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mekijData Governance Strategy' usually includes the following deliverables Group of
o A Program Plan, a Resource Plan, an Implementation Plan, and a Test Plan
o A Charter, an Operating Framework, an Implementation Roadmap, and a Plan for Operational
Success
o A Charter, a Data Architecture, a Program Data Model, and a Plan for Operational Success
o A Statement of Intent, a Decision Framework, an Implementation Roadmap, and a Governance
Toolkit
o A Charter, a Security Strategy, a Solution Roadmap, and a User Experience Plan
Question 141
The failure to gain acceptance of a business glossary may be due to ineffective
o Metadata Management
o Content and Document Management
o Business Architecture
o Data Security
o Data Governance
Question 201
Data architecture compliance rate measures:
o How complete an attribute list is in an entity
o How closely projects are meeting their timelines
o How closely projects comply with established data architecture
o How fast the database can retrieve data
o How closely projects comply with the development lifecycle
Question 251
First Normal Form:
o Ensures that each entity has no hidden primary keys
o Ensures that each attribute is atomic without repeating groups
o Ensures that each attribute has a balanced proportion of neutrons and protons
o Ensures that each attribute has a definition that makes sense Ensures that the Party Role
structure is correctly represented
Question 341 (data storge and operation)
Database performance depends upon two independent facets. These are
o Distance to data center and network bandwidth
o Availability and speed
o Number of users and number of tables Hardware and network
o Choice of DBMS and programming language
Question 511 (data integration and data interoperability)
Three common interaction models for data integration are
o Plane to point, harvest and seed, publish and subscribe
o Straight copy, curved copy, roundabout copy
o Point to point, hub and spoke, publish and subscribe
o Point to point, wheel and spoke, public and share
o Record and pass, copy and send, read and write
Question 541
The purpose and rationale for data integration should be defined by
o The developers Interoperability
o Requirements the business
o Industry Standards
o Reporting requirements
Question 751
A data lineage tool enables a user to
o Track the historical changes to a data value
o Visualize how the data gets to the data lake
o Track the data from source system to a target database, understanding its transformations
o Enables rapid development of dashboard reporting
o Line up the data to support sophisticated glossary management
Question 761
One of the principles for the implementation of a data warehouse is
o Think and design globally; design internally and outsource build
o Focus on project goals over business goals; design internally and outsource build
o Think and design globally; act and build locally
o Think and design incrementally; act and build globally
o Maintain original designs; adjust requirements to suit implementation
Question 801
A design approach for managing the risk of errors in data marts is
o Purge the data in the data warehouse and reload from the source systems
o Purge the data in the data warehouse and copy back to the data mart
o Purge the data in the data marts and reload from the data warehouse
o Purge the data generally and reload from the best system
o Purge the data in the source system and reload the data warehouse
Question 821
Descriptive metadata describes a resource, enabling its identification and retrieval
o For example, a lump of coal burns about 100 degrees and gives off carbon dioxide
o For example, a document has a number of pages, number of chapters and word count
o For example, a record has version numbers, archive dates and purge dates
o For example, a car has a wheel, an engine and a transmission
o For example, a book has author, title and subject associated with it
Question 851
?How does metadata prevent the use of out-of-date data
Group of answer choices
- It constructs views over current data
- Associating of event data, such as updated data, with the data
- By establishing governance policies on data currency
- It sends alerts to users when data becomes stale
- By incorporating event data, such as updated data, in the data model
Question 991
A website that does not ask for agreement on intended data use is breaching which principle in the
GDPR of the EU
Safegurards
Storage Limitations
Accuracy
Accountability
Purpose Limitation
Question 971
One way of defining ethics is
o Doing it right when someone is looking
o Doing it right when no one is looking
o Doing it wrong, and then apologizing
o Doing it wrong, and then expertly covering it up
o Doing it wrong, and failing to covering it up
Question 31:
Which of the following is NOT a goal of data management?
o Capturing, storing, protecting and ensuring the integrity of data assets
o Preventing unauthorized access, manipulation or use of data and information
o Ensuring the quality of data and information
o Ensuring the privacy and confidentiality of stakeholder data
o Understanding the process needs of the enterprise
Question 61
Knowledge area activities are classified into four categories. They are:
o Procurement, Detailing, Control and Organizing
o Preparation, Detailing, Creating and Deployment
o Planning, Development, Control and Operations
o Planning, Detailing, Control and Organizing
o Procurement, Development, Control and Operations
Question 81
Information governance and data governance should be:
o Managed as integrated functions, with data governance reporting to information
governance
o Managed as separate functions
o Managed as integrated functions, with information governance reporting to data
governance
o Managed as a single function
o Managed by the Chief Information Officer
Question 91
A common driver for data governance is:
o The appointment of CDO
o Irreconcilable figure in Reports
o Internal audits
o Regulatory compliance
o Outsourcing
Question 101
Common understanding of the core business concepts and terminology is the objective of which
deliverable?
o Data Dictionary
o Data warehouse Architecture
o Business Glossary
o Security Framework
o Metadata Repositories
Question 191
The goal of data architecture is to be:
o A bridge too far
o A bridge between business analysis and data modeling
o A bridge between technology strategy and database design
o A bridge between business strategy and technology execution
o A bridge between business execution and technology strategy
Question 201
The key architecture domains include:
o Business, data, application and technology architectures
o Business, data, infrastructure and technology architectures
o Business, strategy, application and technology architectures
o Process, database, software and technology architectures
o Zachmann, TOGAF, Cobit, and Heath architectures
Question 211
An annual enterprise data architecture report is comprised of a summary of enterprise data
model updates, project compliance and variances, and a measurement of:
o Data landscape compliance
o Data warehouse compliance
o Database backup compliance
o Reference and master data compliance
o Data security compliance
Question 221
The ability of an organization to respond to changes in product configuration is easier due to
generalization in the:
o Technical architecture
o Business architecture
o Data architecture
o Data warehousing
o Data quality
Question 231
The repeated implementation of different CRM technologies with different data structures is
mostly a failure of:
o Data security
o Data quality
o Data warehousing
o Data architecture
o Data modeling
Question 241
Over a decade an organization has rationalized implementation of party concepts from 48
systems to 3. This is a result of good:
o System rationalization and metadata management
o Data quality and data governance
o Data operations and system rationalization
o Data architecture and data warehousing
o Data architecture and data governance
Question 261
Data Models are critical to effective management of data, because they: Group of answer
choices
o Control the list of values in dropdown lists in applications
o Strategically prepare organizations to quickly evolve their products and services
o Determine which style of data schema is used in a data warehouse
o Define the rules and approval mechanisms to make changes to the data structures
o Provide a common vocabulary around data
Question 321
The purpose for adding redundancy to a data model (denormalization) is to:
o Avoid the loss of data by storing key values more than once
o Optimize overall database performance across both data access and data update requests
o Fully utilize all the indexes
o Make it easier for developers to join tables
o Ensure surrogate keys are retaining their unique values in all satellite tables
Question 341
Database monitoring tools measure key database metrics, such as:
o Capacity, availability, cache performance, user statistics
o Capacity, design, normalization, user access
o Create, read, update, delete
o Create, read, normalization, user access
o Capacity, availability, backup instances, data quality
Question351
Regulatory data retention requirements drive the need to keep data for set periods for:
o Alternate backup sources
o Customer analytics
o Legal obligations
o Submitting datasets to regulators Historical reporting
Question 381
A database whose index is updated with a crawler program is an example of:
o Database technology called TRIP
o Database technology called BASE
o Database technology called NoSQL
o Database technology called ACID
o Database technology called SQL
Question 401
Periodic archiving of transaction data from a production CRM system is critical for:
o Training junior DBAs
o Providing alternate sources for reporting systems
o Enabling the distribution of transaction data across the enterprise
o The maintenance of database performance
o Managing deleted customer records
Question 411
Information security begins by classifying an organization’s data to:
o Identify which systems need better reporting
o Identify which data needs protection Identify
o the metadata classification values
o Identify which subject area the data belongs in
o Identify which departments need more data
Question 421
A weakness or defect in a system that allows it to be successfully attacked and compromised is
a:
o Vulnerability
o Chasm
o Risk
o Feature
o Threat
Question 431
HTTPS: // indicates that the website is:
o Equipped with a content management system
o Equipped with 3rd party cookies
o Equipped with a foreign language translator
o Equipped with an underlying database
o Equipped with a security layer
Quesion441
Primary drivers of data security activities are:
o Risk reduction and business growth Risk
o control and content management
o Glossary management and risk reduction
o Data quality and intellectual property protection
o Data protection and flexible database design
Quesion451
A staff member has been detected inappropriately accessing client records from usage logs. The
security mechanism being used is an:
o Authorization
o Authentication
o Audit
o Entitlement
o Access
Question 501
A document that stipulates the responsibilities and acceptable use of data to be exchanged is a:
o Data sharing agreement
o Data model
o Project charter
o Interface contract
o Data quality assessment
Question 521
The need to manage data movement efficiently is a primary driver for:
o Document and Content Management
o Data Integration and Interoperability
o Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
o Data Security
o Data Storage and Operations
Question 541
If two data stores are able to be inconsistent during normal operations, then the integration approach
is:
o Synchronous
o Uncontrolled
o Streaming
o Faulty
o Asynchronous
Question 581
An umbrella term for any classification or controlled vocabulary is:
o English
o Metadata
o Data model
o Dictionary
o Taxonomy
Question 591
Which of the following is a reason why organisations do not dispose of non-value- adding
information?
o Storage is cheap and easily expanded
o The organization’s data quality benchmark diminishes
o The information is never out of date
o The metadata repository cannot be updated
o Data modeling the content is hard to reproduce
Question 601
Which statement best describes the relationship between documents and records?
o Documents are a sub-set of records
o Documents and records are the same thing
o Records are a sub-set of documents
o Documents are written and records are audio
o Documents and records are not related
Question 611
Question 611 pts Sentiment analysis of call Centre voice files is performed by text analysis and
stored in a relational database. Which of the following is true?
Group of answer choices
o They are both unstructured data
o The voice files are unstructured data and the sentiment analysis is structured data
o The voice files are structured data and the sentiment analysis is unstructured data
o They are both structured data
o Structured and unstructured data are the same thing
Question 631
The metadata structure for a content management system can be represented with a:
o Authorization matrix
o CRUD matrix
o Mind map
o Data model
o Process model
Question 641
A workforce is locked out of a building due to a threat to personnel. BCP is stored in the DMS. Luckily:
o The workforce are expendable
o The metadata repository holds the BCP
o The security policy includes such a scenario
o The data warehouse catalog is fully operational
o The document is printed and stored off site
Question 651
When assessing tools to implement master data management solutions, functionality must
include:
o Advanced analytics capabilities
o Backup and recovery utilities
o Document and content management
o Sophisticated integration capability
o Auto- normalization features
Question 661
The process of identifying how different records may relate to a single entity is called: Group of
answer choices
Matching
Mangling
Meshing
Mirroring
Munging
Question 701
When trying to integrate a large number of systems, the integration complexities can be
reduced by:
o The use of a common data model
o Using data quality measures and targets.
o Tackling the largest systems first
o Clear business specifications and priorities
o The use of SQL
Question 711
By comparing the system of record and systems of reference to each other, it is possible to:
o Validate the accuracy of the master data
o Update the core reference values
o Validate the consistency of the master data
o Validate the completeness of the master data
o Construct a time variant sequence
Question 721
All the systems in the enterprise, apart from a website, are showing updated pricing
information. This may be due to:
o The website software not integrating with the reference data repository
o The website software does not use standard XML schemas
o The slowly changing dimension has both from and to dates
o The pricing information is not updated in the reference data repository
o The reference data strategy has not been approved by the executive
Question 741
In its broadest context, the data warehouse includes:
o An integrated data store, ETL logic, and extensive data cleansing routines
o All the data in the enterprise
o Data stores and extracts that can be transformed into star schemas
o Either an Inmon or Kimball approach
o Any data stores or extracts used to support the delivery for BI purposes
Question 761
One of the key differences between operational systems and data warehouses is:
o Operational systems focus on data quality; data warehouses focus on data security
o Operational systems focus on current data; data warehouses contain historical data
o Operational systems focus on historical data; data warehouses contain current data
o Operational systems are available 24x7; data warehouses are available during business hours
o Operational systems focus on business processes; data warehouses focus on business
strategies
Question 771
In order to speed up data warehouse development, the data vault approach focuses on the
management of:
o Current data over historical data
o Each data element in the source systems
o Surrogate keys from operational systems
o Alignment of the data dictionaries
o Unique identifiers of enterprise concepts
Question 781
The key concepts of the data vault are:
o Keys, locks and combinations
o Hubs, links and satellites
o Facts, dimensions and time
o Facts, links and satellites
o Hubs, links and planets
Question 801
The uncontrolled duplication of dimensions in a Kimball data warehouse is best controlled by:
o Establishing approval processes after user testing and before implementation
o Adapting the data architecture techniques supporting an Inmon style
o Increased reference data management in source systems
o Replacing the data modeling team
o Establishing approval processes during requirements and design
Question 811
Well executed metadata management enables:
o A consistent design for dimensional reporting
o A consistent authorization framework
o A consistent understanding of data resources
o A consistent understanding of database design
o A consistent approach to data modeling
Question 841
Where is the best place to find the following metadata: database table names, column names
and indexes?
Security access authorization
Detailed business processes
Enterprise data model
Logical data model
Database catalogue
Question 861
A complexity in documenting data lineage is:
o Establishing data quality metrics
o Conflicting application requirements from data owners
o Choosing which content management software to use
o Different data element names and formats
o Identifying source databases
Question 931
When a data quality team has more issues than they can manage, they should look to:
o Establish a program of quick wins targeting easy fixes over a short time period
o Hire more people
o Delete any issue that is greater than 6 months old
o Implement data validation rules on data entry systems
o Initiate data quality improvement cycles, focusing on achieving incremental improvements
Question 961
Which DMBoK knowledge area is most likely responsible for a high percentage of returned
mail?
o Data Integration and Interoperability
o Reference and Master Data
o Data Quality
o Data Warehousing and Business
o Intelligence Metadata Management
Queswion 971
A 'Data Lake' is an environment where a vast amount of data can be:
o Digested, processed, deleted and visualized
o Ingested, screened, obfuscated and purged
o Updated, obfuscated, nullified and cleansed
o Ingested, shared, assessed and analyzed
o Purged, sorted, split and scanned
Question 981
A 'Data Swamp' is a data lake that has become:
o Modeled, managed and muddy
o Messy, unclean and inconsistent
o A data asset that uses machine learning
o Overly cataloged, holding information and data
o Suitable for frogs, toads and salamanders
Question 991
An organization that parses its call Centre audio files to assess the emotional state of its callers
is using:
o Predictive analysis
o Reactive analysis
o Overly invasive monitoring analysis
o Sentiment analysis
o Voice recognition techniques
Quiz 3
A document that describes how data will be made more accessible over 3-5 years is called:
o A data management strategy
o Data quality metrics
o A data collection standard
o An analytics strategy
o A data warehouse design
Quiz3
Data governance represents:
o federated government style of data management
o A joint effort in defining the data quality rules and profiling the data
o An inherent separation of duty between oversight and execution
o An organisation structure with a number of key roles
o An initiative that addresses the financial accuracy of the balance sheet
Question 121
The goal of data governance is to enable an organisation to manage data as an asset. To achieve
this, the DG programs must be:
o Fixed to achieve a successful outcome in a defined time period
o Represented by finance during the process for acquiring and disposing of the data asset
o Able to assign a dollar value to a data asset in order to determine the appropriate cost-to-
investment ratio for budgeting purposes
o Sustainable, to be created as an ongoing practice with leadership, sponsorship and
ownership
o Able to register the data asset with the financial controller to ensure it is managed like all
other asset
Question 141
Data Stewards are most likely to be responsible for:
o Data Integration and Interoperability
o Data Modeling and Data Security
o Data Governance and Data Quality
o Content and Document Management
o Data Storage and Operations
Question 171
An enterprise data model would be composed of:
o Enterprise models, data models and compositional models
o Logical models, physical models and infrastructure models
o Conceptual models, logical models and physical models
o Conceptual models, subject area models and logical models
o Conceptual models, star schema models and interface models
——————
The necessity of representing organizational data at different levels of abstraction is:
o Because most database administrators need specifications to build databases with
appropriate response times
o Because most organizations have more data than individual people can comprehend,
understand and make decisions about
o Because most Chief Data Officers do not have the technical background to be held
accountable for complex data diagrams
o Because most organizations need to accommodate to the different points of view of
information architecture and data architecture
o Because most architects want to deploy a complete suite of drawings for project deliverabl
Question 261
Which of the following is not a type of data that is commonly modelled?
o Business Event information
o Detail transaction information
o Category information
o Historical information
o Resource information
————-
A data model that consists of a single fact table linked to important concepts of the business is
a:
o Transition State Model
o Process Model
o Relational Model
o Machine Learning Model
o Dimensional Model
Question 281
A data model:
o Group of answer choices
o Must exist in a data modeling tool
o Documents a concise definition of data structures and relationships
o Governs the implementation of the 'order to pay' business process lifecycle
o Records recent user access to enable the assessment of security anomalies
o Documents how data is passed between systems
Question 291
A relationship that allows an address to be used by multiple people, and each person can have
multiple addresses, can be resolved:
o By changing the role names of the foreign keys on Person and Address to ensure referential
integrity
o With an associative entity called Person Address Usage and two, 'one to many' relationships
o By changing the primary keys on Person and Address to ensure referential integrity
o With an additional relationship describing the address usage
o With a partnership entity called Person Address Usage and two, 'one to many' relationships
Question 311
A project scope includes the collection, exchange and reporting of data from multiple systems.
Conceptual, logical and physical data models are maintained. How many models of each type can be
expected?
o The same number of each of the model types
o More physical data models than logical data models, and more logical data models than
conceptual data models
o More conceptual data models than logical data models, and more logical data models than
physical data models
o More logical data models than physical data models, and more logical data models than
conceptual data models
o Only 1 conceptual data model, 1 logical data model and 1 physical data model
——————-
Question 331
The goals of data storage and operations are:
o Managing user experience, ensuring data access and managing data lifecycles
o Managing accessibility, ensuring authorized access and managing performance
o Managing user experience, ensuring consistency and managing glossaries
o Managing availability, ensuring consistency and managing glossaries
o Managing availability, ensuring integrity and managing performance
Question 371
The best way to validate that a database backup is working, is to:
o Periodically recover from the backup file
o Appoint a special DBA in charge of backups
o Check the size of the backup file
o Check for the automatic email notification of backup success
o Check the backup logs every day
Question 411
In data security, which of the following is not one of the four A's:
Agile Access
Authorization
Audit
Authentication
Question 451
The requirement to enter a username, a password and then a code sent to an authentication app
is called:
o Biometric authentication
o 3-factor authentication
o Mobile authentication
o Proactive authentication
o 2-factor authentication
Question 511
Integrating two data stores using batch or real-time synchronous approaches results in a
difference in:
o Source of truth
o Lethargy
o Timestamping
o Data quality
o Latency
Question 561
Misclassification of transactions through integration is often caused by inconsistent:
o Reference data
o Data quality
o Master data
o Business intelligence
o Content management
Question 591
In 2009, ARMA International published GARP for managing records and information. GARP stands for:
o Global Accredited Recordkeeping Principles
o G20 Approved Recordkeeping Principles
o Gregarious Archive of Recordkeeping Processes
o Generally Acceptable Recordkeeping Principles
o Generally Available Recordkeeping Practices
Question 611
The addition of workflow to a content management system will:
o Restructure an enterprise glossary
o Enable the controlled review and approval of documents
o Implement a data warehouse landing zone
o Allow the approval of system access requests
o Enforce the controlled review and approval of database designs
Question 651
An authoritative system where data is created/captured, and/or maintained through a defined
set of rules and expectations is called:
o A System of Systems
o A System of Record
o A System of Reference
o A System of Retirement
o A System of Referential Integrity
Question 681 pts
Master data is data about:
o Data values stored and displayed in uppercase
o Authority to grant access to data across an organisation
o Business transactions, e.g. financial transactions, enquiries and service call interactions
o Business entities, e.g. products, customers, assets and locations
o Database structures and response time performance targets
Initiatives focused on building a 'single view of customer' mainly rely on which DMBOK
knowledge area?
o Reference and Master Data
o Data Security
o Data Storage and Operations
o Data Architecture
o Metadata Management
Question 731
Critical to the incremental development of the data warehouse is:
o A strong capacity management process
o A agile development team
o The assurance to include velocity, variety and veracity measurement
o A strong release management process
o A strong incident management process
Question 821
Data provenance and data lineage are examples of:
o Technical metadata
o Strategic metadata
o Business metadata
o Industry metadata
o Operational metadata
Question 831 pts
By setting, enforcing and auditing metadata standards, organisations hope to:
Provide activities for the data governance office
Ease of understanding data dictionaries
Simplify integration and enable use
Standardize business rules in operational processes
Ensure the appropriate classification or meta-metadata
Question 841 pts
The ISO Metadata Registry Standard that provides a framework for defining a metadata registry
is:
o ISO MD 1
o ISO / IEC 11179
o ISO 4-20-99
o ISO 9001
o ISO 4590
Question 871
The disclosure of sensitive addresses may occur through:
o Software ignoring privacy tags on the data.
o Stored procedures being called directly
o Inappropriate use of photocopier toner
o Cloud-based databases
o Ineffective implementation of data architecture
Question 891
Data quality measurements can be taken at three levels of granularity. They are:
o Departmental data, regional data, and enterprise data
o Person data, location data, and product data
o Fine data, coarse data, and rough data
o Data element value, data instance or record, and data set
o Historical data, current data and future dated data
Question 921 pts
Which of the following is NOT required to effectively track data quality incidents?
o An operational workflow that ensures effective resolution
o An effective service level agreement with defined rewards and penalties
o A standard vocabulary for classifying data quality issues
o An assignment process to appropriate individuals and teams
o A well defined system of escalation based on the impact, duration, or urgency of an issue
Question 961 pts
A pensioner who was sent a $100,000,000 electricity bill was a victim of poor data quality checks
in which dimension?
o Timeliness
o Heuristics
o Precision
o Accuracy
o Reasonableness
Question 971
Big data management requires:
Big ideas with big budgets
No discipline at all
More discipline than relational data management
Less discipline than relational data management
A certification in data science
Question 981
Big data is often defined by three characteristics. They are:
Expansive, Engaged and Enormous
Volume, Variety and Velocity
Direction, Depth and Details
Size, Speed and Sensitivity
Complexity, Compliance and Completeness
Question 1001
In data handling ethics, 'social license' refers to the alignment between:
o Public perception and published fact Social and
o political decision matrices Stakeholder
o expectations and the organization
o Stakeholder demands and technology deliverables
o Society's needs and their right to access data
Question 11
The 'Data Management Body of Knowledge' is produced by:
o The Project Management Institute
o The Data Practitioner Association
o The Data Analysis Association
o The Data Management Authority
o The Data Management Association
Question 21
Which of the following is NOT an approach to data valuation?
o Enterprise data modeling.
o What the data could be sold for.
o Cost of obtaining and storing data.
o Expected revenue from innovative uses of data.
o Cost of replacing data if it were lost.
