04/05/2025 Code - A

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 715 ITS-2 Time : 180 Min.

for NEET 26

Topics Covered :
PHYSICS:
Electric Charges and Fields
CHEMISTRY:
Solutions
BOTANY:
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
ZOOLOGY:
Human Reproduction

PHYSICS

1. A very long line charge having uniform charge 4. Inside a conducting sphere, there is a cavity of arbitrary
(non-spherical) shape. Inside the cavity a charge +Q is
distribution produces an electric field of 18 × 105 N/C at a
placed as shown. The induced surface charge density on
perpendicular distance of 10 cm from it. The linear charge
inner surface of cavity and outer surface of conductor
density on the wire is
respectively will be
(1)
μC
3.5
m

(2)
μC
10
m

(3)
μC
1.5
m

(4)
μC
5.5
m

2. In a region, a uniform electric field is given by

→
ˆ ˆ ˆ
E = (2 i + 6 j + 8k) N/C
(1) Uniform, non-uniform
The electric flux through a sphere of radius 1 m, centered
at the origin is (2) Uniform, uniform

(1) 8 N-m2/C (3) Non-uniform, uniform

(2) Zero (4) Non-uniform, Non-uniform

(3) 10 N-m2/C

(4) 16 N-m2/C

3. Consider the following statements

Statement I : Electric charge on any object is always
quantised.
Statement II : There is no law such as on quantization of
mass.
Choose the correct statement(s).
(1) Statement I only
(2) Statement II only
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

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5. Three point charges are placed as shown in the figure. S 9. A positive test charge is released in the following electric
is a gaussian surface. ϕ is the net flux passing through field. At which point the acceleration of the test charge is
surface S and E be the electric field at point P on the maximum?
surface, then

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(1) Flux ϕ is due to q1 and q3 only
(4) D
(2) Flux ϕ is due to q1 and q2
10. A charge –Q is placed at a distance r from a neutral
(3) Electric field at point P is due to q1 and q2 only conducting sphere as shown in figure. The magnitude of
induced electric field at the centre of sphere is
(4) Flux ϕ is due to q3 only

6. A charge +q having mass m is released from rest in a

uniform electric field E. Momentum acquired by the
charge after time t is
(1) qEt

(2) qEt
(1) Zero
m

kQ
(2)
(3)
qE
2
R
m

kQ

(4) qEm
(3)
t r2

7. A dipole of dipole moment 5 × 10–6 C m is placed in a (4)

4kQ

2
R

→
uniform electric field E = (10
5ˆ
​
i ) N /C . If angle between 11. The electric force experienced by a point charge of 1 μC
dipole moment and electric field is 30°, the torque acting is 5 × 10–3 N. The magnitude of the electric field at that
on it is point due to the source charge is
(1) 2.5 Nm (1) 5 × 103 N/C
(2) 0.25 Nm
(2) 25 × 103 N/C
(3) 5 Nm
(3) 5 × 10–3 N/C
(4) 0.5 Nm
(4) 2.5 × 103 N/C
8. Two point charges –q and 4q are located on x-axis at
coordinates (0, 0) and (L, 0) respectively. The coordinates
12. Two electric dipoles of dipole moment 2 C m and 4 C m
of point on x-axis, where electric field due to these two
respectively are kept inside a cube of side'a' m. Total
point charges is zero, is
electric flux linked with the cube is (in SI units)
(1) (–L, 0)
(1)
6

ε0
(2) (– 2L, 0)
2

(3) (L, 0) (2) ε0

(4) (2L, 0)
(3)
4

ε0

(4) Zero

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13. Three charges +q, +q and –q places on the 16. Two point charges +6 μC and +16 μC repel each other
circumference of a circle of radius r. The force on charge with a force of 120 N. If a charge of –8 μC is added to
+Q placed at the centre of the circle as shown in the each of them, then force between them will becomes
figure will be (where K =
1

4πε0
) (1) 40 N
(2) 30 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 60 N

17. When five equal charges Q are placed at five vertices of a

regular hexagon then the net magnitude of electric field at
the centre of hexagon with side a is
KQq
(1) r2
ˆ
j (1)
2KQ

2
a

KQ
(2) (2)
2 KQq KQq
ˆ ˆ
i + j
r2 r2 a2

5KQ

(3)
–2KQq
î +
KQq
ĵ (3)
r2 r2 a2

KQ

(4) –KQq

2
î –
KQq

2
ĵ (4) 2a2
r r

14. Assertion (A) : Electric force on the positive charge act in 18. The electric field decreases most rapidly among the
the direction of electric field. following, with distance for
Reason (R) : Electric field intensity vector due to a point (1) Point charge
charge will be different at different point.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option (2) Large charge sheet
Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) correct explanation of (3) Long line charge
(1)
(A)
(4) Short electric dipole
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
(2) 19. Two infinite plane sheets, separated by a distance d
explanation of (A)
having equal and opposite uniform charge density σ.
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false Electric field at a point between the sheets is
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true (1) Zero
15. Electric field (E) due to a uniformly charged solid sphere (2)
σ

ε0

of radius R, as a function of distance (x) from its centre is

best represented as (3)
σ

4ε0

σ
(4) 2ε0

(1) 20. A cube of side length 1 m has one corner at origin of co-
ordinate axes and extends along positive x-axis, y-axis
and z-axis. The electric field in region is given by relation
→
E
ˆ
= 3i V/m, electric flux through cube will be (in SI units)
(1) 1
(2)
(2) Zero
(3) 3
(4) 4

