04/04/2025, 13:32 cdn.digialm.

com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/258022…

Participant ID 25802201190035
Participant Name NIRANJANA ASARAM GEDAM
Test Center Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Dhanbad
Test Date 29/03/2025
Test Time 9:00 AM - 12:00 PM
Subject Personnel and HR

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following statements about system and application software is/are
correct?

1. System software manages a computer's hardware and software.

2. Application software is designed for application specific hardware
Ans 1. Both 1 and 2

2. Only 1

3. Only 2

4. Neither 1 nor 2

Question ID : 6306801383795
Option 1 ID : 6306805448412
Option 2 ID : 6306805448410
Option 3 ID : 6306805448411
Option 4 ID : 6306805448413
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.2 The coastal plains along the Bay of Bengal are wide and level. In the northern part, it is
referred to as the Northern Circar, while the southern part is known as ___________.
Ans 1. Konkan Coast

2. Coromandel Coast

3. Andhra Coast

4. Utkal Coast

Question ID : 6306801376388
Option 1 ID : 6306805418864
Option 2 ID : 6306805418863
Option 3 ID : 6306805418866
Option 4 ID : 6306805418865
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_1… 1/75
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Q.3 2010-11

:
1. 2010-11 (Gini coefficient)
2. 2010-11 (quintile income ratio) 5.6
3. 2010-11 ,
Ans 1. 2

2. 2 3

3. 1 2

4. 1

Question ID : 6306801373248
Option 1 ID : 6306805406279
Option 2 ID : 6306805406281
Option 3 ID : 6306805406280
Option 4 ID : 6306805406278
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.4 In India, the Peninsular plateau is flanked by a stretch of narrow coastal strips, running
along the Arabian sea on the west and Bay of Bengal on the _____________.
Ans 1. East

2. North

3. South West

4. South

Question ID : 6306801376390
Option 1 ID : 6306805418871
Option 2 ID : 6306805418873
Option 3 ID : 6306805418874
Option 4 ID : 6306805418872
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding geothermal energy and power projects in
India are correct?
The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has studied 381 thermally anomalous areas and
published the ‘Geothermal Atlas of India, 2022’.
Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL) has commissioned a 20 MW geothermal
power plant in Manuguru, Telangana.
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) provides up to 100% financial
support to Government/non-profit organizations and up to 70% to Industry, start-ups,
and private institutes under the RE-RTD Program for geothermal energy R&D.
Under the Renewable Energy Technology Action Platform (RETAP) launched on 29
August 2023, between India and the USA, geothermal has been identified as a focus
area.
Ans 1. 1, 2 and 4 only

2. 1 and 4 only

3. 1, 3 and 4 only

4. 1 and 3 only

Question ID : 6306801381027
Option 1 ID : 6306805437391
Option 2 ID : 6306805437393
Option 3 ID : 6306805437390
Option 4 ID : 6306805437392
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.6 What is the credit limit for the customised credit cards announced for micro enterprises
registered on the Udyam portal as announced in the Union Budget 2025-26?
Ans 1. ₹5 lakh

2. ₹6 lakh

3. ₹10 lakh

4. ₹8 lakh

Question ID : 6306801374303
Option 1 ID : 6306805410510
Option 2 ID : 6306805410509
Option 3 ID : 6306805410511
Option 4 ID : 6306805410512
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.7 As per the Coal Controller's Organisation (CCO) report dated 1 April 2024, which Indian
state holds the largest inventory of geological coal resources in the Tertiary Coal
Fields?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Meghalaya

3. Odisha

4. Nagaland

Question ID : 6306801381035
Option 1 ID : 6306805437423
Option 2 ID : 6306805437422
Option 3 ID : 6306805437425
Option 4 ID : 6306805437424
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.8 2024 ' (Chief Minister Nutritious Snack Scheme)'

?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801377751
Option 1 ID : 6306805424416
Option 2 ID : 6306805424418
Option 3 ID : 6306805424415
Option 4 ID : 6306805424417
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.9 ' , ' , 2023

2024 ?
Ans 1.

2.

3. JNPA ( )

4.

Question ID : 6306801380854
Option 1 ID : 6306805436727
Option 2 ID : 6306805436728
Option 3 ID : 6306805436729
Option 4 ID : 6306805436726
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.10
?
Ans 1. 72 , 1985

2. 97 , 2011

3. 69 , 1991

4. 82 , 2000

Question ID : 6306801383938
Option 1 ID : 6306805448985
Option 2 ID : 6306805448986
Option 3 ID : 6306805448988
Option 4 ID : 6306805448987
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.11 2025 ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801376701
Option 1 ID : 6306805420185
Option 2 ID : 6306805420186
Option 3 ID : 6306805420187
Option 4 ID : 6306805420188
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.12 Who among the following is the author of the biography 'Soumitra Chatterjee and His
World,' which was released in January 2025?
Ans 1. Sharmila Tagore

2. Sanghamitra Chakraborty

3. Amitav Ghosh

4. Jhumpa Lahiri

Question ID : 6306801375643
Option 1 ID : 6306805415689
Option 2 ID : 6306805415688
Option 3 ID : 6306805415686
Option 4 ID : 6306805415687
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.13 The Paradip Port was declared as the _____ major port of India by the government in
the year 1966.
Ans 1. tenth

2. third

3. eighth

4. fifth

Question ID : 6306801370494
Option 1 ID : 6306805395170
Option 2 ID : 6306805395167
Option 3 ID : 6306805395169
Option 4 ID : 6306805395168
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.14 2021-22 GDP (GHE) ?

Ans 1. 3.94%

2. 1.84%

3. 1.13%

4. 6.12%

Question ID : 6306801373246
Option 1 ID : 6306805406272
Option 2 ID : 6306805406271
Option 3 ID : 6306805406270
Option 4 ID : 6306805406273
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.15
?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801374444
Option 1 ID : 6306805411073
Option 2 ID : 6306805411076
Option 3 ID : 6306805411075
Option 4 ID : 6306805411074
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.16 The Ninety-Seventh Amendment Act of 2011, made the right to form cooperative
societies a Fundamental Right, under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Article 19(1)(c)

2. Article 25

3. Article 32

4. Article 21

Question ID : 6306801383939
Option 1 ID : 6306805448989
Option 2 ID : 6306805448991
Option 3 ID : 6306805448992
Option 4 ID : 6306805448990
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.17 1930 -
?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801375716
Option 1 ID : 6306805415979
Option 2 ID : 6306805415977
Option 3 ID : 6306805415978
Option 4 ID : 6306805415976
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_1… 6/75
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Q.18 2011 97
?
Ans 1. XII-B:

2. X:

3. IXB:

4. XI-A:

Question ID : 6306801383937
Option 1 ID : 6306805448982
Option 2 ID : 6306805448984
Option 3 ID : 6306805448983
Option 4 ID : 6306805448981
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.19 - ?
Ans 1. CPU -

2. ROM -

3. PCB -

4. RAM -

Question ID : 6306801383737
Option 1 ID : 6306805448174
Option 2 ID : 6306805448175
Option 3 ID : 6306805448177
Option 4 ID : 6306805448176
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.20 The area where tree-growth is difficult because of cold temperatures and short seasons
with vegetation limited to a few shrubs, grasses, and mosses is called ________.
Ans 1. Tundra

2. Taiga

3. Temperate Forests

4. Grasslands

Question ID : 6306801378469
Option 1 ID : 6306805427296
Option 2 ID : 6306805427297
Option 3 ID : 6306805427299
Option 4 ID : 6306805427298
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.21 Which major international sports event took place in Paris in 2024?
Ans 1. FIFA World Cup

2. Commonwealth Games

3. Winter Olympics

4. Summer Olympics

Question ID : 6306801375486
Option 1 ID : 6306805415126
Option 2 ID : 6306805415129
Option 3 ID : 6306805415128
Option 4 ID : 6306805415127
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.22
(GHC) ?
Ans 1. , 2024

2. , 2024

3. , 2024

4. , 2025

Question ID : 6306801375579
Option 1 ID : 6306805415489
Option 2 ID : 6306805415487
Option 3 ID : 6306805415488
Option 4 ID : 6306805415486
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.23 ( )
?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801374484
Option 1 ID : 6306805411232
Option 2 ID : 6306805411230
Option 3 ID : 6306805411231
Option 4 ID : 6306805411229
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.24 Which steel plant, as of January 2025, is an eleven-time winner of the Prime Minister’s
Trophy for the Best Integrated Steel Plant in India?
Ans 1. Bokaro Steel Plant

2. Rourkela Steel Plant

3. Bhilai Steel Plant

4. Durgapur Steel Plant

Question ID : 6306801370470
Option 1 ID : 6306805395071
Option 2 ID : 6306805395072
Option 3 ID : 6306805395073
Option 4 ID : 6306805395074
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_1… 8/75
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Q.25 - , ?
Ans 1. (Financial Stability Committee)

2. (Monetary Policy Committee)

3. (Interest Management Committee)

4. (Policy and Strategy Committee)

Question ID : 6306801373500
Option 1 ID : 6306805407298
Option 2 ID : 6306805407299
Option 3 ID : 6306805407300
Option 4 ID : 6306805407301
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Section : Logical Reasoning

Q.26 , - (?)

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801375617
Option 1 ID : 6306805418856
Option 2 ID : 6306805418855
Option 3 ID : 6306805418858
Option 4 ID : 6306805418857
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.27 - ,

142 199 256 313 370 417

Ans 1. 313

2. 370

3. 256

4. 417

Question ID : 6306801374135
Option 1 ID : 6306805409836
Option 2 ID : 6306805409837
Option 3 ID : 6306805409835
Option 4 ID : 6306805409838
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.28 In a certain code language, 'update every system again' is coded as 'kd rc xs tf', 'new
system within process' is coded as 'cw kd vo yi', 'people within every team' is coded as
'mb xs cw lg', and 'meet new people' is coded as 'vo az lg'. What is the code for 'update'
in the code language?

(Note: All the codes are two letter codes only.)