Question 31 pts Data management is the development, execution and supervision of
plans, policies, programs and practices that deliver control, protect and enhance:
o enterprise management capabilities.
o the value of information assets.
o the value of data assets.
o the value of data and information assets.
o data and information assets.
Question 41
The DAMA Wheel contains:
o knowledge areas
o data strategy initiatives
o data management processes
o data management deliverables
o maturity model dimensions
Question 51
Data and information are:
o completely separate things.
o representations of truth.
o used only in the context of business intelligence.
o intertwined and dependent on each other.
o pillars of the modern organizational Parthenon.
Question 61
The 'DMBOK Environmental Factors hexigon' shows the relationship between:
o people, process and technology.
o people, software and tools.
o DMBOK knowledge areas.
o inputs, activities and deliverables.
o business, application and technology architecture.
Question 71
In the common enterprise architecture model coded BIAT, the 'I' stands for:
o Instance
o Interoperability
o Identification
o Integration
o Information
Question 81
Information is created and used by:
o processes
o computers
o Users
o technology
o applications
Question 91
The Data Governance Steering Committee is best described as:
o the representatives of data use on project steering committees.
o the primary and highest authority responsible for the oversight and support of data
governance activities.
o the local or divisional council, working under auspices of the CDO.
o a burden to the agile delivery in a modern enterprise.
o the community of interest, focused on specific subject areas or projects.
Question 101
What area do you not consider when developing a 'data governance operating model'?
o The value of data to the organisation.
o Cultural factors - such as acceptance of discipline and adaptability to change.
o The business model - decentralized versus centralized.
o The availability of industry data models.
o Impact of regulation.
Question 111
The primary role of a data steward is:
o to encourage certification in data management best practices across the organisation.
o to manage data assets on behalf of others and in the best interests of the organisation.
o to manage the data quality business unit.
o to interfere in IT projects.
o to perform program code reviews.
Question 121
The purpose of data governance is to ensure that:
o data can be reported on by the business line.
o data is managed properly, according to policies and best practices.
o data will be understood by all stakeholders.
o data is backed up every night.
o data is available for other systems to use.
Question 131
An effective Data Governance communication program should include the following
o Regular newsletters.
o A custom training program.
o Events that encourage informal networking.
o All answers.
o A Data Governance Portal.
Question 141
The steps followed in managing data issues include:
o Standardization, Allocation, Assignment, and
o Correction Escalation, Review, Allocation and Completion
o Read, Guess, Code, Release
o Standardization, Explanation, Ownership, and Completion
o Standardization, Assignment, Escalation, and Completion
Question 151
The advantage of a decentralized data governance model over a centralized model is:
o an increased level of ownership from local decision-making groups.
o the cheaper execution of data governance operations.
o the common metadata repository configurations.
o the easier implementation of industry data models.
o having a common approach to resolving data governance issues.
Question 161
Following the rollout of a data issue process, there have been no issues recorded in the first
month. The reason for this might be:
o Staff staying back late to enter the issues into the system.
o The denial of overtime requests.
o Lack of credibility in the data governance process to affect changes.
o The automatic deletion of all issues in the database.
o There are no data issues in the enterprise.
Question 171
Data flows can be represented by:
o two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data users and data consumers.
o two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data entities and data quality.
o two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data facts and data dimensions.
o two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data entities and business
processes.
o two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data users and business
processes.
Question 181 When a project specification is reviewed by the enterprise data architect, which
of the following is not a consideration:
o whether entities and definitions need to be generalised or improved to handle future trends.
o whether entities on individual screens and reports align with the database.
o whether to reuse existing or develop new data delivery architectures.
o what entities in the requirements should be included back into the overall enterprise data
architecture.
o whether enterprise-wide entities conform to agreed standards.
Question 191
"According to the ISO/IEC 42010:2007 Software and Systems Engineering - Architecture
Description, which of the following describes the definition of architecture:"
o the fundamental responsibility for delivering the best systems at the lowest cost.
o the fundamental rules for ensuring the information captured in the architected solution is
enforcing data quality and completeness.
o the fundamental view of how the system should be built and how it will be maintained.
o The fundamental organization of a system, and the principles governing its design and
evolution."
o the fundamental collection of all artefacts that describes a system and how they work
together.
Question 201
Which of the following activities is NOT a way that enterprise data architecture influences the
scope boundaries of projects:
o providing enterprise data requirement for projects.
o enforcing data architecture standards.
o ensuring enterprise business processes are effectively documented.
o ensuring sufficient data replication controls are in place.
o performing design reviews to ensure support of long-term organisational strategy.
Question 211
The implementation of data architecture exposes the transformation of data as it moves across
the landscape. A common name for this concept is:
o data discovery.
o Data interfacing.
o data modeling.
o "Extract, transformation and load."
o data lineage.
Question 221
A data architecture team is best described as:
o a group of strong database administrators.
o an operational data provisioning group.
o the authors of reference data.
o a strategic planning and compliance team.
o A well-managed project of architecture development
Question 231
A data architect is best deployed:
o to manage the delivery of all the data aspects of a program.
o after the project completes to identify weaknesses and lessons learned.
o to build the database solution.
o during the early stages of a project to define and shape a strategic solution.
o by project managers to sign off all data deliverables.
Question 241
The data architect needs to propagate data across the landscape in real time. This requires the
leveraging of the following DMBoK knowledge areas:
o "Data architecture, data modeling and design, and data security."
o "Data architecture, integration and interoperability, data storage and operations."
o "Data architecture, data governance and metadata management."
o "Data architecture, data quality and content, and document management."
o "Data architecture, metadata management and data security."
Question 251
A lineage data tool provides:
o a temporal distortion of data values across systems.
o ancestoral origin of data DNA.
o a clean line between columns in the same entity.
o the capture and maintenance of source structures for each attribute on the data model.
o scope for reporting requirements.
Question 261
In data modeling practice, entities are linked by:
o cardinality
o indexes
o trigger
o processes
o relationships
Question 271
The deliverables for a data modeling process do not have to include:
o lineage describing where the data came from.
o definitions for entities, attributes and relationships.
o one or more diagrams.
o issues and outstanding questions.
o the steps in the business process that use the data.
Question 281
The implementation of a 'Super Type - Sub Type' structure can use the following 2 options:
o Subtype Absorption and Supertype Partition
o Super-Subtype Merge and Super-Subtype
o Split Supertype Rollover and Subtype Rollunder
o Super-Subtype Split and Super-Subtype Merge
o Supertype Absorption and Subtype Partition
Question 291
In a data model, domains can be used for:
o reducing the amount of coding required in the database.
o separating concepts into business ideas.
o consolidation of data into subject areas.
o consistency and standardization of data value
o public viewing of the data model.
Question 301
Each person has zero or more addresses, and each address must be allocated to 1 person. This is
an example of:
o a 'one to one' relationship
o a 'zero to many' relationship
o an indirect foreign key
o a 'one to many' relationship
o a 'many to many' relationship
Question 311
During the initial scoping of a project, a data model can be used to:
o determine the impact of business processes and customer lifecycles.
o plan the structure of the metadata repository.
o identify detailed impact on all the tables in a database that must be changed.
o determine the security requirements for accessing the data.
o provide a clear definition of affected and non-affected data entities.
Question 321:
Significant operational issues have been caused by the implementation of a data model that
represents a Customer Agreement as a ternary relationship between Enterprise, a customer, and
their Contact Person. Which of the following describes the likely operational issue?
o Every time the Customer Agreement was renewed, a new Contact Person record was
required.
o Every time the customer changes addresses the address for the contact person must change
as well.
o In the event of a merger between enterprises, the contact person addresses need to be
updated.
o Response time for retrieving the Customer Agreement degrades rapidly due to the lack of
indexing.
o Every time the contact person changes, the customer agreement needs to be re- established
Question 331
The acronym ACID stands for:
o available, corrupt, isolation and durable.
o available, completeness, isolation and dangerous.
o actual, created, identified and deleted.
o atomicity, consistency, isolation and durability.
o atomicity, completeness, independence and durability.
question 341:
Production DBA's would not normally take responsibility for:
o implementing mechanisms for clustering and failovers of the database.
o the fitness of purpose for data in the database.
o executing other database maintenance activities, such as archiving.
o implementing backup and recovery mechanisms.
o ensuring performance and reliability of the database.
Question 351:
Data replication is useful as it provides:
o opportunities to secure sensitive data.
o an alternative to backups.
o the ability to spread the workload across multiple databases.
o insights into customer retention.
o enables different table structures to be built.
Question 361
A sandbox is a type of database environment used for:
o low budget projects.
o remote users.
o proofs of concept and to test hypotheses.
o production backups.
o user acceptance testing.
Question 371
A database that is growing at 100% per annum compound will be:
o 2 times its original size at the end of year 5.
o 6 times its original size at the end of year.
o 3 times its original size at the end of year 2.
o 4 times its original size at the end of year 2.
o half its original size at the end of year 2.
Question 381
When reviewing data access plans, sequential searching is slowing the database. One way to fix
this is:
o reducing the number of database users.
o creating new indexes.
o adding more memory.
o moving the database to the cloud.
o converting it to an in-memory database.
Question 391
An application uses a single service account for all database access. One of the risks of this
approach is:
o the application freezes more often.
o the ability to trace who made changes to the data.
o the data becomes out of order.
o it constrains the application from running parallel processes.
o the database runs out of threads.
Question 401
A database uses foreign keys from code tables for column values. This is a way of implementing:
o event data.
o master data.
o temporal data.
o star schema data.
o reference data.
Question 411
The standard for a strong password is set by the:
o Data modeling standard
o data security standard.
o data access standard.
o data naming standard.
o identity management standard.
Question 421
The percentage of enterprise computers having the most recent security patch installed is a metric of
which knowledge area?
o Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
o Data Quality
o Data Storage and Operations
o Metadata Management
o Data Security
Question 431
The stakeholder requirements for privacy and confidentiality are goals found in:
o metadata management.
o data security.
o document and content management.
o data quality.
o data architecture.
Question 441
Obfuscation التشويشof data is to:
o collect data from obscure sources.
o put it in different databases.
o make it obscure or unclear.
o use synonyms for the same term.
o make the result clear.
Question 451
A security mechanism that searches for customer bank account details in outgoing emails is
achieving the goal of:
o ensuring stakeholder requirements for response time and availability levels are met.
o ensuring stakeholder requirements for service design and experience are met.
o ensuring stakeholder requirements for concise definitions and usage are met.
o ensuring stakeholder requirements for openness and transparency are met.
o ensuring stakeholder requirements for confidentiality and privacy are met.
Question 461
A denial-of-service attack is typically accomplished by:
o flooding the target machine with superfluous requests.
o corrupting the username and passwords.
o a stop-work action by the workforce.
o emailing virus laden attachments.
o interrupting the mains electricity supply.
Question 471
Compound authorization groups provide a means to:
o obfuscate a user's actual access to a system.
o distract the data security officer.
o encrypt sensitive transmissions of data.
o effectively prepare for data security audits.
o precisely configure an individual's access to a system.
Question 481
A DMZ is bordered by 2 firewalls. These are between the DMZ and the:
o internet; for added security.
o internet and intranet.
o Korean peninsula.
o internet and extranet.
o internet and internal systems.
Question 491:
Data that is used infrequently or not at all may be moved to an alternative data store. This is
called:
o auditing
o authentication
o archiving
o replication
o analysis
Question 501:
Mapping requirements and rules for moving data from source to target enables:
o Extract
o Load backups
o Transformation
o analysis
Question 511:
Integrating two data stores using batch or real-time synchronous approaches results in a
difference in:
o latency
o data quality
o source of truth
o lethargy
o timestamping
Question 521:
In data integration, the goal of data discovery is to:
o identify potential sources and assure data recovery processes are compliant.
o identify key users and perform high level assessment of data quality.
o assign data glossary terms and data formats.
o assign data glossary terms and canonical models.
o identify potential sources and perform high-level assessment of data quality.
Question 531:
Implementing a services-oriented architecture will often use:
o a data lake.
o an enterprise services bus.
o ETL servers.
o data visualization tools.
o a data modeling tool.
Question 541
The ability of a photo app to share its images with various social media applications is an
example of:
o metadata
o replication
o rendering
o integration
o interoperability
Question 551 pts
The creation of overly complex enterprise integration over time is often a symptom of:
o multiple integration technologies.
o multiple data owners.
o multiple data warehouses.
o multiple metadata tags.
o multiple application coding languages.
Question 561
The implementation of a 'master data repository’, which is integrated across the enterprise, is an
example of which integration approach?
o Replication
o Change Data Capture
o Hub and Spoke
o Publish and Subscribe
o Point to point
Question 571
An enterprise content management system (ECM) stores the following:
o backups of the enterprise's data warehouse.
o "Documents and images, but not multi-media."
o Kanban boards.
o information to be displayed on websites and contained in documents.
o code and test scripts for enterprise development environments.
Question 581
A goal of document and content management is to ensure effective and efficient retrieval and
use of:
o data and information in relational formats.
o "Data, but not information in unstructured formats."
o data and information in unstructured formats.
o "Information, but not data in unstructured formats."
o data and information in structured formats.
Question 591
Which of the following is not a step in the 'document and content management lifecycle'?
o Manage retention and disposal.
o Audit documents and records.
o Manage versions and control.
o Create a content strategy.
o Capture records and content.
Question 601
"Planning, implementation and control activities for lifecycle management of data and
information, found in any form or medium, pertain to which knowledge area?"
o Metadata Management
o Document and Content Management
o Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
o Data Integration and Interoperability
o Data Storage and Operations
Question 611
Users continue to use a shared drive instead of a new document management system. This may
be due to:
o The document management system is too expensive.
o a failure to backup the shared drive.
o concern about the ability to version documents.
o Concurrent updates to the document are handled better by the shared drive.
o onerous classification requirements when adding documents.
Question 621 pts
"An enterprise's organization chart has multiple levels, each with a single reporting line. This is
an example of a:"
o hierarchical taxonomy.
o ecological taxonomy.
o compound taxonomy.
o flat taxonomy.
o hybrid taxonomy.
Question 631
A search engine database is populated by a web crawler or spider software that usually
processes as:
o "continually repeating, always performing (CRAP)."
o "basically available, soft state, eventually consistent (BASE)."
o "atomic, consistent, isolated, durable (ACID)."
o "linearly independent, near exact (LINE)."
o "fundamentally available, consistently true (FACT)."
Question 641
"Integrating data security with document and content management knowledge areas, guides the
implementation of:"
o fitness for purpose metrics for unstructured data.
o appropriate access and authorization to unstructured data.
o straight-through processing for NoSQL queries.
o appropriate access and authorisation to structured data.
o appropriate privacy controls on data marts.
Question 651
Reference data is used to:
o backup strategies. populate fact
o tables in a data mart.
o categories or classify data.
o enforce enterprise security standards.
o dedupe customer records.
Question 661
A goal of reference and master data management is for data to ensure shared data is:
o secure, auditable, complete and relevant
o secure, auditable, publicly available and free.
o complete, consistent, content and relevant.
o continuous, consistent, current and private.
o complete, consistent, current and authoritative.
Question 671
One of the first steps in a master data management program is to:
o secure funding for 20 years of operations.
o build multiple data marts.
o decommission similar data collection systems.
o review data security protocols.
o evaluate and assess data sources.
Question 681 pts
Data that is required across business processes, areas and systems is called:
o Reference and Master Data.
o Event Data.
o Important Data.
o A Data Mart.
o Static Data.
Question 691
In order to gain endorsement to extend the use of reference and master data across the
enterprise, a key supporting DMBOK knowledge area is:
o Data Storage and Operations.
o Data Architecture.
o Data Governance.
o Document and Content Management.
o Data Security.
Question 701
The loading of country codes into a CRM is a classic:
o transaction data integration.
o reference data integration.
o Master data integration
o analytics data integration.
o fact data integration.
Question 711 pts
The independent updating of data into a system of reference is likely to cause:
o reference data inconsistencies.
o duplicate data.
o transaction data inconsistencies.
o Master data inconsistences
o deadlocks in the database.
Question 721
An emergency contact phone number would be found in which master data management
program?
o Product
o Asset
o Service
o Location
o Employee
Question 731
The business case for enterprise warehousing is:
o to reduce data redundancy, improve information consistency, and enable an enterprise to
use its data to make better decisions.
o to increase data redundancy, align information glossaries, and enable an enterprise to
exploit machine learning techniques.
o to reduce data overload, improve information governance, and enable an enterprise to use
its data to make better decisions.
o to increase data distribution, improve information generation, and enable an enterprise to
use its data to increase revenue.
o to align data systems, improve source system management, and to enable an enterprise
exploit machine learning technique.
Question 741
Critical to the success of the data warehouse is the ability to explain the data. The DMBoK
knowledge area that practices these techniques is:
o Metadata Management
o Data Storage and Operations
o Data Architecture
o Document & Content Management
o Reference and Master Data
Question 751
During the implementation of a data warehouse, a roadmap is used to:
o construct intricate security authorization.
o articulate user requirements.
o demonstrate progress towards the desired end state.
o articulate data quality checkpoints.
o demonstrate alignment to the project plan.
Question 761
One of the difficulties when integrating multiple source systems is:
o determining valid links or equivalences between data elements.
o maintaining documentation describing the data warehouse operation.
o completing the data architecture on time for the first release.
o modifying the source systems to align to the enterprise data model.
o having a data quality rule applicable to all source systems.
Question 771 pts
A data warehouse deployment with multiple ETL, storage and querying tools often suffers due
to the lack of:
o disk space on the big data platform.
o integration of the dictionaries to achieve common understanding.
o quality data modelers.
o common data types in the source datasets.
o conflict between software vendors.
Question 781
A key feature of Bill Inmon's approach to data warehousing is:
o its ability to operate on open-source platforms.
o a preference for supporting operational reporting.
o a normalized relational model to store and manage data.
o tight management of data dimensions.
o an exclusive focus on star schemas and cubes.
Question 791
De-identifying sensitive data in a data warehouse enables:
o a reduced complexity in the data models.
o increased utilization without compromising data privacy.
o a bypass in the need to assess data quality.
o a focus on re-identifying records with 3rd party datasets.
o certainty of complete datasets for interrogation.
Question 801
In a data warehouse, where the classification lists for organization type are inconsistent in
different source systems, there is an indication that there is a lack of focus on:
o Data Modeling
o Master data
o Metadata Management
o Reference data
o Data Storage
Question 811
Discovering and documenting metadata about physical data assets provides:
o an estimation of balance sheet value of enterprise data.
o information on how data is transformed as it moves between systems.
o scoping boundaries of the data dictionary.
o effective project scope management.
o insights into the temporal data quality.
Question 821
A goal of metadata management is to manage data related business terminology in order to:
o ensure people understand data definition in BI systems.
o ensure accurate data requirements are gathered for reporting.
o ensure people understand data content and can use data consistently.
o successfully size the database.
o ensure the business processes align to the data model.
Question 831
Metadata is often categorized into three types, they are:
o business, technical and strategic
o business, strategic and meta-metadata
o operational, reporting and analytical
o business, technical and operational
o technical, infrastructure and instance
Question 841
The role of Metadata in Data Management is:
o to help organizations understand its data, its systems and its workflows
o to display appropriate data on screens and reports
o to provide effective decision making
o to group common data concepts
o to build a big data solution
Question 851
Tagging a column as personally identifiable information is an example of:
o Data dictionary
o Metadata
o Data Architecture
o Data Quality
o Data profiling
Question 861
One of a business data steward's key responsibility is to:
o manage data storage and operations
o manage the calendar of the business data owner
o manage metadata
o Manage Business process implementation
o manage the availability of the business intelligence solution
Question 871
A report displaying birth date contains possible but incorrect values. What is a possible explanation?
o Birth date is populated from a single source system, which contains missing values.
o Birth date is populated from two source systems: one of which stores marriage date in the
birth date field.
o Birth date is populated from two source systems; both of which record the birth date in the
birth date field.
o Birth date is populated from a single source system, which does not contain birth date.
o Birth date is populated from a single source system, where the date field is an offset value of
1601.
Question 881
The search function associated with a document management store is failing to return known
artefacts. This is due to a failure of:
o maintaining appropriate metadata on each document.
o data privacy and confidentiality procedures.
o effective data quality metrics.
o business intelligence implementation.
o maintaining public access to all documents in the document management store.
Question 951
A Data Quality dimension is:
o Group of answer choices
o a valid value in a list.
o a core concept in dimensional modeling.
o the value of a particular piece of data.
o a measurable feature or characteristic of data.
o one aspect of data quality used extensively in data governance
Question 901
Which of the following is NOT a preventative action for creating high quality data:
o Train data producers.
o Automated correction algorithms capable of detecting and correcting errors.
o Institute formal data change control.
o Implement data governance and stewardship.
o Establish data entry controls.
Question 911
Which of the following is NOT a stage in the Shewhart / Deming Cycle that drives the data
quality improvement lifecycle:
o Investigate
o Plan
o Do
o Check
o Act
Question 921
A data quality program should limit its scope to:
o the data that is of interest to the Chief Executive Officer.
o all the data stored in the enterprise.
o the data that changes most often.
o the data most critical to the enterprise and its customers.
o the highest profile program with the best benefits.
Question 931
'Top down' and 'bottom up' data analysis and profiling are best done in concert because:
o It allows the profiler to show the business the true state of the data.
o It gets everyone involved.
o It balances business relevance and the actual state of the data.
o It gives something for the architects to do while the profilers get on with the work.
o Data quality tools are more productive when they are effectively configured.
Question 941 pts
Which of the following is the best example of the data quality dimension of 'consistency':
o The phone numbers in the customer file do not adhere to the standard format.
o The revenue data in the dataset is always $100 out.
o All the records in the CRM have been accounted for in the data warehouse.
o The source data for the end of month report arrived 1 week late.
o The customer file has 50% duplicated entries.