21. The electric field intensity due to a infinite wire having

(3) linear charge density λ at a perpendicular distance r from
wire is
λ
(1) 2π ε0 r

(2) 4π ε0 r

(4)
λ

(3) π ε0 r

3λ

(4) 4π ε0 r

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22. Match the following and choose appropriate option 26. Consider the charges q, q and –q placed at the vertices of
Column-I Column-II an equilateral triangle as shown in the figure. The net
electrostatic force on the charge +q placed on the
a. Electric flux (i) [MLT–3A–1] centroid will be
b. Dipole moment (ii) [ML3T–3A–1]
c. Electric field (iii) [LTA]
d. Surface charge density (iv) [L-2TA]

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 2
√5q
(1)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) 4πε0 l
2

(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) q

2

(2) 2
4πε0 l

23. There are two point charges placed at some distance. If

any other external force is not there, then only under 3q
2

electrostatic force the two particles will remain (3) 2

2πε0 l

(1) In equilibrium if both have opposite charge √3q

2

(4) 2

(2) One particle in equilibrium for any charge 2πε0 l

(3) In equilibrium if both have similar charge 27. A : Charge cannot exist without mass.
R : Mass cannot exist with charge.
(4) Neither will be in equilibrium
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
24. A point charge q is placed at the vertex of cube as shown (1)
the correct explanation of the assertion.
in the figure.
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

28. Two metal spheres of A and B have same mass when

neutral. When A is given negative charge and B is given
positive charge the mass becomes MA and MB then

(1) MA > MB
The electric flux linked with surface ABCD of the cube is
q
(2) MA < MB
(1)
(3) MA = MB
8ε0

q
(2) 48ε0 (4) Depends over magnitude of charge given

(3)
q
29. Force between two point charges kept at a fixed
24ε0
separation is F. If distance between point charges is
(4) Zero made 1.5 times of initial value then new force of
attraction/repulsion acting between them becomes
25. A charge q is placed at the centre of a line joining two
equal charges Q. The system of the three charges will be (1)
9
F
4

in equilibrium if q is equal to
(2) 4

9
F
(1) −
Q

(3) 2

3
F
Q
(2) −
4

(4) 3
F

(3) Q

4
30. Four identical charged particles of charge 1 μC, 2 μC, 3
(4) Q μC and 4 μC are placed at x = 1 m, x = 2 m, x = 3 m and x
2 = 5 m. The electric field intensity at origin is nearly
(1) 17.94 kN/C
(2) 24.3 kN/C
(3) 20.68 kN/C
(4) 18.88 N/C

4
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31. Three large conducting charged sheets are kept parallel 36. Choose the incorrect statement among the following
to each other as shown in figure. Net force experienced
by a charge +q placed between plates A and B is Inside bulk matter of a conductor electrostatic field is
(1)
zero
Bulk matter of a conductor cannot have excess charge
(2)
inside it in the electrostatic situation
Electrostatic potential is constant throughout the
(3) volume of the conductor and has same value on its
surface.
(4) Electric field is always conservative in nature
(1) Zero
37. Two negative ions, A and B carrying a charge q and 2q
(2) Towards right are separated by a distance r. If F is the force of repulsion
(3) Towards left between the ions then number of excess electrons on
each ion are respectively
(4) Both (2) & (3) are possible −−−−−− −−−−−−
2π ε0 F r2 8π ε0 F r2

32. The given semicircular ring has half part negatively (1) √
e 2
, √
e2

charged and another half part positively charged with

charge density λ. The electric field strength at centre C is −−−−−−
2
−−−−−−
2

(2) √
4π ε0 F r

2
, √
8π ε0 F r

2
e e

−−−−−− −−−−−−
4π ε0 F r2 4π ε0 F r2
(3) √
2
, √
e e2

−−−−−− −−−−−−
2 2

(4) √
8π ε0 F r
, √
4π ε0 F r

(1)
λ ˆ 2 2
e e
(− i )
4π ε0 R

38. Two point charges placed at a distance r in air experience

(2) λ
( î )
4π ε0 R a certain force. Then the distance at which they will
experience the same force in the medium of dielectric
(3) λ
( î ) constant K is
2π ε0 R

r
(1) K

(4) λ

2π ε0 R
ˆ
(− i )
−
−
(2) r√K

33. Magnitude of electric field on axis of a uniformly charged r

ring of radius R is maximum at a distance x from centre of (3) √K

the ring. The value of x is

(4) Kr
(1) R

2 39. A charge q is placed at a distance a vertically above the

one corner of a square plate of side a as shown in figure.
(2) 2R
Find the electric flux through the square surface.
R
(3) √2

–
(4) √2R

34. If 1010 electrons move out from a body to another body

every second, then the approximate time required to get a
total charge of –1 C on the other body is
(1) 20 years q

(1) 8ε0

(2) 2 years
q

(2)
(3) 200 year 6ε0

(4) 100 years (3)

q

24ε0

35. A charge +Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface q

of radius 2 m. If radius of sphere is increased to 3.5 m, the (4) 12ε0

outward flux will

40. Which of the following is always true for induced charge q
(1) Be doubled and inducing charge Q?
(2) Becomes 3.5 times (1) |q| > |Q|
(3) Remain same (2) |q| ≤ |Q|
(4) Data is insufficient (3) |q| ≥ |Q|
(4) |q| = |Q|

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41. The directions of electric field at axial and equatorial point 43. Which of the following configurations of electrostatic field
of a dipole are lines are not possible?
(1) Parallel to each other (1) All of these
(2) Antiparallel to each other
(3) Perpendicular to each other
(2)
(4) At some angle between 0º and 180º