Ans 1. tf

2. either 'tf' or 'rc'

3. either 'kd' or 'vo'

4. kd

Question ID : 6306801376486
Option 1 ID : 6306805419308
Option 2 ID : 6306805419309
Option 3 ID : 6306805419310
Option 4 ID : 6306805419307
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.29 , , I II
-

:
,

:
I.
II.
Ans 1. I II

2. I II

3. I

4. II

Question ID : 6306801378783
Option 1 ID : 6306805428546
Option 2 ID : 6306805428547
Option 3 ID : 6306805428544
Option 4 ID : 6306805428545
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.30 N, O, P, Q, R, X Y
- R N R X
N O Q Y
Y P ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801373365
Option 1 ID : 6306805406753
Option 2 ID : 6306805406752
Option 3 ID : 6306805406750
Option 4 ID : 6306805406751
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.31 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

HKE : EGD
GHJ : DDI
Ans 1. NOD : KKB

2. JRG : GNE

3. SKI : PFH

4. LQD : IMC

Question ID : 6306801373394
Option 1 ID : 6306805406877
Option 2 ID : 6306805406874
Option 3 ID : 6306805406875
Option 4 ID : 6306805406876
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.32 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All mats are rugs.
No rug is a tile.
Some tiles are bricks.

Conclusions:
(I): No mat is a tile.
(II): Some rugs are bricks.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Question ID : 6306801376488
Option 1 ID : 6306805419317
Option 2 ID : 6306805419316
Option 3 ID : 6306805419315
Option 4 ID : 6306805419318
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.33 - ,

14 15.2 16.4 18.6 18.8 20 21.2

Ans 1. 18.8

2. 18.6

3. 20

4. 21.2

Question ID : 6306801374117
Option 1 ID : 6306805409764
Option 2 ID : 6306805409763
Option 3 ID : 6306805409765
Option 4 ID : 6306805409766
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.34 Each of N, O, P, Q, R, X and Y has an exam on a different day of a week starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Only three people have exam
between Y and X. Only three people have exam between O and P. N has exam on some
day before X and on some day after Q. Only R has exam before P. Who has exam on
Thursday?
Ans 1. O

2. N

3. Y

4. Q

Question ID : 6306801373362
Option 1 ID : 6306805406739
Option 2 ID : 6306805406738
Option 3 ID : 6306805406741
Option 4 ID : 6306805406740
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.35 -

1 – R, E, S, T,
2 – K, N, O, B,
, ,
N, B S R B S T
,K O
E ?
Ans 1. N

2. B

3. O

4. K

Question ID : 6306801373202
Option 1 ID : 6306805406091
Option 2 ID : 6306805406090
Option 3 ID : 6306805406092
Option 4 ID : 6306805406093
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.36 HJ 21 IM 12 YR 17 ZU 8
, WT 13 ?
Ans 1. XW 4

2. YV 6

3. YW 4

4. XV 6

Question ID : 6306801373392
Option 1 ID : 6306805406866
Option 2 ID : 6306805406869
Option 3 ID : 6306805406868
Option 4 ID : 6306805406867
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.37 , ‘birds like to fly’ ‘dy qr ph st’ , ‘habit of old birds’ ‘lp jk
st vi’ , ‘fly of insect family’ ‘ph mu wn jk’ , 'old family like ours' 'vi
mu qr nt' 'ours habit' ?

( : )
Ans 1. st qr

2. nt st

3. mu vi

4. lp nt

Question ID : 6306801376251
Option 1 ID : 6306805418237
Option 2 ID : 6306805418238
Option 3 ID : 6306805418236
Option 4 ID : 6306805418235
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.38 ,
A₹B ‘A, B ’,
A!B ‘A, B ’,
A≠B ‘A, B ’,
A≤B ‘A, B ’

P, S ?
Ans 1. P ₹ A ≠ R ≤ B ! S

2. P ≠ A ₹ R ≤ B ! S

3. P ₹ A ! R ≤ B ≠ S

4. P ₹ A ≠ R ! B ≤ S

Question ID : 6306801373373
Option 1 ID : 6306805406782
Option 2 ID : 6306805406784
Option 3 ID : 6306805406785
Option 4 ID : 6306805406783
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.39 , (X) (
)

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801376354
Option 1 ID : 6306805418957
Option 2 ID : 6306805418955
Option 3 ID : 6306805418956
Option 4 ID : 6306805418958
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.40 , -
- - ?
( : - , / )
Ans 1. NP - LM

2. WX - UV

3. EF - CD

4. OP - MN

Question ID : 6306801373401
Option 1 ID : 6306805406905
Option 2 ID : 6306805406902
Option 3 ID : 6306805406903
Option 4 ID : 6306805406904
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.41 4 2000 , 11 2000 - ?

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801376492
Option 1 ID : 6306805419334
Option 2 ID : 6306805419331
Option 3 ID : 6306805419333
Option 4 ID : 6306805419332
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.42 D, E, F, G, O, P, Q, R
(sides)
E D E P, D
R, E D R F O, E Q, D
G G R ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801373212
Option 1 ID : 6306805406130
Option 2 ID : 6306805406133
Option 3 ID : 6306805406131
Option 4 ID : 6306805406132
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.43 FL 35 EI 14 MH 29 LE 8
, DU 23 ?
Ans 1. BR 4

2. CQ 4

3. CR 2

4. BQ 2

Question ID : 6306801373388
Option 1 ID : 6306805406851
Option 2 ID : 6306805406853
Option 3 ID : 6306805406852
Option 4 ID : 6306805406850
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.44 N, O, P, Q, R, X Y
- X Q P N
Y N Y
R O Q O ?
Ans 1. R

2. P

3. X

4. N

Question ID : 6306801373359
Option 1 ID : 6306805406728
Option 2 ID : 6306805406727
Option 3 ID : 6306805406729
Option 4 ID : 6306805406726
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.45 - - - (?)
?

KRN 5 IOK -10 GLH 20 EIE-40 ?

Ans 1. CFC 80

2. CEB 100

3. CFB 80

4. CEC 100

Question ID : 6306801373417
Option 1 ID : 6306805406967
Option 2 ID : 6306805406968
Option 3 ID : 6306805406966
Option 4 ID : 6306805406969
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.46 - , - (?)
?

RFI −3 PJL 6 NNO −12 ? JVU −48

Ans 1. KQQ 22

2. KQR 24

3. LRR 24

4. LRQ 22

Question ID : 6306801373415
Option 1 ID : 6306805406958
Option 2 ID : 6306805406959
Option 3 ID : 6306805406960
Option 4 ID : 6306805406961
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.47 ,
A≠B ‘A, B ’,
A!B ‘A, B ’,
A≤B ‘A, B ’,
A₹B ‘A, B ’

‘P ≠ A ₹ R ! B ≤ S’ , P S ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801373380
Option 1 ID : 6306805406820
Option 2 ID : 6306805406819
Option 3 ID : 6306805406821
Option 4 ID : 6306805406818
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.48 MN ,

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801376285
Option 1 ID : 6306805418752
Option 2 ID : 6306805418753
Option 3 ID : 6306805418751
Option 4 ID : 6306805418754
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.49 , -
- - ?
( : - , / )
Ans 1. TR - OM

2. HF - CA

3. YW - TQ

4. JH - EC

Question ID : 6306801373403
Option 1 ID : 6306805406913
Option 2 ID : 6306805406910
Option 3 ID : 6306805406912
Option 4 ID : 6306805406911
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.50 , A 9 km
14 km 6 km B ,
P , A 17 km , 11 km
14 km 13 km
Q Q B ?( 90-
)
Ans 1. 6 km

2. 9 km

3. 11 km

4. 8 km

Question ID : 6306801373382
Option 1 ID : 6306805406826
Option 2 ID : 6306805406828
Option 3 ID : 6306805406829
Option 4 ID : 6306805406827
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.51 14
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801406469
Option 1 ID : 6306805537673
Option 2 ID : 6306805537676
Option 3 ID : 6306805537675
Option 4 ID : 6306805537674
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.52 52

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801406463
Option 1 ID : 6306805537651
Option 2 ID : 6306805537652
Option 3 ID : 6306805537649
Option 4 ID : 6306805537650
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.53 12 kg 20%
,
20% , 12 kg ?
Ans 1. 2000 g

2. 1250 g

3. 1750 g

4. 1500 g

Question ID : 6306801408169
Option 1 ID : 6306805543646
Option 2 ID : 6306805543645
Option 3 ID : 6306805543644
Option 4 ID : 6306805543643
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.54 ₹246 6% 5
Ans 1. ₹74.8

2. ₹72.8

3. ₹73.8

4. ₹71.8

Question ID : 6306801394940
Option 1 ID : 6306805492157
Option 2 ID : 6306805492155
Option 3 ID : 6306805492156
Option 4 ID : 6306805492154
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.55 40 80 5
Ans 1. 62

2. 58

3. 64

4. 60

Question ID : 6306801407705
Option 1 ID : 6306805541995
Option 2 ID : 6306805541997
Option 3 ID : 6306805541994
Option 4 ID : 6306805541996
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.56 A can complete a piece of work in 9 days and B can complete the same work in 17 days.
How long will they take to complete the work, if both work together?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801399323
Option 1 ID : 6306805509492
Option 2 ID : 6306805509490
Option 3 ID : 6306805509491
Option 4 ID : 6306805509493
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.57 (1, 2, 3…..100, 101) -

2 3 ?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801406466
Option 1 ID : 6306805537661
Option 2 ID : 6306805537664
Option 3 ID : 6306805537663
Option 4 ID : 6306805537662
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.58 {2, 3, 5, 13, 15} ( )

Ans 1. 3.25

2. 5.25

3. 4.25

4. 6.25

Question ID : 6306801406481
Option 1 ID : 6306805537721
Option 2 ID : 6306805537723
Option 3 ID : 6306805537722
Option 4 ID : 6306805537724
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.59 1 7 4 2 n 6 1
2 2

,
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801407256
Option 1 ID : 6306805540840
Option 2 ID : 6306805540838
Option 3 ID : 6306805540837
Option 4 ID : 6306805540839
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.60 10.5 cm , (rim) ₹4

10 cm2

Ans 1. ₹554.40

2. ₹693

3. ₹553.30

4. ₹552.20

Question ID : 6306801399317
Option 1 ID : 6306805509468
Option 2 ID : 6306805509469
Option 3 ID : 6306805509467
Option 4 ID : 6306805509466
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.61 10% , ₹140 5 kg kg

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801394956
Option 1 ID : 6306805492206
Option 2 ID : 6306805492209
Option 3 ID : 6306805492207
Option 4 ID : 6306805492208
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.62

