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ISC2
Exam Questions CISSP
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)

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NEW QUESTION 1
- (Exam Topic 1)
A company whose Information Technology (IT) services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center, is preparing a companywide Business Continuity Planning
(BCP). Which of the following failures should the IT manager be concerned with?

A. Application
B. Storage
C. Power
D. Network

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
- (Exam Topic 1)
When assessing an organization’s security policy according to standards established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 and
27002, when can management responsibilities be defined?

A. Only when assets are clearly defined

B. Only when standards are defined
C. Only when controls are put in place
D. Only procedures are defined

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
- (Exam Topic 1)
All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that

A. determine the risk of a business interruption occurring

B. determine the technological dependence of the business processes
C. Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption
D. Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
- (Exam Topic 1)
Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area?

A. Examine the device for physical tampering

B. Implement more stringent baseline configurations
C. Purge or re-image the hard disk drive
D. Change access codes

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
- (Exam Topic 1)
Which of the following types of technologies would be the MOST cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas?

A. Install mantraps at the building entrances

B. Enclose the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic
C. Supply a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public
D. Hire a guard to protect the public area

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
- (Exam Topic 2)
Which one of the following affects the classification of data?

A. Assigned security label

B. Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture
C. Minimum query size
D. Passage of time

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
- (Exam Topic 2)
Which of the following is an initial consideration when developing an information security management system?

A. Identify the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations

B. Understand the value of the information assets
C. Identify the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management

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D. Identify relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
- (Exam Topic 2)
Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?

A. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity
B. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving
C. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security
D. Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
- (Exam Topic 3)
Which security service is served by the process of encryption plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting cipher text with the sender’s public key?

A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Identification
D. Availability

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Exam Topic 4)
Which of the following operates at the Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?

A. Packet filtering
B. Port services filtering
C. Content filtering
D. Application access control

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Exam Topic 4)
In a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack, which layer is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node?

A. Transport layer
B. Application layer
C. Network layer
D. Session layer

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
- (Exam Topic 4)
Which of the following is the BEST network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress?

A. Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)

B. Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)
C. Stateful firewalls
D. Network Behavior Analysis (NBA) tools

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 17
- (Exam Topic 4)
At what level of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) located?

A. Link layer
B. Physical layer
C. Session layer
D. Application layer

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 21
- (Exam Topic 4)
Which of the following factors contributes to the weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol?

A. WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV)

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B. WEP uses Message Digest 5 (MD5)

C. WEP uses Diffie-Hellman
D. WEP does not use any Initialization Vector (IV)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 26
- (Exam Topic 5)
What is the BEST approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance?

A. Audit logs
B. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
C. Two-factor authentication
D. Application of least privilege

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 29
- (Exam Topic 5)
Which of the following BEST describes an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile
devices?

A. Derived credential
B. Temporary security credential
C. Mobile device credentialing service
D. Digest authentication

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 32
- (Exam Topic 6)
A Virtual Machine (VM) environment has five guest Operating Systems (OS) and provides strong isolation. What MUST an administrator review to audit a user’s
access to data files?

A. Host VM monitor audit logs

B. Guest OS access controls
C. Host VM access controls
D. Guest OS audit logs

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 33
- (Exam Topic 6)
Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure?

A. Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken
B. Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability
C. Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization
D. Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 36
- (Exam Topic 7)
Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following?

A. Hardware and software compatibility issues

B. Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance
C. Budget constraints and requirements
D. Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 38
- (Exam Topic 7)
A continuous information security monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following?

A. Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies

B. Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts
C. Encompassing people, process, and technology
D. Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 42

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- (Exam Topic 7)
An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST
probable cause?

A. Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution

B. Inadequate cost modeling
C. Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)
D. Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 46
- (Exam Topic 7)
What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management?

A. Certify and approve releases to the environment

B. Provide version rollbacks for system changes
C. Ensure that all applications are approved
D. Ensure accountability for changes to the environment

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 51
- (Exam Topic 7)
Which of the following types of business continuity tests includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations?

A. Walkthrough
B. Simulation
C. Parallel
D. White box

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 53
- (Exam Topic 8)
Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs?

A. Check arguments in function calls

B. Test for the security patch level of the environment
C. Include logging functions
D. Digitally sign each application module

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 55
- (Exam Topic 8)
What is the BEST approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications?

A. Debug the security issues

B. Migrate to newer, supported applications where possible
C. Conduct a security assessment
D. Protect the legacy application with a web application firewall

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 59
- (Exam Topic 8)
Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment?