Question 951
A data quality report assesses the coding of deposit transactions. The following variations in the
coding is apparent: DEP, Dep, dep, dEp. Which DMBoK knowledge area has been ignored?
o Metadata Management
o Data Governance
o Reference and Master Data
o Data Storage and Operations
o Data Quality
Question 961
Which of the following is the best example of a 'documented data quality rule':
o Every transaction recorded must be processed by 12:05 am by authorised personnel who will
validate balances and data delivery to branches.
o The transaction data from all satellite systems needs to reflect actual customer balances each
morning.
o The transaction data from all satellite systems needs to be ready by 12:05 am in order to
feed the overnight batching window, to ensure branches have access to actual customer
balances.
o Each transaction data file holding customer transactions must be kept confidential to the
authorised users within the operations team.
o All transaction data in the core banking systems need to be processed at 12:05 am each day
regardless of the business calendrer day and timezone.
Question 971 pts
"The ethics of data handling Centre on several core concepts. They are:"
o "Access to data, potential for misuse and storage cost."
o "Impact on people, potential for misuse and economic value."
o "Impact on people, potential for re-use and storage cost."
o "Privacy, security and authorisation."
o "Accurate business glossary, data quality and reference data."
Question 981 pts
GDPR and PIPEDA are examples of:
o global data modeling standards.
o content management systems.
o data protection regulations.
o data program rules.
o primary information parsing algorithms.
Question 991 pts An application that attempts to predict future outcomes through probability
estimates is called:
o just-in-time reporting
o predictive analytics
o dimensional analytics
o Descriptive Analytics
o reactive analytics
Question 1001
"A machine learning algorithm that incorrectly classifies new data values may have a problem
with population imbalances in:"
o reference data management.
o predictive analytics.
o big data architecture.
o model training data.
o metadata management.
Question 1
has the same stage as the system delivery lifecycle.
o Hardware management.
o Is used primarily for data archiving.
o Is only important in regulated industries
o Exists beyond the system delivery lifecycle
o Is not relevant in an agile environment.
Question 2
DQ-The data quality management cycle has four stages. three are Plan, Monitor & Act. What is
fourth stage?
o Improve.
o Prepare.
o Reiterate.
o Deploy.
o Manage.
Question 3
DQ-Which of these is a key process in defining Producing data quality business rules?
o Matching data from different data sources.
o Producing data quality reports & dashboards
o De-duplicating data records
o Producing data management policies
o Separating data that does not meet business needs from the data that Does
Question 4
DG-Communicating the value of Data Governance can be approached in a number of ways. which of
the following approaches is NOT a recognised way of doing this?
o Providing only negative communication on ongoing data issues to key executive
stakeholders
o Maintain in intranet website
o publishing a regular newsletter via hardcopy or email
o promote participation in a DM forum or community
o creating a series of "elevator pitches" for the appropriate audience
Question 5
DG-When considering a Data Governance program, communication is a key element. There are many
ways of managing this communication, with one of the most effective being a data Management
intranet. Which of the following would you typically NOT put onto such an communication vehicle?
o Description of the DG organization, it's key members and contact details.
o executive message regarding significant data management issues.
o The Data Stewards team profiles.
o Raw data results of an investigation into a possible data privacy breach.
o Link to a "rais an issue" Log.
Question 6
MDM-the role of physical data model in the metadata repository is.
o Which version of COST software (E.g. SAP) is implemented.
o To describe how and where our data is stored in our systems applications or packages.
o What the business definitions of data concepts is
o How many master data records are stored in our MDM
o system When the duplicated records where merged.
Question 7
MDM-Upodating the Metadata repository is the recommended activity during project close out
in SDLC.
o True
o False
Question 8
DG-Apart from the security requirements internal to the organization, what other strategic goal
should a data security Management system address?
o Compliance with ISO29100 and PCI-DSS.
o Compliance with ISO27001 and HIPPA.
o Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND privacy and confidentiality
needs of all stakeholders.
o Ensuring the organization doesn’t engage in SPAM marketing.
Question 9
DG-When performing an evaluation of analytic applications, which of the following
questions is least relevant to identify the level of effort needed?
o How much of tool infrastructure meets our organizational infrastructure.
o The standard source system for which ETL is supplied.
o NO. of source systems we need to integrate into the tool
o How much the canned process in the tool matches our business.
o Annual costs such as license, maintenance, etc.
1. Who is most responsible for communicating and promoting awareness on
the value of Data Governance in the organization?
Everyone in the Data Management Community
2. Which of these is NOT a standard motivation for Data Governance?
Devolved governance
3. When new governmental and industry regulations are formulated and
enacted, Data Governance plays a key role in the process of identifying
the data and information components for compliance. What do you see as
their most important role in any regulatory compliance project?
Working with business and technical leadership to find the best answers to a
standard set of regulatory compliance questions (How, Why, When, etc)
4. What are the primary responsibilities of a data steward?
65
A business role appointed to take responsibility for the quality and use of their
organization's data assets
5. Which of these does NOT characterize an effective data steward?
Is a highly experienced technical expert in a variety of data management
disciplines & tools
6. The needs of data protection require us to ensure that:
Data is processed only in ways compatible with the intended and communicated
use it was collected for, and respects the consent of the data subject
7. Which statement best describes the relationship between documents and records?
Records are a sub-set of documents
8. Which of the following are primary deliverables of proper document
and record management?
Managed records in many media formats, e-discovery records, policies and
procedures, contracts and financial documents
9. In 2009, ARMA International published GARP for managing records and
information. GARP stands for:
Generally Acceptable Recordkeeping Principle
The goal of 'Document and Content Management' is to ensure effective and
efficient retrieval and use of:
Data and information in unstructured formats
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10. All the following are TRUE statements on relationship types except:
A one-to-many relationship says that a child entity may have one or more parent entities
11. Identify who has primary responsibility for data capture and usage
design within programs.
Software Architects, Developers
12. Components of logical data models include:
All of the above
13. What is the difference between cardinality rules and data integrity rules?
Cardinality rules define the quantity of each entity, instance that can participate
in a relationship between two entities, and referential integrity rules ensure valid
values
14. In the conceptual data model, an instantiation of a particular business
entity is described as:
Entity occurrence
15. A data quality program should limit its scope to:
The data most critical to the enterprise and its customers
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16. The Data Quality Management cycle has four stages. There are Plan,
Monitor and Act. What is the fourth stage?
Deploy
17. Which of these is NOT an expected role of a Data Quality Oversight Board?
Data profiling & analysis
18. Which of these is a key process in defining data quality business rules?
Separating data that does not meet business needs from data that does
19. Which of these statements is true?
Data Quality Management is a continuous process
20. Which of these are characteristics of an effective data security policy?
The defined procedures ensure that the right people can use and update data in the
right way, and that all inappropriate access and update is restricted
21. What is the role of the Data Governance Council in defining an
Information Security policy?
The Data Governance Council should review and approve the high-level Data
Security Policy
22. Apart from security requirements internal to the organization, what other
strategic goals should a Data Security Management system address?
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Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND Privacy and
Confidentiality needs of all stakeholders
23. A RACI matrix is a useful tool to support the in an outsourced arrangement.
Segregation of duties
24. How does Data Security contribute to competitive advantage?
Data Security helps to protect proprietary information and intellectual property,
as well as customer and partner information
25. When performing an evaluation of analytic applications, which of the
following questions is least relevant to identify the level of effort needed?
Annual costs such as license, maintenance, etc.
26. A data lineage tool enables a user to:
Track the data from source system to a target database, understanding its
transformations
27. Slice, Dice, Roll-up and Pivot are terms used in what kind of data processing?
OLAP
28. You need to discover possible relationships or to show data patterns in an
exploratory fashion when you do not necessarily have a specific question to
ask. What kind of data tool would you use to identify patterns of data using
various algorithms?
Data Mining
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29. Critical to the success of the data warehouse is the ability to explain the
data. The DMBoK knowledge area that practices these techniques is:
Metadata Management
30. Which of the following statements regarding a value domain is FALSE?
Value domains are defined by external standard organizations
31. Which of these is a valid definition of Master Data?
Data about the business entities that provide context for business transactions
32. Reference Data:
Usually has fewer attributes than Master Data
33. A type of Master data architecture is:
Registry
All of the above
Repository
Virtualized
34. Which of these is a valid definition of Reference Data?
Data used to classify or categorize other data
35. The MetaData repository enables us to establish multiple perspectives
of data. These are:
Business and Technical Perspective
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36. The role of the Conceptual data model in the Metadata repository is:
To summarize the key data subject areas for a business area at a high level of
abstraction to enable the major data concepts to be understood
37. Metadata repository processes will not include:
Assessing impact where change to existing data product entries are proposed e.g. the impact
of change on related data on other systems
Managing change to data products (e.g. Data Dictionary or Business Data Glossary) entries
e.g. new data term to be defined, new data requirement, new database tables added, new
system included into the technical landscape."
Selecting Data Management Library software, search, and storage technologies
38. A business perspective product in the MetaData repository is:
Data Glossary
39. The number of artifacts that must be searched in the Metadata
repository for all Business Change projects are:
There is no mandatory number of artefacts to be searched but it is highly
recommended that the library is examined
40. In the Information Management Lifecycle, the Data Governance
Activity 'Define the Data Governance Framework' is considered in which
Lifecycle stage?
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Plan
41. How do data management professionals maintain commitment
of key stakeholders to the data management initiative?
Continuous communication education and promotion of the importance and value
of of data and information assets
42. Data Governance touch points throughout the project lifecycle are
facilitated by this organization
The Data Governance Office
43. What Organization Structure should set the overall direction for Data Governance?
Data Governance Council
44. Non value-added information is often not removed because:
The policies are unclear of what is defined as non-value-added, storage is cheap so
there is no cost driver, and it takes more effort to dispose than to keep
45. An umbrella term for any classification or controlled vocabulary is:
Taxonomy
46. What are relationship labels?
The verb phrases describing the business rules in each direction between two entities
47. The highest level of these data model types is the:
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Conceptual model
48. Dimension tables:
Have many columns but few rows
49. Data Quality dimension is:
A measurable feature or characteristic of data
50. Which of the following is NOT a stage in the Shewhart / Deming Cycle
that drives the data quality improvement lifecycle?
Investigate
51. A data quality program should limit its scope to:
The data most critical to the enterprise and its customers
52. A Data Quality Service Level Agreement (SLA) would normally
include which of these?
Respective roles & responsibilities for data quality
53. When outsourcing information management functions, organizations can:
Transfer control but not accountability
54. Which of these are increasingly driving legislation for information security
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and data privacy?
A recognition of Ethical issues in information management
A resistance to open data and transparency
A desire for economic protectionism
GDPR
An objective of making life more challenging for information management professionals
55. Definition of Data Security Policies should be:
A collaborative effort between Business and IT
56. Apart from security requirements internal to the organization, what other
strategic goals should a Data Security Management system address?
Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND Privacy and
Confidentiality needs of all stakeholders
57. One of the key differences between operational systems and data warehouses is:
Operational systems focus on current data; data warehouses contain historical data
58. Which of the following is not a good example of BI?
Statutory reporting to a Regulatory Body
59. Critical to the incremental development of the data warehouse is:
A strong release management process
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60. Which approach is considered most effective when supporting
multidimensional business report requests?
OLAP
61. Master data differs from Reference data in the following way:
Unlike Reference data, Master data is not usually limited to predefined domain values
62. Reference data:
Is used to categorize and classify other data
63. What is a common motivation for Reference and Master Data Management?
The need to improve data quality and data integrity across multiple data sources
64. Which one of the following statements is true?
Master Data Management requires techniques for splitting or merging an instance
of a business entity
65. A type of Master data architecture is:
All of the above
66. The library of information about our data (our metadata) is built so that:
All of these
we can better understand it
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we can have a shared formalised view of requirements (e.g. what data quality we need)
we can better manage it
67. The role of the Physical data model in the Metadata repository is:
To describe how and where our data is stored in our systems applications or packages
68. According to the DAMA DMBoK, the Data Governance Council (DGC)
is the highest authority organization for data governance in an organization.
Who should typically chair this Council?
Chief Data Steward (Business) / Chief Data Officer
69. Which of the following is not a step in the 'document and content
management lifecycle'?
Create a content strategy
70. Complete the following statement. A business rule:
Defines constraints on what can and cannot be done
71. In a non-identifying relationship:
The primary key of the parent entity becomes a foreign key in the child entity
72. In Dimensional data models, which of these is NOT true regarding Measures?
Measures can always be added across all dimensions
73. What is Manual Directed Data Quality Correction?
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The use of automated cleansing and correction tools with results manually checked before
committing outputs
74. Which of the following is NOT usually a feature of data quality improvement tools?
Data modeling
75. Which of these is NOT a typical activity in Data Quality Management?
Enterprise Data Modeling
76. Which of the following define the data security touch points in an organization?
Business rules and process workflow
77. Apart from security requirements internal to the organization, what other
strategic goals should a Data Security Management system address?
Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND Privacy and
Confidentiality needs of all stakeholders
78. Plant Equipment is an example of:
Master Data
79. According to the DMBoK, the system that contains the best version of
the Master Data is the:
System of record
80. Reference data:
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It is used to categorize and classify other data
81. To which of the following initiatives was the establishment of an
industry Meta- Data Standard essential?
BASEL II/ SOX
EDI
JSON
Proprietary XML
82. What type of Meta-Data provides developers and administrators with
knowledge and information about systems?
Technical Operational Meta-Data
83. Documents and records should be classified based on the level
of confidentiality for information found in the record
Highest
84. Data quality measurements can be taken at three levels of granularity. They are:
Data element value, data instance or record, and data set
85. Which of the following is the best example of the data quality
dimension of 'consistency'?
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All the records in the CRM have been accounted for in the data warehouse
86. Which of these statements best defines Data Security Management?
The planning, development, and execution of security policies and procedures to
provide proper authentication, authorization, access, and auditing of data and
information assets
87. A CRUD matrix helps organizations map responsibilities for data
changes in the business process workflow. CRUD stands for
Create, Read, Update, Delete
88. A Data Integration approach that updates a Data Warehouse with small
changes from Operational systems is called:
CDC
89. Which of the following is NOT a primary Master Data Management area of focus?
Producing read only versions of key data items
90. A common driver for initiating a Reference Data Management program is:
It will improve data quality and facilitate analysis across the organization
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91. Which of these statements are true about Metadata?
Data models are components of a Metadata repository
92. We would expect to consult the Metadata Library when:
Assessing the impact of change
93. What is the difference between an Industry and a Consensus MetaData Standard?
The terms are used interchangeably to describe the same concept
94. When defining your business continuity plan, which of the following should
one consider doing?
Consider written policies and procedures, impact mitigating measures, required recovery
time and acceptable amount of disruption, the criticality of the documents
95. Which of these activities describe in the document/record management lifecycle?
Storage, disposal, managing access
Identification, management of policies, classification, retention, storage, retrieval and
circulation, preservation and disposal
Acquisition, classification, storage, purging
96. Which of these statements has the most meaningful relationship label?
An order is composed of order lines
97. In a recursive relationship:
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The foreign key must have a role name to avoid attribute duplication
98. A comparatively new architectural approach is where volatile data is provisioned
in a data warehouse structure to provide transactional systems with a combination
of historical and near real time data to meet customer needs. This is a definition of:
Active Data Warehousing
99. Master Data Management:
Is synonymous with Reference Data Management
Controls the definition of business entities
Allows applications to define business entities as needed and manages the mappings between
common data in a central location
Is time-consuming with questionable impact on data quality
100. What would you not expect to find in the MetaData repository?
Data storage devices
101. These are examples of which type of Meta-Data: Data Stores and Data
Involved, Government/ Regulatory Bodies; Roles and Responsibilities; Process
Dependencies and Decomposition?
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Process Meta-Data
102. What is the difference between an Industry and a Consensus Meta-
Data Standard?
The terms are used interchangeably to describe the same concept
103. Every enterprise is subject to many governmental and industry regulations,
many of which regulate how data and information is used and managed. Part of the
Data Governance Function is to:
Monitor and ensure that organizations meet any regulatory compliance requirements
104. Which of these is NOT a type of key found in a data model?
Local key
105. Top down' and 'bottom up' data analysis and profiling is best done in
concert because:
It balances business relevance and the actual state of the data
106. Apart from security requirements internal to the organization, what
other strategic goals should a Data Security Management system address?
Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND Privacy and
Confidentiality needs of all stakeholders
107. One of the difficulties when integrating multiple source systems is:
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Determining valid links or equivalences between data elements
108. We do not expect to consult the Metadata repository when:
Updating the operating system that the Master Data management toolset is running on
109. A document management system is an application used to track and store
electronic documents and electronic images of paper documents which provide the
following capabilities:
Storage, versioning, security, meta-data management, indexing and retrieval
110. Which of the following statements about business rules is FALSE?
Data rules cannot be shown on a data model
111. Stakeholders whose concerns must be addressed in data security management
include:
Clients, Patients, Citizens, Suppliers, or Business Partners
112. When outsourcing information management functions, organizations can:
Transfer control but not accountability
113. A strong argument for pursuing Reference Data and/or Master Data
management initiative is:
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By centralizing the management of Reference and Master data, the organization can
conform critical data needed for analysis
114. Which of these are NOT true of Data Governance?
A DG initiative should always be led by the IT department
115. When outsourcing information management functions, organizations can:
Transfer control but not accountability
116. Apart from security requirements internal to the organization, what
other strategic goals should a Data Security Management system address?
Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND Privacy and
Confidentiality needs of all stakeholders
117. A CRUD matrix helps organizations map responsibilities for data changes in
the business process work flow. CRUD stands for
Create, Read, Update, Delete
118. In its broadest context, the data warehouse includes:
Any data stores or extracts used to support the delivery for BI purposes
119. Reference data:
Is used to categorize and classify other data
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120. Which of the following is a Meta-Data scheme focused specifically on documents?
Preservation Meta-Data
121. When outsourcing information management functions, organizations can:
Transfer control but not accountability
122. Apart from security requirements internal to the organization, what
other strategic goals should a Data Security Management system address?
Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND Privacy and Confidentiality
needs of all stakeholders
123. A strong argument for pursuing a Reference Data and/or Master Data
management initiative is:
By centralizing the management of Reference and Master data, the organization can
conform critical data needed for analysis
124. We do not expect to consult the metadata repository when
Updating the operating system that the Master Data management toolset is running on
125. What Organization Structure should set the overall direction for Data
Governance?
Data Governance Steering Committee
126. Which of these is NOT a standard motivation for Data Governance
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Installing a new application package
127. Which of these is a key process in defining data quality business rules?
Separating data that does not meet business needs from data that does
128. Which of the following statements about business rules is FALSE?
Data rules cannot be shown on a data model.
129. Which of these describes activities in the document/record management
lifecycle?
Identification, management of policies, classification, retention, storage, retrieval and
circulation, preservation and disposal
130. A document management system is an application used to track and store
electronic documents and electronic images of paper documents which provides the
following capabilities:
Storage, versioning, security, meta-data management, indexing and retrieval
131. Identify who has primary responsibility for data capture and usage design
within programs
Software Architects, Developer
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132. What is the role of the Data Governance Council in defining an Information
Security policy?
The Data Governance Council should review and approve the high-level Data Security
Polic
133. Every enterprise is subject to many governmental and industry regulations,
many of which regulate how data and information is used and managed. Part of the
Data Governance Function is to:
Monitor and ensure that organisations meet any regulatory compliance requirements
134. Complete the following statement: A business rule
defines constraints on what can and cannot be done.
135. A Data Quality Service Level Agreement (SLA) would normally include which
of these?
Respective roles & responsibilities for data quality
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136. The Metadata repository enables us to establish multiple perspectives of data.
These are:
The Business and Technical Perspective
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1. Which of the following is the Data Storage system that supplies advanced analytics?
a. Operational Data Store
b. Document Database
c. Data Warehouse
d. Transactional Data Store
e. OLAP Cube
Topic: Data Warehouse & Business Intelligence
Explanation: Data Warehouses co-evolved with Business Intelligence through the 1990s to become a major driver of
business decision making through modern advanced analytics (p. 383).
2. How is Data Governance defined?
a. Exercise of the authority and control over the management of data assets.
b. Set of interdependent functions, each with its own goals, activities, and responsibilities.
c. Data governance assists in representing information consistently and protecting sensitive information d.
Evaluation of the current state of critical data management activities in order to plan for improvement.
e. Planning, implementation, and control activities for lifecycle management of data and information found in any
form or medium
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: Data Governance entails planning, monitoring, and enforcement of policies related to the management of
data assets (p. 67).
3. How does Metadata help an organization?
a. Reduce data-oriented research time
b. Reduce onboarding time
c. Highlight the value of strategic information by sharing it with more stakeholders
d. Enhance Data Security
e. Assist in representing information from time to time
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: Metadata helps an organization represent their information consistently, streamline workflow capabilities,
and protect sensitive information. Metadata promotes speed to value in data-related projects (p. 420).
4. What is the main objective behind the implementation of a Data Warehouse?
a. Enable effective business analysis and decision-making
b. Derive future value
c. Make consistent decisions
d. Improve a product or service
e. Assess market trends in order to develop a better business strategy
Topic: Data Warehouse & Business Intelligence
Explanation: Of the answer choices provided, the best choice is “enable effective business analysis and
decision-making.” This option applies across all organizations, though of course a specific enterprise may use Data
Warehousing for any of the purposes listed. Other reasons to implement a Data Warehouse include to support
Business Intelligence and to find ways to innovate based on insights from data (p. 383).
5. Which of the following is a directive that codifies principles and management intent into fundamental
rulesgoverning the creation, acquisition, integrity, security, quality, and use of data?
a. Data asset valuation
b. Data audit principle
c. Data Management
d. Data Governance
e. Data policy
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: Data policies support data standards across the organization. Moreover, they describe expected
behaviors related to Data Management, for example conducting root cause remediation of Data Quality issues. Data
policies describe the “what” of Data Governance (i.e., what to do and what not to do). By comparison, standards and
procedures describe the “how” of Data Governance. For data policies to be most effective, there should be relatively
few of them, and they should be brief and direct (p. 77).
6. Which of the following represents the type of data analysis aimed at understanding organizational activities
andopportunities?
a. Operational Data Store
b. Data Warehouse
c. Operational Data Mart
d. Business Intelligence
e. Dimensional Data Warehouse
Topic: Data Warehouse & Business Intelligence
Explanation: Business Intelligence (BI) refers to the type of data analysis aimed at understanding organizational
activities and opportunities. The term can also be used to refer to the set of technologies that support this kind of data
analysis (p. 384).
7. What is the definition of Enterprise Data Architecture?
a. Blueprint for managing data assets by aligning with organizational strategy to establish strategic data
requirements
b. Accountabilities and interactions
c. Standard terms and designs for the elements that are important to the organization
d. Scope and approach to governance efforts
e. Structure and responsibility for data governance activities
Topic: Data Architecture
Explanation: Enterprise Data Architecture sets the standards for core business entities (p. 104).