Ans 1. 4.537

2. 7.978

3. 6.342

4. 5.010

Question ID : 6306801400798
Option 1 ID : 6306805515336
Option 2 ID : 6306805515339
Option 3 ID : 6306805515338
Option 4 ID : 6306805515337
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.63 ₹9,450 10%

, , ______
Ans 1. ₹5,445

2. ₹5,450

3. ₹5,420

4. ₹5,400

Question ID : 6306801399018
Option 1 ID : 6306805508252
Option 2 ID : 6306805508253
Option 3 ID : 6306805508251
Option 4 ID : 6306805508250
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.64 40% 20%

25% , ₹704
?
Ans 1. ₹3,690

2. ₹3,696

3. ₹3,692

4. ₹3,694

Question ID : 6306801400755
Option 1 ID : 6306805515164
Option 2 ID : 6306805515167
Option 3 ID : 6306805515165
Option 4 ID : 6306805515166
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.65 - ?
Ans 1. 5 : 18

2. 4 : 27

3. 9 : 17

4. 6 : 18

Question ID : 6306801399156
Option 1 ID : 6306805508798
Option 2 ID : 6306805508801
Option 3 ID : 6306805508799
Option 4 ID : 6306805508800
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.66

Ans 1. 330.7

2. 370.8

3. 280.6

4. 240.5

Question ID : 6306801399051
Option 1 ID : 6306805508384
Option 2 ID : 6306805508385
Option 3 ID : 6306805508383
Option 4 ID : 6306805508382
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.67 73 m 95 m 9 m/s 5 m/s

-
Ans 1. 13

2. 11

3. 10

4. 12

Question ID : 6306801400714
Option 1 ID : 6306805515003
Option 2 ID : 6306805515001
Option 3 ID : 6306805515000
Option 4 ID : 6306805515002
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.68 45 12 5 10
5 14
Ans 1. 11

2. 12

3. 13

4. 14

Question ID : 6306801394935
Option 1 ID : 6306805492138
Option 2 ID : 6306805492139
Option 3 ID : 6306805492140
Option 4 ID : 6306805492141
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.69 1168 cm2 ,

8:6:7 ,
Ans 1. 14 m

2. 12 m

3. 11 m

4. 10 m

Question ID : 6306801408244
Option 1 ID : 6306805543946
Option 2 ID : 6306805543944
Option 3 ID : 6306805543945
Option 4 ID : 6306805543943
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.70 ₹27 kg ₹35 kg ,

₹33 10% ?
Ans 1. 7 : 2

2. 2 : 5

3. 3 : 7

4. 5 : 3

Question ID : 6306801398985
Option 1 ID : 6306805508120
Option 2 ID : 6306805508118
Option 3 ID : 6306805508121
Option 4 ID : 6306805508119
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.71 32 km/hr
20 , 40 km/hr , 10

Ans 1. 70 km

2. 60 km

3. 80 km

4. 50 km

Question ID : 6306801400720
Option 1 ID : 6306805515026
Option 2 ID : 6306805515025
Option 3 ID : 6306805515027
Option 4 ID : 6306805515024
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.72
,

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801408318
Option 1 ID : 6306805544233
Option 2 ID : 6306805544235
Option 3 ID : 6306805544234
Option 4 ID : 6306805544236
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.73 60%
70% 21 36 ,

Ans 1. 65.25%

2. 65.23%

3. 66.32%

4. 66.25%

Question ID : 6306801408165
Option 1 ID : 6306805543630
Option 2 ID : 6306805543628
Option 3 ID : 6306805543627
Option 4 ID : 6306805543629
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.74 ₹160 20 , ₹150 25

₹96 ,
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801408168
Option 1 ID : 6306805543639
Option 2 ID : 6306805543642
Option 3 ID : 6306805543640
Option 4 ID : 6306805543641
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.75 ₹115 ₹1,840 ₹3

(₹ )
Ans 1. 4,800

2. 4,820

3. 4,280

4. 4,008

Question ID : 6306801408240
Option 1 ID : 6306805543930
Option 2 ID : 6306805543928
Option 3 ID : 6306805543929
Option 4 ID : 6306805543927
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Section : General English

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Q.76 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘Exasperate’ from the given
sentence.
The justification did little to mollify employees, who are still in disbelief over the sudden
closing of a company that has been a mainstay of the studio advertising industry for
more than two decades.
Ans 1. mollify

2. disbelief

3. justification

4. advertising

Question ID : 630680180803
Option 1 ID : 630680700653
Option 2 ID : 630680700654
Option 3 ID : 630680700652
Option 4 ID : 630680700655
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.77 Select the most appropriate idiom/phrase that can substitute the underlined words in
the given sentence.

He acted like a coward when the thief came.

Ans 1. showed the white feather

2. played ducks and drakes

3. ruled the roost

4. ripped up old sores

Question ID : 630680727492
Option 1 ID : 6306802850766
Option 2 ID : 6306802850769
Option 3 ID : 6306802850767
Option 4 ID : 6306802850768
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.78 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of
words.

The state of being fearful of confined spaces can trigger intense anxiety in enclosed
environments such as elevators, small rooms or crowded spaces. Individuals suffering
from it often avoid such situations to prevent discomfort, which can significantly impact
their daily lives and activities.
Ans 1. Acrophobia

2. Agoraphobia

3. Claustrophobia

4. Xenophobia

Question ID : 630680810771
Option 1 ID : 6306803176517
Option 2 ID : 6306803176516
Option 3 ID : 6306803176514
Option 4 ID : 6306803176515
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.79 Select the sentence that contains no spelling errors.

Ans 1. The govenment announced new policies to bost the economy.

2. The governmant announced new polices to boost the economy.

3. The government announced new policies to boost the economy.

4. The goverment announced new policies to boost the economy.

Question ID : 630680800468
Option 1 ID : 6306803136656
Option 2 ID : 6306803136655
Option 3 ID : 6306803136654
Option 4 ID : 6306803136653
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.80 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct
order to form a meaningful sentence.
in achieving sustainable development goals
plays a crucial role
renewable energy
by reducing dependency on fossil fuels and lowering greenhouse gas emissions
Ans 1. 4, 1, 3, 2

2. 3, 1, 2, 4

3. 3, 2, 1, 4

4. 2, 3, 1, 4

Question ID : 630680804263
Option 1 ID : 6306803150786
Option 2 ID : 6306803150783
Option 3 ID : 6306803150784
Option 4 ID : 6306803150785
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.81 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in
the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
1) Thus, findings from across the social and behavioural sciences can help adjudicate
whether decisions are practical and feasible.
2) Climate decisions require actors—including individuals, policymakers, societies and
higher governance bodies—to navigate everyday moral worldviews that shape the
context, character and limits of decision-making itself.
3) Decisions take place within, and often seek to change, existing moral norms,
intuitions and values.
4) They are particularly important at the ‘messy middle’, where decisions made at
higher levels—for example, global policy—are translated and enacted on the ground.
5) They explore how decisions manifest in practice, and whether they lead to enduring
change.
6) The social and behavioural sciences empirically investigate how moral context,
worldviews and identities shape and constrain how decisions are made and enacted.
Ans 1. 4, 3, 6, 1, 2, 5

2. 6, 2, 5, 1, 4, 3

3. 1, 3, 6, 2, 4, 5

4. 2, 3, 6, 5, 1, 4

Question ID : 630680810489
Option 1 ID : 6306803175480
Option 2 ID : 6306803175478
Option 3 ID : 6306803175479
Option 4 ID : 6306803175481
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.82 Which of the following idioms means the same as the underlined segment in the given
sentence?

His representation made it different for us to achieve something we had planned to do.
Ans 1. To put the screw on one

2. To put one's shoulder to the wheel

3. To put one out of countenance

4. To put a spoke in one's wheel

Question ID : 630680783060
Option 1 ID : 6306803068609
Option 2 ID : 6306803068607
Option 3 ID : 6306803068606
Option 4 ID : 6306803068608
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.83 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

None of the students were late for the exam, had they?
Ans 1. weren't they

2. were they

3. was any

4. wasn't it

Question ID : 630680807664
Option 1 ID : 6306803164279
Option 2 ID : 6306803164278
Option 3 ID : 6306803164280
Option 4 ID : 6306803164281
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.84 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in
the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

1. Most of the shrubs and flowers used in the Western world are descendants of plants
imported from other countries.
2. Some, like rhododendrons or azaleas, originated in an acid soil, mainly composed of
leaf mold.
3. The range of plants available to the modern gardener is remarkably rich, and new
varieties are constantly being offered by nurseries.
4. Consequently, they will not thrive in a chalky or an alkaline soil.
5. Because they are nonnative, they present the gardener with some of his most
interesting problems but also with the possibility of an enhanced display.
6. Plants that originated in subtropical regions, for example, are naturally more
sensitive to frost.
Ans 1. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5, 6

2. 5, 4, 6, 1, 2, 3

3. 2, 1, 6, 5, 4, 3

4. 3, 1, 5, 6, 2, 4

Question ID : 630680810472
Option 1 ID : 6306803175412
Option 2 ID : 6306803175411
Option 3 ID : 6306803175410
Option 4 ID : 6306803175413
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.85 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

Fiddlesticks, old chap! It was absolutely splendid catching up with you over tea and
scones, let's make plans for another delightful rendezvous soon, shall we?
Ans 1. Ahoy, old chap!

2. Cheerio, old chap!

3. Fiddle-faddle, old chap!

4. Crumbs, old chap!

Question ID : 630680834314
Option 1 ID : 6306803268077
Option 2 ID : 6306803268076
Option 3 ID : 6306803268074
Option 4 ID : 6306803268075
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.86 Select the most appropriate option to rectify the incorrect interjection used in the given
sentence.

Wow! I dropped the fragile vase and watched in horror as it shattered into pieces on the
hardwood floor.
Ans 1. Oops!

2. Bravo!

3. Hey!

4. Achoo!

Question ID : 630680845333
Option 1 ID : 6306803311227
Option 2 ID : 6306803311228
Option 3 ID : 6306803311230
Option 4 ID : 6306803311229
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.87 Select the most appropriate proverb that can substitute the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

Mother taught Tina to get the ingredients before cooking as the important things should
be done before anything else.
Ans 1. hard work pays off

2. pen is mightier than the sword

3. all that glitters is not gold

4. first things should be done first

Question ID : 630680755181
Option 1 ID : 6306802959902
Option 2 ID : 6306802959901
Option 3 ID : 6306802959903
Option 4 ID : 6306802959900
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.88 Select the most appropriate conjunction to fill in the blank.