A. Purchase software from a limited list of retailers

B. Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates
C. Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet
D. Test all new software in a segregated environment

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 64
- (Exam Topic 9)
What is the FIRST step in developing a security test and its evaluation?

A. Determine testing methods

B. Develop testing procedures
C. Identify all applicable security requirements
D. Identify people, processes, and products not in compliance

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 69
- (Exam Topic 9)
The three PRIMARY requirements for a penetration test are

A. A defined goal, limited time period, and approval of management

B. A general objective, unlimited time, and approval of the network administrator
C. An objective statement, disclosed methodology, and fixed cost
D. A stated objective, liability waiver, and disclosed methodology

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 74
- (Exam Topic 9)
Internet Protocol (IP) source address spoofing is used to defeat

A. address-based authentication.
B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) hijacking.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 76
- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following is ensured when hashing files during chain of custody handling?

A. Availability
B. Accountability
C. Integrity
D. Non-repudiation

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 78
- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following MUST be part of a contract to support electronic discovery of data stored in a cloud environment?

A. Integration with organizational directory services for authentication

B. Tokenization of data
C. Accommodation of hybrid deployment models
D. Identification of data location

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 79
- (Exam Topic 9)
Which one of the following is a threat related to the use of web-based client side input validation?

A. Users would be able to alter the input after validation has occurred
B. The web server would not be able to validate the input after transmission
C. The client system could receive invalid input from the web server
D. The web server would not be able to receive invalid input from the client

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 83
- (Exam Topic 9)
A vulnerability test on an Information System (IS) is conducted to

A. exploit security weaknesses in the IS.

B. measure system performance on systems with weak security controls.
C. evaluate the effectiveness of security controls.
D. prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) planning.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 86
- (Exam Topic 9)
In the area of disaster planning and recovery, what strategy entails the presentation of information about the plan?

A. Communication
B. Planning
C. Recovery
D. Escalation

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 89
- (Exam Topic 9)
What technique BEST describes antivirus software that detects viruses by watching anomalous behavior?

A. Signature
B. Inference
C. Induction
D. Heuristic

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 93
- (Exam Topic 9)
Why is a system's criticality classification important in large organizations?

A. It provides for proper prioritization and scheduling of security and maintenance tasks.
B. It reduces critical system support workload and reduces the time required to apply patches.
C. It allows for clear systems status communications to executive management.
D. It provides for easier determination of ownership, reducing confusion as to the status of the asset.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 96
- (Exam Topic 9)
Which one of the following transmission media is MOST effective in preventing data interception?

A. Microwave
B. Twisted-pair
C. Fiber optic
D. Coaxial cable

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 97
- (Exam Topic 9)
Checking routing information on e-mail to determine it is in a valid format and contains valid information is an example of which of the following anti-spam
approaches?

A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) blacklist

B. Reverse Domain Name System (DNS) lookup
C. Hashing algorithm
D. Header analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 102

- (Exam Topic 9)
The overall goal of a penetration test is to determine a system's

A. ability to withstand an attack.

B. capacity management.
C. error recovery capabilities.
D. reliability under stress.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 107

- (Exam Topic 9)
The Structured Query Language (SQL) implements Discretionary Access Controls (DAC) using

A. INSERT and DELETE.

B. GRANT and REVOKE.
C. PUBLIC and PRIVATE.
D. ROLLBACK and TERMINATE.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 108

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which one of the following considerations has the LEAST impact when considering transmission security?

A. Network availability
B. Data integrity
C. Network bandwidth
D. Node locations

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Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 113

- (Exam Topic 9)
The stringency of an Information Technology (IT) security assessment will be determined by the

A. system's past security record.

B. size of the system's database.
C. sensitivity of the system's datA.
D. age of the system.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 118

- (Exam Topic 9)
An advantage of link encryption in a communications network is that it

A. makes key management and distribution easier.

B. protects data from start to finish through the entire network.
C. improves the efficiency of the transmission.
D. encrypts all information, including headers and routing information.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 123

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following is an attacker MOST likely to target to gain privileged access to a system?

A. Programs that write to system resources

B. Programs that write to user directories
C. Log files containing sensitive information
D. Log files containing system calls

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 124

- (Exam Topic 9)
The process of mutual authentication involves a computer system authenticating a user and authenticating the

A. user to the audit process.

B. computer system to the user.
C. user's access to all authorized objects.
D. computer system to the audit process.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 129

- (Exam Topic 9)
How can a forensic specialist exclude from examination a large percentage of operating system files residing on a copy of the target system?