8. Which of the following is most crucial for risk management?
a. Data Steward
b. Enterprise Data Model
c. Metadata
d. Normalization
e. Data Warehouse
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: Metadata Management is a risk management necessity. It helps the organization identify private or
sensitive information so that it can be effectively protected throughout the data lifecycle. Furthermore, it can help an
organization meet compliance requirements (p. 418).
9. In addition to ongoing updates, what is the other main Data Integration process that takes place in a
DataWarehouse?
a. Data quality issue remediation
b. Business Intelligence activity
c. Metadata update
d. Reporting strategy
e. Historical load
Topic: Data Warehouse & Business Intelligence
Explanation: Data Warehousing involves two main data integration processes: historical loads and ongoing updates.
Historical data is usually loaded only once (or a few times while working out data issues), while ongoing updates take
place over the life of the data storage system (p. 392).
10. Which of the following is NOT a type of data that can be modeled?
a. Category information
b. Integration information
c. Resource information
d. Business event information
e. Detail transaction information
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: Category information refers to data used to classify and assign types to things. Resource information
refers to basic profiles of resources needed in order to conduct operational processes - this could include Product,
Customer, Supplier, Facility, Organization, and Account. Business event information refers to data created while
operational processes are in progress. Finally, detail transaction information refers to data that is typically produced
by point-of-sale systems (p. 126, 127).
11. Which are categories of Metadata?
a. Public, internal-only, confidential, and restricted
b. Business, technical, and operational
c. Conceptual data, logical data, physical data
d. Content-based, Context-based, User-based
e. Content based, logical data, physical data
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: Metadata is often categorized into three types: business, technical, and operational. These categories
enable data practitioners to understand the range of information that falls under the overall umbrella of Metadata, as
well as the functions through which Metadata is produced (p. 422).
12. What is the definition of an entity?
a. A thing about which an organization collects information
b. A thing that exists separate from other things
c. A thing about which an organization processes information
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: In the context of Data Modeling, an entity is a thing about which an organization collects information (p.
127).
13. The selection of required data from its source is called:
a. Extract
b. Transform
c. Targeting
d. Load
e. Map
Topic: Data Integration and Interoperability
Explanation: The extract process involves selecting the required data and extracting it from its source. Then extracted
data is staged in a physical data store, on disk, or in memory (p. 273).
14. Depending on the database technology or data modeling tool and whether the entities involved have
mutualdependencies, when a relationship is defined between two entities, which of the following may be created
implicitly? a. An attribute
b. An identifier
c. A foreign key
d. A data model
e. A simple key
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: A foreign key is used in physical (and sometimes logical) data modeling to represent the relationship of
records in one table to records in another table (p. 132).
15. What kind of metadata focuses primarily on content and condition of the data?
a. Technical metadata
b. Operational metadata
c. Logical metadata
d. Business metadata
e. Technical metadata
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: Business Metadata includes the non-technical names and definitions of concepts, subject areas, entities,
and attributes; attribute data types and other attribute properties; range descriptions; calculations;algorithms and
business rules; valid domain values and their definitions (p. 422, 423).
16. A combined set of attributes that uniquely identify an entity instance is a…
a. Super key
b. Candidate key
c. Primary key
d. Business key
e. Alternate key
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: A super key is created when a set of attributes is used to uniquely identify an entity instance (p. 134).
17. What is Big Data in simple terms?
a. A data transformation tool
b. A set of analytics reports
c. A process of scoping data requirements
d. A collection of information
e. A data virtualization server
Topic: Big Data and Data Science
Explanation: The collection (Big Data) and analysis (Data Science, Analytics and Visualization) of many different types
of data to find answers and insights for questions that are not known at the start of analysis (p. 499).
18. Which of the following provides a means of standardizing attributes?
a. A data modelling scheme
b. A database
c. A dimensional modelling
d. A domain
e. A dimension table
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: In Data Modeling, a domain is the complete set of possible values that an attribute can be assigned.
Therefore, a domain provides a means of standardizing the characteristics of the attributes (p. 135)
19. When data values must be associated in chronological order and with specific time values, how does the DMBOK
refer to the type of patterns that are used?
a. Chronological patterns
b. Sequence patterns
c. Organizational patterns
d. Time-based patterns
e. Time-oriented patterns
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: Time-based patterns are used when data values must be associated in chronological order and with
specific time values (p. 142).
20. Bandwidth can be reduced by filtering to include only data that has been changed within a defined
timeframe.What is the method for this process?
a. Judicious data selection
b. Biased sampling methodology
c. Waterfall method
d. Database-as-a-service (DaaS)
e. Change data capture
Topic: Data Integration and Interoperability
Explanation: Change data capture (CDC) is a method of filtering to include only data that has been changed within a
defined timeframe. CDC monitors a data set for changes (such as inserts, changes, deletes) and then passes those
changes (referred to as the deltas) to other data sets, applications, and organizations that consume the data (p. 276).
21. Which of the following is a Data Quality principle?
a. Prevention
b. Governance
c. Criticality
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Topic: Data quality
Explanation: Data Quality programs should be guided by the following principles: criticality, lifecycle management,
prevention, root cause remediation, governance, standards-driven, objective measurement and transparency,
embedded in business processes, systematically enforced and connected to service levels (p. 453).
22. Applications often compete for access to the same dataset. How can this issue be remedied?a. Conducting data
archiving
b. Setting up data replication
c. Creating a stronger network connection
d. Improving Data Security such as through the Installation of new antivirus software e. Installing a modern
firewall
Topic: Data Integration and Interoperability
Explanation: Replication solutions usually monitor the log of changes to the dataset, not the data set itself. They
minimize the impact of competing requests on operational applications (p. 279).
23. The modeling technique suited for information that changes over time in both structure and content is…a. Data
modeling
b. Dimensional modeling
c. Scenario modeling
d. Metadata modeling
e. Anchor modeling
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: Anchor Modeling provides graphical notation used for conceptual modeling. It is similar to traditional data
modeling with extensions for working with temporal data. Therefore, it’s well suited to data that may change in
structure and content over time (p. 142).
24. Which of the following is a downside of the hub-and-spoke model?
a. Insufficient performance
b. Data cannot be accessed simultaneously
c. Data cannot be archived
d. Data is formatted as an older file type
e. The model is considered to be outdated
Topic: Data Integration and Interoperability
Explanation: Hub-and-spoke may not always be the best solution due to inherent latency (p. 281).
25. How does the DMBOK refer to an organization that values data as an asset and manages data through all phases
of its lifecycle?
a. Data-centric organization
b. Data management organization
c. Data integration organization
d. Data support organization
e. Data legislative organization
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: A data-centric organization values data as an asset and manages data through all phases of its lifecycle,
including project development and ongoing operations. To become data-centric, an organization must change the way
it translates strategy into action (p. 73).
26. Which components are included in the three-schema approach to database management?
a. Conceptual, external, internal
b. Conceptual, relational, dimensional
c. Logical, physical, canonical
d. Conceptual, local, physical
e. Logical, physical, abstract
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: In 1975, the American National Standards Institute’s Standards Planning and Requirements Committee
(SPARC) published their three-schema approach to database management. The three key components were:
conceptual, external, and internal. These three levels are typically thought of as translating into the conceptual,
logical, and physical levels of detail (p. 144, 145).
27. Which of the following terms refers to multiple processes that are organized and executed in a system?a.
Integration
b. Development
c. Orchestration
d. Implementation
e. Performance
Topic: Data Integration and Interoperability
Explanation: Orchestration is the term used to describe how multiple processes are organized and executed in a
system. All systems handling messages or data packets must be able to manage the order of execution of those
processes, in order to preserve consistency and continuity (p. 282).
28. Which term refers to the technical team that will ensure data meets organizational needs, define
technicalarchitecture, and install and administer technology?
a. Metadata support
b. Data architecture support
c. Data interoperability support
d. Database technology support
e. Data security support
Topic: Data Storage and Operations
Explanation: Database technology support includes defining technical requirements that will meet organizational
needs, defining technical architecture, installing and administering technology, and resolving issues related to
technology (p. 170).
29. Which of the following is a valid description of Data Management?
a. Data Management is lifecycle management
b. Data Management is cross-functional
c. Data Management is the development, execution, and supervision of plans. d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: Data Management refers to the development, execution, and supervision of plans, policies, programs,
and practices that deliver, control, protect, and enhance the value of data and information assets throughout their life
cycles. Data Management is cross-functional (meaning that it requires a range of skills and expertise) (p. 23).
30. Which of the following is a goal of Metadata?
a. Confirm and document an understanding of different perspectives.
b. Discover relationships between data and the business.
c. Discover and analyze new factors that might affect the business.
d. Support the iterative integration of data source(s) into the enterprise.
e. Provide organizational understanding of business terms and usage
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: The goals of metadata are to provide organizational understanding of business terms and usage, collect
and integrate metadata from diverse sources, provide a standard way to access metadata, ensure metadata quality
and security (p. 419).
31. What is the most significant business driver for developing organizational capabilities around Big Data and
DataScience?
a. The desire to find and act on business opportunities that may be discovered through large datasets b.
The definition of high quality data
c. The reduction of risk related to Data Security issues
d. The business imperative to ensure efficiency in development projects
e. The determination to act as an agent for change, transformation, and agility
Topic: Big Data and Data Science
Explanation: Data Science requires a significant volume of data which may be generated through diverse processes
(p. 498).
32. Which principles focus on ideas such as fairness, transparency, and reliability?
a. Data Ethics principles
b. Data Quality principles
c. Data Governance principles
d. Business Intelligence principle
e. Data Management principles
Topic: Data Ethics
Explanation: Ethics are principles of behavior based on ideas of right and wrong. Ethical principles often focus on
ideas such as fairness, respect, responsibility, integrity, quality, reliability, transparency, and trust (p. 49).
33. Ensuring the performance and reliability of the database through performance tuning, monitoring, error
reporting,and other activities is a responsibility of…
a. Agile Data Management Team
b. Production DBAs
c. Security Administrators
d. Data Quality Team or IT Group
e. Dedicated Information Security Group
Topic: Data Storage and Operations
Explanation: Production DBAs (database administrators) take primary responsibility for data operations management,
ensuring performance and reliability (p. 173).
34. Which of the following is one of the responsibilities of a Data Architect?
a. Manage complex data and information delivery throughout the enterprise
b. Create frameworks and accountability diagrams
c. Implement roadmaps
d. Plan for operational success
e. Reduce the risks associated with low quality data
Topic: Data Architecture
Explanation: The goal of Data Architecture is to act as a bridge between business strategy and technology execution
(p. 99).
35. Which of the following is a guiding principle of Data Storage and Operations?
a. Consolidate data physically and virtually into data hubs
b. Balance local data needs with enterprise data needs, including support and maintenance
c. Lower cost and complexity of managing solutions by developing shared models and interfaces
d. Identify and act on automation opportunities
e. Take an enterprise perspective in design to ensure future extensibility
Topic: Data Storage and Operations
Explanation: Data Storage and Operations represent a highly technical aspect of Data Management. The following
are guiding principles of this field: identify and act on automation opportunities, build with reuse in mind, understand
and appropriately apply best practices, connect database standards to support requirements, set expectations for the
DBA role in project work (p. 171).
36. Which of the following is an important attribute of a Data Modeling tool?
a. Asset management software
b. Graphical design applications
c. Architecture designs
d. A clear and consistent legend
e. Lineage and relation tracking functions
Topic: Data Architecture
Explanation: Most data modeling tools include lineage and relation tracking functions, which enable architects to
manage linkages between models created for different purposes and at different levels of abstraction (p. 115).
37. What is the purpose of Data Governance?
a. Encompass the entire lifecycle of a data asset
b. Ensure that data is managed properly, according to policies and best practices
c. Establish processes and functions through which data can be enabled for use and also maintained
d. Ensure that financial performance of the company is improved
e. Ensure an organization gets value out of its data
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: The purpose of Data Governance is to ensure that data is managed properly, according to policies and
best practices (p. 67).
38. Which of the following is a core concept of Data Ethics?
a. It should support Business Intelligence
b. Data must be aggregated to protect the privacy of individuals
c. The organization must ensure that data is managed behind a firewall
d. The organization should think and design globally when it comes to Data Management
e. Data has economic value
Topic: Data Ethics
Explanation: The ethics of data ownership dictate that an organization considers how the economic value of data can
be accessed and by whom (p. 49).
39. What does data represent?
a. Granularity
b. Lifecycle
c. Structured information
d. A process
e. Risk and value
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: Data not only represents value, it also represents risk. Low quality data (inaccurate, incomplete, or out-
of-date) obviously represents a risk… But data can also risky because it can be misunderstood and misused (p. 30).
40. A Data Governance program must be…
a. Sustainable
b. Measured
c. Multi-layered
d. Business-driven
e. All of the above
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: The goal of Data Governance is to enable an organization to manage data as an asset. To achieve this,
a data governance program must be: sustainable, embedded, measured, business-driven, multi-layered, frame-work
based, and promote shared responsibility (p. 72).
41. What is Data Stewardship?
a. Refers to the role responsible for creating policies, procedures, and rules that govern data in the organization
b. A collection of tools that ensure an organization's privacy policy
c. The creation of compelling vision for Data Management across the enterprise
d. A position accountable and responsible for data within a specified domain
e. A prioritized program of work with scoped boundaries
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: Data Stewardship is the most common label to describe accountability and responsibility for data and
related processes that ensure effective control and use of data assets (p. 75).
42. What is the difference between Medata and data?
a. There is no difference between the two concepts
b. Metadata is non processed data while data is being processed
c. Data is always valuable
d. Metadata provides meaningful information about data, while data can be a set of facts, a collection of
images, a string of words
e. Metadata doesn’t have to be processed before it is stored
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: To manage Metadata, organizations should define requirements focused on business needs, such as
creating new data, understanding existing data, enabling movement between systems, accessing data, sharing data,
and sourcing data to meet these requirements (p. 422).
43. Which process focuses on enabling an integrated and historical business context on operational data?a. Data
Asset Valuation process
b. Data Modeling
c. Issue Management
d. Data Warehousing
e. Normalization
Topic: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
Explanation: The correct answer, Data Warehousing, focuses on enabling context on operational data by enforcing
business rules (p. 385). Data Asset Valuation is the process of understanding and calculating the economic value of
data to an organization (p. 77). Data Modeling is the process of discovering, analyzing, and scoping data
requirements through data models (p. 124). Issue management is the process for identifying, quantifying, prioritizing,
and resolving data governance-related issues (p. 86).
Normalization consists of several steps to translate entities to more desirable data tables. These steps are called
normalization rules, also referred to as normal forms. Several normal forms exist; this chapter contains information
about the first three normal forms (p. 150).
44. Which of the following is NOT a goal of Data Quality?
a. Develop a governed approach to make data fit for purpose based on data consumers’ requirements
b. Identify and advocate for opportunities to improve the quality of data, through process and system
improvements
c. Understand and comply with all relevant regulations and policies for privacy, protection, and
confidentiality
d. Define and implement processes to measure, monitor, and report on data quality levels
e. Define standards, requirements, and specifications for data quality controls as part of the data lifecycle
Topic: Data Quality
Explanation: The goals of Data Quality include:
1. Develop a governed approach to make data fit for purpose based on data consumers’ requirements
2. Define standards, requirements, and specifications for data quality controls as part of the data lifecycle
3. Define and implement processes to measure, monitor, and report on data quality levels
4. Identify and advocate for opportunities to improve the quality of data, through process and system
improvements (p. 451)
45. What is the most common definition of metadata?
a. Tracking data
b. Vital management information
c. Data about data
d. Reliable data
e. Risk management data
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: Metadata is sometimes called “data about data.” Metadata includes information about technical and
business processes, data rules and constraints, and logical and physical data structures (p. 417).
46. What is the role of the tools that track Metadata?
a. To create information that is useful in the process of installing security patches
b. To track the movement of sensitive data and provide the best way to ensure that data is protected
properly
c. To protect enterprise hardware from viruses
d. To locate protected data on the network
e. To provide essential information for troubleshooting
Topic: Data Security
Explanation: Identification of sensitive information using Metadata is an effective strategy to ensure that data is
protected properly. Metadata tools should help an organization understand the movement of sensitive data through
their data infrastructure (p. 257).
47. "...Leaving data points out, comparing two facts without clarifying their relationship, or ignoring accepted
visualconventions, changing scale to make a trend line look better or worse..."
The above quoted statement from the DMBOK describes which risk related to unethical data handling?
a. Timing
b. Bias
c. Unclear definitions or invalid comparisons
d. Transforming and integrating data
e. Misleading visualizations
Topic: Data Ethics
Explanation: The statement quoted from the DMBOK refers to the Misleading Visualizations risk of unethical data
handling (p. 57).
48. What is a steward?
a. A stakeholder
b. A person whose job it is to manage the property of another person
c. An employer
d. A sponsor
e. A person responsible to follow trends
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: A steward is a person whose job it is to manage the property of another person. Data Stewards manage
data assets on behalf of others and in the best interests of the organization (p. 76).
49. What can an organization not do without Metadata?
a. Manage its data as an asset
b. Manage its data at all
c. Understand what data it has, what the data represents, and where it originates
d. Understand who has access to its data
e. All of the above
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: Without reliable Metadata, an organization does not know what data it has, what the data represents,
where it originates, how it moves through systems, who has access to it, or what it means for the data to be of high
quality (p. 418).
50. Data Privacy laws exist to…
a. To grant the right of control over one's personal information
b. Establish the right to the protection of one's personal data
c. To uphold the right to human dignity
d. To arrest and punish offenders against the privacy of innocent persons
e. To establish the right to sue offenders against the privacy of others
Topic: Data Ethics
Explanation: The purpose of Data Privacy laws is the protection of personal data (p. 53).
. What is the importance of Enterprise Data Architecture?
a. It shows the flow of data
b. It explains the elements that are important to the organization
c. It gives a pictorial representation of business elements
d. It defines standard terms and designs for the elements that are important to the organization
e. It represents a collection of Enterprise Data Models
Topic: Data Architecture
Explanation: Enterprise Data Architecture determines the standard terms and designs for business elements that are
necessary for the smooth management of data in an organization (p. 104).
2. What is the end goal of Data Modelling?
a. Providing for the understanding organizational data
b. Creating a database
c. Assigning the correct data types
d. Implementing broadly scoped initiatives
e. Laying the groundwork for Master Data Management
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: Data Modelling's primary objective is to provide for an understanding of organizational data (p.126).
3. Early Big Data was characterized by _______ V's but the number of V's has been expanded to _____a. 3, 5
b. 2, 6
c. 2, 5
d. 3, 7
e. 3, 6
Topic: Big Data
Explanation: Big Data was originally characterized as having 3 V's: Volume, Velocity, and Variety. Now the list of V’s
has expanded to Volume, Velocity, Variety (or Variability), Viscosity, Volatility, Veracity (p. 502).
4. What is the purpose of a Data Flow Design diagram?
a. Shows the movement of data
b. Shows how data moves through business processes and systems
c. Shows the data lifecycle
d. Shows how queries can be executed
e. Helps stakeholders understand data better
Topic: Data Architecture
Explanation: Data flows are a type of data lineage documentation that depicts how data moves through business
processes and systems. End-to-end data flows illustrate where the data originated, where it is stored and used, and
how it is transformed as it moves inside and between diverse processes and systems (p. 107).
5. More than _______ of the documents created today are electronic.
a. 60%
b. 75%
c. 80%
d. 90%
e. 98%
Topic: Document & Content Management
Explanation: More than 90% of the documents created today are electronic (i.e., soft copies) (p. 315).
6. The implementation of a Data Warehouse should follow these guiding principles, except:
a. Think and design globally, act and build locally
b. Ensure business analysts are involved in decision support activities across the enterprise c.
Promote collaboration
d. One size does not fit all
e. Promote transparency and self-service access to data
Topic: Data Warehousing & Business Intelligence
Explanation: The implementation of a Data Warehouse should follow the principles outlined in answer choices A, C,
D, and E (p. 383, 384).
7. The first activity to be completed in the implementation of Data Governance is...
a. Perform readiness assessment
b. Perform discovery and business alignment
c. Define Data Governance for the organization
d. Develop organizational touchpoints
e. Develop Data Governance strategy
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: An organization must first define Data Governance that supports the organization's business strategy and
goals (p. 79).
8. Which of the following is used to exchange information within the Semantic Web?
a. Taxonomy
b. Thesaurus
c. Data Model
d. Syntax
e. Ontology
Topic: Document & Content Management
Explanation: Ontologies provide the primary knowledge representation in the Semantic Web, and they are used in the
exchange of information between Semantic Web applications (p. 314).
9. Master Data Management is...
a. Obstructive
b. Frustrating
c. Challenging
d. Disorganized
e. Oriented
Topic: Master & Reference Data Management
Explanation: Master Data Management is challenging. It illustrates the fundamental entities that are core to an
organization's identity (p. 360).
10. Data Management principles include all but one of the following?
a. It takes planning to manage data
b. Data Management requires an enterprise perspective
c. Data Management must drive information technology decisions
d. Different types of data have different lifecycle characteristics
e. Data Management must be done by experts
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: Data Management should maintain a balance between the strategic and operational needs of an
organization, and like other management processes, must balance strategic and operational needs. Certain principles
(listen in options A to D) should be strictly adhered to (p. 21).
11. Data created while operational processes are in progress is referred to as...
a. Resource information
b. Business event information
c. Category information
d. Detail transaction information
e. Detail resource information
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: Examples of business event information include customer orders, supplier invoices, and cash
withdrawals (p. 127).
12. What is the importance of Data Governance in Data Management?
a. It simplifies the understanding of data for easy implementation of Data Models
b. It governs the value enhancement process
c. It supports the categorization of data
d. It educates key stakeholders on how to make better data decisions
e. It governs how decisions are made about data and how people and processes are expected to behave
in relation to data
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: Data Governance directs the implementation of data, and organizational activities in relation to data (p.
67).