42. The electric field lines due to two charges A and B are as
shown in the figure. The ratio of charges on A and B is
(3)

(4)

(1) 3 : –4
(2) 3 : 4 44. Total electric flux emanating from a closed surface,
(3) 1 : 2 enclosing an α-particle and a deuteron (e = electronic
charge) is
(4) – 4 : 1
(1) 2e

e0

e
(2) 2e0

(3) 4e

e0

(4) 3e

e0

45. The electric field intensity due a long uniformly charged

wire at distance r from its axis is proportional to
(1) 2
r

(2) 1

(3) 3
r

1
(4) r
2

6
ITS-2

CHEMISTRY

46. 0.1 molal aqueous solution of weak base (BOH) is 10% 52. A : In case of negative deviations from Raoult's law, the
ionised. If Kb for water is 0.52 K kg mol–1, the elevation in intermolecular attractive forces between A – A and B – B
are weaker than those between A – B.
boiling point of the solution is R : Abnormal molar mass, which is related to van't Hoff
(1) 0.08 K factor, is the experimentally determined molar mass.
(2) 0.057 K Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) 0.047 K
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(4) 0.104 K (2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
47. If the mole fraction of acetone in ethyl alcohol is 0.2 then (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
the molality of acetone in the solution is
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(1) 5.9 m
53. A 5 M aqueous solution of AgNO3 and 10 M aqueous
(2) 5.4 m
solution of NaCl are connected by a semipermeable
(3) 7.8 m membrane as shown in the figure.
(4) 2.7 m

48. Incorrect thermodynamic property for ideal solution is

(1) Δmix H = 0

(2) Δmix G < 0

(3) Δmix S = 0

(4) Δmix V = 0

49. Molal depression constant (Kf) depends on

(1) Molality of solution

The precipitate of AgCl will be formed in
(2) Nature of solute
(1) Chamber 1
(3) Nature of solvent
(2) Chamber 2
(4) All of these
(3) Simultaneously in both the chambers
50. The boiling point of 0.1 m aqueous solution of an
electrolyte was 100.0832 °C. If the electrolyte dissociates (4) None of the chambers
60% in the solution, then electrolyte may be (Given : Kb =
54. A solution containing 18 g/dm3 of glucose is isotonic with
0.52 K kg mol–1) 5% ( ) solution of a nonvolatile, nonelectrolytic solute.
w

(1) AB The molar mass of the solute is

(2) AB2 (1) 250 g mol–1
(3) AB3 (2) 150 g mol–1
(4) A2B2 (3) 400 g mol–1
51. The mass of urea to be dissolved in 100 g of water (Kb =
(4) 500 g mol–1
0.52 K kg mol–1) to prepare a solution having boiling
point 101°C, is 55. A : The osmotic pressure of a solution is the excess
pressure that must be applied to a solution to prevent
(1) 10.26 g osmosis.
(2) 4.2 g R : For dilute solution osmotic pressure is proportional to
molarity.
(3) 11.54 g
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is
(4) 14.66 g (1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

7
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56. Among the given properties of solution, how many are 61. 24 g of difluoroacetic acid in 400 g of water has observed
colligative properties? freezing point depression by 1.4°C. The van't Hoff factor
Osmotic pressure, Relative lowering in vapour for difluoroacetic acid is (Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1;
pressure, Boiling point, Elevation in boiling point, Atomic weight of F = 19)
Vapour pressure
(1) 1.20
(1) 3 (2) 1.05
(2) 4 (3) 1.45
(3) 1 (4) 0.85
(4) 2 62. Assertion : When 10 ml of benzene is mixed with 20 ml of
57. A : People taking a lot of salt or salty food experience toluene then net volume of solution is 30 ml.
water retention in tissue cells and intercellular space. Reason : Benzene and toluene on mixing form ideal
R : There is phenomena of osmosis in tissue cells and solution.
intercellular space. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements 63. For an ideal solution of A and B, if partial pressure of A is
58. A : Mass percentage of 2 m glucose solution is 28.5%. twice of that of B in solution and mole fraction of A in
R : Molality is the mole of the solute present in 1 kg of the solution is 0.66 then the ratio of P°A/P°B is
solution.
(1) 1 : 1
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1) (2) 1 : 2
the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) 2 : 1
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion (4) 3 : 1
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false 64. The ratio of van’t Hoff factors of acetic acid in benzene
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements and water (assuming complete association and
dissociation respectively) is equal to
59. A solute AB2 dissociate 50% and associate 30%
(1) 1
(trimerize). The value of vant Hoff factor will be
(1) 3 (2) 1

(2) 2.2 (3) 2

(3) 1.8 (4) 1

(4) 1.2
65. A : The breathing apparatus used by Scuba divers
60. A : Solubility of gases in liquid decreases with rise in contains air diluted with helium.
temperature. R : Presence of helium reduces the high concentration of
R : Solubility of gases in liquid is an exothermic process nitrogen in blood and the painful medical condition
so solubility decreases with rise in temperature, ''bends'' is avoided.
according to Le-chatelier's principle. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

8
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66. If 'i' is the van't Hoff factor and 'α' is degree of dissociation 71. 2 × 10–3 mol kg–1 solution of a coordination compound
of weak electrolyte AxBy, then relation between 'α' and 'i' AB4C4 in water shows a fall in freezing point by
is 0.0108°C. The structure of the compound will be (given Kf

