaCl and KCl are same (1) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
The variation of ∧m for strong and weak electrolytes in a (2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4)
given solvent and temperature are different
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
78. Given below are two statements. (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Statement (I): t1/2 for a zero order reaction is directly
proportional to the initial concentration of the reactants. 83. Given below are two statements.
A0 Statement (I): Aniline is ortho/para directing in nature.
Statement (II): For a zero order reaction, t = . (A0 =
1/2
k Statement (II): Anilinium ion is meta directing.
Initial concentration) In the light of above statements, choose the most
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
84. Match the name of vitamins given in column I with their
79. Which among the following oxides is anhydride of nitric deficiency diseases given in column II
acid?
Column I Column II
(1) N2O3 a. Thiamine (i) Scurvy
(2) NO2 b. Riboflavin (ii) Beri Beri
c. Pyridoxine (iii) Cheilosis
(3) N2O5
d. Ascorbic acid (iv) Convulsions
(4) N2O
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
80. For which of the following complexes, the C-O bond length
is maximum? (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

(1) [Mn(CO)6]+ (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(2) [Ni(CO)4]

(3) [Cr(CO)6]

(4) [V(CO)6]–

12
85. Which among the following will give positive haloform test? 87. Complete hydrolysis of RNA gives
(1) β-D-ribose and phosphoric acid only
(2) β-D-2-deoxyribose and phosphoric acid only
β-D-ribose, phosphoric acid and nitrogen containing
(1) (3)
heterocyclic compounds
β-D-2-deoxyribose and nitrogen containing heterocyclic
(4)
compounds only
88. Match amines in List-I with their pKb in List-II
List-I List-II
a. Methanamine (i) 3.00
b. N-Methylmethanamine (ii) 3.38
(2)
c. N, N-Dimethylmethanamine (iii) 3.27
d. N-Ethylethanamine (iv) 4.22
Correct match is
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
89. Match cations in List-I with their group reagent in List-II
List-I List-II
a. Cu2+ (i) (NH4)2CO3 + NH4OH

b. Ba2+ (ii) NH4OH +NH4Cl

c. Al3+ (iii) H2S + NH4OH

(4)
d. Ni2+ (iv) HCl + H2S
Correct match is
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
86. 2 moles and 3 moles of liquids, A (P
o
= 120 torr) and B (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
A

respectively are mixed to form an ideal

o
( PB = 80 torr) (3) (a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
solution. The mole fraction of B in vapour phase will be
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(1)
2

5
90. Which among the following salt solution will give rotten egg
like smell on addition of dilute H2SO4.
(2)
1

(1) NaCl(aq)
(3) 1

(2) Na2S(aq)
4

(4)
3

5
(3) KNO3(aq)

(4) Na2CO3(aq)

BIOLOGY

13
91. Between which of the following taxa, there might be greater 96. Select the incorrect match.
difficulty of determining relationship? (1) Ectocarpus – Filamentous
(1) Mangifera and Triticum (2) Kelps – Possess carotenoids
(2) Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae (3) Chlamydomonas – Cup shaped chloroplast
(4) Chara – Colonial green alga
(3) Sapindales and Poales
(4) Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae (1) (1)
(2) (2)
92. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
statements and select the correct option. (3) (3)
Assertion (A): Deuteromycetes are commonly known as
(4) (4)
imperfect fungi.
Reason (R): Sexual reproduction is absent in the members 97. Which of the following plants shows zygomorphic flower
of Deuteromycetes. with imbricate aestivation of petals?
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (1) Calotropis
(1)
explanation of (A)
(2) Cotton
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2) (3) Datura
explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Gulmohur

(4) (A) is true but (R) is false 98. The ornamental plant of Solanaceae family is

93. A protozoan without locomotory structure is (1) Lupin

(1) Entamoeba (2) Petunia

(2) Trypanosoma (3) Tulip

(3) Plasmodium (4) Gloriosa

(4) Paramecium 99. Read the following statements and choose the correct
option.
94. Read the following statements and select the correct Statement A: In all pteridophytes, the female gametophytes
option. are retained on the parent sporophyte for variable periods.
Statement A: Bacteria as a group shows the most Statement B: In the members of pteridophytes, male
extensive metabolic diversity. gametes are released from the antheridia, to the mouth of
Statement B: Bacteria may be photosynthetic autotrophic archegonium.
or chemosynthetic autotrophic.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
100.Collenchyma is also a living simple tissue just like
95. The records or estimates regarding biodiversity do not give parenchyma. However, it differs from the latter as it
any figures for prokaryotes because
a. Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for (1) Contains cells that may be oval, spherical or polygonal.
identifying microbial species. (2) Has small intercellular spaces.
b. Many prokaryotic species are simply not culturable under
laboratory conditions. Has pectin rich thickened corners of the cell wall and
(3)
c. They are not seen with naked eyes. provides mechanical support to growing parts of plants.
d. They do not show sexual reproduction which is essential
to increase the biodiversity. (4) Can perform photosynthesis.
The correct ones are
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d