13. Basic data profiling involves analysis of the following except:
a. Data values and how closely they correspond to a defined set of valid values
b. Data format as defined in the data structures and inferred from the actual data
c. Correct data flow throughout the organization
d. Data population, including the levels of null, blank, and default records
e. Relationships to other datasets
Topic: Data Integration & Interoperability
Explanation: Profiling is an initial step in many data-related initiatives, including data integration projects. Profiling
involves analysis of:
○ Data format (i.e., data structures)
○ Data population (i.e., proportion of null, blank, or default data elements)
○ Data values and their relationship to a defined set of valid values
○ Patterns and relationships within the data set (i.e., related fields and cardinality
rules) ○ Relationship to other data sets (p. 288)
14. What does the acronym CIF refer to?
a. Corporate Information Factory
b. Company Information Factory
c. Company Information Facts
d. Corporate Information Facts
e. Corporate Intergroup Factory
Topic: Data Warehousing & Business Intelligence
Explanation: CIF stands for Corporate Information Factory. It is often used in Data Warehousing, where the data is
collected from various sources and transformed into a single repository. The term CIF could refer to a Data
Warehouse, Data Mart, or Operational Data Stores (p. 386).
15. Which of the following is NOT a function of Data Architects?
a. Facilitate alignment between Business and IT
b. Act as agents for change, transformation, and agility
c. Manage complex data and information delivery throughout the enterprise
d. Translate business needs into data and system requirements so processes will have their required data
e. Strategize on how to procure data that meets the needs of the organization
Topic: Data Architecture
Explanation: Data Architecture bridges the gap between strategy and technology execution. Data Architects achieve
this by facilitating alignment between Business and IT; acting as agents for change, transformation, and agility;
Managing complex data and information delivery throughout the enterprise; and translating business needs into data
and system requirements so processes will have their required data (p. 99).
16. Two systems that are tightly coupled are characterized by what kind of interface?
a. Asynchronous
b. Integration
c. Coupling
d. Synchronous
e. Overlapping
Topic: Data Integration & Interoperability
Explanation: Two systems that are tightly coupled usually have a synchronous interface, where one system waits for a
response from the other (p. 281).
17. What is e-discovery?
a. The ability of an organization to effectively respond to litigation
b. The process of finding electronic records that might serve as evidence in a legal action
c. Planning, implementation, and control activities for data lifecycle management
d. Website utilized to manage records and published information
e. Modern approach to records management
Topic: Document & Content Management
Explanation: E-discovery is the process of finding, identifying and collecting electronically stored information (ESI) that
might serve as evidence in a lawsuit or an investigation. Examples of ESI include emails, voicemails, audio, videos,
social media, websites, etc. Good record management techniques help ensure continuity and the ability to respond to
possible lawsuits (p. 305).
18. Which among the following can be described as goals of a Master and Reference Data Management program?a.
Identification and restoration of improperly merged data Enterprise-wide distribution of trusted data.
b. Determine which sources will provide a comprehensive look at Master Data entities
Match and merge entity instances accurately by developing rules
c. Analyze root causes of issues
Identify the latency between the source system and the consumption system
Analyze the effectiveness of data ingestion and consumption integration techniques
d. Matching and linking new records from a starting point.
Provide information that may not be readily available during record creation
e. To make sure that the enterprise has complete, current and authoritative master and reference data for
their organizational processes.
To provide master and reference data across all functions and applications
of the enterprise. To reduce the cost and complexity of data usage through
common data models.
Topic: Master & Reference Data Management
Explanation: The goals of a Master Data Management program include:
○ Ensuring the organization has complete, consistent, current, authoritative Master and Reference Data across
organizational processes
○ Enabling Master and Reference Data to be shared across enterprise functions and
applications
○ Lowering the cost and reducing the complexity of data usage and integration through standards, common data
models, and integration patterns (p. 349, 350)
19. Which data model pattern can be used to construct self-referencing hierarchies?a. Integration Patterns
b. Accumulation Pattern
c. Construction Pattern
d. Assembly Pattern
e. Elementary Pattern
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: The elementary data model pattern is used to resolve many-to-many relationships and creates self-
referencing hierarchies (p.160).
20. Why is Data Architecture important to Data Management?
a. Provides for an understanding of an organization's data at different levels of abstraction b. Creates
data about data
c. Breaks down data systems into easily comprehensible units
d. Create structured representations of data
e. Supports the utilisation of data to make sound decisions
Topic: Data Architecture
Explanation: Because most organizations have more data than can be comprehended, it's essential to represent the
data at different levels of abstraction so that it can be understood for organizational decision making (p.98).
21. Why must all systems handling messages or data packets be able to manage the order of execution of
thoseprocesses?
a. To preserve consistency and continuity
b. To ensure a good view
c. To make it durable
d. To ensure clarity of words
e. To make it complete
Topic: Data Integration & Interoperability
Explanation: All systems handling messages or data packets must be able to manage the order of execution of those
processes in order to preserve consistency and continuity.Describing how multiple projects are executed is known as
Orchestration. Moreover, to ensure that the shipment, extraction and loading of data is accurate, process controls
must be carried out. Process control can include components like batch job logs, alerts, database activity logs and
exception logs (p. 282).
22. What is accuracy?
a. Ensuring that no entity exists more than once within the dataset
b. Ensuring that data values are consistently represented within a dataset and between datasets and that that
data values are consistently associated across datasets
c. Ensuring that required data is present
d. Ensuring data correctly represents 'real-life' entities
e. Refers to several characteristics of data
Topic: Data Ethics
Explanation: Accuracy refers to the degree that data correctly represents 'real-life' entities. It is a term used to
describe anything that is near its true value or recognized standard (p. 458).
23. Which of the following describes Information Technology (IT) Governance?
a. Informs decisions about IT investments, projects, and application portfolios
b. Digitizes information so that Data Governance can take place
c. Communicates Data Governance information to stakeholders
d. Procures data in a way that is aligned with ethical principles and responsibilities
e. Analyzes management of data as a strategic asset
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: Data Governance focuses mainly on management of data and data as an asset, while IT Governance
informs decisions about IT investments, projects, and application portfolios (p. 71).
24. Big Data encompasses...
a. Speed, Accuracy, Quantity
b. Volume, Accuracy, Speed
c. Volume, Variety, Speed
d. Variety, Uniqueness, Volume
e. Uniqueness, Speed, Variety
Topic: Big Data
Explanation: Big Data refers to the volume of data, its variety (e.g., structured and unstructured, documents, files,
audio, video, and streaming data, etc.), and the speed at which it is produced (velocity) (p. 497).
25. Data is important to organizations in all but one of the following ways:
a. Organizations need data to conduct interactions with customers and constituents
b. Organizations need data to make decisions
c. Organizations need data for daily operations
d. Organizations sell data to third-parties
e. Organizations get value from data analytics
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: Data should be considered a strategic asset for any organization, but not all organizations will sell their
data to third parties (p.18).
26. The understanding of data in terms of economic value is referred to as...
a. Data asset estimation
b. Data asset valuation
c. Economics of data asset
d. Customer data value
e. Customer data market value
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: The process of understanding and calculating the economic impact and value of data to an organization
is referred to as data asset valuation (p. 77).
27. What is the data source of a Data Warehouse?
a. Master Data
b. Conformed dimension contents from separate repositories
c. Data Structures based on performance
d. Historical, atomized data
e. Staging area
Topic: Data Warehousing & Business Intelligence
Explanation: Confirmed dimension contents from separate Operational Data Stores (ODS) serve as the data source
for the Data Warehouse. An ODS is an integrated database that contains current, volatile data. It serves as the data
source to the Data Warehouse, and can also be used as a resource to audit the Data Warehouse (p. 391).
28. Which of the following is not necessary to realize Data Governance programs?
a. Develop policies and procedures
b. Cultivate data stewardship practices at multiple levels within the organization
c. Engage in organizational change management efforts
d. Engage in behaviours necessary to manage data as an asset
e. Communicate updated policies and procedures to external stakeholders
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: Communication of policies and procedures to people outside the organization is not a step required to
achieve Data Governance (p. 68).
29. High-quality data is a means to...
a. Organizational success
b. Decreased customer service calls
c. Means unto itself
d. Make quicker decisions
e. Means to an end
Topic: Data Ethics
Explanation: All these statements may be true in part, but at its core, high quality data is essential for organizational
success (p. 452).
30. What is the importance of Data Lineage Analysis to Data Flow?
a. It depicts how data moves through business processes and systems in the data flow
b. It explains the state of data at a given point in the data flow
c. It explains the direction of processes and systems in the data flow
d. It is a type of data lineage documentation
e. It shows the direction of data in a data flow
Topic: Data Architecture
Explanation: Data lineage analysis helps the users to ensure that the source of their data is trustful. Data flows are a
kind of data lineage analysis that describes how data flows through the systems and processes of a business. An end-
to-end data flow can also describe the source of data, where it is stored and how it moves between multiple systems
and processes. Data lineage analysis provides an explanation of the data state at a point in time in a data flow (p. 98).
31. What kind of software helps transform pick lists and controlled vocabularies into pick lists searchable from
thehome page?
a. Trem Management
b. Software Management
c. Transformation Management
d. Content Management
e. Home Page Software
Topic: Document & Content Management
Explanation: Content Management Software can help transform pick lists and controlled vocabularies into pick lists
searchable from the home page. Content Management Software refers to the technology for creating, collaborating,
publishing, and storing digital content (p. 311).
32. "Control of contracts dealing with data, such as cloud storage, external data purchase, sales of data as a
product,and outsourcing data operations" describes which driver of Data Governance?
a. Vendor management
b. General risk management
c. Data Quality improvement
d. Metadata Management
e. Data Privacy
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: Vendor Management is a driver which helps improve processes for data governance. It focuses on the
control of data contracts like cloud storage, external data purchase and outsourcing of data operations. It is essential
for this driver to be completely alligned with an organization's strategy to ensure effective solving of problems and
adoptation of government practices (p. 70).
33. Master & Reference Data Management are forms of which of the following?
a. Data Integration
b. Data Security
c. Data Warehousing
d. Dataset Procurement
e. Dataset Valuation
Topic: Master & Reference Data Management
Explanation: Master Data Management and Reference Data Management are forms of Data Integration. (Pg. 375)
34. The Strong-Wang framework describes ______ dimensions across ______ general categories of data quality.a.
4, 15
b. 15, 4
c. 5, 14
d. 14, 5
e. 15, 5
Topic: Data Ethics
Explanation: The Strong-Wang framework focuses on data consumers’ perceptions of data. It describes 15
dimensions across four general categories of data quality (p. 455).
35. What is the name for an authoritative system where data is created, captured, and/or maintained through a
definedset of rules and expectations?
a. A system of documents
b. A system of record
c. A system of data
d. A system of files
e. A system of reference
Topic: Master & Reference Data Management
Explanation: A system of record is an authoritative system where data is created/captured and/or maintained through a
defined set of rules and expectations. It is where the data originates (p. 358).
36. What is the goal of Data Architecture?
a. To bridge the gap between business strategy and execution
b. To help organize a business strategy
c. For ease of data management
d. To structure and organize data
e. To facilitate smooth execution
Topic: Data Architecture
Explanation: The goal of Data Architecture is to serve as a bridge between business strategy and technology
execution (p. 99).
37. How does Data Modelling and Design help an organization complete initiatives?
a. Data Modelling depicts data visually
b. Data Modelling quickens the success of broad-scoped initiatives
c. Data Modelling confirms and documents understanding of different perspectives
d. Data Modelling increases the opportunity for future initiatives
e. Data Modelling visually presents Metadata
Topic: Data Modelling
Explanation: Data Modelling confirms and documents the understanding of different perspectives, and this sets the
foundation for successful completion of data-related initiatives (p.125).
38. A Services Based Architecture has these three main components:
a. Batch Layer, Data Layer, Serving Layer
b. Batch Layer, Speed Layer, Serving Layer
c. Statistics Layer, Data Layer, Serving Layer
d. Serving Layer, Speed Layer, Statistics Layer
e. Batch Layer, Speed Layer, Data Layer
Topic: Big Data
Explanation: Service Based Architecture has three main components:
○ Batch layer: A data lake serves as the batch layer, containing both recent and
historical data
○ Speed layer: Contains only real-time data
○ Serving layer: Provides an interface to join data from the batch and speed layers (p.
505).
39. A thesaurus is a type of controlled vocabulary used for what purpose?
a. Content Management
b. Content Generation
c. Content Retrieval
d. Content Data
e. Content Reference
Topic: Document & Content Management
Explanation: A thesaurus is a type of controlled vocabulary used for content retrieval. It combines the characteristics of
synonym lists and taxonomies (p. 314).
40. What is the name for the index that points to Master Data in the various systems of record?a. Record
b. Table of Contents
c. Appendix
d. Registry
e. Database
Topic: Master & Reference Data Management
Explanation: A Registry is an index that points to Master Data in the various systems of record. A registry is
comparatively easy to maintain given that an update requires only a few changes in the index system. However,
assembling a complex query would require pulling Master Data from multiple systems (p. 369).
41. What are the two types of Data Integration processes involved in Data Warehousing?
a. Historical Loads, Ongoing Loads
b. Statistical Update, Historical Loads
c. Historical Update, Statistical Update
d. Historical Update, Ongoing Loads
e. Historical Loads, Ongoing Update
Topic: Data Warehousing & Business Intelligence
Explanation: The two types of Data Warehousing processes are historical loads and ongoing updates. Historical loads
are a type of data that is usually loaded just once or a few times and then never loaded again. Ongoing updates, on
the other hand, are loaded consistently and executed to ensure that the data is up-to-date (p. 392).
42. In the context of Information Technology, which of the following defines data?
a. Information stored on computers
b. Information stored on SD cards
c. Information stored in a Data Warehouse or Operational Data Store
d. Information in a data center or in the cloud
e. Information stored in digital form
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: Information Technology is primarily concerned with the subset of data that can be stored electronically (p.
18).
43. Which of the following is one of the ethical principles for data as adapted from the Belmont Principles?a. Honesty
b. Transparency
c. Integrity
d. Respect for persons
e. Fairness
Topic: Data Ethics
Explanation: Respect for Persons, Justice, and Beneficence form the Belmont Principles, which were developed by
the U.S. HSS in 1979 to guide the ethics of medical research. They are also applicable as guiding principles within
the field of Data Management (p. 52).
44. In past decades, information such as names and addresses might not have been considered data. Why has
thatchanged?
a. These forms of information can now be analysed to make business decisions
b. These forms of information can now can be stored digitally
c. These forms of information are now available online
d. These forms of information can be used for Data Science
e. These forms of information can be stored by the organization because of improvements in data encryption
Topic: Data Modelling
Explanation: Names and addresses are now regarded as data because they can be aggregated and analysed for the
purposes of organizational decision making (p. 19).
45. Which of the following is not a factor that determines the ability of an organization to adopt Data
Architecturepractices?
a. Level of acceptance of formal data governance
b. Ability to holistically consider the enterprise and not focus on project delivery and IT
c. Cultural receptivity to an architectural approach
d. Organizational recognition of data as a business asset
e. Ability to put proper structures in place for the implementation of Data Architecture practices
Topic: Data Architecture
Explanation: The ability of an organization to put structures in place for Data Architecture is not included in the
DMBOK as a necessary factor for the implementation of Data Architecture practices in an organisation (p. 119).
46. Thomas Redman defines a data item as...
a. Representative triple
b. Representative double
c. Representable triple
d. Representable double
e. Representing triple
Topic: Data Ethics
Explanation: Thomas Redman defined data as a representable triple, referring to three abstract features of data: data
model, data values, data representation. Data model refers to the conceptual view of the data structure. Data value
refers to the relevance and clarity of the data. Data representation refers to the robustness of the data structure (i.e.,
its ability to accommodate changes without having to change basic structures) and flexibility (i.e., the capacity to
change to accommodate new demands) (p. 455).
47. The Shewhart / Deming cycle is also known as...
a. Database cycle
b. Data Management
c. Content Generation
d. Redman Cycle
e. Plan-do-check-act
Topic: Data Ethics
Explanation: Based on the scientific method, the Shewhart / Deming cycle is a problem-solving model known as 'plan-
do-check-act' (p. 462).
48. Which of the following is NOT a principle guiding online data practices in the United States?a. Ownership of
data
b. Identity
c. The right to be forgotten
d. Right to sue against the proliferation of false personal information online
e. Freedom of speech online
Topic: Data Ethics
Explanation: Emerging initiatives and programs have been designed to codify principles to guide ethical online
behavior, but they do not include the right to sue against proliferation of false personal information online (p. 56).
49. What are the essential characteristics of high-quality data definitions?
a. Concreteness, Accuracy, Succinctness
b. Clarity, Accuracy, Succinctness
c. Clarity, Completeness, Succinctness
d. Clarity, Accuracy, Completeness
e. Clarity, Completeness, Concreteness
Topic: Data Modelling
Explanation: Three important features of high quality data definitions are clarity, accuracy, and completeness.
High-quality data is collected and analyzed using a strict set of guidelines that ensure consistency (p. 129).
50. Data Science used to be called which of the following?
a. Applied Data
b. Data Application
c. Applied Statistics
d. Data Analysis
e. Statistics Application
1. Which of the following is NOT a stage of the Data Quality Management Cycle?
a. Plan
b. Check
c. Act
d. Intervene
e. Do
Topic: Data Quality
Explanation: The Data Quality Management Cycle contains four stages: Plan, Do, Check, Act (p. 463).
2. Which of the following is not included in the opinion of the European Data Protection Supervisor (EDPS) on
dataethics?
a. Right to request removal of personal data
b. Accountable controllers who determine personal information processing
c. Privacy-conscious engineering and design of data processing products and services
d. Future-oriented regulation of data processing and respect for the rights to privacy and to data protection e.
Empowered individuals
Topic: Data Integration and Interoperability
Explanation: In 2015, the European Data Protection Supervisor published an opinion on digital ethics highlighting the
“engineering, philosophical, legal, and moral implications” of developments in data processing and Big Data. It called
for a focus on data processing that upholds human dignity, and set out four pillars required for an information
ecosystem that ensures ethical treatment of data. The four pillars are answer choices B through E (p. 52).
3. Which framework component of Data Governance includes education, training, and awareness?a. Roles
b. Processes
c. Communication
d. Data
e. Tools
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: Data Governance processes should include training and communication to raise awareness about how
to manage data as an asset (p. 75).
4. In the Data Management Practices Hierarchy, advanced data practices include the following except: a.
Analytics
b. Mining
c. Big Data
d. Warehousing
e. Data Quality
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: Data Quality is a basic, not an advanced, data practice. Poor Data Quality leads to ambiguity, which
introduces risk to an organization (p. 25).
5. What position should be responsible for leading the Data Governance Council (DGC)?
a. DGC Chair should rotate among executive positions
b. Chief Data Architect or Chief Data Modeler
c. Chief Data Steward or Chief Data Officer
d. Chief Information Officer or Chief Technology Officer
e. Any executive can chair the DGC
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: Data Stewards are accountable and responsible for Data Governance activities. They
should have a portion of their work time dedicated to these activities, which could include
leading the Data Governance Council.
Alternatively, the Chief Data Officer could take on this responsibility (p. 76).
6. What process describes controlling versions of the organization's datasets?a. Data Quality
b. Master Data
c. Reference Data
d. Data Modeling
e. Metadata
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: Metadata entails the management of information related to the data lifecycle including maintaining a
historical record (i.e. data lineage) (p. 422).
7. What is a hash?
a. An algorithm that converts encoded values into data (or vise versa)
b. A public key that is freely available and used to encode data along with a receiver's private key c. A
clearinghouse for encrypted data
d. A method for masking sensitive data
e. A meetup for Data Strategists
Topic: Data Security
Explanation: A hash is a form of encryption that uses algorithms to convert data into a mathematical representation.
The exact algorithms and the order of their application must be known in order to reverse the encryption process and
reveal the original data (p. 227).
8. Which type of Metadata focuses on the content and condition of the data and includes details related to
DataGovernance?
a. Technical Metadata
b. Operational Metadata
c. Structural Metadata
d. Business Metadata
e. Rights Metadata
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: Business Metadata includes the non-technical names and definitions of concepts, subject areas,
entities, and attributes; attribute data types and other attribute properties; range descriptions; calculations;
algorithms and business rules; and valid domain values and their definitions (p. 422).
9. Taxonomy refers to…
a. Any classification or controlled vocabulary
b. Classification of organizational resources
c. Arrangement of controlled vocabulary
d. Constrained set of organizational vocabulary
e. Categorization of controlled phrases
Topic: Data Modeling and Design
Explanation: Taxonomy is an umbrella term referring to any classification or controlled vocabulary. The best-known
example would be the classification system for all living things that was developed by Swedish biologist Carl Linnaeus
(p. 312).
10. What position is responsible for the quality and use of their organization's data assets?a. Data Architect
b. Data Modeler
c. Data Steward
d. Chief Information Officer
e. Data Scientist
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: The Data Architect and Data Modeler roles are related to database architecture. The Chief Information
Officer is responsible for Information Technology across the enterprise. A Data Scientist uses an organization’s data
assets to derive insights. The Data Steward role is responsible for the quality and use of data assets within their
specified domain (p. 78).
11. Which is the most accurate definition of the term data life cycle?
a. It represents the path along which data moves from its point of origin to its point of usage, storage,
and disposal
b. It represents managing the risks associated with data
c. It represents the data used to manage and use data
d. It represents a range of perspectives on how to approach Data Management
e. It represents the theory of data being cross-functional
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: Data lifecycle management includes the implementation of policies and procedures for the acquisition,
migration, retention, expiration, and disposal of data (p. 173).
12. What is the correct definition for change data capture?
a. A Data Integration approach that updates a Data Warehouse with big changes from Operational Systems
b. A Data Warehousing approach to transforming Operational Systems into Data Marts
c. A Data Quality initiative that assesses any discrepancies between data stored in a Data Warehouse and data
in Operational Systems
d. A Metadata document that describes how data is transformed in the Data Warehouse
e. A Data Integration approach that updates a Data Warehouse with small changes from Operational
Systems
Topic: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
Explanation: Change data capture (CDC) refers to the process of detecting that data has changed and ensuring that
only the changed information is updated appropriately across the data storage system (p. 190).
13. What is the purpose of the Conceptual Data Model?
a. To provide an outlook of the organization by documenting how different business entities relate to one another
b. To provide a data-centric perspective of the organization by documenting how different business
entities relate to one another
c. To provide an experimental perspective of the organization by documenting how different business entities
relate to one another
d. To define the structure of data elements and to set relationships between them
e. Documents how data are to be stored and accessed on storage media of computer hardware
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: A Conceptual Data Model captures the high-level data requirements as a collection of related concepts. It
contains only the basic and critical business entities within a given realm and function, showing a description of each
entity and the relationships between entities (p. 145).
14. A dataset comprised of county-level statistics provided by the national government would be an example ofa.
Reference Data
b. Master Data
c. Historical Data
d. Metadata
e. Transactional Data
Topic: Master and Reference Data Management
Explanation: Reference Data typically comes from outside the organization. It is used to provide additional context on
the organization’s data. It can help relate the organization’s data to information beyond the boundaries of the
organization (p. 354).