(1) α =
i−1
= 1.860 Km–1)
(x+y)

i−1
(1) [AB4C2] C2
(2) α =

(2) [AB4C]C3
(x+y−1)

1−i
(3) α =
(x+y−1) (3) [AB4]C4

(4) α =
i−1 (4) [AB4C3]C
(x+y+1)

72. Calculate the dissociation constant of HCN if van’t Hoff

67. 3.7 g of calcium hydroxide is dissolved in 100 g of water.
Assuming the base to be 80% ionised, the freezing point factor of 10–2 M HCN is 1.002
of the solution will be (Kf for water = 1.86 K mole–1 kg) (1) 2 × 10–6
(1) –2.79°C (2) 4 × 10–8
(2) –0.9°C
(3) 6 × 10–4
(3) –2.418°C
(4) 2.5 × 10–8
(4) –0.744°C
73.
68. Mole fraction of A in vapour phase in a solution formed by
taking equal moles of A and B
(P °= 100 mm Hg, P = 80 mm Hg) is
° Molality of 28% urea by mass is nearly
A B

(1) 5 (1) 2.2 m

9

(2) 6.5 m
(2) 4

9
(3) 9.2 m
(3) 5

8
(4) 8.4 m

(4) 4 74. The best suited colligative property to study the molecular
8
mass of polyvinyl chloride is
69. Vapour pressure of carbon tetrachloride at a particular (1) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
temperature is 400 mm of Hg. A non-volatile, non-
electrolyte solid weighing 0.8 g when added to 77 g of (2) Elevation in boiling point
carbon tetrachloride the vapour pressure of the solution (3) Depression in freezing point
becomes 390 mm of Hg. The molar mass of solute is
(Molar mass of CCl4 is 154 g mol–1. Assume solution to (4) Osmotic pressure
be dilute.) 75. 50 mL of 0.6 M HCl is mixed with 150 mL of 0.4 M
(1) 120 g mol–1 H2SO4, the molarity of H+ ion in the resultant solution is

(2) 64 g mol–1 (1) 0.90 M

(2) 1.25 M
(3) 50 g mol–1
(3) 0.25 M
(4) 32 g mol–1
(4) 0.75 M
70. Which among the following is an incorrect statement
about Henry’s law constant (KH)?

Different gases have different KH values at same

(1)
temperature
(2) KH is a function of nature of the gas
Higher is the value of KH at a given temperature and
(3)
pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas
KH value of a particular gas increases with increase
(4)
in temperature at constant pressure

9
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76. Consider Henry’s Law constant for some gases in water. 81. Assertion (A) : At azeotropic point boiling point of
Gas Temperature/K KH /Kbar solution is constant.
Reason (R) : Azeotropic solutions may have boiling
Ar 298 40.3 points either greater than both the components or lesser
CO2 298 1.67 than both the components.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
HCHO 298 1.83 × 10–5 (1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
CH4 298 0.413 Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
Arrange these gases in increasing order of solubility in not the correct explanation of the assertion
water (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(1) CO2 < Ar < HCHO < CH4 (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(2) Ar < CO2 < HCHO < CH4 82. The graph between PTotal (Total vapour pressure of
(3) CO2 < Ar < CH4 < HCHO solution) and XB (mole fraction of solute) is given below (
o o
(4) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO P is Vapour pressure of pure liquid A and P is vapour
A B

77. If the molality of the solution is 0.70, then relative lowering pressure of pure liquid B)
of the vapour pressure of an aqueous solution containing
non-volatile solute is approximately
(1) 0.01
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.80
(4) 0.40
78. If molality of the dilute solution is halved, the value of
molal elevation constant (Kb) will be

(1) Unchanged
(2) Doubled
The slope of graph is
(3) Halved
o o
(4) Quadrupled (1) P − P
A B

79. The values of observed and calculated molecular weights o o

of silver nitrate are 90 and 170 respectively. The degree (2) PB − PA
of dissociation of silver nitrate is
(1) 80% (3) P
o
+
o
P
A B
(2) 75.46%
(3) 95.73% o o
(4) P
A
+ P
B

(4) 88.89% 2

80. Two liquids ‘A’ and ‘B’ form a solution and it is observed 83. A solution has 2 : 3 mole ratio of hexane to heptane. The
experimentally that P < x P and P < x P . Solution
A A
o
A B B
o
B
vapour pressure of pure hexane and pure heptane at
will show 25°C are 300 mm of Hg and 180 mm of Hg respectively.
The vapour pressure of solution is
(1) Lower boiling point than expected
(1) 200 mm of Hg
Weaker forces of interaction between A and B than
(2) (2) 228 mm of Hg
those of A-A and B-B
(3) Volume of the solution phase decrease (3) 360 mm of Hg

(4) Positive deviation (4) 342 mm of Hg

84. The correct order of solubility of He, CO2 and O2 in water

at 298 K and 1 atm is
(1) He > O2 > CO2

(2) O2 > CO2 > He

(3) CO2 > O2 > He

(4) CO2 > He > O2

10
ITS-2

85. A solute having 100 u molecular mass tetramerise in its 88. The value of van't Hoff factor, i for FeSO4·(NH4)2 SO4
solution. If the degree of association is 0.25 then the ·6H2O when it is dissolved in aqueous solution is
abnormal molecular mass of solute in the solution is (Assume complete dissociation)
(1) 100 u (1) 4
(2) 123 u (2) 3
(3) 176 u (3) 5
(4) 400 u (4) 7
86. Urea solution will be labeled as ___ if it contains 6.02 × 89. 1.5 M aqueous solution of acetic acid in water has density
1020 molecules of urea in 100 ml of solution 0.9 g/mL. The molality of the solution will be
(1) .001 M (1) 1.51 molal
(2) .01 M (2) 1.02 molal
(3) 1 M (3) 2.01 molal
(4) 2 M (4) 1.85 molal
87. Which of the following aqueous solution will show highest 90. A gas ‘x’ is dissolved in water at 2 bar pressure. Its mole
boiling point when each is 0.2 M? fraction is 0.02 in solution. The mole fraction of water
when the pressure of gas is doubled at the same
(1) K2SO4 temperature is
(2) NH2CONH2 (1) 0.04
(3) AlPO4 (2) 0.02