A. Take another backup of the media in question then delete all irrelevant operating system files.
B. Create a comparison database of cryptographic hashes of the files from a system with the same operating system and patch level.
C. Generate a message digest (MD) or secure hash on the drive image to detect tampering of the media being examined.
D. Discard harmless files for the operating system, and known installed programs.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 133

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following is the best practice for testing a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)?

A. Test before the IT Audit

B. Test when environment changes
C. Test after installation of security patches
D. Test after implementation of system patches

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 138

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following is a strategy of grouping requirements in developing a Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E)?

A. Standards, policies, and procedures

B. Tactical, strategic, and financial
C. Management, operational, and technical

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D. Documentation, observation, and manual

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 140

- (Exam Topic 9)
The PRIMARY purpose of a security awareness program is to

A. ensure that everyone understands the organization's policies and procedures.

B. communicate that access to information will be granted on a need-to-know basis.
C. warn all users that access to all systems will be monitored on a daily basis.
D. comply with regulations related to data and information protection.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 142

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which one of the following is the MOST important in designing a biometric access system if it is essential that no one other than authorized individuals are
admitted?

A. False Acceptance Rate (FAR)

B. False Rejection Rate (FRR)
C. Crossover Error Rate (CER)
D. Rejection Error Rate

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 146

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following is an essential element of a privileged identity lifecycle management?

A. Regularly perform account re-validation and approval

B. Account provisioning based on multi-factor authentication
C. Frequently review performed activities and request justification
D. Account information to be provided by supervisor or line manager

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 151

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which one of the following security mechanisms provides the BEST way to restrict the execution of privileged procedures?

A. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)

B. Biometric access control
C. Federated Identity Management (IdM)
D. Application hardening

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 152

- (Exam Topic 9)
An organization is selecting a service provider to assist in the consolidation of multiple computing sites including development, implementation and ongoing
support of various computer systems. Which of the following MUST be verified by the Information Security Department?

A. The service provider's policies are consistent with ISO/IEC27001 and there is evidence that the service provider is following those policies.
B. The service provider will segregate the data within its systems and ensure that each region's policies are met.
C. The service provider will impose controls and protections that meet or exceed the current systemscontrols and produce audit logs as verification.
D. The service provider's policies can meet the requirements imposed by the new environment even if they differ from the organization's current policies.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 153

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following is a security feature of Global Systems for Mobile Communications (GSM)?

A. It uses a Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) for authentication.

B. It uses encrypting techniques for all communications.
C. The radio spectrum is divided with multiple frequency carriers.
D. The signal is difficult to read as it provides end-to-end encryption.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 157

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following methods protects Personally Identifiable Information (PII) by use of a full replacement of the data element?

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A. Transparent Database Encryption (TDE)

B. Column level database encryption
C. Volume encryption
D. Data tokenization

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 158

- (Exam Topic 9)
The use of strong authentication, the encryption of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) on database servers, application security reviews, and the encryption of
data transmitted across networks provide

A. data integrity.
B. defense in depth.
C. data availability.
D. non-repudiation.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 163

- (Exam Topic 9)
The FIRST step in building a firewall is to

A. assign the roles and responsibilities of the firewall administrators.

B. define the intended audience who will read the firewall policy.
C. identify mechanisms to encourage compliance with the policy.
D. perform a risk analysis to identify issues to be addressed.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 166

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following is TRUE about Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) testing?

A. Operational networks are usually shut down during testing.

B. Testing should continue even if components of the test fail.
C. The company is fully prepared for a disaster if all tests pass.
D. Testing should not be done until the entire disaster plan can be tested.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 168

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when storing and processing Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?

A. Encrypt and hash all PII to avoid disclosure and tampering.

B. Store PII for no more than one year.
C. Avoid storing PII in a Cloud Service Provider.
D. Adherence to collection limitation laws and regulations.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 170

- (Exam Topic 9)
What would be the PRIMARY concern when designing and coordinating a security assessment for an Automatic Teller Machine (ATM) system?

A. Physical access to the electronic hardware

B. Regularly scheduled maintenance process
C. Availability of the network connection
D. Processing delays

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 173

- (Exam Topic 9)
In Business Continuity Planning (BCP), what is the importance of documenting business processes?