14
101.Select the correct statements with respect to bulliform cells. 105.Match the following columns w.r.t. chromosomes and select
a. Modified abaxial hypodermal cells. the correct option.
b. Large, empty, colourless cells. Column I Column II
c. Photosynthetic, contain large number of chloroplasts.
d. Make the leaves curl inwards during water stress a. Centromere (i) Disc
conditions. shaped
e. Help to minimise water loss. structure
b. Satellite (ii) Primary
(1) Only a, b and d constriction
(2) Only a, c and e c. Kinetochore (iii) Basic
protein
(3) Only b, d and e
d. Histone (iv) Small
(4) All a, b, c, d and e fragment
that
102.Axillary buds
appears
a. Are found in axil of leaves
due to
b. Are capable of forming a flower or tendril
secondary
c. Are derived from shoot apical meristem
constriction
d. Are secondary meristem
The correct ones are (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(1) a and b only (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(2) b and c only (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) a, b and c only (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) All a, b, c and d
106.Fibreless intercellular matrix is the characteristic feature of
103.The membrane bound cell organelles which are involved in (1) Areolar tissue
protein synthesis and its modifications are respectively
(2) Blood
(1) ER and Golgi body
(3) Cartilage
(2) ER and ribosome
(4) Adipose tissue
(3) Golgi body and lysosome
107.Which of the following is a primary metabolite?
(4) Mitochondrion and ribosome
(1) Carotenoid
104.The ribosomes of chloroplast are
a. 70S type (2) Anthocyanin
b. Larger than cytoplasmic ribosome
(3) Cellulose
c. Made up of 50S & 40S subunits
The correct one(s) is/are (4) Ribose
(1) a only 108.The analysis of outer hard covering of the cockroach
(2) a and c only reveals the presence of a polysaccharide with N-acetyl
glucosamine as its monomeric units.
(3) b and c only Identify the polysaccharide and select the correct option
w.r.t it
(4) All a, b and c
(1) It is a structural polysaccharide
(2) It is also found in exoskeleton of annelids
(3) It is a derivative of galactose
(4) It is the most abundant polysaccharide in nature

109.A portion of which among the following acts as a common

passage for air and food in case of humans?
(1) Larynx
(2) Pharynx
(3) Trachea
(4) Bronchi

15
110.A special system of blood vessels in our body that is 116.Which of the given cell organelles is common to both
exclusively meant for the circulation of blood to and from the prokaryotic as well as eukaryotic cells?
cardiac musculature is
(1) Golgi apparatus
(1) Pulmonary circulation
(2) Ribosome
(2) Coronary circulation
(3) Plastid
(3) Renal portal system
(4) Mitochondrion
(4) Hepatic portal system
117.When a host fish species becomes extinct, its unique
111. The organic compound ‘X’ that forms 10-15% of the total assemblage of parasites also meets the same fate. This can
cellular mass in living organisms, is made up of monomeric be explained as an example of
units that are joined together with the help of
(1) Alien species invasion
(1) Peptide bonds
(2) Mutualism
(2) Glycosidic bonds
(3) Co-extinction
(3) Phosphodiester bonds
(4) Endemism
(4) Hydrogen bonds
118.Read the following statements and select the correct
112.Which among the following is a heteropolymer? option.
Statement A: Mitosis is seen in both diploid and haploid
(1) Cellulose cells.
(2) Starch Statement B: Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of
nuclear and cell division but only a single cycle of DNA
(3) Collagen replication.
(4) Glycogen (1) Only statement A is correct
113.In humans, the value of pCO2 in alveolar air is (2) Only statement B is correct