(4) Na3AlF6 (3) 0.98

(4) 0.96

11
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BOTANY

91. Hydrophily is not observed in which of the following 97. The innermost layer of anther wall which surrounds the
aquatic plants? sporogenous tissue
(a) Water hyacinth
(b) Hydrilla (1) Has α-cellulosic fibrous bands on its cells
(c) Zostera (2) Helps in dehiscence of anther
(d) Water lily
The correct one(s) is/are (3) Nourishes the developing pollen grains

(1) (a) and (c) (4) Has cells which lack nucleus

(2) (c) only 98. Read the following assertion and reason and choose the
correct option.
(3) (b) and (c) Assertion : The number of seeds in a fruit are never
(4) (a) and (d) exceeds the number of ovules.
Reason : Orchid fruit contains thousands of tiny seeds.
92. Pollen grains in angiosperms
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
(1) Are produced in megasporangium the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Represent female gametophyte Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Are carrier of male gametes
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Are diploid
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
93. Characteristics of a flower are as
a. Nectaries absent 99. If there are 9 chromosomes in the synergid cell of
b. Flowers packed into inflorescence. embryosac. What would be the number of chromosomes
c. Well exposed stamens. present in following structures?
d. Light weighted, non-sticky pollens. I. Pollen mother cell
On the basis of above features, flower must be II. Endosperm cell
III. Embryonal axis
(1) Hydrophilous
I II III
(2) Anemophilous
(1) 18 27 9
(3) Entomophilous
(2) 18 27 18
(4) Cleistogamous
(3) 27 9 9
94. Which of the following is true for generative cell of pollen
grain? (4) 9 18 27
(1) It has dense cytoplasm
(1) (1)
(2) It lacks nucleus
(2) (2)
(3) It is large and irregularly shaped
(3) (3)
(4) It undergoes reduction division
(4) (4)
95. A typical angiospermic flower consists of
100.Genetically different pollen grains and stigma of the same
(1) Four essential and fertile whorls species participate in
One non-essential sterile and three essential fertile (1) Autogamy
(2)
whorls
(2) Geitonogamy
Two non-essential sterile and two essential fertile
(3) (3) Cleistogamy
whorls
Three essential sterile and one non-essential fertile (4) Xenogamy
(4)
whorl
101.Phenomenon unique to angiosperms is/are
96. Vegetative cell of male gametophyte in flowering plants (1) Syngamy
(1) Is smaller than the generative cell (2) Triple fusion
(2) Has large irregularly shaped nucleus (3) Double fertilization
(3) Floats in the cytoplasm of generative cell (4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) Has dense cytoplasm and is spindle shaped

12
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102.Cleistogamy does not impose high cost on plants for 107.Identify the statements which are true for flowers
pollination but still it is restricted to few plant species only, pollinated by most common abiotic pollination agent
because I. They possess well exposed stamens
II. Pollen grains are light and non-sticky
(1) It shows low yield of plants
III. They have large coloured flowers
(2) It restricts genetic variability in plants IV. They possess feathery stigma to easily trap air borne
pollen grains
(3) Absence of beautiful flowers V. Numerous flowers packed into an inflorescence
(4) Absence of pollinators (1) Only I and II
103.Choose the odd statement for pollen grains (2) Only III and IV
(1) Pollen grains of some species cause severe allergies (3) II, III and IV
(2) Can be used as food supplement (4) I, II, IV and V
(3) Can be stored at –196°C in liquid N2 108.A monoecious plant is showing only xenogamy. Which of
the following conditions is true about this plant?
Have fascinating array of patterns and designs of
(4)
pectocellulose on outer wall (1) It has cleistogamous flowers
104.Nectar robbers are the insects which (2) It has only pistillate flowers
Perform pollination in plants without getting any (3) It has only staminate flowers
(1)
benefit
Self incompatiblility for pollen germination is shown
(4)
(2) Consume pollen and perform pollination by this plant
(3) Consume nectar and perform pollination 109.Which of the following prevents inbreeding depression?
(4) Consume nectar without bringing about pollination Synchronisation in pollen release and stigma
(1)
receptivity
105.Read the following statements, state true (T) or false (F)
for them and select the correct option. (2) The anther and stigma placed at same positions
(a) Cleistogamous flowers prevent geitonogamy as well
(3) Presence of self-incompatibility
as xenogamy.
(b) Double fertilisation occurs in all spermatophytes. (4) Presence of bisexual flowers
(c) In pea family, the single cotyledon is called scutellum.
(d) Seeds of castor and coconut retain a part of 110.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t tapetum.
endosperm during embryo development. (1) It is the innermost wall layer of anther wall
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) It nourishes the developing pollen grains
(1) T F T F (3) Its cells possess dense cytoplasm
(2) T T F F Its cells generally have more than one haploid
(4)
nucleus
(3) T F F T
111. Which one is not related to cleistogamy?
(4) F T T F
(1) Seed formation even in absence of pollinating agents
(1) (1)
(2) Flowers are invariably autogamous
(2) (2)
(3) Promotes inbreeding depression
(3) (3)
(4) Prevents loss of genetic diversity
(4) (4)
106.Which of the following plants is pollinated by insects?
(1) Zostera
(2) Vallisneria
(3) Sea grass
(4) Water hyacinth