Sarah wanted to go to the concert; ____, she couldn't get tickets.

Ans 1. or

2. because

3. but

4. so

Question ID : 630680800340
Option 1 ID : 6306803136157
Option 2 ID : 6306803136159
Option 3 ID : 6306803136158
Option 4 ID : 6306803136160
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.89 Select the grammatically correct sentence.

Ans 1. He gave me advices on my career.

2. We saw several deer in the forest.

3. She has many experience in teaching.

4. The team captain's are discussing strategy.

Question ID : 630680800574
Option 1 ID : 6306803137070
Option 2 ID : 6306803137071
Option 3 ID : 6306803137072
Option 4 ID : 6306803137069
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.90 Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

These three students are very bright. They are the best of all in their class.
Ans 1. nutty as a fruitcake

2. piece of cake

3. cream of the crop

4. cakewalk

Question ID : 630680766175
Option 1 ID : 6306803003128
Option 2 ID : 6306803003126
Option 3 ID : 6306803003125
Option 4 ID : 6306803003127
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

On 4 December 1874, the brigantine Mary Celeste, carrying 1,700 barrels of crude alcohol en
route from New York to Genoa, was found abandoned and drifting in the Atlantic ocean
between the Azores and Portugal. The crew of Dei Gratia, the cargo ship that found Mary
Celeste, inspected her carefully and then sailed her to Gibraltar to collect the large salvage
reward. Their report given at the inquiry suggests that the captain, his wife, his young daughter
and seven-man crew had deserted the ship in a great hurry. The captain's bed was unmade,
something unheard of in a well-run ship, which the Mary Celeste was known to be. The oilskin
boots and pipes, belonging to the crew, had also been left, although the chronometer, sextant,
and life boat were missing. The arrangement of the sails also suggested sudden abandonment.
The cargo was intact, although some barrels had leaked and two of the hatches were not in
place.

Several theories have been propounded to explain why those aboard left a perfectly seaworthy
vessel to risk their lives in an open boat. It has been suggested that they were the victim of
alien abduction or sea-monster attacks. Such outlandish notions are hardly credible. The idea
that the ship was a victim of piracy can also be discounted, since the cargo and other valuables
were untouched. Likewise, mutiny does not seem plausible, since the captain and the first
officer were known to be fair and experienced, the voyage was relatively short, and mutineers
would probably have taken over the ship, not forsaken it.

A possible explanation is that some event made the captain fear for the safety of the ship. In
fact, recently studied seismic records indicate that a violent earthquake, whose epicenter was
on the seafloor in the region where the Mary Celeste was sailing, occurred some days before
the ship's discovery. If the ship had been subjected to intense shocks caused by the quake, all
aboard may have hastily abandoned ship to avoid what they imagined might be its imminent
destruction from an explosion of the combustible cargo. A severed rope found dangling from
the side of the Mary Celeste suggests that the evacuees trailed behind in the lifeboat, attached
to the ship, waiting for the crisis to pass. Great waves may then have snapped the rope and
capsized the small boat, whose occupants would have disappeared without a trace.

SubQuestion No : 91
Q.91 Which of the following statements is NOT true about the paragraph?
Ans 1. Dei Gratia found the Mary Celeste abandoned in the Atlantic ocean.

2. When found, the Mary Celeste was sailed to Portugal.

3. The captain and his family along with the crew might have tried to escape from the
ship.
4. It was predicted that the people who were in the ship the Mary Celeste might have
disappeared in the ocean.

Question ID : 630680842280
Option 1 ID : 6306803299631
Option 2 ID : 6306803299632
Option 3 ID : 6306803299634
Option 4 ID : 6306803299633
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

On 4 December 1874, the brigantine Mary Celeste, carrying 1,700 barrels of crude alcohol en
route from New York to Genoa, was found abandoned and drifting in the Atlantic ocean
between the Azores and Portugal. The crew of Dei Gratia, the cargo ship that found Mary
Celeste, inspected her carefully and then sailed her to Gibraltar to collect the large salvage
reward. Their report given at the inquiry suggests that the captain, his wife, his young daughter
and seven-man crew had deserted the ship in a great hurry. The captain's bed was unmade,
something unheard of in a well-run ship, which the Mary Celeste was known to be. The oilskin
boots and pipes, belonging to the crew, had also been left, although the chronometer, sextant,
and life boat were missing. The arrangement of the sails also suggested sudden abandonment.
The cargo was intact, although some barrels had leaked and two of the hatches were not in
place.

Several theories have been propounded to explain why those aboard left a perfectly seaworthy
vessel to risk their lives in an open boat. It has been suggested that they were the victim of
alien abduction or sea-monster attacks. Such outlandish notions are hardly credible. The idea
that the ship was a victim of piracy can also be discounted, since the cargo and other valuables
were untouched. Likewise, mutiny does not seem plausible, since the captain and the first
officer were known to be fair and experienced, the voyage was relatively short, and mutineers
would probably have taken over the ship, not forsaken it.

A possible explanation is that some event made the captain fear for the safety of the ship. In
fact, recently studied seismic records indicate that a violent earthquake, whose epicenter was
on the seafloor in the region where the Mary Celeste was sailing, occurred some days before
the ship's discovery. If the ship had been subjected to intense shocks caused by the quake, all
aboard may have hastily abandoned ship to avoid what they imagined might be its imminent
destruction from an explosion of the combustible cargo. A severed rope found dangling from
the side of the Mary Celeste suggests that the evacuees trailed behind in the lifeboat, attached
to the ship, waiting for the crisis to pass. Great waves may then have snapped the rope and
capsized the small boat, whose occupants would have disappeared without a trace.

SubQuestion No : 92
Q.92 What might be the cause of the abandonment of the Mary Celeste by the captain and
others?
Ans 1. Fear of the Captain about the deep sea

2. Mutiny by the crew

3. Turbulence in the ocean

4. Fear of the captain about the safety of the ship caught in an earthquake

Question ID : 630680842281
Option 1 ID : 6306803299635
Option 2 ID : 6306803299636
Option 3 ID : 6306803299638
Option 4 ID : 6306803299637
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

On 4 December 1874, the brigantine Mary Celeste, carrying 1,700 barrels of crude alcohol en
route from New York to Genoa, was found abandoned and drifting in the Atlantic ocean
between the Azores and Portugal. The crew of Dei Gratia, the cargo ship that found Mary
Celeste, inspected her carefully and then sailed her to Gibraltar to collect the large salvage
reward. Their report given at the inquiry suggests that the captain, his wife, his young daughter
and seven-man crew had deserted the ship in a great hurry. The captain's bed was unmade,
something unheard of in a well-run ship, which the Mary Celeste was known to be. The oilskin
boots and pipes, belonging to the crew, had also been left, although the chronometer, sextant,
and life boat were missing. The arrangement of the sails also suggested sudden abandonment.
The cargo was intact, although some barrels had leaked and two of the hatches were not in
place.

Several theories have been propounded to explain why those aboard left a perfectly seaworthy
vessel to risk their lives in an open boat. It has been suggested that they were the victim of
alien abduction or sea-monster attacks. Such outlandish notions are hardly credible. The idea
that the ship was a victim of piracy can also be discounted, since the cargo and other valuables
were untouched. Likewise, mutiny does not seem plausible, since the captain and the first
officer were known to be fair and experienced, the voyage was relatively short, and mutineers
would probably have taken over the ship, not forsaken it.

A possible explanation is that some event made the captain fear for the safety of the ship. In
fact, recently studied seismic records indicate that a violent earthquake, whose epicenter was
on the seafloor in the region where the Mary Celeste was sailing, occurred some days before
the ship's discovery. If the ship had been subjected to intense shocks caused by the quake, all
aboard may have hastily abandoned ship to avoid what they imagined might be its imminent
destruction from an explosion of the combustible cargo. A severed rope found dangling from
the side of the Mary Celeste suggests that the evacuees trailed behind in the lifeboat, attached
to the ship, waiting for the crisis to pass. Great waves may then have snapped the rope and
capsized the small boat, whose occupants would have disappeared without a trace.

SubQuestion No : 93
Q.93 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.
Ans 1. Destruction of Mary Celeste

2. Mystery Behind the Abandoned Ship, the Mary Celeste

3. The Repercussion of the Earthquake

4. Dei Gratia's Discovery

Question ID : 630680842279
Option 1 ID : 6306803299627
Option 2 ID : 6306803299628
Option 3 ID : 6306803299630
Option 4 ID : 6306803299629
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

On 4 December 1874, the brigantine Mary Celeste, carrying 1,700 barrels of crude alcohol en
route from New York to Genoa, was found abandoned and drifting in the Atlantic ocean
between the Azores and Portugal. The crew of Dei Gratia, the cargo ship that found Mary
Celeste, inspected her carefully and then sailed her to Gibraltar to collect the large salvage
reward. Their report given at the inquiry suggests that the captain, his wife, his young daughter
and seven-man crew had deserted the ship in a great hurry. The captain's bed was unmade,
something unheard of in a well-run ship, which the Mary Celeste was known to be. The oilskin
boots and pipes, belonging to the crew, had also been left, although the chronometer, sextant,
and life boat were missing. The arrangement of the sails also suggested sudden abandonment.
The cargo was intact, although some barrels had leaked and two of the hatches were not in
place.

Several theories have been propounded to explain why those aboard left a perfectly seaworthy
vessel to risk their lives in an open boat. It has been suggested that they were the victim of
alien abduction or sea-monster attacks. Such outlandish notions are hardly credible. The idea
that the ship was a victim of piracy can also be discounted, since the cargo and other valuables
were untouched. Likewise, mutiny does not seem plausible, since the captain and the first
officer were known to be fair and experienced, the voyage was relatively short, and mutineers
would probably have taken over the ship, not forsaken it.

A possible explanation is that some event made the captain fear for the safety of the ship. In
fact, recently studied seismic records indicate that a violent earthquake, whose epicenter was
on the seafloor in the region where the Mary Celeste was sailing, occurred some days before
the ship's discovery. If the ship had been subjected to intense shocks caused by the quake, all
aboard may have hastily abandoned ship to avoid what they imagined might be its imminent
destruction from an explosion of the combustible cargo. A severed rope found dangling from
the side of the Mary Celeste suggests that the evacuees trailed behind in the lifeboat, attached
to the ship, waiting for the crisis to pass. Great waves may then have snapped the rope and
capsized the small boat, whose occupants would have disappeared without a trace.