(1) Equal to the value of pCO2 in systemic veins (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) More than the value of pO2 in systemic arteries
119. Read the following statements and identify them as true (T)
(3) Less than the value of pO2 in pulmonary vein
or false (F) and accordingly choose the correct option.
(4) Equal to the value of pCO2 in pulmonary artery A. Splitting of centromere takes place during anaphase of
mitosis.
114.Select the incorrect statement from the following w.r.t. B. During metaphase of mitosis, each chromatid of a
cockroach. chromosome remains connected to pole of its side by
spindle fibres.
th
(1) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6 abdominal C. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform during the end
segment in the female cockroach. of prophase.
D. In animal cells, cytokinesis is carried out by furrow
In male cockroach, the ejaculatory duct opens into male
(2) formation in plasma membrane.
gonopore situated ventral to anus.
A B C D
The female reproductive system consists of two large (1) T T F F
(3) ovaries, lying laterally in the 6th to 8th abdominal (2) T T F T
segments.
(3) F T T T
Male reproductive system consists of a pair of testes one (4) T F F T
(4) lying on each lateral side in the 4th -6th abdominal
(1) (1)
segments.
(2) (2)
115.A 55 years old female met with a mild accident that resulted
in multiple fractures as her bone mass has decreased due (3) (3)
to ageing. The most likely reason for decreased bone mass
(4) (4)
could be
(1) Normal estrogen levels in the blood
(2) Low PTH in blood
(3) Low calcium in bones due to low estrogen
(4) Increased progesterone in the blood

16
120.G1 phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis and 126.Identify these statements as true (T) or false (F) and select
initiation of the correct option.
A - Gibberellins induce early seed production in pines.
(1) DNA replication B - Several naturally occurring substances like NAA and
kinetin promote cell division.
(2) G2 phase
C - Lateral shoot growth is promoted by cytokinin.
(3) G0 phase (1) A(F), B(T), C(T)
(4) Post mitotic phase (2) A(T), B(F), C(F)
121.Which of the following is true about carotenoids? (3) A(F), B(T), C(F)
Serve as major primary pigment in the photosynthetic (4) A(T), B(F), C(T)
(1)
machinery
127.Select the incorrect statement regarding the viability period
(2) Form the reaction center of the photosystem of pollen grains.
(3) Prevent reaction center from photo-oxidation (1) It depends upon the chromosome number of a species.
(4) Show blue color in chromatogram In some cereals the viability is lost within 30 minutes of
(2)
their release.
122.Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. C 4 plants.
Viability of pollen grains can be increased by storing
(1) They have a special type of leaf anatomy. (3)
them at very low temperature.
(2) They can tolerate higher temperatures. In some leguminous plants, pollen grains maintain
(4)
(3) They lack a wasteful process called photo- respiration. viability for months.

They show lower productivity and minimum yield as 128.The radicle and the root cap in monocot seeds are
(4) compared to the C plants. enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath called the
3
(1) Coleoptile
123.Mark the incorrect statement about aerobic respiration.
(2) Coleorhiza
(1) Most common in higher organisms
(3) Epicotyl
(2) It involves complete oxidation of organic substances
(4) Scutellum
(3) It does not occur in any prokaryote
Glycolysis is the first step of aerobic respiration and it 129.Select the characteristics true for wind pollinated flowers
(4) does not involve release of CO . and mark the option accordingly.
2
i. Light and non-sticky pollen grains.
124.Substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis takes place ii. Well exposed stamens.
during the conversion of iii. Large feathery stigma.
iv. Numerous ovules in each ovary.
(1) 2-phosphoglycerate to 3-PGA v. Mucilagenous covering around pollen grains.
(2) 2-phosphoglycerate to PEP (1) iii, iv and v only
(3) PEP to pyruvic acid (2) i, ii and iv only
(4) Glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate (3) ii, iii and iv only
125.Developmental and environmental heterophylly are (4) i, ii and iii only
exhibited by A and B , respectively.
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
130.If a hybrid tall pea plant is selfed, what percent of F1
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks A and B.
individuals would be of true breeding line regarding the
(1) A – Coriander, B – Cotton plant height?
(2) A – Cotton, B – Buttercup (1) 50%
(3) A – Buttercup, B – Coriander (2) 12.5%
(4) A – Cotton, B – Larkspur (3) 100%
(4) 25%