13
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112.Consider the following statements and state true (T) or 115.Examine the figure given below and select the option
false (F). giving the correct labels for A, B, C and D.
A. Monosporic development of embryo sac is found in all
flowering plants.
B. Most primitive type of ovule is found in Polygonum.
C. MMC is the smallest cell of chalazal pole in embryo
sac, containing dense cytoplasm and prominent nucleus.
A B C
(1) T T T
(2) T F T

(3) F T T
(4) F T F A B C D
(1) (1) (1) PEN Degenerating Zygote Degenerating
antipodal synergids
(2) (2) cells
(3) (3) (2) Zygote Degenerating PEN Degenerating
antipodal synergids
(4) (4) cells
113.The ploidies of polar nuclei and male gamete are (3) Zygote Degenerating PEN Degenerating
respectively synergids antipodal
cells
(1) (n + n) and (n) (4) PEN Degenerating Zygote Degenerating
(2) (n) and (2 n) synergids antipodal
cells
(3) (2 n) and (n)
(1) (1)
(4) (2 n) and (2 n)
(2) (2)
114.In angiosperms, microsporogenesis is referred to
(3) (3)
(1) Formation of pollen mother cell from megaspore
(4) (4)
(2) Formation of pollen mother cell from microspore
116.Entry of pollen tube into the embryo sac takes place from
(3) Germination of pollen grain on the stigma a. Chalazal end
(4) Formation of microspores by meiotic division b. Micropylar end
c. Integuments
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Only b and c
(4) All a, b and c
117.Which of the given plant features promotes autogamy but
never geitonogamy or xenogamy?
(1) Bisexual flowers
(2) Monoecious condition
(3) Homogamy
(4) Cleistogamy
118.Types of most advance and most abundant pollen tetrad
are respectively
(1) Isobilateral and isobilateral
(2) Tetrahedral and isobilateral
(3) Isobilateral and tetrahedral
(4) Tetrahedral and linear

14
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119.Select correct match. 125.How many of the given plants are pollinated by wind?
(1) Pollinia – Drosera
(2) Compound pollen grain – Calotropis
(3) Nemec pollen grain – Aristolochia (1) Three
(4) Monothecous anther – China rose (2) Four
120.Common adaptations of anemophilous and hydrophilous (3) Two
flowers are all except
(4) Five
(1) Nectarless
126.Which of the following statement is false?
(2) Odourless
Polygonum type of embryo sac is found in 80% of
(3) Dry and edible pollen grains (1)
flowering plants.
(4) Reduced perianth Most common type of ovule is anatropous, found in
(2)
82% of angiospermic families.
121.Given question consists of two statements Assertion (A)
and reason (R). Answer the question selecting the Oxalis, Commelina and Viola plants produce only
(3)
appropriate option given below. cleistogamous flowers.
Assertion: Egg apparatus is said to be three celled.
Polar nuclei are haploid, they form secondary nucleus
Reason: Egg apparatus consists of two synergids and (4)
one egg cell. by fusion.

Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of 127.The ovary has generally single ovule in
(1)
A (1) Wheat
Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation (2) Papaya
(2)
of A
(3) Orchid
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Water melon
(4) A is false but R is true
128.In an angiosperm, total how many haploid nuclei take
122.Dichogamy is part in double fertilization?
The failure of the pollen grains to germinate on stigma (1) 3
(1)
of same flower
(2) 5
(2) Liberation of male gametophyte in three celled stage
(3) 4
(3) Entry of pollen tube into ovule through ovary wall
(4) 2
Different maturation time of androecium and
(4)
gynoecium in the same flower 129.How many meiotic and mitotic divisions are required
respectively to form 6 male gametes from a single pollen
123.The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of mother cell?
one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during
pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen (1) 2 and 3
grains to stigma, is :
(2) 1 and 6
(1) Cleistogamy (3) 2 and 5
(2) Xenogamy (4) 2 and 6
(3) Geitonogamy
130.Which of the following statements are true about the
(4) Chasmogamy flowering plants?
I. The proximal end of the filament is attached to the
124.A : In pollen mother cells, successive type of division thalamus (or) the petal of the flower.
forms tetrahedral pollen grain. II. Each sporogenous cell is a potential pollen (or)
R : Simultaneous type of division found in monocots. microspore.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is III. One microspore mother cell undergoes meiotic
(1) division to form four microspore tetrads.
the correct explanation of the assertion
IV. The number and length of stamens are variable in
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is flowers of different species
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) I and IV only
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(2) II and III only
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(3) I and II only
(4) I, II and III

15
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131.A hexaploid female plant is crossed with octaploid male 134.As an outbreeding device, self incompatibility is
plant, what will be the ploidy level of PEN and zygote
respectively? (1) A genetically controlled mechanism
(2) The germination of pollen grains before its maturity
(1) 7n and 10n
(3) The germination of pollen grains within the anther
(2) 10n and 7n
(3) 5n and 4n (4) Failure of pollination due to lack of pollinating agents