A. Provides senior management with decision-making tools

B. Establishes and adopts ongoing testing and maintenance strategies
C. Defines who will perform which functions during a disaster or emergency
D. Provides an understanding of the organization's interdependencies

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 175

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- (Exam Topic 9)
The Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL) is implemented in the

A. system software.
B. system hardware.
C. application software.
D. network hardware.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 180

- (Exam Topic 9)
The birthday attack is MOST effective against which one of the following cipher technologies?

A. Chaining block encryption

B. Asymmetric cryptography
C. Cryptographic hash
D. Streaming cryptography

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 184

- (Exam Topic 9)
What is an effective practice when returning electronic storage media to third parties for repair?

A. Ensuring the media is not labeled in any way that indicates the organization's name.
B. Disassembling the media and removing parts that may contain sensitive datA.
C. Physically breaking parts of the media that may contain sensitive datA.
D. Establishing a contract with the third party regarding the secure handling of the mediA.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 186

- (Exam Topic 9)
When transmitting information over public networks, the decision to encrypt it should be based on

A. the estimated monetary value of the information.

B. whether there are transient nodes relaying the transmission.
C. the level of confidentiality of the information.
D. the volume of the information.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 188

- (Exam Topic 9)
Alternate encoding such as hexadecimal representations is MOST often observed in which of the following forms of attack?

A. Smurf
B. Rootkit exploit
C. Denial of Service (DoS)
D. Cross site scripting (XSS)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 190

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following elements MUST a compliant EU-US Safe Harbor Privacy Policy contain?

A. An Explanation: of how long the data subject's collected information will be retained for and how it will be eventually disposed.
B. An Explanation: of who can be contacted at the organization collecting the information if corrections are required by the data subject.
C. An Explanation: of the regulatory frameworks and compliance standards the information collecting organization adheres to.
D. An Explanation: of all the technologies employed by the collecting organization in gathering information on the data subject.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 194

- (Exam Topic 9)
Following the completion of a network security assessment, which of the following can BEST be demonstrated?

A. The effectiveness of controls can be accurately measured

B. A penetration test of the network will fail
C. The network is compliant to industry standards
D. All unpatched vulnerabilities have been identified

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 197

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following defines the key exchange for Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)?

A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) key exchange

B. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
C. Security Key Exchange (SKE)
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 202

- (Exam Topic 9)
Why MUST a Kerberos server be well protected from unauthorized access?

A. It contains the keys of all clients.

B. It always operates at root privilege.
C. It contains all the tickets for services.
D. It contains the Internet Protocol (IP) address of all network entities.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 204

- (Exam Topic 9)
A software scanner identifies a region within a binary image having high entropy. What does this MOST likely indicate?

A. Encryption routines
B. Random number generator
C. Obfuscated code
D. Botnet command and control

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 208

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following actions should be performed when implementing a change to a database schema in a production system?

A. Test in development, determine dates, notify users, and implement in production

B. Apply change to production, run in parallel, finalize change in production, and develop a back-out strategy
C. Perform user acceptance testing in production, have users sign off, and finalize change
D. Change in development, perform user acceptance testing, develop a back-out strategy, and implement change

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 210

- (Exam Topic 9)
Who must approve modifications to an organization's production infrastructure configuration?

A. Technical management
B. Change control board
C. System operations
D. System users

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 212

- (Exam Topic 9)
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is generating alarms that a user account has over 100 failed login attempts per minute. A sniffer is placed on the network, and
a variety of passwords for that user are noted. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?

A. A dictionary attack
B. A Denial of Service (DoS) attack
C. A spoofing attack
D. A backdoor installation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 213

- (Exam Topic 9)
Passive Infrared Sensors (PIR) used in a non-climate controlled environment should

A. reduce the detected object temperature in relation to the background temperature.

B. increase the detected object temperature in relation to the background temperature.
C. automatically compensate for variance in background temperature.
D. detect objects of a specific temperature independent of the background temperature.

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 216

- (Exam Topic 9)
When constructing an Information Protection Policy (IPP), it is important that the stated rules are necessary, adequate, and

A. flexible.
B. confidential.
C. focused.
D. achievable.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 221

- (Exam Topic 9)
What is the MOST effective countermeasure to a malicious code attack against a mobile system?

A. Sandbox
B. Change control
C. Memory management
D. Public-Key Infrastructure (PKI)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 223

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following is the BEST mitigation from phishing attacks?