17
131.Choose the correct option to complete the analogy w.r.t. 136.Which of the following is considered as the anterior most
muscle contraction. part of Balanoglossus?
Mitochondria : ATP : : Sarcoplasmic reticulum : –––––
(1) Proboscis
(1) Ca2+ (2) Collar
(2) Mg2+ (3) Trunk
(3) Fats (4) Stomochord
(4) Proteins 137.The excited repolarised nerve fibre becomes once more
responsive for further stimulation within fraction of a second
132.Select the correct match/representation w.r.t a healthy adult due to
man.
Percentage of Percentage of proteins in (1) Rapid efflux of K+
(1) =
monocytes in total WBCs plasma
(2) Rise in permeability to Na+ across its membrane
Percentage of Percentage of water in
(2) =
neutrophils in total WBCs plasma blood (3) Decrease in permeability of Ca2+ across its membrane
Percentage of
(3)
Percentage of plasma in
= eosinophils in total (4) Rise in the permeability to Mg2+
blood
WBCs
138.Read the following statements and choose the correct
Percentage of option.
Percentage of formed
(4) = lymphocytes in total (a) According to Thomas Malthus, populations are stable in
elements in blood
WBCs size except for seasonal fluctuations.
(b) When we describe the story of life on Earth, we treat
(1) (1) evolution as a consequence of a process called natural
selection.
(2) (2)
(c) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get
(3) (3) selected by nature.
(4) (4) (1) (a) and (b) are incorrect, and (c) is correct

133.Choose the incorrect statement. (2) (a) and (c) are correct, and (b) is incorrect

Neurons are excitable cells because their membranes (3) (b) and (c) are correct, and (a) is incorrect
(1)
are in a polarized state. (4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
The channels present on the neural membrane are
139. and are the two key concepts of Darwinian
(2) selectively permeable for different ions and negatively A B
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯
charged larger proteins. theory of evolution.
Identify A and B and select the correct option.
During the polarized state of a neuron, there are more
(3) A B
Na+ outside the cell than inside.
(1) Branching descent Mutation
Ionic gradient across the resting membrane is
(4) (2) Natural selection Saltation
maintained by the sodium – potassium pump.
(3) Natural selection Branching descent
134.What happens to GFR due to constrictory effect of ADH on
blood vessels? (4) Founder effect Saltation

(1) Increases (1) (1)

(2) Decreases (2) (2)
(3) Tends to remain at the same level (3) (3)
(4) First increases then decreases (4) (4)
135.The hormones which stimulate erythropoiesis are secreted
by all of the given endocrine glands, except
(1) Adrenal cortex
(2) Testis
(3) Thyroid gland
(4) Parathyroid gland

18
140.How many of the mentioned hormones are not secreted by 146.Select the correct match in the table given below w.r.t.
the organised endocrine glands of our body? comparison between humans and frogs.
PRL, T4, ANF, Epinephrine, CCK, Testosterone, Structure/system Human Frog
Erythropoietin, Thymosin (1) Gland Thyroid as Only thyroid
Choose the correct option. well as
parathyroid
(1) Three
(2) Cerebral Paired Unpaired
(2) Four hemisphere
(3) Five (3) Hepatic portal Present Absent
system
(4) Two (4) Pons Present Absent
141.Which of the following is not true according to Hugo
(1) (1)
deVries?
(2) (2)
(1) Evolution is a gradual process
(3) (3)
(2) Mutation causes speciation
(4) (4)
(3) Mutations are random and directionless
(4) Saltation can cause speciation 147.One of the core techniques of biotechnology which involves
maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical engineering is
142.In humans, cortical nephrons differ from juxta-medullary
(1) Genetic engineering
nephrons in all, except
(2) Bioprocess engineering
(1) Number
(3) Gene therapy
(2) Length of loop of Henle
(4) Biofortification
(3) Length of vasa recta
(4) Presence of peritubular capillaries 148.Identify the structures labelled as X, Y and Z in the given
figure.
143.In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are
separated mainly on the basis of
a. Size
b. Charge
c. Charge to size ratio Subunit of which of the following binds to the calcium to
d. Length of agarose gel expose myosin-binding site on actin filament?
Select the correct option.
(1) X only
(1) a only
(2) Y and Z
(2) b only
(3) X and Z
(3) a, b and c
(4) Z only
(4) a, b, c and d
149.The ART that involves the transfer of an ovum collected
144.Select the correct sequence w.r.t. evolution of plant forms. from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce one, but can provide suitable environment
Rhynia-type plants → Psilophyton → Seed ferns →
(1) for fertilisation and further development, is
Progymnosperms → Cycads
(1) ZIFT
Chlorophyte ancestors → Rhynia-type plants →
(2)
Tracheophyte ancestors → Psilophyton (2) GIFT
(3) Tracheophyte ancestors → Zosterophyllum → Lycopods (3) IUI
Chlorophyte ancestors → Tracheophyte ancestors → (4) IVF-ET
(4)
Bryophytes
150.The exchange of material between blood and interstitial
145.Choose the odd one w.r.t. the structures that provides the fluid occurs only at the level of
site of interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen, which
then proliferate to become effector cells. (1) Arteries