SubQuestion No : 94
Q.94 How are the ideas arranged in the passage?
Ans 1. Description of the discovery of the cargo ship caught in the earthquake

2. Description of how the cargo ship found another ship abandoned and how it tried to get
the reward
3. Narration of the discovery of the abandoned, well-run ship and explanation of the
analysis of the reasons for abandonment
4. Analysis of different theories about abandonment of ships followed by an example

Question ID : 630680842282
Option 1 ID : 6306803299640
Option 2 ID : 6306803299642
Option 3 ID : 6306803299639
Option 4 ID : 6306803299641
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

On 4 December 1874, the brigantine Mary Celeste, carrying 1,700 barrels of crude alcohol en
route from New York to Genoa, was found abandoned and drifting in the Atlantic ocean
between the Azores and Portugal. The crew of Dei Gratia, the cargo ship that found Mary
Celeste, inspected her carefully and then sailed her to Gibraltar to collect the large salvage
reward. Their report given at the inquiry suggests that the captain, his wife, his young daughter
and seven-man crew had deserted the ship in a great hurry. The captain's bed was unmade,
something unheard of in a well-run ship, which the Mary Celeste was known to be. The oilskin
boots and pipes, belonging to the crew, had also been left, although the chronometer, sextant,
and life boat were missing. The arrangement of the sails also suggested sudden abandonment.
The cargo was intact, although some barrels had leaked and two of the hatches were not in
place.

Several theories have been propounded to explain why those aboard left a perfectly seaworthy
vessel to risk their lives in an open boat. It has been suggested that they were the victim of
alien abduction or sea-monster attacks. Such outlandish notions are hardly credible. The idea
that the ship was a victim of piracy can also be discounted, since the cargo and other valuables
were untouched. Likewise, mutiny does not seem plausible, since the captain and the first
officer were known to be fair and experienced, the voyage was relatively short, and mutineers
would probably have taken over the ship, not forsaken it.

A possible explanation is that some event made the captain fear for the safety of the ship. In
fact, recently studied seismic records indicate that a violent earthquake, whose epicenter was
on the seafloor in the region where the Mary Celeste was sailing, occurred some days before
the ship's discovery. If the ship had been subjected to intense shocks caused by the quake, all
aboard may have hastily abandoned ship to avoid what they imagined might be its imminent
destruction from an explosion of the combustible cargo. A severed rope found dangling from
the side of the Mary Celeste suggests that the evacuees trailed behind in the lifeboat, attached
to the ship, waiting for the crisis to pass. Great waves may then have snapped the rope and
capsized the small boat, whose occupants would have disappeared without a trace.

SubQuestion No : 95
Q.95 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Outlandish
Ans 1. Bizarre

2. Ordinary

3. Outdated

4. Eccentric

Question ID : 630680842283
Option 1 ID : 6306803299646
Option 2 ID : 6306803299644
Option 3 ID : 6306803299643
Option 4 ID : 6306803299645
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Scoring better in exams requires ___1___ preparation strategies and disciplined study habits.
Begin by creating a realistic study schedule that allocates sufficient time for each subject and
___2___ study sessions into manageable segments. Utilise active learning techniques such as
summarising notes, teaching concepts to others and practicing with past exam papers to
reinforce understanding and retention of material. Maintain a healthy lifestyle with adequate
sleep, nutrition and exercise to optimise cognitive function and concentration ___3___ study
sessions and exams. Minimise distractions by creating a conducive study environment free
from noise and interruptions. Seek clarification on challenging topics ___4___ teachers,
classmates or online resources to ensure comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.
Finally, approach exams with a positive mindset, staying calm and focused during the test to
effectively ___5___ your knowledge and demonstrate your skills.

SubQuestion No : 96
Q.96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Ans 1. takes down

2. knocks down

3. breaks down

4. disaggregates

Question ID : 630680829917
Option 1 ID : 6306803250913
Option 2 ID : 6306803250914
Option 3 ID : 6306803250916
Option 4 ID : 6306803250915
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Scoring better in exams requires ___1___ preparation strategies and disciplined study habits.
Begin by creating a realistic study schedule that allocates sufficient time for each subject and
___2___ study sessions into manageable segments. Utilise active learning techniques such as
summarising notes, teaching concepts to others and practicing with past exam papers to
reinforce understanding and retention of material. Maintain a healthy lifestyle with adequate
sleep, nutrition and exercise to optimise cognitive function and concentration ___3___ study
sessions and exams. Minimise distractions by creating a conducive study environment free
from noise and interruptions. Seek clarification on challenging topics ___4___ teachers,
classmates or online resources to ensure comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.
Finally, approach exams with a positive mindset, staying calm and focused during the test to
effectively ___5___ your knowledge and demonstrate your skills.

SubQuestion No : 97
Q.97 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans 1. among

2. by

3. from

4. with

Question ID : 630680829919
Option 1 ID : 6306803250922
Option 2 ID : 6306803250924
Option 3 ID : 6306803250923
Option 4 ID : 6306803250921
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Scoring better in exams requires ___1___ preparation strategies and disciplined study habits.
Begin by creating a realistic study schedule that allocates sufficient time for each subject and
___2___ study sessions into manageable segments. Utilise active learning techniques such as
summarising notes, teaching concepts to others and practicing with past exam papers to
reinforce understanding and retention of material. Maintain a healthy lifestyle with adequate
sleep, nutrition and exercise to optimise cognitive function and concentration ___3___ study
sessions and exams. Minimise distractions by creating a conducive study environment free
from noise and interruptions. Seek clarification on challenging topics ___4___ teachers,
classmates or online resources to ensure comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.
Finally, approach exams with a positive mindset, staying calm and focused during the test to
effectively ___5___ your knowledge and demonstrate your skills.

SubQuestion No : 98
Q.98 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans 1. apply

2. enact

3. exploit

4. employ

Question ID : 630680829920
Option 1 ID : 6306803250925
Option 2 ID : 6306803250927
Option 3 ID : 6306803250928
Option 4 ID : 6306803250926
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Scoring better in exams requires ___1___ preparation strategies and disciplined study habits.
Begin by creating a realistic study schedule that allocates sufficient time for each subject and
___2___ study sessions into manageable segments. Utilise active learning techniques such as
summarising notes, teaching concepts to others and practicing with past exam papers to
reinforce understanding and retention of material. Maintain a healthy lifestyle with adequate
sleep, nutrition and exercise to optimise cognitive function and concentration ___3___ study
sessions and exams. Minimise distractions by creating a conducive study environment free
from noise and interruptions. Seek clarification on challenging topics ___4___ teachers,
classmates or online resources to ensure comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.
Finally, approach exams with a positive mindset, staying calm and focused during the test to
effectively ___5___ your knowledge and demonstrate your skills.

SubQuestion No : 99
Q.99 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans 1. among

2. within

3. during

4. between

Question ID : 630680829918
Option 1 ID : 6306803250917
Option 2 ID : 6306803250920
Option 3 ID : 6306803250918
Option 4 ID : 6306803250919
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

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Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Scoring better in exams requires ___1___ preparation strategies and disciplined study habits.
Begin by creating a realistic study schedule that allocates sufficient time for each subject and
___2___ study sessions into manageable segments. Utilise active learning techniques such as
summarising notes, teaching concepts to others and practicing with past exam papers to
reinforce understanding and retention of material. Maintain a healthy lifestyle with adequate
sleep, nutrition and exercise to optimise cognitive function and concentration ___3___ study
sessions and exams. Minimise distractions by creating a conducive study environment free
from noise and interruptions. Seek clarification on challenging topics ___4___ teachers,
classmates or online resources to ensure comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.
Finally, approach exams with a positive mindset, staying calm and focused during the test to
effectively ___5___ your knowledge and demonstrate your skills.

SubQuestion No : 100
Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
0
Ans 1. validated

2. compelling

3. effective

4. applicable

Question ID : 630680829916
Option 1 ID : 6306803250912
Option 2 ID : 6306803250909
Option 3 ID : 6306803250911
Option 4 ID : 6306803250910
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Section : Domain Knowledge

Q.10 How does training and development contribute to a better Quality of Work Life (QWL)
1 for employees?
Ans 1. By focusing solely on increasing employee productivity

2. By promoting work-life balance, skill development, and career growth

3. By offering only job-specific training

4. By reducing the number of training sessions and focusing on efficiency

Question ID : 6306801371659
Option 1 ID : 6306805399923
Option 2 ID : 6306805399922
Option 3 ID : 6306805399921
Option 4 ID : 6306805399924
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.10 Which type of transaction occurs when a response is directed back to the initiating ego
2 state, maintaining clear communication?
Ans 1. Crossed transaction

2. Complementary transaction

3. Ulterior transaction

4. Incongruent transaction

Question ID : 6306801380382
Option 1 ID : 6306805434859
Option 2 ID : 6306805434860
Option 3 ID : 6306805434861
Option 4 ID : 6306805434862
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.10 Which of the following is a significant contribution of Mary Parker Follett to

3 management theory?
Ans 1. Introduction of the idea of scientific management

2. The concept of 'power with' instead of 'power over' in organisational relationships

3. Advocacy for the importance of individual incentives in management

4. Development of the contingency theory of leadership

Question ID : 6306801370378
Option 1 ID : 6306805394706
Option 2 ID : 6306805394705
Option 3 ID : 6306805394703
Option 4 ID : 6306805394704
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.10 - , (OSHA)
4 ?
Ans 1.

2.

3. (wages)

4. (PPE)

Question ID : 6306801372924
Option 1 ID : 6306805404985
Option 2 ID : 6306805404982
Option 3 ID : 6306805404983
Option 4 ID : 6306805404984
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.10 - ,
5 ?
Ans 1.