A. Network activity monitoring

B. Security awareness training
C. Corporate policy and procedures
D. Strong file and directory permissions

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 224

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which one of the following affects the classification of data?

A. Passage of time
B. Assigned security label
C. Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture
D. Minimum query size

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 225

- (Exam Topic 9)
An organization is designing a large enterprise-wide document repository system. They plan to have several different classification level areas with increasing
levels of controls. The BEST way to ensure document confidentiality in the repository is to

A. encrypt the contents of the repository and document any exceptions to that requirement.
B. utilize Intrusion Detection System (IDS) set drop connections if too many requests for documents are detected.
C. keep individuals with access to high security areas from saving those documents into lower security areas.
D. require individuals with access to the system to sign Non-Disclosure Agreements (NDA).

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 227

- (Exam Topic 9)
By allowing storage communications to run on top of Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) with a Storage Area Network (SAN), the

A. confidentiality of the traffic is protected.

B. opportunity to sniff network traffic exists.
C. opportunity for device identity spoofing is eliminated.
D. storage devices are protected against availability attacks.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 232

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following BEST represents the principle of open design?

A. Disassembly, analysis, or reverse engineering will reveal the security functionality of the computer system.
B. Algorithms must be protected to ensure the security and interoperability of the designed system.
C. A knowledgeable user should have limited privileges on the system to prevent their ability to compromise security capabilities.

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D. The security of a mechanism should not depend on the secrecy of its design or implementation.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 237

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following wraps the decryption key of a full disk encryption implementation and ties the hard disk drive to a particular device?

A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

B. Preboot eXecution Environment (PXE)
C. Key Distribution Center (KDC)
D. Simple Key-Management for Internet Protocol (SKIP)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 238

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which of the following statements is TRUE of black box testing?

A. Only the functional specifications are known to the test planner.

B. Only the source code and the design documents are known to the test planner.
C. Only the source code and functional specifications are known to the test planner.
D. Only the design documents and the functional specifications are known to the test planner.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 241

- (Exam Topic 9)
Which Hyper Text Markup Language 5 (HTML5) option presents a security challenge for network data leakage prevention and/or monitoring?

A. Cross Origin Resource Sharing (CORS)

B. WebSockets
C. Document Object Model (DOM) trees
D. Web Interface Definition Language (IDL)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 246

- (Exam Topic 9)
What should be the INITIAL response to Intrusion Detection System/Intrusion Prevention System (IDS/IPS) alerts?

A. Ensure that the Incident Response Plan is available and current.

B. Determine the traffic's initial source and block the appropriate port.
C. Disable or disconnect suspected target and source systems.
D. Verify the threat and determine the scope of the attack.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 249

- (Exam Topic 9)
In Disaster Recovery (DR) and business continuity training, which BEST describes a functional drill?

A. A full-scale simulation of an emergency and the subsequent response functions

B. A specific test by response teams of individual emergency response functions
C. A functional evacuation of personnel
D. An activation of the backup site

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 252

- (Exam Topic 10)
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses
the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a
peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.
Which of the following solutions would have MOST likely detected the use of peer-to-peer programs when the computer was connected to the office network?

A. Anti-virus software
B. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
C. Anti-spyware software
D. Integrity checking software

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 254

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- (Exam Topic 10)

Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication?

A. Retina scan and a palm print

B. Fingerprint and a smart card
C. Magnetic stripe card and an ID badge
D. Password and Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart(CAPTCHA)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 255

- (Exam Topic 10)
Which of the following provides effective management assurance for a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)?

A. Maintaining an inventory of authorized Access Points (AP) and connecting devices

B. Setting the radio frequency to the minimum range required
C. Establishing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel between the WLAN client device and a VPN concentrator
D. Verifying that all default passwords have been changed

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 257

- (Exam Topic 10)
Which of the following MOST influences the design of the organization's electronic monitoring policies?

A. Workplace privacy laws

B. Level of organizational trust
C. Results of background checks
D. Business ethical considerations

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 260

- (Exam Topic 10)
During an investigation of database theft from an organization's web site, it was determined that the Structured Query Language (SQL) injection technique was
used despite input validation with client-side scripting. Which of the following provides the GREATEST protection against the same attack occurring again?