(4) 9n and 6n 135.Morphological or physiological features which promote

self pollination are
132.In a majority of flowering plants, one out of four (a) Bud pollination (b) Bisexuality
megaspores is functional and develops into (c) Homogamy (d) Chasmogamy
(1) Female gametophyte (1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Megasporangium (2) Only (b), (c) and (d)
(3) Megaspore mother cell (3) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Ovule (4) All except (d)
133.Which of the following statements are correct w.r.t.
development of embryosac in majority of angiosperms?
a. Occurence of asymmetric meiotic divisions.
b. Organisation of three nuclei to form egg apparatus.
c. Organisation of diploid antipodal cells at chalazal end.
d. Occurence of free-nuclear mitotic division to form 8-
nucleated stage.
(1) a & b
(2) b & c
(3) a & c
(4) b & d

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ZOOLOGY

136.Read the statements A and B and choose the correct 142.Match Column I with Column II and select the correct
option w.r.t human females. option
Statement A : Uterus is supported by ligaments attached
to the pectoral region of body wall. Column-I Column-II
Statement B : The shape of the uterus is like an upright a. Menarche (i) Cessation of menstrual cycles
pear in its anatomical position.
b. Menopause (ii) Beginning of menses
Both statemnts A and B are correct and B is the
(1)
correct explanation of A. c. Hysterectomy (iii) Surgical removal of uterus
Both statements A and B are correct but B is not the d. Castration (iv) Surgical removal of testes
(2)
correct explanation of A.
(3) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect. (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Both Statement A and B are incorrect. (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

137.Under normal conditions, release of second polar body (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
from human secondary oocyte occurs
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(1) During fertilisation
143.Which of the following occurs after degeneration of
(2) After fertilisation corpus luteum?
(3) Before entry of sperm within ovum (1) Rapid decrease in secretion of LH
(4) Spontaneously with no relation to sperm entry (2) Rise in level of progesterone
138.The number of testicular lobules present in each testis of (3) Disintegration of endometrium
a healthy man is
(4) Rapid decrease of FSH
(1) 100
144.The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of
(2) 150 the testes necessary for
(3) 300 (1) Spermatogenesis
(4) 250 (2) Spermiation
139.Paired structures in female reproductive system exclude (3) Fusion of gametes
(1) Ovary (4) Insemination

(2) Fallopian tubes 145.How many spermatozoa are produced by two primary
spermatocytes and how many ova are produced by two
(3) Mammary glands
primary oocytes respectively?
(4) Uterus
(1) Two, two
140.Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. human female (2) Four, two
reproductive system.
(3) Eight, four
Mons pubis – A cushion of fatty tissue covered with
(1) (4) Eight, two
skin and pubic hair
Labia majora – Fleshy folds of tissue extending down 146.After ovulation, ovum is released from ovary into
(2)
from mons pubis
(1) Coelom
(3) Ampulla of oviduct – Site of fertilization
(2) Infundibulum
(4) Mammary lobes – 40-50 in each breast
(3) Fallopian tube
141.The male reproductive system of humans is located
(4) Uterus
(1) In the pelvis region
147.The part of oviduct with a narrow lumen that joins the
(2) Outside the pelvis region uterus is
(3) Within a pouch called scrotum (1) Ampulla
(4) Outside the abdomen (2) Fimbriae
(3) Infundibulum
(4) Isthmus

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148.In human males, the urethra originates from (a) and 154.A : Oogenesis results in unequal daughter cells.
extends through (b)
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
and open outside via an opening R : Secondary oocyte and first polar body differ in size,
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
amount of cytoplasm and chromatin content.
called (c)
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
Select the option that fills the blanks correctly. (1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) (a) Urinary bladder, (b) Penis, (c) Urethral meatus Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
(2) (a) Penis, (b) Ejaculatory duct, (c) Urethral meatus not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) (a) Urinary bladder, (b) Penis, (c) Foreskin (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) (a) Prostate, (b) Penis, (c) Urethral meatus (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

149.The process of conversion of a spermatid into 155.Following are the components of vulva, except
spermatozoa is known as (1) Mons pubis
(1) Spermatocytogenesis
(2) Clitoris
(2) Spermiation
(3) Vagina
(3) Spermiogenesis (4) Labia majora
(4) Spermatogenesis
156.Which of the following is an intratesticular accessory
150.Secretion of which of the following glands helps in the duct?
lubrication of penis?
(1) Seminiferous tubule
(1) Prostate gland
(2) Rete testis
(2) Sweat gland (3) Epididymis
(3) Seminal vesicles (4) Vas deferens
(4) Bulbourethral glands
157.The term 'birth hormone' is associated with
151.In human female, the correct route of passage of milk is (1) Oxytocin
Mammary tubule → Mammary duct → Mammary
(1) (2) Progesterone
alveoli → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct
(3) Estrogen
Mammary duct → Mammary tubule → Mammary
(2)
alveoli → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct. (4) FSH
Mammary alveoli → Mammary tubule → Mammary 158.Temperature in scrotum necessary for sperm formation in
(3)
duct → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct. humans should be
Mammary ampulla → Mammary tubule → Mammary (1) 2°C above body temperature
(4)
duct → Mammary alveoli → Lactiferous duct.
(2) 2°C – 2.5°C below body temperature
152.The part of ovary in humans which acts as a temporary
(3) 4°C below body temperature
endocrine gland after ovulation is
(4) 5°C below the body temperature
(1) Stroma
(2) Germinal epithelium 159.Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option w.r.t.
human females.
(3) Vitelline membrane Female accessory duct : Uterus :: Female external
genitalia : _______
(4) Corpus luteum
(1) Cervix
153.The formation of a second polar body and a haploid
ovum in humans occurs (2) Vagina
Within the ovary by completion of unequal meiotic (3) Oviduct
(1)
division of oocyte
(4) Clitoris
In the fallopian tube, induced by entry of sperm into
(2) 160.The middle thick layer of the wall of uterus formed by
the oocyte
smooth muscles is
In the fallopian tube by completion of second but
(3) (1) Myometrium
equal meiotic division
(4) Within the ovary; induced by LH surge (2) Perimetrium
(3) Endometrium
(4) Mesovarium