15. When Metadata activities are focused on documents, the information is referred to as…a. Legal Metadata
b. Reference Metadata
c. Administrative Metadata
d. Preservation Metadata
e. Descriptive Metadata
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: Preservation Metadata represents information about document storage, archival conditions, and rules for
conservation (p. 425).
16. A dataset comprised of the X, Y coordinates of company stores would be an example ofa. Metadata
b. Master Data
c. Reference Data
d. Temporary Data
e. Historical Data
Topic: Master and Reference Data Management
Explanation: Master Data is the consistent and uniform set of identifiers and extended attributes that describes the
core entities of the enterprise (e.g., customers, prospects, citizens, suppliers, sites, vendors, etc.) (p. 363).
17. What causes data redundancy or data rot?
a. Poor assimilation of collected data
b. Poor data management practices
c. Server and human error
d. Dataset inaccuracies developed over time
e. All of the above
Topic: Data Quality
Explanation: All of the above would create Data Quality issues contributing to data rot (p. 29).
18. What is the definition of a business rule in the context of Data Governance?
a. Outlines the steps to take when a business disruption occurs
b. Clarifies an organization's objectives
c. Defines constraints on what can and cannot be done in the organization
d. Contains an organization's contingency plans
e. Clarifies an organization's goal
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: Business rules describe how businesses should operate internally in order to be successful.
Data-related business rules characterize data so that it is fit for its purpose within an organization (p. 464).
19. A dataset comprised of customer credit reports purchased from a third-party vendor would be an example of
a. Transactional Data
b. Protected Data
c. Reference Data
d. Master Data
e. Metadata
Topic: Master and Reference Data Management
Explanation: Typically, Reference Data originates outside of the organization. Sometimes Reference Data is used to
refer to a dataset that crosses internal organizational boundaries and may not be owned by a single department. In
this case, credit reports from a third-party vendor would represent external Reference Data (p. 356).
20. Which of the following is true of a recursive relationship?
a. It is unary
b. It is also referred to as self-referencing
c. It involves only one entity
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: A recursive relationship could be used to represent a hierarchy or a network where only one entity is
involved (for example, the relationship between a course and prerequisites, which are themselves courses) (p. 131).
21. What is the purpose of the Physical Data Model?
a. To provide a data-centric perspective of the organization by documenting how business entities relate to one
another
b. Documents how data are to be discarded from the storage media of computer hardware
c. Documents how data are to be stored and accessed in a database
d. To define the structure of data elements and to set relationships between them
e. To document how data should be stored and accessed
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: The Physical Data Model represents the most granular level of detail in the Data Modeling process, and
results in a detailed technical solution that specifies a set of hardware, software, and network tools within which the
data will be stored and accessed (p.149).
22. What is the purpose of referential integrity?
a. Rules that ensure data completeness
b. Rules that ensure data validity
c. Rules that ensure data accuracy
d. Rules that ensure data is fit for organizational needs
e. Rules that ensure data accessibility
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: Referential integrity is necessary to ensure high-quality data at an application or system level through
ensuring data validity (i.e., consistency within the defined domain) (p. 468).
23. What is the best definition of a Data Warehouse?
a. Any data stores or extracts used to support the delivery of Business Intelligence
b. An explanation of how data is linked to physical products in a warehouse
c. A data system based on incremental updates from Operational Systems
d. A data system in which data is stored in normal form
e. Any data store that can be accessed by business users and data analysts
Topic: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
Explanation: A data warehouse is a data storage system that provides decision-support data to aid data practitioners
in reporting and analysis (p. 384).
24. What is the purpose of a data lineage tool?
a. List of potential data integration opportunities
b. Formal Data Quality assessment of a dataset
c. Description of a dataset's phase within the data lifecycle
d. Tracking of historical changes to a dataset
e. Collection of all the metadata related to a dataset
Topic: Data Quality
Explanation: Data lineage provides information regarding historical tracking and can help explain the state of data at a
given point in the data flow (p. 471).
25. What is the purpose of the Logical Data Model?
a. To define the structure of data elements and to set relationships between them b. To compare
data elements
c. To define data elements
d. To document how data should be stored and accessed
e. To provide a data-centric perspective of the organization by documenting how business entities relate to one
another
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: A Logical Data Model is a detailed representation of data requirements, typically in support of a specific
usage context, such as application requirements (p. 146).
26. What are the two perspectives on an organization's data?
a. Social and business perspectives
b. Business and technical perspectives
c. Internal and external perspectives
d. Technical and social perspectives
e. Social and technological perspectives
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: Data Governance must take into account the business and technical implications of Data Strategy (p.
87).
27. Which international initiative established a Metadata standard?
a. BASEL II
b. BASEL IV
c. BASEL I
d. BASEL III
e. BASEL
Topic: Data Security
Explanation: The regulatory compliance requirement Basel II refers to the Principles for Effective Risk Data
Aggregation and Risk Reporting. Since 2006, financial institutions doing business in European Union countries are
required to report standard information providing liquidity (p. 87).
28. What is the definition of cardinality?
a. Qualitative description of the relationship of elements across datasets
b. Measurement specifications for elements in a dataset
c. Count of data tables in a system
d. Classifies variables within a dataset
e. Defines how many instances of one entity are related to instances of another entity
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: In a relationship between two entities, cardinality captures how many of one entity (entity instances)
participates in the relationship with how many of the other entity (p. 130).
29. Which one of the following is NOT a part of the Strategic Alignment Model?
a. Business Strategy
b. Stakeholder Management
c. IT Strategy
d. Information Systems
e. Organization and Process
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: Stakeholder Management is not a part of the Strategic Alignment Model. Data Strategy should include
business strategy, IT strategy, Information Systems, Organization and Process in order to best to use organizational
information to achieve competitive advantage (p. 36).
30. Why would an organization choose to purchase Reference Data?
a. To summarize basic information about their enterprise data
b. To set up data compliance and governance processes
c. To enhance data quality and to facilitate analysis across the organization
d. To define how data will be captured and tracked
e. To document transactional data systems
Topic: Master and Reference Data Management
Explanation: An organization would choose to purchase Reference Data and make it available across the organization
in order to ensure that its internal data is valid and consistent with external context (p. 353).
31. Which of the following is at the core of the DAMA wheel?
a. Metadata
b. Data Governance
c. Goals and Principles
d. Data quality and Architecture
e. Data Management
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: Data Governance is at the center of Data Management activities given that Governance is required for
consistency within and balance between other Data Management functions (p. 39).
32. What should a business continuity plan include?
a. Defines unplanned disruptions that may occur
b. Outlines how a business will continue operating during an unplanned disruption in service c.
Precedes business rules
d. Explains to external stakeholders why performance expectations are not being met
e. Provides explanation to customers during an unplanned disruption in service
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: A Business Continuity Plan (or Disaster Recovery Plan) contains written policies, procedures, and
information designed to mitigate the impact of threats to an organization’s data, including documents, and to recover
them as quickly as possible, with minimum disruption, in the event of a disruption (p. 327).
33. What organization should be responsible for leading Data Governance?
a. Data Governance Office
b. Project Management Office
c. Data Quality Board
d. IT Leadership Team
e. Data Governance Council
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: The Data Governance Council conducts the final review, revision, and adoption of Data Governance
policies (p. 87).
34. Which of the following statements is NOT true of DAMA's Environmental Factors Hexagon?
a. It provides a key for reading the DMBOK context diagrams
b. It shows the relationship between people, processes, and technology
c. It elaborates on the relationship between knowledge areas
d. It puts goals and principles at the center
e. All of the statements are true
Topic: Data Management
Explanation: The Environmental Factors Hexagon does not provide additional information about the relationship
between knowledge areas. The Aiken Pyramid highlights how the knowledge areas build upon each other (p. 49).
35. What is the definition of a surrogate key?
a. A unique alphanumeric sequence is attached to each record in a dataset
b. A key that links records in a dataset to other data tables
c. A set of data records that are independent of any other data
d. A unique identifier attached to each record, which may be used as a primary key
e. A document that identifies how data is linked to business rules
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: The surrogate key is often used as the primary key. It is typically an alphanumeric string that is
incremented per each record and does not have any meaning beyond its usefulness as an identifier (p. 134).
36. What does data mining determine?
a. The process of collecting data elements to help organizations formally manage and gain better control over
data assets
b. The process of finding correlated features in a dataset
c. The process of manipulating data using a computer
d. The process of describing the results of various operations in a data warehouse
e. The process of finding anomalies, patterns, and correlations within large datasets to predict
outcomes
Topic: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
Explanation: Data mining efforts aim to discover unknown relationships by revealing patterns in the dataset (p. 507).
37. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Data Quality Oversight Board?
a. Producing certifications and compliance records
b. Conducting feedback interviews with customers
c. Establishing communications and feedback mechanisms
d. Developing and maintaining Data Quality
e. Setting Data Quality improvement priorities
Topic: Data Quality
Explanation: The Data Quality Oversight Board is the program team responsible for engaging both business and
technical data professionals. They must undertake functions A, C, D, and E in order to ensure data is fit for
consumption for a variety of purposes (p.454)
38. Which of the following is NOT a way of storing Master Data?
a. Transaction Hub
b. Repository
c. Virtual
d. Consolidated
e. Registry
Topic: Master and Reference Data Management
Explanation: The three basic approaches to implementing a Master Data model are Registry, Transaction Hub, and
Consolidated. A Registry is an index that points to Master Data in the various systems of record. In a Transaction
Hub, applications interface with the hub to access and update Master Data. In this system, the Transaction
Hub is the system of record for Master Data. The Consolidated approach is a hybrid of the Registry and Transaction
Hub methodologies: systems of record manage their local Master Data and Master Data is consolidated within a
common repository. An additional approach to storing Master Data is the Virtual respository, which utilizes data
virtualization to provide an integrated view of Master Data through multiple, on demand views of Master Data to
applications, processes and other entities that require access. Repository is a generic term for a storage system and
not a storage methodology in and of itself (p. 369).
39. What are relationship labels in database technology?
a. Verb phrases describing how to take action on the organization's mission statement
b. Verb phrases comparing business rules
c. Verb phrases linking business rules with technical specifications
d. Verb phrases describing business rules in each direction between two entities
e. Verb phrases describing relationships between data tables
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: The relationship labels in technology are associations between tables that are created using join
statements to retrieve data. Metadata repositories must have an easily accessible way for people to view and
navigate the contents of the repository (p.164).
40. What is the purpose of ISO 8000?
a. Enable the exchange of complex information in an application-neutral form
b. Create, collect, store, maintain, transfer, process, and present metadata
c. Promote timely and cost-effective data integration
d. Report on potential data security risk
e. Ensure that data can only be used or read using a specific licensed software application
Topic: Data Quality
Explanation: ISO 8000 refers to the International Standard for Data Quality and covers planning, quality control,
assurance, and improvement (p. 435).
41. What is the definition of Process Metadata?
a. Identifies what data is in the process of updating
b. Defines and describes the characteristics of other data systems
c. Describes the data asset, including the asset’s title, author, and relevant keywords
d. Indicates how a digital asset is organized
e. Classifies digital assets
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: Metadata includes information about technical and business processes, data rules and constraints, and
logical and physical data structures (p.417).
42. What is the difference between Master and Reference Data?
a. Master data is developed within the organization while Reference data is acquired from outside the
organization
b. Master data is limited to predefined domain values while Reference data is not limited in this way
c. Master data should be distinguished from reference data.
d. Master data is a set of data that describes and gives information about other data.
e. These terms are used interchangeably to describe the same concept
Topic: Master and Reference Data Management
Explanation: Reference Data originates outside of the organizations that use it. Some cross internal organizational
boundaries and may not be owned by a single department. The goals of MDM include ensuring the availability of
accurate, current values while reducing risks associated with ambiguous identifiers (those identified with more than
one instance of an entity and those that refer to more than one entity) any information that organizations can agree to
share (p. 356)
43. Which is the most important Data Quality dimension?
a. Completeness
b. Consistency
c. Integrity
d. Timeliness
e. It is impossible to identify the most important Data Quality dimension
Topic: Data Quality
Explanation: There is no single, agreed-to set of Data Quality dimensions, but DMBOK proposes a set of dimensions
that contain common ideas and aim to be objectively measurable (p. 458).
44. What is an alternate key?
a. A key in a relational database that is unique for each record and used as the primary identifier for that record
b. A sequentially generated unique number is attached with each record
c. A candidate key not selected to be the primary key
d. A key in a relational database that links records to other tables
e. Another term for a surrogate key
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: An alternate key is a candidate key that although unique, was not chosen as the primary key. An
alternate key can still be used to find specific entity instances. Often the primary key is a surrogate key and the
alternate keys are business keys (p.138).
45. What process directly involves assessing the impact of proposed changes to existing data product entries?a.
Data Governance
b. Metadata
c. Master Data
d. Reference Data
e. Data Architecture
Topic: Metadata
Explanation: Metadata directly involves assessing the impact of proposed changes to existing data product entries.
For example, Metadata provides information about the technical details of data and the processes that move it within
and between systems (p. 427).
46. The Physical Data Model does NOT include which of the following?
a. Storage objects
b. Indexing objects
c. Indicator of Data Steward owner
d. Encapsulated code objects
e. Code to connect database objects
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: In the context of a Physical Data Model, a storage object defines how data is stored. For a relational
database, the storage object is the schema that contains data tables. For a non-relational database, the storage
object represents the file system.
Indexing objects are used in document management for classification and the development of taxonomies that enable
storage and retrieval of documents.
In addition, the Physical Data Model includes encapsulated code objects required to enforce data quality rules,
connect database objects, and achieve database performance. An example of an encapsulated code object would be
a Java or .NET class executed within a database management system (DBMS).
The Physical Data Model does not typically include organizational details such as Data Steward owner (p. 201, 206).
47. What are the three qualities of an effective Data Governance process?
a. Measured, objective, embedded
b. Sustainable, embedded, measured
c. Optimism, objective, sustainable
d. Embedded, systematic, sustainable
e. Sustainable, realistic, embedded
Topic: Data Governance
Explanation: The DMBOK tells us that Data Governance must be sustainable, embedded, and measured in order to
have a chance of achieving its objectives (p. 71).
48. Which of the following is NOT a key?
a. Logical key
b. Surrogate key
c. Primary key
d. Alternate key
e. Foreign key
Topic: Data Modelling and Design
Explanation: An identifier (also called a key) is a set of one or more attributes that uniquely define an instance of an
entity. Keys can be defined based on how they are constructed (e.g., simple, compound, composite, surrogate) or
their function (e.g., candidate, primary, alternate). A logical key is NOT a type of key (p.133).
49. What are the Belmont Principles?
a. Respect for Persons, Beneficence, Justice
b. Human Dignity, Civil Rights, Respect for Privacy
c. Justice, Fairness, Equality
d. Right to Privacy, Right to Data Access, Right to be Forgotten
e. Data Quality, Data Adequacy, Data Management
Topic: Data Quality
Explanation: The Belmont Principles were developed by the U.S. HSS in 1979 to guide the ethics of medical research,
and they are also applicable as guiding principles within the field of Data Management (p. 52).
50. What is the name of the legislation that protects educational records in the United States?
a. SOX
b. BASEL II
c. EPA
d. GDPR
e. FERPA
Question 1
Which of these is NOT a standard motivation for Data Governance?
A. Pre-emptive governance
B. Reactive governance
C. Devolved governance
D. Proactive governance
E. Decentralised Governance
Question 2
Every enterprise is subject to many governmental and industry regulations, many
of which regulate how data and information is used and managed. Part of the Data
Governance Function is to:
A. Perform ad-hoc audits of possible regulations to report to the DG Council on an information only basis
B. This is a risk and audit responsibility; Data Governance plays no role in this
C. Monitor and ensure that organisations meet any regulatory compliance requirements
D. Enforce enterprise-wide mandatory compliance to regulations
E. This is about data; Data Governance is accountable for the whole process, with Risk and Audit reporting to DG
Question 3
In the Information Management Lifecycle, the Data Governance Activity 'Define the
Data Governance Framework' is considered in which Lifecycle stage?
A. Enable
B. Plan
C. Specify
D. Maintain and Use
E. Create and Acquire
Question 4
How do data management professionals maintain commitment of key stakeholders
to the data management initiative?
A. Weekly email reports showing metrics on data management progress/ lack thereof
B. It is not necessary, as the stakeholders signed up at the beginning of the program
C. Rely on the stakeholder group to be self-sustaining
D. Continuous communication education and promotion of the importance and value of of data and information assets
E. Find and deliver benefits to the stakeholders early in the initiative
Question 5
Which of these are NOT true of Data Governance?
A. There are different organization models for DG
B. DG is a continuous process of data improvement
C. IT is a key stakeholder in DG
D. DG is the exercise of authority and control over the management of data assets
E. A DG initiative should always be led by the IT department
Question 6
Documents and records should be classified based on the _______ level of
confidentiality for information found in the record.
A. Overall
B. General
C. Average
D. Highest
Question 7
Which of these describes activities in the document/record management lifecycle?
A. Acquisition, editing, storage, printing, backup, disposal
B. Identification, management of policies, classification, retention, storage, retrieval and circulation, preservation and
disposal
C. Storage, disposal, managing access
D. Acquisition, classification, storage, purging
E. Encryption, backup, disposal, extraction
Question 8
A document management system is an application used to track and store
electronic documents and electronic images of paper documents which provides
the following capabilities:
A. Wiki, collaboration, online editing
B. Securing forwarding of documents to colleagues, never having to dispose of documents
C. Storage, versioning, security, meta-data management, indexing and retrieval
D. Scanning and transcoding of documents
E. Local disk storage and indexing of documents
Question 9
A goal of 'Document and Content Management' is to ensure effective and efficient
retrieval and use of:
A. Data and information in relational formats
B. Data and information in unstructured formats
C. Data and information in structured formats
D. Information, but not data in unstructured formats
E. Data, but not information in unstructured formats
Question 10
Non value-added information is often not removed because:
A. It should not be removed. All data is value-added
B. Data is an asset. It is likely to be recognized as valuable in the future
C. The policies are unclear of what is defined as non-value-added, storage is cheap so there is no cost driver, and it
takes more effort to dispose than to keep
D. We might need the information at a later stage
E. Legislation is unclear on what should be kept
Question 11
All of the following are TRUE statements on relationship types except:
A. A recursive relationship relates instances of an entity to other instances of the same entity
B. A one-to-one relationship says that a parent entity may have one and only one child entity
C. A one-to-many relationship says that a parent entity may have one or more child entities
D. A many-to-many relationship says that an instance of each entity may be associated with many instances of the
other entity, and vice versa
E. A one-to-many relationship says that a child entity may have one or more parent entities
Question 12
What are relationship labels?
A. The nullability setting on a foreign key
B. A foreign key that has been role-named
C. The verb phrases describing the business rules in each direction between two entities
D. A non-identifying relationship
E. A relationship without cardinality
Question 13
In Dimensional data models, which of these is NOT true regarding Measures?
A. Measures can always be added across all dimensions
B. Care must be taken if a measure is a snapshot figure
C. Measures should be numeric and additive
D. Just because a value is numerical does not mean it is a measure
E. Measures are found in Fact tables
Question 14
Dimension tables:
A. Have many columns but few rows
B. Are the same as Facts
C. Have few columns but many rows
D. Contain measures
E. Do not contain hierarchies
Question 15
Identify who has primary responsibility for data capture and usage design within
programs.
A. Suppliers, Consumers
B. Data Architects, Data Analysts,Database Administrators
C. DM Executive, BI Analysts, Data Security Administrator
D. Software Architects, Developers
E. Business Data Stewards, Subject Matter Experts (SMEs)
Question 16
Which of the following is NOT usually a feature of data quality improvement tools?
A. Parsing
B. Standardization
C. Data profiling
D. Data modelling
E. Transformation
Question 17
Which of these is a key process in defining data quality business rules?
A. Separating data that does not meet business needs from data that does
B. Producing data quality reports & dashboards
C. De-duplicating data records
D. Matching data from different data sources
E. Producing data management policies
Question 18
Top down' and 'bottom up' data analysis and profiling is best done in concert
because:
A. It gives something for the architects to do while the profilers get on with the work
B. It gets everyone involved
C. Data quality tools are more productive when they are effectively configured
D. It allows the profiler to show the business the true state of the data
E. It balances business relevance and the actual state of the data
Question 19
Data quality measurements can be taken at three levels of granularity. They are:
A. Fine data, coarse data, and rough data
B. Data element value, data instance or record, and data set
C. Departmental data, regional data, and enterprise data
D. Person data, location data, and product data
E. Historical data, current data and future dated data
Question 20
The Data Quality Management cycle has four stages. Three are Plan, Monitor and
Act. What is the fourth stage?
A. Manage
B. Reiterate
C. Deploy
D. Prepare
E. Improve
Question 21
What is the role of the Data Governance Council in defining an Information
Security policy?
A. The Data Governance Council should implement the Data Security Policy
B. The Data Governance Council should review and approve the high-level Data Security Policy
C. The Data Governance Council should draft early versions of the Data Security Policy
D. The Data Governance Council should have no role in Data Security
E. The Data Governance Council should define the Data Security Policy
Question 22
Stakeholders whose concerns must be addressed in data security management
include:
A. Media analysts, Internal Risk Management, Suppliers, or Regulators
B. The Internal Audit and Risk committees of the organisation
C. External Standards organisations, Regulators, or the Media
D. All of these
E. Clients, Patients, Citizens, Suppliers, or Business Partners
Question 23
How does Data Security contribute to competitive advantage?
A. Data Security makes it harder for your competitors to find out about who you do business with
B. Data Security helps to protect proprietary information and intellectual property, as well as customer and partner
information
C. Governments do not allow organisations to trade if they do not manage Data Security
D. Data Security makes your competitors invest more effort into trying to find out your trade secrets
E. Data security stops organisations going out of business due to an information leak
Question 24
Which of these are increasingly driving legislation for information security and
data privacy?