2. -

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801378755
Option 1 ID : 6306805428433
Option 2 ID : 6306805428432
Option 3 ID : 6306805428435
Option 4 ID : 6306805428434
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.10 Which of the following is a recent trend in the evolution of trade unions in India?
6
Ans 1. Focus on informal and gig economy workers

2. Strict prohibition of union formation in the private sector

3. Complete elimination of political affiliations

4. Decrease in collective bargaining efforts

Question ID : 6306801380601
Option 1 ID : 6306805435715
Option 2 ID : 6306805435717
Option 3 ID : 6306805435714
Option 4 ID : 6306805435716
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.10 Which of the following is a long-term effect of unresolved industrial disputes on the
7 workforce?
Ans 1. Higher turnover rates

2. More effective teamwork

3. Increased wage settlements

4. Improvement in the quality of work

Question ID : 6306801380635
Option 1 ID : 6306805435852
Option 2 ID : 6306805435853
Option 3 ID : 6306805435851
Option 4 ID : 6306805435850
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.10 What is the primary focus of the Operant conditioning theory of learning?
8
Ans 1. Learning as a consequence of behaviour

2. Strengthening involuntary reflexes

3. Reflexive responses to environmental cues

4. Eliciting a response through stimuli

Question ID : 6306801379485
Option 1 ID : 6306805431338
Option 2 ID : 6306805431341
Option 3 ID : 6306805431340
Option 4 ID : 6306805431339
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.10 , 1965 , ,
9 ?
Ans 1. 8.33%

2. 12.64%

3. 10.18%

4. 18.33%

Question ID : 6306801380306
Option 1 ID : 6306805434559
Option 2 ID : 6306805434561
Option 3 ID : 6306805434560
Option 4 ID : 6306805434562
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.11 , 1926 3 ?
0
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801372160
Option 1 ID : 6306805401932
Option 2 ID : 6306805401931
Option 3 ID : 6306805401930
Option 4 ID : 6306805401933
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.11 Which of the following best defines the term 'total compensation' in HRM?
1
Ans 1. The basic salary paid to an employee before any bonuses or allowances

2. The sum of all financial rewards, including wages, benefits, bonuses and stock options

3. The combination of salary and job responsibilities offered to attract the best candidates

4. The salary and non-financial rewards, like work-life balance programmes, offered by an
organisation

Question ID : 6306801377716
Option 1 ID : 6306805424275
Option 2 ID : 6306805424276
Option 3 ID : 6306805424278
Option 4 ID : 6306805424277
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.11 - -
2 , ?
Ans 1. ROI

2. -

3. CIRO ( , , , )

4. ADDIE

Question ID : 6306801371472
Option 1 ID : 6306805399160
Option 2 ID : 6306805399159
Option 3 ID : 6306805399157
Option 4 ID : 6306805399158
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.11 - ?
3
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801379964
Option 1 ID : 6306805433241
Option 2 ID : 6306805433243
Option 3 ID : 6306805433242
Option 4 ID : 6306805433244
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.11 Which phase of the Hawthorne experiment by Elton Mayo stated that employees'
4 informal groups had a greater control of productivity levels than the formal orders?
Ans 1. Bank Wiring Observation Room

2. Illumination Experiment

3. Relay Assembly Test Room

4. Interviewing Experiment

Question ID : 6306801371203
Option 1 ID : 6306805398060
Option 2 ID : 6306805398058
Option 3 ID : 6306805398059
Option 4 ID : 6306805398061
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.11 Under the new Wage Code (Code on Wages, 2019), what is the maximum bonus
5 percentage allowed?
Ans 1. 10%

2. 20%

3. 30%

4. 12%

Question ID : 6306801372917
Option 1 ID : 6306805404958
Option 2 ID : 6306805404961
Option 3 ID : 6306805404959
Option 4 ID : 6306805404960
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.11 HRD , ?
6
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4. (onboarding)

Question ID : 6306801377735
Option 1 ID : 6306805424351
Option 2 ID : 6306805424352
Option 3 ID : 6306805424353
Option 4 ID : 6306805424354
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.11 Under the Factories Act, 1948, which of the following facilities is mandatory for factories
7 employing more than 250 workers?
Ans 1. Free medical check-ups

2. Restrooms

3. Housing accommodation

4. Canteen

Question ID : 6306801380318
Option 1 ID : 6306805434605
Option 2 ID : 6306805434604
Option 3 ID : 6306805434606
Option 4 ID : 6306805434603
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.11 The market-based salary approach primarily relies on:

8
Ans 1. salary levels established by the government for each industry or region

2. internal company performance evaluations to set salary levels

3. compensation data from other companies within the same industry or region

4. the negotiation power of employees during salary discussions

Question ID : 6306801371605
Option 1 ID : 6306805399706
Option 2 ID : 6306805399705
Option 3 ID : 6306805399707
Option 4 ID : 6306805399708
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.11 ?
9
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801370382
Option 1 ID : 6306805394721
Option 2 ID : 6306805394720
Option 3 ID : 6306805394722
Option 4 ID : 6306805394719
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.12 -
0
?
Ans 1. (Focus group discussions)

2. (In-depth interviews)

3. (Surveys and questionnaires)

4. (Observational notes)

Question ID : 6306801370400
Option 1 ID : 6306805394794
Option 2 ID : 6306805394791
Option 3 ID : 6306805394793
Option 4 ID : 6306805394792
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.12 - , (non-statutory) ?
1
Ans 1.

2.

3. (legislation)

4.

Question ID : 6306801372191
Option 1 ID : 6306805402057
Option 2 ID : 6306805402055
Option 3 ID : 6306805402056
Option 4 ID : 6306805402054
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.12 (planning) - ?
2
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801381285
Option 1 ID : 6306805438411
Option 2 ID : 6306805438408
Option 3 ID : 6306805438409
Option 4 ID : 6306805438410
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

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Q.12 , 2020
3 ?
Ans 1.

2.

3. ,

4.

Question ID : 6306801372925
Option 1 ID : 6306805404987
Option 2 ID : 6306805404989
Option 3 ID : 6306805404988
Option 4 ID : 6306805404986
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.12 - ?
4
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801377717
Option 1 ID : 6306805424282
Option 2 ID : 6306805424279
Option 3 ID : 6306805424281
Option 4 ID : 6306805424280
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.12 (individual learning) , -

5 ?
Ans 1. (Workplace design)

2. (Individual cognitive style)

3. (Organisational hierarchy)

4. (Compensation structure)

Question ID : 6306801380360
Option 1 ID : 6306805434773
Option 2 ID : 6306805434772
Option 3 ID : 6306805434771
Option 4 ID : 6306805434774
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 47/75
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Q.12 : ?
6
Ans 1. -

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801379510
Option 1 ID : 6306805431439
Option 2 ID : 6306805431441
Option 3 ID : 6306805431438
Option 4 ID : 6306805431440
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.12 The Industrial Relations Code, 2020, introduced changes in the definition of 'worker'.
7 Which of the following is included in the new definition?
Ans 1. Only workers engaged in manufacturing and production industries

2. Workers employed in government offices

3. Workers engaged in any industry, trade, business or service

4. Only workers with union membership

Question ID : 6306801372921
Option 1 ID : 6306805404970
Option 2 ID : 6306805404971
Option 3 ID : 6306805404972
Option 4 ID : 6306805404973
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.12 ' ' ?

8
Ans 1. -

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801371593
Option 1 ID : 6306805399660
Option 2 ID : 6306805399658
Option 3 ID : 6306805399659
Option 4 ID : 6306805399657
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 48/75
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Q.12 , 1947,
9 ?
Ans 1.

2. (misconduct)

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801380851
Option 1 ID : 6306805436714
Option 2 ID : 6306805436717
Option 3 ID : 6306805436715
Option 4 ID : 6306805436716
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.13 Which advanced HRIS functionality is most suited for workforce planning and
0 predicting future staffing needs?
Ans 1. Employee self-service (ESS) portals

2. Improving data encryption

3. Artificial intelligence and predictive analytics

4. Maintaining only on-premise HRIS systems

Question ID : 6306801371465
Option 1 ID : 6306805399129
Option 2 ID : 6306805399130
Option 3 ID : 6306805399132
Option 4 ID : 6306805399131
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.13 ABC Corp., (consulting firm)

1 , HR
- (HRD)
:

,
,
HRD
,
HRD ,
,
ABC Corp. HRD
-

ABC Corp. - HRD ?

Ans 1. - HRD

2. - HRD

3. ADDIE

4. (Kirkpatrick) -

Question ID : 6306801381194
Option 1 ID : 6306805438052
Option 2 ID : 6306805438051
Option 3 ID : 6306805438050
Option 4 ID : 6306805438049
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.13 What is the first step in designing an effective training programme for workers?
2
Ans 1. Conducting a training needs assessment

2. Delivering the training sessions

3. Selecting training methods

4. Evaluating training outcomes

Question ID : 6306801379980
Option 1 ID : 6306805433306
Option 2 ID : 6306805433308
Option 3 ID : 6306805433307
Option 4 ID : 6306805433305
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.13 (Taylor) , - ?
3
Ans 1.

2. (Job enrichment)

3.

4. (Job rotation)

Question ID : 6306801378336
Option 1 ID : 6306805426758
Option 2 ID : 6306805426759
Option 3 ID : 6306805426757
Option 4 ID : 6306805426756
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.13 Which of the following is NOT a component of attitude of an individual in an

4 organisation?
Ans 1. Affective

2. Cognitive

3. Emotional

4. Behavioural

Question ID : 6306801379493
Option 1 ID : 6306805431371
Option 2 ID : 6306805431370
Option 3 ID : 6306805431373
Option 4 ID : 6306805431372
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 50/75
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Q.13 - , - (extra-mural welfare facilities)

5 ?
Ans 1. ,

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801387196
Option 1 ID : 6306805462001
Option 2 ID : 6306805461998
Option 3 ID : 6306805462000
Option 4 ID : 6306805461999
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.13 , 1948 ?
6
Ans 1. (effluent)

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801374331
Option 1 ID : 6306805410624
Option 2 ID : 6306805410622
Option 3 ID : 6306805410623
Option 4 ID : 6306805410621
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.13 Which of the following is the correct meaning of encoding in the communication
7 process?
Ans 1. The method by which a receiver provides feedback to the sender

2. The final interpretation of a message by the receiver

3. The transformation of a message into symbols that can be understood by the receiver

4. The choice of medium used to transmit a message

Question ID : 6306801374129
Option 1 ID : 6306805409811
Option 2 ID : 6306805409814
Option 3 ID : 6306805409812
Option 4 ID : 6306805409813
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 51/75
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Q.13 In Kirkpatrick’s model, which level assesses how participants feel about the training
8 programme?
Ans 1. Learning

2. Results

3. Behaviour

4. Reaction

Question ID : 6306801371471
Option 1 ID : 6306805399156
Option 2 ID : 6306805399154
Option 3 ID : 6306805399155
Option 4 ID : 6306805399153
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.13 , 1961
9
?
Ans 1. 20

2.