(1) Peyer’s patches (2) Veins

(2) Bone marrow (3) Capillaries

(3) MALT (4) Arterioles

(4) Spleen

19
151.Read the following statements and choose the correct 155.In a plasmid, a foreign DNA is ligated within the coding
option. sequence of β-galactosidase. In the presence of a
Statement A : Allergy is due to the release of chemicals chromogenic substrate, recombinants will produce
like histamine and serotonin from the mast cells. ________.
Statement B: The use of drugs like anti-histamine, Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
adrenaline and steroids can quickly reduce the symptoms
of allergy. (1) Blue coloured colonies
(2) White coloured colonies
(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Pink coloured colonies
(2) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Only statement A is correct (4) No colonies

(4) Only statement B is correct 156.If we want to choose a species for experimental verification
of chromosomal theory of inheritance, then on which of the
152.Match the columns and select the correct option. following features would we focus that must be present in
Column I Column II this species?
(a) It can be grown in laboratory.
a. Gastrin (i) Inhibits gastric (b) It should have large number of chromosomes.
secretion (c) It should produce large number of progenies in a single
b. Gastric (ii) Stimulates the mating.
inhibitory secretion of (d) Male and female individuals can be easily
peptide pancreatic distinguished.
enzymes (e) It should also reproduce through asexual means.
c. Secretin (iii) Stimulates the The correct ones are
secretion of water (1) (b), (d) and (e)
and bicarbonate
from pancreas (2) (b), (c) and (d)
d. Cholecystokinin (iv) Stimulates the (3) (a), (c) and (d)
secretion of HCl
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (e)
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
157.Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t. sickle-
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) cell anaemia?
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) Substitution of amino acid in the globin protein results
(1) due to single base substitution at the sixth codon of the
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
beta globin gene from GAG to GUG.
153.If you create a GM crop, which agency of Government of The defect is caused by the substitution of valine (val) by
India will you approach to get permission for its commercial (2)
glutamic acid (Glu).
use?
The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes
(1) IARI (3)
polymerization under low oxygen tension.
(2) CDRI Shape of RBC changes from biconcave disc to
(4)
(3) GEAC elongated sickle like structure.

(4) WHO 158.In case of –––––– the F1 generation resembles both the
parents. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
154.Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t sponges.
(1) Incomplete dominance
(1) Sponges reproduce asexually by fragmentation.
(2) Co-dominance
(2) Larval stages are morphologically distinct from adults.
(3) Complete dominance
(3) The process of digestion occurs in spongocoel.
(4) Pleiotropy
Water enters into the body through ostia and leaves
(4)
through osculum. 159.The main enzyme for DNA replication is
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) RNA dependent RNA polymerase

20
160.In the experiments conducted by Griffith on Streptococcus 165.One of the objectives of Ganga Action plan and Yamuna
pneumoniae, it was observed that Action Plan is to
Mice injected with non-pathogenic strain become Build large dams to produce hydroelectric energy, so
(1) (1)
resistant to pathogenic stain that pollution from thermal power plants can be reduced
Heat-killed pathogenic strain is responsible for making Build a large number of STPs so that only treated
(2) (2)
non-pathogenic bacterium to pathogenic one sewage may be discharged in the river
Non-pathogenic strain when mixed with pathogenic Divert the river flow so that during rainy seasons flood
(3) (3)
strain, the latter is also converted into non-pathogenic can be prevented
Mutant strain of bacterium converts the mice into mutant Introduce different species of aquatic plants and animals
(4)
type (4) so that the health of aquatic ecosystem can be
maintained
161.Who proposed the Central Dogma in molecular biology
which states that the genetic information flows from DNA 166.The interaction in which one species benefits and the other
→ RNA → Protein? is neither harmed nor benefitted is seen in
(1) James Watson Mycorrhizae associations between fungi and roots of
(1)
higher plants.
(2) Maurice Wilkins
(2) Sea anemone and clown fish
(3) Francis Crick
(3) Abingdon tortoise and goats in Galapagos island
(4) Erwin Chargaff
(4) Cuscuta on hedge plants
162.Steps included in DNA fingerprinting are as follows:
(A) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe, and detection 167.Population size of a given area or space can be determined
of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography by many ways. One of the methods called total number
(B) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases count is not useful for
(C) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
(1) Siberian cranes at Bharatpur wetlands
(D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to
synthetic membranes, such as nitrocellulose or nylon (2) Humans living in city Delhi
(E) Isolation of DNA
Correct sequence of the steps in DNA fingerprinting (3) Dense culture of bacteria in a petri dish
technique is (4) Trees in a particular small area
(1) (E) → (B) → (C) → (D) → (A)
168.The integral form of the exponential growth equation is:
(2) (B) → (C) → (D) → (E) → (A)
(1)
dN
= N
dt
(3) (C) → (B) → (E) → (D) → (A)
(2)
dN