A. A desire for economic protectionism
B. An objective of making life more challenging for information management professionals
C. A recognition of Ethical issues in information management
D. A resistance to open data and transparency
E. GDPR
Question 25
Definition of Data Security Policies should be:
A. Conducted by external consultants
B. Reviewed by external Regulators
C. Based on defined standards and templates
D. Determined by external Regulators
E. A collaborative effort between Business and IT
Question 26
In its broadest context, the data warehouse includes:
A. Data stores and extracts that can be transformed into star schemas
B. Either an Inmon or Kimball approach
C. Any data stores or extracts used to support the delivery for BI purposes
D. All the data in the enterprise
E. An integrated data store, ETL logic, and extensive data cleansing routines
Question 27
One of the key differences between operational systems and data warehouses is:
A. Operational systems focus on current data; data warehouses contain historical data
B. Operational systems focus on business processes; data warehouses focus on business strategies
C. Operational systems are available 24x7; data warehouses are available during business hours
D. Operational systems focus on historical data; data warehouses contain current data
E. Operational systems focus on data quality; data warehouses focus on data security
Question 28
A comparatively new architectural approach is where volatile data is provisioned
in a data warehouse structure to provide transactional systems with a combination
of historical and near real time data to meet customer needs. This is a definition
of:
A. Active Data Warehousing
B. On Line Analytical Processing Cube
C. On Line Transactional Processing System
D. Behavioural Decision Support Systems
E. Operational Data Store
Question 29
Critical to the incremental development of the data warehouse is:
A. A strong capacity management process
B. An agile development team
C. The assurance to include velocity, variety and veracity measurement
D. A strong release management process
E. A strong incident management process
Question 30
A data lineage tool enables a user to:
A. Enables rapid development of dashboard reporting
B. Visualize how the data gets to the data lake
C. Track the data from source system to a target database; understanding its transformations
D. Line up the data to support sophisticated glossary management
E. Track the historical changes to a data value
Question 31
Which one of the following statements is true?
A. Master Data Management involves identifying and maintaining approved coded values
B. Business data stewards maintain lists of valid data values for master data instances
C. Reference Data Management involves identifying the 'best' or 'golden' record for each domain
D. Master Data Management requires techniques for splitting or merging an instance of a business entity
E. Managing reference data requires the same activities and techniques as does managing master data
Question 32
What is a common motivation for Reference and Master Data Management?
A. The need to build a Data Dictionary of all core data entities & attributes
B. Regulatory acts such as BCBS239, GDPR and SOX
C. The need to improve data quality and data integrity across multiple data sources
D. The need to consolidate all data into one physical database
E. Business Intelligence and Data Warehousing
Question 33
A common driver for initiating a Reference Data Management program is:
A. It can be a one-time-only project
B. It fosters the creative use of data
C. It will improve data quality and facilitate analysis across the organization
D. It will consolidate the process of securing third party code sets
E. Managing codes and descriptions requires little effort and low cost
Question 34
Master data differs from Reference data in the following way:
A. Master data is stipulated and controlled by Data Governance where Reference data is not
B. Unlike Reference data, Master data is not usually limited to predefined domain values
C. Master data should be held to a higher data quality standard than Reference data
D. Master data does not require a data steward
E. Master data does not require business definitions
Question 35
Plant Equipment is an example of:
A. Reference Data
B. None of these
C. Transaction Data
D. Inverted Data
E. Master Data
Question 36
What would you not expect to find in the MetaData repository?
A. Data Dictionary
B. Data Models
C. Data Lineage diagrams and models
D. Data Requirements
E. Data storage devices
Question 37
The role of the Physical data model in the Metadata repository is:
A. How many master data records are stored in our MDM system
B. Which version of COTS software (E.g. SAP) is implemented
C. To describe how and where our data is stored in our systems applications or packages
D. When the duplicated records were merged
E. What the business definition of data concepts is
Question 38
Metadata repository processes will not include:
A. Managing change to data products (e.g. Data Dictionary or Business Data Glossary) entries e.g. new data term to
be defined, new data requirement, new database tables added, new system included into the technical landscape
B. Selecting Data Management Library software, search, and storage technologies
C. Assessing impact where change to existing data product entries are proposed e.g. the impact of change on related
data on other systems
D. Controlling versions of data product will be required to manage the required single published master copy in
conjunction with the variants potentially established as work in progress
E. All of these
Question 39
Which of the following is a Meta-Data scheme focused specifically on documents?
A. Descriptive Meta-Data
B. Administrative Meta-Data
C. Business Meta-Data
D. Preservation Meta-Data
E. Structural Meta-Data
Question 40
To which of the following initiatives was the establishment of an industry Meta-
Data Standard essential?
A. Internet Protocols
B. JSON
C. EDI
D. BASEL II/ SOX
E. Proprietary XML
Question 41
According to the DAMA DMBoK, the Data Governance Council (DGC) is the highest
authority organization for data governance in an organization. Who should
typically chair this Council?
A. The Chief Data Architect
B. The chair should rotate across the Data Owners
C. Any Executive / C-level participant in the DGC
D. Chief Data Steward (Business) / Chief Data Officer
E. The Chief Information Officer (CIO)
Question 42
What are the primary responsibilities of a data steward?
A. Analyzing data quality
B. Identifying data problems and issues
C. The data analyst who is the subject matter expert (SME) on a set of reference data
D. A business role appointed to take responsibility for the quality and use of their organization's data assets
E. The manager responsible for writing policies and standards that define the data management program for an
organization
Question 43
Which of these does NOT characterize an effective data steward?
A. Is a recognized subject matter expert in the data subject area / business domain that he or she is responsible for
B. Is a highly experienced technical expert in a variety of data management disciplines & tools
C. He / she works collaboratively across the organization with data stakeholders and others identifying data problems
and issues
D. He / She is an effective communicator
E. He / She works in association with the Data Owner to protect and enhance the data assets under his or her control
Question 44
Who is most responsible for communicating and promoting awareness on the
value of Data Governance in the organization?
A. Data Owners and Stewards
B. The Data Governance Council
C. Everyone in the Data Management Community
D. Data Champions
E. The Data Governance Office
Question 45
An umbrella term for any classification or controlled vocabulary is:
A. English
B. Dictionary
C. Metadata
D. Data model
E. Taxonomy
Question 46
Which of these statements has the most meaningful relationship label?
A. An order is connected with order lines
B. An order is related to order lines
C. An order line contains orders
D. An order is composed of order lines
E. An order is associated with order lines
Question 47
In the conceptual data model an instantiation of a particular business entity is
described as:
A. Rule
B. Record
C. Entity occurrence
D. Row
E. Dataset
Question 48
Which of these is NOT a type of key found in a data model?
A. Local key
B. Foreign key
C. Primary key
D. Alternate key
E. Surrogate key
Question 49
A data quality program should limit its scope to:
A. The data that changes most often
B. The data most critical to the enterprise and its customers
C. The highest profile program with the best benefits
D. All the data stored in the enterprise
E. The data that is of interest to the Chief Executive Officer
Question 50
Apart from security requirements internal to the organisation, what other strategic
goals should a Data Security Management system address?
A. Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND Privacy and Confidentiality needs of all stakeholders
B. None of these
C. Compliance with ISO29100 and PCI-DSS
D. Ensuring the organisation doesn't engage in SPAM marketing
E. Compliance with ISO27001 and HIPPA
Question 51
A RACI matrix is a useful tool to support the ______ in an outsourced
arrangement.
A. Segregation of duties
B. Alignment of Business goals
C. Service level Agreement
D. Transfer of access controls
E. Attributing Costs
Question 52
Which of these are characteristics of an effective data security policy?
A. The policies are specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and technology aligned
B. The defined procedures are tightly defined, with rigid and effective enforcement sanctions, and alignment with
technology capabilities
C. The procedures defined are benchmarked, supported by technology, framework based, and peer reviewed
D. None of these
E. The defined procedures ensure that the right people can use and update data in the right way, and that all
inappropriate access and update is restricted
Question 53
When performing an evaluation of analytic applications, which of the following
questions is least relevant to identify the level of effort needed?
A. The Standard source systems for which ETL is supplied
B. How much do the canned processes in the tool match our business
C. Number of source systems we need to integrate into the tool
D. Annual costs such as license, maintenance, etc.
E. How much of the tool infrastructure meets our organisational infrastructure
Question 54
Slice, Dice, Roll-up and Pivot are terms used in what kind of data processing?
A. OLTP
B. EIEIO
C. EDI
D. OLAP
E. ODS
Question 55
You need to discover possible relationships or to show data patterns in an
exploratory fashion when you do not necessarily have a specific question to ask.
What kind of data tool would you use to identify patterns of data using various
algorithms?
A. ETL Jobs
B. Data Mining
C. Meta-Data Data Lineage View
D. Data Quality Profiler
E. Data Visualisation Application
Question 56
Reference Data:
A. Usually has more attributes than Master Data
B. Is more difficult to Govern than Master Data
C. Usually has fewer attributes than Master Data
D. Is free
E. Is also known as External data
Question 57
Which of the following is NOT a primary Master Data Management area of focus?
A. Generating a golden record/best version of the truth
B. Producing read only versions of key data items
C. Producing clear data definitions for Master Data
D. Providing access to golden data records
E. Identifying duplicate records
Question 58
We do not expect to consult the MetaData repository when:
A. Investigating a data issue
B. None of the these
C. Assessing the impact of change
D. Updating the operating system that the Master Data management toolset is running on
E. Undertaking a data quality assessment
Question 59
The role of the Conceptual data model in the Metadata repository is:
A. None of these
B. To determine the primary, alternate and foreign keys of entities
C. To summarize the key data subject areas for a business area at a high level of abstraction to enable the major data
concepts to be understood
D. All of these
E. To agree the cardinality and optionality of relationships between all entities
Question 60
We would expect to consult the Metadata Library when:
A. Implementing a Data Quality tool
B. Selecting a Data Storage device
C. Assessing the impact of change
D. Formulating a Goverance policy
E. Accessing the internet
Question 61
What Organization Structure should set the overall direction for Data Governance?
A. Data Governance Office
B. PMO
C. Data Governance Council
D. Data Quality Board
E. IT Leadership Team
Question 62
The needs of data protection require us to ensure that:
A. Data is encrypted at all times
B. Data is processed only in ways compatible with the intended and communicated use it was collected for, and
respects the consent of the data subject
C. Data can always be freely used in the company as it is a company asset
D. Data is frequently backed up so that it can be recovered in all cases
E. Data is secured with a password
Question 63
Which statement best describes the relationship between documents and records?
A. Documents and records are the same thing
B. Documents are written and records are audio
C. Documents are a sub-set of records
D. Documents and records are not related
E. Records are a sub-set of documents
Question 64
Components of logical data models include:
A. Attributes
B. Keys
C. All of the above
D. Relationships
E. Entities
Question 65
Which of the following statements about business rules is FALSE?
A. All business rules must be identified prior to the start of the data modelling process
B. Action rules are instructions on what to do when data elements contain certain values
C. Data rules constrain how data relates to other data
D. Data rules cannot be shown on a data model
E. Action rules are difficult to define in a data model
Question 66
Complete the following statement. A business rule:
A. Measures a business process
B. Identifies an entity instance
C. Defines an entity
D. Only exists at the level of the physical data model
E. Defines constraints on what can and cannot be done
Question 67
A Data Quality dimension is:
A. A measurable feature or characteristic of data
B. One aspect of data quality used extensively in data governance
C. The value of a particular piece of data
D. A valid value in a list
E. A core concept in dimensional modelling
Question 68
Which of these is NOT a typical activity in Data Quality Management?
A. Identifying data problems and issues
B. Analysing data quality
C. Defining business requirements and business rules
D. Creating inspection and monitoring processes
E. Enterprise Data Modelling
Question 69
When outsourcing information management functions, organisations can:
A. Align strategy and control privacy
B. Reduce cost of compliance and improve turnaround
C. Transfer control but not accountability
D. Transfer accountability but not control
E. Improve controls while reducing costs
Question 70
A CRUD matrix helps organisations map responsibilities for data changes in the
business process work flow. CRUD stands for
A. Create, Read, Update, Delete
B. Cost, Revenue, Uplift, Depreciate
C. Create, Review, Use, Destroy
D. Confidential, Restricted, Unclassified, Destroy
E. Create, React, Utilise, Delegate
Question 71
Critical to the success of the data warehouse is the ability to explain the data. The
DMBoK knowledge area that practices these techniques is:
A. Document & Content Management
B. Reference and Master Data
C. Data Architecture
D. Data Storage and Operations
E. Metadata Management
Question 72
A Data Integration approach that updates a Data Warehouse with small changes
from Operational systems is called:
A. SOA
B. ELT
C. EII
D. CDC
E. ETL
Question 73
According to the DMBoK, the system that contains the best version of the Master
Data is the:
A. Consuming system
B. System of record
C. Golden record
D. Source system
E. Spoke
Question 74
Reference data:
A. Is always supplied by outside vendors
B. Is used to categorize and classify other data
C. Has obvious definitions
D. When incorrect has a greater impact than errors in Master and Transaction data
E. Has limited value
Question 78
The MetaData repository enables us to establish multiple perspectives of data.
These are:
A. Structured and unstructured
B. Business and Technical Perspective
C. Internal and External
D. 3rd normal form and un normalised
E. Dimensional and non dimensional perspective
Question 79
A business perspective product in the MetaData repository is:
A. ETL flow
B. Physical Data Model
C. Data Dictionary
D. Systems Inventory
E. Data Glossary
Question 80
The library of information about our data (our metadata) is built so that:
A. All of these
B. We can have a shared formalized view of requirements (e.g. what data quality we need)
C. We can better understand it
D. We can better manage it
E. We can be consistent in our use of terminology
Question 81
What is the difference between an Industry and a Consensus Meta-Data Standard?
A. Industry Standards refer to internationally approved global standards such as ISO whereas consensus standards
refer to those agreed to within an organisation
B. The terms are used interchangeably to describe the same concept
C. Consensus standards are formed by an international panel of experts whereas industry standards are dictated by
a panel of vendors
D. Consensus standards are formed by government legislation whereas industry standards evolve from best practice
E. Industry standards are determined by regulators within a given global region and consensus standards are agreed
on the Data Governance Council within an organization
Question 82
When new governmental and industry regulations are formulated and enacted,
Data Governance plays a key role in the process of identifying the data and
information components for compliance. What do you see as their most important
role in any regulatory compliance project?
A. Provide access to any possible data set to the compliance team and allow them to mine the data for non-
compliance
B. Take no part in any project at all, declaring it an audit and risk project
C. Create a DG 'in-house' project with a team of data stewards to create a standard response
D. Work in isolation and mine the data and information for compliance and non-compliance issues
E. Working with business and technical leadership to find the best answers to a standard set of regulatory
compliance questions (How, Why, When, etc)
Question 83
When defining your business continuity plan, which of the following should one
consider doing?
A. Make sure that the data is retained sufficiently long, check that critical data is encrypted, check access rights
B. Write a report and discuss with management the required budget
C. Have the contracts in place to acquire new hardware in case of technical problems, define policies
D. Consider written policies and procedures, impact mitigating measures, required recovery time and acceptable
amount of disruption, the criticality of the documents
E. Determine the risk, probability and impact, check document backup frequency
Question 84
In a non-identifying relationship:
A. The primary key of the parent entity becomes a foreign key in the child entity
B. The primary key of the parent entity becomes part of the primary key of the child entity
C. The primary key of the child entity is removed
D. The primary key of the child entity is concatenated
E. The foreign key of the parent entity migrates to the child entity
Question 85
A Data Quality Service Level Agreement (SLA) would normally include which of
these?
A. Respective roles & responsibilities for data quality
B. A breakdown of the costs of data quality improvement
C. Detailed technical specifications for data transfer
D. An enterprise data model
E. A Business Case for data improvement
Question 86
Which of the following is NOT a stage in the Shewhart / Deming Cycle that drives
the data quality improvement lifecycle?
A. Check
B. Do
C. Plan
D. Act
E. Investigate
Question 87
Which of the following is the best example of the data quality dimension of
'consistency'?
A. The revenue data in the dataset is always $100 out
B. The source data for the end of month report arrived 1 week late
C. The phone numbers in the customer file do not adhere to the standard format
D. All the records in the CRM have been accounted for in the data warehouse
E. The customer file has 50% duplicated entries
Question 88
Which of the following is not a good example of BI?
A. Strategic Analytics for Business Decisions
B. Supporting Risk Management Decision Reporting
C. Statutory reporting to a Regulatory Body
D. Decision Support Systems
Question 89
A strong argument for pursuing a Reference Data and/or Master Data management
initiative is:
A. By centralizing the management of Reference and Master data, the organization can conform critical data needed
for analysis
B. It will not require a lot of time
C. Job security for the data people
D. They are essential functions in the data management framework
E. It will not require a lot of effort
Question 90
Which of these is a valid definition of Reference Data?
A. Data that is fixed and never changes
B. Data that has a common and widely understood data definition
C. Data that is widely accessed and referenced across an organisation
D. Data that provides metadata about other data entities
E. Data used to classify or categorize other data
Question 91
Master Data Management:
A. Allows applications to define business entities as needed and manages the mappings between common data in a
central location
B. Is synonymous with Reference Data Management
C. Is time-consuming with questionable impact on data quality
D. Ensures coded values are always used
E. Controls the definition of business entities
Question 92
Which of these is a valid definition of Master Data?
A. Data that rarely, if ever, changes
B. Data that if missing or incorrect will cause transactions and processes to fail
C. Data that is only held in one data source
D. Data that other data sits hierarchically beneath
E. Data about the business entities that provide context for business transactions
Question 93
These are examples of which type of Meta-Data: Data Stores and Data Involved,
Government/ Regulatory Bodies; Roles and Responsibilities; Process
Dependencies and Decomposition?
A. Operational Meta-Data
B. Data Stewardship Meta-Data
C. Business Meta-Data
D. Process Meta-Data
E. Technical Meta-Data
Question 94
Which of these statements are true about Metadata?
A. The repository is always a hybrid architecture
B. The repository is always a centralized architecture
C. Data models are components of a Metadata repository
D. A Metadata repository and a Glossary are synonyms
E. The repository is always a decentralized architecture
Question 95
Which of the following is not a step in the 'document and content management
lifecycle'?
A. Audit documents and records
B. Create a content strategy
C. Manage retention and disposal
D. Capture records and content
E. Manage versions and control
Question 96
In a recursive relationship:
A. The relationship could be mandatory at either end
B. The foreign key must have a role name to avoid attribute duplication
C. All of the above
D. The relationship could be an identifying relationship
E. None of these, recursive relationships are not allowed in Data Models
Question 97
What is Manual Directed Data Quality Correction?
A. The use of automated cleanse and correction tools with results manually checked before committing outputs
B. Teams of data correctors supervised by data subject matter experts
C. Using a data quality improvement manual to guide data cleanse and correction activities
D. The use of spreadsheets to manually inspect and correct data
E. The automation of all data cleanse and correction routines
Question 98
Which of these statements is true?
A. Data Quality Management is usually a one-off project
B. Data Quality Management only addresses structured data
C. Data Quality Management is a continuous process
D. Data Quality Management is a synonym for Data Governance
E. Data Quality Management is the application of technology to data problems
Question 99
Which of these statements best defines Data Security Management?
A. The implementation and execution of checkpoints, checklists, controls, and technical mechanisms to govern the
access to information in an enterprise
B. None of these
C. The definition of controls, technical standards, frameworks, and audit trail capabilities to identify who has or has had
access to information
D. The planning, implementation, and testing of security technologies, authentication mechanisms, and other controls to
prevent access to information
E. The planning, development, and execution of security policies and procedures to provide proper authentication,
authorization, access, and auditing of data and information assets
Question 100
One of the difficulties when integrating multiple source systems is:
A. Completing the data architecture on time for the first release
B. Having a data quality rule applicable to all source systems
C. Modifying the source systems to align to the enterprise data model
D. Maintaining documentation describin
E. g the data warehouse operation
F. Determining valid links or equivalences between data elements
Question 101
Which of the following statements regarding a value domain is FALSE?
A. A value domain is a set of allowed values for a given code set
B. Conforming value domains across the organization facilitates data quality
C. A value domain provides a set of permissible values by which a data element can be implemented
D. More than one set of reference data value domains may refer to the same conceptual domain
E. Value domains are defined by external standard organizations
Question 102
The number of artifacts that must be searched in the Metadata repository for all
Business change projects are:
A. The Business Data Glossary and Systems Inventory must be consulted
B. Conceptual data models and the Business Data Glossary must be examined
C. Conceptual, Logical and Physical models must be examined
D. There is no mandatory number of artefacts to be searched but it is highly recommended that the library is examined
E. The Business Data Glossary and Data Dictionary must be examined
Question 103
Data Governance touch points throughout the project lifecycle are facilitated by
this organization.
A. The Master Data Office
B.
C. The Data Stewards Office
D. The Data Governance Steering Committee
E. The Project Management Office
F. The Data Governance Office
Question 104
In 2009, ARMA International published GARP for managing records and
information. GARP stands for:
A. Generally Available Recordkeeping Practices
B. Global Accredited Recordkeeping Principles
C. Gregarious Archive of Recordkeeping Processes
D. Generally Acceptable Recordkeeping Principles
E. G20 Approved Recordkeeping Principles
Question 105
What type of Meta-Data provides developers and administrators with knowledge
and information about systems?
A. Technical Operational Meta-Data
B. Unstructured Meta-Data
C. Business Meta-Data
D. Process Meta-Data
E. Data Stewardship Meta-Data
Question 106
A type of Master data architecture is:
A. Registry
B. Hybrid
C. Repository
D. All of the above
E. Virtualised
Question 107
Which of the following define the data security touch points in an organisation?
A. Business rules and process workflow
B. Legislation
C. Risk Assessment
D. Internal Audit
Question 108
Which approach is considered most effective when supporting multi-dimensional
business report requests?
A. EDI
B. ODS
C. OLAP
D. OLTP
E. BI
Question 109
Which of the following are primary deliverables of proper document and record
management?
A. Relational databases, database logs, paper documents
B. Managed records in many media formats, e-discovery records, policies and
procedures, contracts and financial documents
C. Spreadsheets, company library books, sales transactions
D. Data from tracking devices, building sensor data
E. Local drives of laptops, transcripts of phone calls
Question 110
The highest level of these data model types is the:
A. Database model
B. Physical model
C. Logical model
D. Conceptual model
E. Dimensional model
Question 111
What is the difference between cardinality rules and data integrity rules?
A. Referential integrity rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can participate in a relationship between
two entities, and cardinality rules ensure valid values
B. There is no difference. Cardinality rules and Referential integrity rules are synonyms
C. Cardinality rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can participate in a relationship between two
entities, and referential integrity rules ensure valid values
D. Referential integrity rules only appear on a relational data model, and cardinality rules only appear on a
dimensional data model
E. Referential integrity rules quantify the relationships between two or more entities, and cardinality rules quantify the
common attributes across entities
Question 112
Which of these is NOT an expected role of a Data Quality Oversight Board?
A. Developing & maintaining data quality
B. Data profiling & analysis
C. Setting data quality improvement priorities
D. Establishing communications & feedback mechanisms
E. Producing certification & compliance policies
Data is an organizational asset. What international standard is concerned with assBet
management?