3.

4. 12 80

Question ID : 6306801380345
Option 1 ID : 6306805434714
Option 2 ID : 6306805434713
Option 3 ID : 6306805434712
Option 4 ID : 6306805434711
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.14 - ?
0
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801377350
Option 1 ID : 6306805422817
Option 2 ID : 6306805422818
Option 3 ID : 6306805422819
Option 4 ID : 6306805422820
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 52/75
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Q.14 XYZ
1 - ,
, HR (KM)

- (knowledge-sharing culture,) ,
,
IT
,
(communities of practice) ,
- ,
,

XYZ ,

XYZ HRD ?
Ans 1. (Succession Planning)

2. (Competency Development)

3. (Performance Management)

4. (Knowledge Management)

Question ID : 6306801381199
Option 1 ID : 6306805438072
Option 2 ID : 6306805438071
Option 3 ID : 6306805438069
Option 4 ID : 6306805438070
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.14 Career planning in training and development primarily involves:

2
Ans 1. aligning employees' career goals with the strategic objectives of the organisation

2. creating personal goals for employees without considering organisational needs

3. limiting training opportunities to senior-level management only

4. focusing on increasing the salary and benefits of employees

Question ID : 6306801371675
Option 1 ID : 6306805399986
Option 2 ID : 6306805399985
Option 3 ID : 6306805399988
Option 4 ID : 6306805399987
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.14 (Fayol) ‘ (Centralisation)’ ?

3
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801370967
Option 1 ID : 6306805397096
Option 2 ID : 6306805397095
Option 3 ID : 6306805397097
Option 4 ID : 6306805397098
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 53/75
04/04/2025, 13:32 cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/258022…

Q.14 Who is considered the 'father of scientific management' for his contributions to
4 improving industrial efficiency through time and motion studies?
Ans 1. Elton Mayo

2. Max Weber

3. Henri Fayol

4. Frederick Winslow Taylor

Question ID : 6306801370155
Option 1 ID : 6306805393810
Option 2 ID : 6306805393808
Option 3 ID : 6306805393807
Option 4 ID : 6306805393809
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.14 (quantitative research)

5 ?
Ans 1. (Random sampling)

2. (Snowball sampling)

3. (Purposive sampling)

4. (Convenience sampling)

Question ID : 6306801370403
Option 1 ID : 6306805394805
Option 2 ID : 6306805394806
Option 3 ID : 6306805394804
Option 4 ID : 6306805394803
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.14 Which of the following HRD assumptions emphasises the capacity for continuous
6 development?
Ans 1. HRD is limited to job training.

2. People are capable of continuous learning and growth.

3. Employees are static in their skillset.

4. HRD is solely about compliance training.

Question ID : 6306801378627
Option 1 ID : 6306805427917
Option 2 ID : 6306805427918
Option 3 ID : 6306805427916
Option 4 ID : 6306805427919
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 54/75
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Q.14 The Systems Approach in management views an organisation as:

7
Ans 1. a collection of individual tasks and functions

2. a hierarchical structure of command and control

3. a set of interconnected parts working together as a whole

4. a sequence of independent activities

Question ID : 6306801377694
Option 1 ID : 6306805424191
Option 2 ID : 6306805424193
Option 3 ID : 6306805424192
Option 4 ID : 6306805424194
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.14 (Projection bias) , ___________________

8
Ans 1. (perceptions)

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801372017
Option 1 ID : 6306805401352
Option 2 ID : 6306805401351
Option 3 ID : 6306805401350
Option 4 ID : 6306805401349
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.14 - , ?
9
Ans 1.

2. (overtime)

3. (vacations)

4.

Question ID : 6306801372212
Option 1 ID : 6306805402141
Option 2 ID : 6306805402138
Option 3 ID : 6306805402140
Option 4 ID : 6306805402139
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 55/75
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Q.15 , ,
0 ,

(ILO) ,

ILO :
:

: , ,

: ,

ILO ,

- ILO
?
Ans 1. (Equality of Opportunity and Treatment)

2. (Elimination of Forced Labour)

3. (Decent Working Conditions)

4. (Freedom of Association)

Question ID : 6306801381268
Option 1 ID : 6306805438342
Option 2 ID : 6306805438341
Option 3 ID : 6306805438343
Option 4 ID : 6306805438340
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.15 , ?
1
Ans 1. (Global trade regulations)

2. (Effective communication)

3. (Tax policies)

4. (Product pricing)

Question ID : 6306801372838
Option 1 ID : 6306805404649
Option 2 ID : 6306805404647
Option 3 ID : 6306805404646
Option 4 ID : 6306805404648
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.15 2020,
2 XYZ

, - ,

2020 , XYZ ,

, 2020 -

2020 ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801381283
Option 1 ID : 6306805438401
Option 2 ID : 6306805438402
Option 3 ID : 6306805438403
Option 4 ID : 6306805438400
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.15 Which of the following best describes the concept of ‘Gig Economy’ in HRM?
3
Ans 1. Outsourcing HR functions to external vendors

2. Hiring full-time employees with long-term contracts

3. Employing temporary, freelance or short-term contract workers

4. Reducing workforce size through lay-offs

Question ID : 6306801378568
Option 1 ID : 6306805427685
Option 2 ID : 6306805427684
Option 3 ID : 6306805427686
Option 4 ID : 6306805427687
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.15 (induction process) ?

4
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801379954
Option 1 ID : 6306805433208
Option 2 ID : 6306805433207
Option 3 ID : 6306805433206
Option 4 ID : 6306805433205
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.15 Which of the following is a common method used in Management Development

5 Programmes (MDPs)?
Ans 1. Ignoring feedback from participants during the programme

2. Offering only online courses for employees

3. Reducing the involvement of experienced managers

4. On-the-job training with mentors

Question ID : 6306801377742
Option 1 ID : 6306805424381
Option 2 ID : 6306805424380
Option 3 ID : 6306805424382
Option 4 ID : 6306805424379
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.15 - (HR) - ?
6
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801371272
Option 1 ID : 6306805398333
Option 2 ID : 6306805398334
Option 3 ID : 6306805398335
Option 4 ID : 6306805398336
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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Q.15 ABC 2013

7 (CSR)
2013 135 , ₹500 , ₹1000
₹5
3 2% CSR

ABC CSR

:
:
:
:

ABC (initiatives) 2013

- 135 CSR

, 2013 135 -
(CSR) ?
Ans 1. 2% CSR

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801381271
Option 1 ID : 6306805438352
Option 2 ID : 6306805438353
Option 3 ID : 6306805438355
Option 4 ID : 6306805438354
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.15 - QWL
8 ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801371467
Option 1 ID : 6306805399138
Option 2 ID : 6306805399137
Option 3 ID : 6306805399140
Option 4 ID : 6306805399139
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 59/75
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Q.15 ?
9
Ans 1. -

2.

3. (engagement )

4. (burnout)

Question ID : 6306801377780
Option 1 ID : 6306805424533
Option 2 ID : 6306805424534
Option 3 ID : 6306805424531
Option 4 ID : 6306805424532
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.16 Which of the following is a commonly used method to evaluate training effectiveness?
0
Ans 1. Conducting exit interviews for new employees

2. Only asking trainers for their opinions on the programme

3. Sending employees a survey after they complete the programme

4. Focusing only on the financial cost of the training programme

Question ID : 6306801371679
Option 1 ID : 6306805400003
Option 2 ID : 6306805400002
Option 3 ID : 6306805400001
Option 4 ID : 6306805400004
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.16 What does 'reality shock' refer to in career management?

1
Ans 1. Lack of job training programmes as compared to job roles

2. Immediate promotion after being hired in an organisation

3. Overly high employee expectations versus the confrontation of a boring job

4. Excessive job rotation practices to train the employees

Question ID : 6306801377373
Option 1 ID : 6306805422918
Option 2 ID : 6306805422920
Option 3 ID : 6306805422917
Option 4 ID : 6306805422919
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

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Q.16 Which of the following tools or techniques is commonly used by Quality Circles to
2 analyse problems and find solutions?
Ans 1. Pareto analysis

2. Job rotation

3. Emotional intelligence assessment

4. Increased workplace stress and burnout

Question ID : 6306801371470
Option 1 ID : 6306805399152
Option 2 ID : 6306805399151
Option 3 ID : 6306805399149
Option 4 ID : 6306805399150
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.16 The rise of gig economy jobs has led to which of the following changes in HRM
3 practices?
Ans 1. A greater emphasis on traditional, full-time employment models

2. A decrease in employee benefits and compensation structures

3. An increased focus on managing temporary, part-time and freelance workers

4. A focus on hiring only senior-level employees with long-term contracts

Question ID : 6306801377722
Option 1 ID : 6306805424299
Option 2 ID : 6306805424300
Option 3 ID : 6306805424301
Option 4 ID : 6306805424302
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.16 (organisational setting) , - (self-serving bias),

4 (perception) ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4. (primacy effect)

Question ID : 6306801371477
Option 1 ID : 6306805399173
Option 2 ID : 6306805399176
Option 3 ID : 6306805399174
Option 4 ID : 6306805399175
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 61/75
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Q.16 Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, how many days' notice is required before a
5 strike in a public utility service?
Ans 1. 7 days

2. 30 days

3. 21 days

4. 14 days

Question ID : 6306801380618
Option 1 ID : 6306805435782
Option 2 ID : 6306805435785
Option 3 ID : 6306805435784
Option 4 ID : 6306805435783
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.16 - ?
6
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801377711
Option 1 ID : 6306805424257
Option 2 ID : 6306805424255
Option 3 ID : 6306805424256
Option 4 ID : 6306805424258
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.16 Which HRD value focuses on building trust and openness within an organisation?
7
Ans 1. Transparency

2. Cost efficiency

3. Competitiveness

4. Centralisation of power

Question ID : 6306801379972
Option 1 ID : 6306805433274
Option 2 ID : 6306805433275
Option 3 ID : 6306805433273
Option 4 ID : 6306805433276
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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Q.16 XYZ , , , ,
8
,

:
- -
-
-
-

,
,

, XYZ ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801382559
Option 1 ID : 6306805443478
Option 2 ID : 6306805443479
Option 3 ID : 6306805443477
Option 4 ID : 6306805443480
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.16 Which HRD mechanism focuses on improving interpersonal relationships within an

9 organisation?
Ans 1. Leadership development programmes

2. Compensation and benefits

3. Organisational development (OD) interventions

4. Employee grievance handling

Question ID : 6306801371456
Option 1 ID : 6306805399095
Option 2 ID : 6306805399096
Option 3 ID : 6306805399093
Option 4 ID : 6306805399094
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 63/75
04/04/2025, 13:32 cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/258022…

Q.17 Which of the following is a major contribution of Henri Fayol to management theory,
0 often referred to as Fayol's 'theorem'?
Ans 1. Emphasised the importance of specialisation and scientific analysis of work to increase
productivity
2. Introduced the theory of motivation that focuses on hierarchy of needs and self-
actualisation
3. Proposed 14 principles of management, including unity of command, authority and
discipline
4. Developed the concept of administrative management with a focus on human relations
and group dynamics

Question ID : 6306801370373
Option 1 ID : 6306805394683
Option 2 ID : 6306805394685
Option 3 ID : 6306805394684
Option 4 ID : 6306805394686
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.17 - HRM ?
1
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801378556
Option 1 ID : 6306805427639
Option 2 ID : 6306805427636
Option 3 ID : 6306805427638
Option 4 ID : 6306805427637
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.17 , 2019 ,' ' ?