(4) (D) → (B) → (C) → (A) → (E) dt

= rN

163.Select the incorrectly matched pair. (3) Nt = N0 e

rt

(1) mRNA – Provides template for protein synthesis (4) N0 = Nt r

et

tRNA – Has the catalytic capability and read the genetic 169.The biomass of an ecosystem is generally upright. It means
(2)
code directly from DNA the biomass will be greatest at the bottom. Exception to this
rRNA – Plays the structural and catalytic role during the can be for
(3)
translation (1) Tree ecosystem
Sigma factor – An important factor for the initiation of (2) Grassland ecosystem
(4)
RNA synthesis
(3) Sea ecosystem
164.A plant is affected with several root pathogens. Which of the
following organisms should be employed for its treatment? (4) Forest ecosystem

(1) Ladybird
(2) Trichoderma
(3) Dragonflies
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis

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170.Consider the following four conditions (a-d) and select the 176.Early detection of diseases is not possible by performing
correct pair of them as adaptation to environment in
Kangaroo rat. (1) RDT
(a) Meets all its water requirement through its internal fat (2) Urine analysis
oxidation.
(b) Basks in sun when temperature is low. (3) PCR
(c) Ability to concentrate its urine. (4) ELISA
(d) Presence of thick layer of fat below the skin.
177.Mode of action of oral steroidal contraceptive pills includes
(1) (a) and (b)
all, except
(2) (b) and (c) Inhibition of sperm motility but enhancement of their
(1)
(3) (c) and (d) fertilization ability
(4) (a) and (c) (2) Altering the quality of cervical mucus

171.How many approximate varieties of Basmati rice are (3) Inhibition of ovulation
documented in India? (4) Inhibition of implantation
(1) 27 178.In human heart, the maximum number of action potentials
(2) 30 are generated by
(3) 12 (1) SAN

(4) 2,00,000 (2) AV bundle

172.Select the correct sequence for the steps involved in a (3) AVN
cycle of PCR. (4) Purkinje fibres
(1) Denaturation → Annealing → Extension 179.During pregnancy, hormones like growth hormone,
(2) Annealing → Denaturation → Extension prolactin thyroxine, estrogen, progesterone etc., increase
several folds in the maternal blood. Which of the following
(3) Denaturation → Extension → Annealing are the reasons behind this increase in the hormone
(4) Extension → Annealing → Denaturation levels?
a. To support foetal growth
173.Enzyme which catalyses hydrolysis of peptide bond b. To support metabolic changes in the mother
belongs to which class? c. To maintain pregnancy
d. To promote menstrual cycle on regular basis during
(1) Oxidoreductases pregnancy
(2) Hydrolases Select the correct option.

(3) Lyases (1) a and b only

(4) Ligases (2) b and c only

174.Gland involved in production of hormone which is (3) a and d only

responsible for childbirth and milk ejection is _________ . (4) a, b and c only
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.
180.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(1) Posterior pituitary
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(2) Anterior pituitary Assertion (A): In a 35 days menstrual cycle of human
(3) Hypothalamus female, the day of ovulation will be 21st.
Reason (R): LH surge occurs on 9th day after the end of
(4) Placenta menstruation phase irrespective of the duration of the cycle.
175.Which of the following represents the correct recognition In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
sequence for EcoR I restriction endonuclease in one strand Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
of DNA? (1)
explanation of (A)
(1) 5′-GGATTC3′ Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
(2) 5′-GAATTC-3′ explanation of (A)

(3) 5′-GGCC3′ (3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) 5′-CCTGG-3′ (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

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