18
ITS-2

161.Cells of corona radiata and perivitelline space is 167.Male sex accessory ducts include all of the following
associated with structures except
(1) Ovum (1) Seminiferous tubule
(2) Leydig cells (2) Rete testis
(3) Nurse cells (3) Vasa efferentia
(4) Stem cells (4) Vasa deferens
162.Select the correct sequence of stages during sperm 168.Secretion of ______ do not constitute the seminal
production plasma. Choose the option which fills the blank
correctly.
Spermatogonia → primary spermatocyte → spermatid
(1)
→ secondary spermatocyte → sperm (1) Bartholin’s glands
Spermatogonia → primary spermatocyte → (2) Seminal vesicles
(2) secondary spermatocyte → spermatid →
spermatozoa (3) Prostate gland
(4) Bulbourethral glands
Sperm → spermatogonia → primary spermatocyte →
(3)
secondary spermatocyte → spermatid 169.A : Sertoli cells form an immunological barrier between
Spermatid → spermatogonia → spermatozoa → developing sperm cells and rest of the body.
(4) R : Developing sperm cells undergoing meiosis differ
secondary spermatocyte → primary spermatocyte
immunologically from the rest of the body.
163.The cell which first enters in meiosis during
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
spermatogenesis is (1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) Spermatogonia
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
(2) Primary spermatocyte not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Secondary spermatocyte (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Spermatid (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
164.Consider the following: 170.In humans, secretion of which gland(s) contributes
a. Spermiogenesis maximally in seminal plasma?
b. Capacitation
(1) Cowpers glands
c. Cortical reaction
d. Acrosomal reaction (2) Bulbourethral gland
Arrange the following steps in chronological order to
result in human fertilisation: (3) Seminal vesicles

(1) a (4) Prostate gland

→ b → d → c
(2) a → b → c → d 171.Maturation of sperms w.r.t. motility mainly occurs in
(1) Epididymis
(3) b → a → c → d
(2) Rete testis
(4) d → c → b → a
(3) Efferent ductule
165.Read following statements and choose the correct
option. (4) Seminiferous tubule
Statement-A : Inhibin regulates secretion of FSH
172.Select the correct option w.r.t. (A) and (B) in the following
indirectly by inhibiting secretion of GnRH from flowchart
hypothalamus.
Statement-B : Female sex hormones oestrogen and
progesterone as well as male sex hormone testosterone
are GnRH inhibitor.
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

166.Following are the common features that exist in both male

and female reproductive systems, except
(1) Tunica albuginea associated with primary sex organ
(1) (A) – ABP, (B) – Interstitial cells
Inhibin, a protein hormone produced by gonads
(2) (2) (A) – AMF, (B) – Spermatogonia
inhibits FSH secretion
(3) Gametes have mitochondria (3) (A) – Inhibin, (B) – Spermatogonia

(4) Gametes have centriole for cleavage (4) (A) – Inhibin, (B) – Leydig cells

19
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173.Among the following which is correct statement 177.Choose the correct statement
regarding female reproductive system of humans?
Scientist Nebenkern discovered mitochondria in
(1)
Each ovary is 2-4 cm in length and connected to sperm
(1)
pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments
Meiosis during oogenesis is completed after the entry
(2)
It consists of a pair of ovaries along with a pair of of sperm into secondary follicles
(2) oviducts, bulbourethral glands, cervix, vagina and
A fluid filled cavity called antrum characterises tertiary
external genitalia (3)
follicles
Each fallopian tube is 6-8 cm long and extends from
(3) Greater vestibular glands are present around the
periphery of each ovary to uterus (4)
urethral opening in human females
The shape of uterus in human is like an upright pear
(4) 178.Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. oogenesis in
and have inner aglandular layer called endometrium
humans.
174.In the process of oogenesis in a human female, the
First polar body does not undergo meiosis-II and
formation of second polar body occurs (1)
usually dies
(1) Before birth
The ovum is released from the ovary at secondary
(2)
(2) At the time of birth oocyte stage after the release of first polar body
(3) Just at the beginning of onset of puberty Thick coat of zona pellucida is composed of
(3)
glycoproteins and synthesized by ovum itself
During fertilisation when sperm enters cytoplasm of
(4)
ovum The primary follicle soon transforms into the tertiary
(4) follicle which is characterised by theca interna but not
175.A : Mammary glands are one of the secondary sexual antrum
characteristics of a female.
R : Development of mammary glands occurs under the 179.Cells present in interstitial spaces between seminiferous
influence of estrogen. tubules are stimulated to produce androgens by
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (1) FSH
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) LH
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2) (3) GnRH
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) TSH
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements 180.Which of the following sets of cells is having a complete
two set of chromosomes during gametogenesis in
176.What is the most probable pH of vagina? humans?
(1) 7 (1) Spermatogonium and secondary spermatocyte
(2) 7.4 (2) Oogonium and primary spermatocyte
(3) 4 (3) Spermatid and primary oocyte
(4) 6.8 (4) Spermatozoon and first polar body

20