Answer: ISO 55000/55001.
According to the DMBoK2, which items are not a consideration in a data valuation?
Answer: How much we can be ransomed for by a malware attack..
According to the DMBOK, which of the following are included as Data Management
goals?
Answer: We should ensure that data can be used effectively to add value to the
enterprise..
What is NOT a discipline of Data Management according to the DAMA DMBoK?
Answer: Data Virtualization.
According to the DMBoK, which is not a component of a Data Management strategy?
Answer: Identifying individuals for Data Management roles.
According to the DAMA DMBoK, the Data Governance Council (DGC) is the highest-
authority organization for Data Governance in an organization. Who should typically chair
this Council?
Answer: Chief Data Steward (Business)/Chief Data Officer.
What are the primary responsibilities of a data steward?
Answer: A business role appointed to take responsibility for the quality and use of
their organization's data assets.
When new governmental and industry regulations are formulated and enacted, Data
Governance plays a key role in the process of identifying the data and information
components for compliance. What is the most important role in any regulatory
compliance project?
Answer: Working with business and technical leadership to find the best answers
to a standard set of regulatory compliance questions (How, Why, When, etc…).
What area do you not consider when developing a Data Governance Operating Model?
Answer: The availability of industry data models.
What organization structure should set the overall direction for Data Governance?
Answer: Data Governance Council.
What type of Meta-Data provides developers and administrators with knowledge and
information about systems?
Answer: Technical Operational Meta-Data..
What is the difference between an industry and a consensus meta-data standard?
Answer: The terms are used interchangeably to describe the same concept..
What would you not expect to find in the MetaData repository?
Answer: Data storage devices.
You need to discover possible relationships or to show data patterns in an exploratory
fashion when you do not necessarily have a specific question to ask. What kind of data
tool would you use to identify patterns of data using various algorithms?
Answer: Data Mining.
What factors should you consider when choosing data warehouse tools?
Answer: All of the above..
To answer questions like "What does this report mean?" or "What does this metric
mean?", the data warehouse/BI team should focus on
Answer: End-to-end metadata..
What are relationship labels?
Answer: The verb phrases describing the business rules in each direction between
two entities.
What is the role of the Data Governance Council in defining an Information Security
policy?
Answer: The Data Governance Council should review and approve the high-level
Data Security Policy..
What is the difference between cardinality rules and data integrity rules?
Answer: Cardinality rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can
participate in a relationship between two entities, and referential integrity rules
ensure valid values.
What is the definition of a business rule in the context of Data Governance?
Answer: Defines constraints on what can and cannot be done in the organization.
What is the definition of cardinality?
Answer: Defines how many instances of one entity are related to instances of
another entity.
The Data Quality Management cycle has four stages. Three are Plan, Monitor, and Act.
What is the fourth stage?
Answer: Deploy.
What is the correct definition for change data capture?
Answer: A Data Integration apporach that updates a Data Warehouse with small
changes from Operational Systems.
What is NOT part of Data Integration and Interoperability?
Answer: Data Quality monitoring.
What is the advantage of using point-to-point interaction model instead of a hub-and-
spoke model?
Answer: Lower latency.
What is the purpose of the Conceptual Data Model?
Answer: To provide a data-centric perspective of the organization by documenting
how different business entities relate to one another.
What causes data redundancy or data rot?
Answer: All of the above.
What technique will identify the system of record for the data?
Answer: Analysis of lineage.
What does data mining determine?
Answer: The process of finding anomalies, patterns, and correlations within large
datasets to predict outcomes.
What is the benefit of using role groups to implement Data Security policies?
Answer: It reduces the amount of effort to assign access rights to users if they
inherit rights from their group.
What is the purpose of the Logical Data Model?
Answer: To define the structure of data elements and to set relationships between
them.
According to the DMBOK, the system that contains the "best version" of the master data
is the
Answer: System of record.
What position is responsible for the quality and use of their organization's data assets?
Answer: Data Steward.
What are relationship labels in database technology?
Answer: Verb phrases describing business rules in each direction between two
entities.
What is the goal of collecting and documenting business rules?
Answer: To identify the requirements for the Data Quality.
What should a business continuity plan include?
Answer: Outlines how a business will continue operating during an unplanned
disruption in service.
What kind of interface is in place when systems are tightly coupled?
Answer: A synchronous interface.
What is a common motivation for Reference and Master Data Management?
Answer: The need to improve Data Quality and data integrity across multiple data
sources.
What is the technique for log-based change of data capturing?
Answer: Source Database Management system create data activity logs which are
monitored and applied on the target database.
What position should be responsible for leading the Data Governance Council (DGC)?
Answer: Chief Data Steward or Chief Data Officer.
What is the definition of a surrogate key?
Answer: A unique identifier attached to each record, which may be used as a
primary key.
According to the DMBoK, which of these is NOT a valid dimension of Data Quality?
Answer: Relevance.
What is the purpose of a data lineage tool?
Answer: Tracking Historical changes to a dataset.
What process describes controlling versions of the organization's datasets?
Answer: Metadata.
What is the difference between a Data Security Policy and an information technology
security policy?
Answer: Data Security policies are more granular in nature and take a data-centric
approach.
What is the name of the legislation that protects educational records in the United
States?
Answer: FERPA.
According to Henry Morris of IDC, Analytical Applications provide business with a pre-
built solution to optimize a functional area or industry vertical
Answer: TRUE.
What statement is most accurate about master data metadata?
Answer: Provides the who, what, and where context about master data content.
What is NOT an example of an external outgoing data interchange?
Answer: Purchased prebuilt data.
What is one of the benefits of Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)?
Answer: Enables application independence and the ability to replace systems with
significant changes to interfacing systems.
What is a hash?
Answer: An algorithm that converts encoded values into data (or vise versa).
What is manual directed Data Quality correction?
Answer: The use of automated cleanse and correction tools with results manually
checked before committing outputs.
What/How.
Answer: Which of the following should staff do to guarantee optimum database
performance of database operations?
What is the purpose of ISO 8000?
Answer: Enable the exchange of complex information in an application-neutral
form.
What process directly involves assessing the impact of proposed changes to existing
data product entries?
Answer: Metadata.
What is essential to the successful integration of data?
Answer: Understanding data content and structure.
What is the definition of a root cause of a problem?
Answer: A factor, that if eliminated, removes the problem itself.
According to the DAMA DMBoK, what parts of the Data Lifecycle are integral parts of the
SDLC
Answer: Plan, Specify, Enable.
What is an alternate key?
Answer: A candidate key not selected to be the primary key.
What is the purpose of referential integrity?
Answer: Rules that ensure data validity.
An employee may work for one other employee and may manage one or more
employees. There is an indeterminate number of levels in this management hierarchy.
What type of relationship would work best?
Answer: recursive.
In computer programming, data types can be divided into two categories. What are they?
Answer: Value types and reference types.
What perspective refers to data as one of the "horizontals" of an organisation?
Answer: Enterprise.
What does Subject-orientated mean?
Answer: Dividing a model into commonly recognised subject areas that span
across multiple business processes.
What & Business Management.
Answer: On which axis does Zachman deal with Abstraction?
What are the benefits of a conceptual model?
Answer: Minimizes the likelihood of incomplete, unclear, inconsistent and wrong
requirements.
What type of applications require dimensional modelling?
Answer: Analytical Applications.
What data modelling notation uses "crows feet" to depict cardinality
Answer: IE or Information Engineering.
What is the graphical representation of an object-oriented design called?
Answer: UML (Unified Markup Language).
What types of analysis does business intelligence support
Answer: Operations Analysis and Q&A.
What should the focus of a Release be?
Answer: Business Unit Functionality.
What is the difference between Drill-Down and Drill-Up?
Answer: Drill-down allows users to slice the data along certain dimensions. Drill-
up provides the reverse.
What is the focus of Kimball's Data Staging Area?
Answer: Efficient end-delivery of the analytical data.
What are the benefits of an Enterprise Data Warehouse to an organisation?
Answer: All the options are benefits.
What kind data model does Ralph Kimball's data warehouse approach use?
Answer: Dimensional.
What are the two main approaches to Data Warehousing?
Answer: Corporate Information Factory & Dimensional Modelling.
What types of analysis does business intelligence support
Answer: Operations Analysis and Q&A.
What is the correct term for the consolidation of multiple data entities in a dimension?
Answer: Controlled Redundancy.
What is the differerence between data in Data warehouses and marts and data in
applications?
Answer: All the options are valid.
What artefacts describe how to do Data Governance?
Answer: Data Procedures.
Regulatory complance is often the initial reason for implementing Data
Governance. What is Data Governance's role when faced with data-related reguations?
Answer: Guides the imlpemetation of adequate controls to monitor and document
compliance..
What is the process called which monitors a data set for inserts, updates and deletes,
and then passes these deltas on to other data consumers?
Answer: CDC.
The Transform process makes the selected data compatible with the structure of the
target data store. What is NOT a valid example of transformation?
Answer: The staging of extracted data in memory.
In the source system, gender codes are stored as integers, but the target system stores
them as "male", "female" and "unknown". What type of transformation is needed?
Answer: Semantic conversion.
What is NOT a deliverable of Data Integration and Interoperability?
Answer: Data needs and standards.
What is the process of determining whether two references to real world objects refer to
the same or different objects called?
Answer: Entity resolution.
What is the difference between Metadata and Data?
Answer: It depends on the organisation's requirements focussed on what they
need Metadata for and the source data to meet those requirements..
Metadata repository processes will not include: *
1/1
Managing change to data products (e.g. Data Dictionary or Business Data Glossary) entries e.g.
new data term to be defined, new data requirement, new database tables added, new system
included into the technical landscape
Selecting Data Management Library software, search, and storage technologies
Correct
During the implementation of a data warehouse, a roadmap is used to? *
0/1
Construct intricate security authorization
Demonstrate progress towards the desired end state
Incorrect
Demonstrate alignment to the project plan
Articulate user requirements
Articulate Data Quality checkpoints
Correct answer
Demonstrate alignment to the project plan
Which of these is the best definition of an Ontology?
*
1/1
A mythical creature from ancient Greece
The classification of something
The theory and science of collating structure of living things
A set of concepts and categories in a subject area or domain that shows their properties and the
relations between them
Correct
The Data Management Body of Knowledge is produced by? *
1/1
The Data Management Authority
The Data Management Association
Correct
The Data Practitioner Association
The Data Analysis Association
The Project Management Institute
We would expect to consult the Metadata Library when: *
1/1
Implementing a Data Quality tool
Formulating a Goverance policy
Accessing the internet
Assessing the impact of change
Correct
Selecting a Data Storage device
Every enterprise is subject to many governmental and industry
regulations, many of which regulate how data and information are used
and managed. Part of the Data Governance function is to? *
1/1
Monitor and ensure that organizations meet any regulatory compliance requirements
Correct
Enforce enterprise-wide mandatory compliance to regulations
This is about data. Data Governance is accountable for the whole process, with risk and audit
reporting to Data Governance
This is a risk and audit responsibility; Data Governance plays no role in this
Perform ad-hoc audits of possible regulations to report to the Data Governance Council on an
information-only basis
Which of the following activities are performed by data operations staff?
*
1/1
Clean data that is of bad quality
Grant access to tables, rewrite SQL statements
Implement and control database environments, plan for data retention, keep track of database
licenses, monitor and tune database performance
Correct
Manage the tape libraries
Tune the file systems
Obfuscation or redaction of data is the practice of?
*
1/1
Organizing data into meaningful groups
Making information available to the public
Selling data
Making information anonymous or removing sensitive information
Correct
Which of these is NOT a primary deliverable of Data Quality
Management? *
1/1
Analysis from data profiling
Data Quality strategy and framework
Data attribute definitions
Correct
Data Quality reports
Data Quality service level agreements
According to DMBoK, which of these is NOT a valid dimension of Data
Quality? *
0/1
Currency
Incorrect
Relevance
Completeness
Timeliness
Reasonableness
Correct answer
Relevance
Ontology asks _what____ while metaphysics asks __how____?
*
0/1
How / What
Incorrect
Why / How
What / Who
What / How
How / Why
Correct answer
What / How
When defining Data Quality indicators, care must be taken to ensure that
they have what? *
1/1
Measurability, Relevance, and Acceptability
Correct
Timeliness, Validity, and Accuracy
The core dimensions of Data Quality
A direct link to the Data Governance strategy
Items in a dashboard showing their improvement over time
The data operations team assures that the data is recoverable by what?
*
1/1
Guaranteeing the applications take proper exports of the data
Maintaining a test, development, and production environment
Making sure the disks are checked regularly for write errors
Analyzing database error logs
Defining and executing the data recovery plan
Correct
not clear
Data Governance touchpoints throughout the project lifecycle are
facilitated by this organization? *
0/1
The Master Data Office
The Data Governance Office
The Data Stewards Office
The Data Governance Steering Committee
Incorrect
The Project Management Office
Correct answer
The Data Governance Office
You are facilitating a committee that is developing data quality metrics.
Some of the committee members think that SMART (Specific,
Measurable, Accountable, Results-Focused, Time-Bound) is a good
model. Select the statement that best describes why business relevance
needs to be considered as a characteristic of Data Quality metrics? *
0/1
The value of a metric is limited unless it can be linked to some aspect of a business. The metric's
acceptability threshold needs to correlate with business expectations
Business relevance needs to be considered as a Data Quality metric in its own right
Unless you use business terms the end-users won't understand and lose interest in the program
Any IT program must have some business relevance defined, or it is a waste of time
Expressing business relevance in requirements assists the metadata strategy
Incorrect
Correct answer
The value of a metric is limited unless it can be linked to some aspect of a business. The metric's
acceptability threshold needs to correlate with business expectations
What kind of interface is in place when systems are tightly coupled?*
1/1
A batch interface
A legacy interface
A user interface
An independent interface
A synchronous interface
When defining Data Quality indicators, care must be taken to ensure that
they have what?*
1/1
Timeliness, Validity, and Accuracy
Measurability, Relevance, and Acceptability
A direct link to the Data Governance strategy
Items in a dashboard showing their improvement over time
The core dimensions of Data Quality
A project scope includes the collection, exchange and reporting of data
from multiple systems. Conceptual, logical and physical data models are
maintained. How many models of each type can be expected?*
0/1
More logical data models than physical data models, and more logical data models than
conceptual data models.
More physical data models than logical data models, and more logical data models than
conceptual data models.
Only 1 conceptual data model, 1 logical data model and 1 physical data model.
More conceptual data models than logical data models, and more logical data models
than physical data models.
The same number of each of the model types.
Database performance depends upon two independent facets. These
are?*
1/1
Choice of DBMS and programming language
Hardware and network
Availability and speed
Distance to data center and network bandwidth
Number of users and number of tables
As part of the reference Data Stewardship process, it is helpful to capture
basic data about each reference data set. Which answer best describes
which data should be captured?*
1/1
Metrics to quantify reference data's value to the organization
Enterprise Architecture, programming logic, workflows, and ETL relating to any reference
data
The names of everyone who is a business or technical user of the reference data
Steward name, originating organization, expected frequency of updates, and processes
using the reference data
Maturity models that access the organization's readiness to accept Data Governance
A Content Distribution Network supporting a multi-national website is likely
to use?*
1/1
A records disposal solution
An extract, transform, and load solution
A replication solution
An archiving solution
A database backup and restore solution
Is the data model important in establishing Master Data Management?*
Yes, Master Data Management needs consistent logical definitions
No, not if the data model is physically instantiated in multiple platforms
No, not if the organization has complex systems with multiple ways of capturing data
Only if Master Data Management needs to know the processing steps for all data
No, within a given source, data representing the same entity can be different
The requirement to enter a username, a password and then a code sent
to an authentication app is called:*
1/1
proactive authentication.
biometric authentication.
2-factor authentication.
3-factor authentication.
Which statement best describes the relationship between documents and
records?*
1/1
Documents and records are not related
Documents and records are the same thing
Documents are written and records are audio
Documents are a subset of records
Records are a subset of documents
In its broadest context, the data warehouse includes:*
1/1
Either an Inmon or Kimball approach
An integrated data store, ETL logic, and extensive data cleansing routines
Data stores and extracts that can be transformed into star schemas
Any data stores or extracts used to support the delivery for BI purposes
All the data in the enterprise
Which of these are increasingly driving legislation for information security
and data privacy?*
1/1
ANSI 859
A resistance to open data and transparency
A recognition of ethical issues in Information Management
A desire for economic protectionism
An objective of making life more challenging for Information Management professionals
All of the following are properties of a logical data model except:*
1/1
contains primary keys.
technology-independent
contains attributes.
contains relationship cardinality
technology-dependent
Which of these is a key process in defining Data Quality business rules?*
1/1
De-duplicating data records
Matching data from different data sources
Producing Data Management policies
Producing Data Quality reports and dashboards
Separating data that does not meet business needs from data that does
Communicating the value of Data Governance can be approached in a
number of ways. Which of the following approaches is NOT a recognized
way of doing this?*
0/1
Creating a series of “elevator pitches” for the appropriate audience
Promoting participation in a DM forum or community
Providing only negative communications on ongoing data issues to key executive
stakeholders
Publishing a regular newsletter via hardcopy or email
Maintaining an intranet website
Which is a valid Environmental component of data management?*
1/1
Database Management
Motivation
Hardware Management
Practices & Techniques
Project Management
Master and reference data are forms of?*
1/1
Data Mapping
Data Quality
Data Integration
Data Architecture
Data Security
What is the technique for log-based change of data capturing?*
1/1
Source Database Management System create data activity logs which are monitored and
applied on the target database
The source system processes add to a simple list of changed objects and identifiers on
data update
The source system processes copy data that has changed into separate objects as part
of source data update
The source system populates specific data elements in the target system
Compare the current state of the source system to a previous copy
An effective Data Security Strategy needs to consider ____________ as
well as technical security?*
0/1
Operational (function, flexibility)
Conceptual (metadata, Business Glossary)
Functional (timing, structures)
Physical (devices, hard copy)
What is the difference between a Data Security policy and an information
technology security policy?*
0/1
Information technology security policies are defined by external standards
The Data Governance Council should have no role in Data Security
Data Security policies are more granular in nature and take a data-centric approach
There is no difference
The main part of a data vault that houses and integrates data from various
source systems is referred to as?*
0/1
Business data vault
Information mart
Persisted staging area
Raw data vault
Metrics mart
Ontology is the study of?*
0/1
Beginning
Existence
Reality
Being and existence
Knowledge
What is one of the benefits of Services-Oriented Architecture (SOA)?*
1/1
Enables application independence and the ability to replace systems without significant
changes to interfacing systems
Provides oversight and control to the integration development lifecycle
Allows access to the underlying data structures
Is the fastest way to develop a new interface
Provides an optimized user experience for the data consumer
Since data technology is rapidly becoming more diverse, one should
consider which of the following when acquiring a new type of technology?*
1/1
The number of servers that are currently in use
The problem for which technology means to solve and the solution stack for which you
have already installed
The number of users that are connected to the current solution
The current data retention policy
The performance levels of the currently installed data technology
A best practice for BI monitoring and tuning is to define and display which
set of customer-facing satisfaction metrics?*
1/1
All of the above
Average query response time
Number of users per day/week/month
Usage statistics and patterns
Regular survey of DW-BIM customers satisfaction
For countries, is there an internationally recognized set of codes to use?*
1/1
No, there is no internationally recognized set of codes because each country wants to
develop their own
No, you should use whatever your organization wants to use
No, organizations should develop their own set of codes to use because the data is used
internally
Yes, ISO 3166 is the internationally standardized set of codes used by most
organizations
Yes, the standards set are the codes used by your country's postal service
Data standards used by the enterprise must?*
1/1
Promote consistent results but periodically be reviewed and updated
Set by a standards organization and not by the enterprise
Be a guideline for the organization but open to interpretation
Only be necessary for the Data Governance team
Promote consistent results so they are only written once and never updated
According to the DMBoK, which is not a component of a Data
Management strategy?*
0/1
A compelling vision for Data Management
Descriptions of Data Management roles and organizations, along with a summary of their
responsibilities and decision rights
A summary business case for Data Management with selected examples
A draft implementation roadmap with projects and action items
Identifying individuals for Data Management roles
Which of the following is a Meta-Data scheme focused specifically on
documents?*
1/1
Administrative Meta-Data
Preservation Meta-Data
Structural Meta-Data
Business Meta-Data
Descriptive Meta-Data
Data differs with regards to other assets because:*
0/1
It uses automation
It is big
It is regulated
It can be used yet still retain value
It has value
The Information Lifecycle:*
0/1
Exists beyond the Systems Delivery Lifecycle
Is used primarily for Data archiving
Is not relevant in an Agile environment
Is only important in regulated industries
Has the same stages as the Systems Delivery Lifecycle
What is the goal of collecting and documenting business rules?*
1/1
To identify potential sources of data for the Data Integration effort
To identify the requirements for the Data Quality
To reuse existing Data Integration solutions
To direct when to manually trigger events and alerts
To design user-experience
In data security, which of the following is not one of the four "A's":*
1/1
Access
Authentication
Audit
Available
Which of the following is NOT an activity that would enable business
acceptance and user satisfaction?*
1/1
Promoting scheduled meetings with user representatives
Understanding the data and defining the operations team’s responsiveness to identified
issues
Ensuring perceptions of the quality of the data in the BI system are managed
Furnishing an end-to-end verifiable data lineage
Defining different types of reporting tools to be used for future business needs
The purpose for adding redundancy to a data model (denormalisation) is
to:*
0/1
ensure surrogate keys are retaining their unique values in all satellite tables.
fully utilise all the indexes.
avoid the loss of data by storing key values more than once.
make it easier for developers to join tables.
optimise overall database performance across both data access and data update
requests.
Which of these is NOT an expected role of a Data Quality Oversight
Board?*
1/1
Producing certification and compliance policies
Establishing communications and mechanisms
Setting Data Quality improvement priorities
Data profiling and analysis
Developing and maintaining Data Quality
Implementing a Services-Oriented Architecture (SOA) will often use?*
1/1
A data lake
A Data Modeling tool
An enterprise services bus
ETL servers
Data Visualization tools
OLAP, conceptually illustrates as a?*
1/1
Relational table
Hierarchical structure
Cube
Recursive structure
Multi-columnar structure
Which of these is NOT a typical activity in Data Quality Management?*
1/1
Defining business requirements and business rules
Identifying data problems and issues
Creating inspection and monitoring processes
Analyzing Data Quality
Enterprise Data Modelling
A document that stipulates the responsibilities and acceptable use of data
to be exchanged, is commonly referred to as a?*
1/1
Data Model
Data Quality Assessment
Data Sharing Agreement
Project Charter
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