2
Ans 1.

2.

3. , DA

4.

Question ID : 6306801387249
Option 1 ID : 6306805462211
Option 2 ID : 6306805462213
Option 3 ID : 6306805462212
Option 4 ID : 6306805462210
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 64/75
04/04/2025, 13:32 cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/258022…

Q.17 What is the maximum age limit for employees to receive benefits under the pension
3 scheme of the Code on Social Security, 2020?
Ans 1. 60 years

2. 65 years

3. 58 years

4. 70 years

Question ID : 6306801372216
Option 1 ID : 6306805402154
Option 2 ID : 6306805402156
Option 3 ID : 6306805402155
Option 4 ID : 6306805402157
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.17 Under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, when do the standing
4 orders come into effect after being certified?
Ans 1. 7 days after certification

2. 30 days after certification

3. On the date specified in the certification

4. Immediately after submission to the Certifying Officer

Question ID : 6306801380670
Option 1 ID : 6306805435993
Option 2 ID : 6306805435991
Option 3 ID : 6306805435992
Option 4 ID : 6306805435990
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.17
5 , -

:
(MDP)
, , ,
MDP
, , - -

:
I. ,

II. MDP - -

Ans 1. I , II

2. I , II

3. I II

4. I II

Question ID : 6306801381383
Option 1 ID : 6306805438807
Option 2 ID : 6306805438804
Option 3 ID : 6306805438806
Option 4 ID : 6306805438805
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 65/75
04/04/2025, 13:32 cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/258022…

Q.17 (career) ?
6
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4. - -

Question ID : 6306801371469
Option 1 ID : 6306805399146
Option 2 ID : 6306805399145
Option 3 ID : 6306805399147
Option 4 ID : 6306805399148
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.17 ABC Tech Solutions, IT ,

7 HR
,
, ,
, ,
,

ABC Tech Solutions HR ?

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801381181
Option 1 ID : 6306805437998
Option 2 ID : 6306805437999
Option 3 ID : 6306805437997
Option 4 ID : 6306805438000
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.17 Which of the following is NOT typically a component of the structure of industrial
8 relations?
Ans 1. Trade unions

2. Employer associations

3. Government intervention

4. Product marketing strategies

Question ID : 6306801372133
Option 1 ID : 6306805401822
Option 2 ID : 6306805401823
Option 3 ID : 6306805401824
Option 4 ID : 6306805401825
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 66/75
04/04/2025, 13:32 cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/258022…

Q.17 Which personality trait from the Big Five model is most closely associated with an
9 individual's emotional stability?
Ans 1. Agreeableness

2. Team dynamics

3. Openness to experience

4. Neuroticism

Question ID : 6306801371474
Option 1 ID : 6306805399165
Option 2 ID : 6306805399167
Option 3 ID : 6306805399166
Option 4 ID : 6306805399168
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.18 XYZ Pvt. Ltd., ,

0

, :
, ,
,

,
- , XYZ Pvt. Ltd. ?
Ans 1.

2. (HRM)

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801380589
Option 1 ID : 6306805435667
Option 2 ID : 6306805435668
Option 3 ID : 6306805435669
Option 4 ID : 6306805435666
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 67/75
04/04/2025, 13:32 cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/258022…

Q.18 (gig economy jobs) -

4 ?
Ans 1.

2.

3. ,

4. ,

Question ID : 6306801371612
Option 1 ID : 6306805399736
Option 2 ID : 6306805399734
Option 3 ID : 6306805399733
Option 4 ID : 6306805399735
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.18 , - ?
5
Ans 1.

2. -

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801386971
Option 1 ID : 6306805461103
Option 2 ID : 6306805461104
Option 3 ID : 6306805461102
Option 4 ID : 6306805461105
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.18 (Systems Approach) ,

6 - ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801377692
Option 1 ID : 6306805424185
Option 2 ID : 6306805424186
Option 3 ID : 6306805424183
Option 4 ID : 6306805424184
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 69/75
04/04/2025, 13:32 cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/258022…

Q.18 How does staffing have a long-term effect on an organisation's operational

7 effectiveness?
Ans 1. By prioritising short-term hiring needs over long-term strategic goals

2. By ensuring that unmotivated employees are retained to maintain consistency

3. By facilitating effective decision-making through a workforce that is skilled, motivated

and capable of adapting to future challenges
4. By limiting employee development opportunities to reduce costs

Question ID : 6306801372365
Option 1 ID : 6306805402746
Option 2 ID : 6306805402747
Option 3 ID : 6306805402749
Option 4 ID : 6306805402748
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.18 - , ?
8
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801386912
Option 1 ID : 6306805460869
Option 2 ID : 6306805460868
Option 3 ID : 6306805460867
Option 4 ID : 6306805460866
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.18 Which of the following is a key objective of labour welfare?

9
Ans 1. To ensure workers' physical, mental and social well-being

2. To reduce government intervention in workplaces

3. To establish a strict disciplinary system in the workplace

4. To increase worker productivity only

Question ID : 6306801378630
Option 1 ID : 6306805427930
Option 2 ID : 6306805427929
Option 3 ID : 6306805427931
Option 4 ID : 6306805427928
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 70/75
04/04/2025, 13:32 cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/258022…

Q.19 According to the findings of the Goal Theory of Performance Management, which of the
0 following statements is FALSE?
Ans 1. Setting goals stimulate effort towards performance outcome.

2. Setting goals increase job security.

3. Setting goals direct attention to priorities.

4. Setting goals challenge people to use their skills.

Question ID : 6306801377130
Option 1 ID : 6306805421924
Option 2 ID : 6306805421925
Option 3 ID : 6306805421923
Option 4 ID : 6306805421926
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.19 (Occupational diseases) ,

1 _______ ,

Ans 1. (respiratory diseases)

2. (mental health issues)

3. (musculoskeletal disorders)

4. (hypertension)

Question ID : 6306801381328
Option 1 ID : 6306805438584
Option 2 ID : 6306805438587
Option 3 ID : 6306805438586
Option 4 ID : 6306805438585
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 71/75
04/04/2025, 13:32 cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/258022…

Q.19 XYZ
2 , 1923 (
)

,
1923

: ,

: ,

XYZ
1923 ,

- , 1923 ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801381270
Option 1 ID : 6306805438349
Option 2 ID : 6306805438351
Option 3 ID : 6306805438350
Option 4 ID : 6306805438348
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.19 What is the primary goal of using Artificial Intelligence (AI) in HR processes?
3
Ans 1. To eliminate employee training programmes

2. To replace human decision-making entirely

3. To automate repetitive tasks and improve decision-making accuracy

4. To reduce the number of employees in the HR department

Question ID : 6306801378581
Option 1 ID : 6306805427739
Option 2 ID : 6306805427736
Option 3 ID : 6306805427737
Option 4 ID : 6306805427738
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 72/75
04/04/2025, 13:32 cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/258022…

Q.19
4 ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4. (resumes)

Question ID : 6306801377758
Option 1 ID : 6306805424443
Option 2 ID : 6306805424446
Option 3 ID : 6306805424445
Option 4 ID : 6306805424444
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.19
5 ?
Ans 1. (Forming)

2. (Sorting)

3. (Storming)

4. (Performing)

Question ID : 6306801371481
Option 1 ID : 6306805399199
Option 2 ID : 6306805399200
Option 3 ID : 6306805399197
Option 4 ID : 6306805399198
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.19 Which of the following is a disadvantage of recruiting individuals externally, when

6 qualified people are available within the organisation?
Ans 1. External recruitment often leads to a more diverse workforce.

2. External candidates typically require less training than internal candidates.

3. External recruitment processes are generally faster than internal ones.

4. It can negatively impact employee morale and motivation by overlooking internal

talent.

Question ID : 6306801375563
Option 1 ID : 6306805415426
Option 2 ID : 6306805415427
Option 3 ID : 6306805415428
Option 4 ID : 6306805415429
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 73/75
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Q.19 - ( )
7 ?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801378513
Option 1 ID : 6306805427469
Option 2 ID : 6306805427468
Option 3 ID : 6306805427471
Option 4 ID : 6306805427470
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.19 (Transactional Analysis) ,

8 ?

Ans 1. (Complementary transaction)

2. (Crossed transaction)

3. (Ulterior transaction)

4. (Scripted transaction)

Question ID : 6306801371479
Option 1 ID : 6306805399189
Option 2 ID : 6306805399192
Option 3 ID : 6306805399190
Option 4 ID : 6306805399191
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.19 - , (Laissez-faire) ?
9
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6306801379447
Option 1 ID : 6306805431184
Option 2 ID : 6306805431182
Option 3 ID : 6306805431185
Option 4 ID : 6306805431183
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 74/75
04/04/2025, 13:32 cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/258022…

Q.20 ,
0 _______
Ans 1. (ignoring)

2. (delaying)

3. (avoiding)

4. (implementing)

Question ID : 6306801381286
Option 1 ID : 6306805438413
Option 2 ID : 6306805438412
Option 3 ID : 6306805438415
Option 4 ID : 6306805438414
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1/1258O2521/1258O2521S1D613/17435934410628836/25802201190035_… 75/75