A. Encrypt communications between the servers

B. Encrypt the web server traffic
C. Implement server-side filtering
D. Filter outgoing traffic at the perimeter firewall

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 265

- (Exam Topic 10)
If an attacker in a SYN flood attack uses someone else's valid host address as the source address, the system under attack will send a large number of
Synchronize/Acknowledge (SYN/ACK) packets to the

A. default gateway.
B. attacker's address.
C. local interface being attacked.
D. specified source address.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 267

- (Exam Topic 10)
What does secure authentication with logging provide?

A. Data integrity
B. Access accountability
C. Encryption logging format
D. Segregation of duties

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 269

- (Exam Topic 10)
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
During the investigation of a security incident, it is determined that an unauthorized individual accessed a system which hosts a database containing financial
information.
If it is discovered that large quantities of information have been copied by the unauthorized individual, what attribute of the data has been compromised?

A. Availability
B. Integrity
C. Accountability

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D. Confidentiality

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 270

- (Exam Topic 10)
Which of the following is required to determine classification and ownership?

A. System and data resources are properly identified

B. Access violations are logged and audited
C. Data file references are identified and linked
D. System security controls are fully integrated

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 275

- (Exam Topic 10)
Which of the following BEST mitigates a replay attack against a system using identity federation and Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
implementation?

A. Two-factor authentication
B. Digital certificates and hardware tokens
C. Timed sessions and Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
D. Passwords with alpha-numeric and special characters

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 280

- (Exam Topic 10)
Given the various means to protect physical and logical assets, match the access management area to the technology.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 281

- (Exam Topic 10)
What is the MOST critical factor to achieve the goals of a security program?

A. Capabilities of security resources

B. Executive management support
C. Effectiveness of security management
D. Budget approved for security resources

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 285

- (Exam Topic 10)

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What is a common challenge when implementing Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) for identity integration between on-premise environment and an
external identity provider service?

A. Some users are not provisioned into the service.

B. SAML tokens are provided by the on-premise identity provider.
C. Single users cannot be revoked from the service.
D. SAML tokens contain user information.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 286

- (Exam Topic 10)
A business has implemented Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS) compliant handheld credit card processing on their Wireless Local Area
Network (WLAN) topology. The network team partitioned the WLAN to create a private segment for credit card processing using a firewall to control device access
and route traffic to the card processor on the Internet. What components are in the scope of PCI-DSS?

A. The entire enterprise network infrastructure.

B. The handheld devices, wireless access points and border gateway.
C. The end devices, wireless access points, WLAN, switches, management console, and firewall.
D. The end devices, wireless access points, WLAN, switches, management console, and Internet

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 289

- (Exam Topic 10)
Which of the following is a detective access control mechanism?

A. Log review
B. Least privilege
C. Password complexity
D. Non-disclosure agreement

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 293

- (Exam Topic 10)
Which of the following is the MOST effective attack against cryptographic hardware modules?

A. Plaintext
B. Brute force
C. Power analysis
D. Man-in-the-middle (MITM)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 297

- (Exam Topic 10)
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns.
In the plan, what is the BEST approach to mitigate future internal client-based attacks?

A. Block all client side web exploits at the perimeter.

B. Remove all non-essential client-side web services from the network.
C. Screen for harmful exploits of client-side services before implementation.
D. Harden the client image before deployment.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 302

- (Exam Topic 10)
When implementing a secure wireless network, which of the following supports authentication and authorization for individual client endpoints?

A. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

B. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Pre-Shared Key (PSK)
C. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) Enterprise
D. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 305

- (Exam Topic 10)
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
In a Multilevel Security (MLS) system, the following sensitivity labels are used in increasing levels of sensitivity: restricted, confidential, secret, top secret. Table A
lists the clearance levels for four users, while Table B lists the security classes of four different files.

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In a Bell-LaPadula system, which user cannot write to File 3?

A. User A
B. User B
C. User C
D. User D

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 307

- (Exam Topic 10)
A large bank deploys hardware tokens to all customers that use their online banking system. The token generates and displays a six digit numeric password every
60 seconds. The customers must log into their bank accounts using this numeric password. This is an example of

A. asynchronous token.
B. Single Sign-On (SSO) token.
C. single factor authentication token.
D. synchronous token.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 311

- (Exam Topic 10)
What is the BEST method to detect the most common improper initialization problems in programming languages?

A. Use and specify a strong character encoding.

B. Use automated static analysis tools that target this type of weakness.
C. Perform input validation on any numeric inputs by assuring that they are within the expected range.
D. Use data flow analysis to minimize the number of false positives.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 315

- (Exam Topic 10)
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The
organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access.
The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes.
Following best practice, where should the permitted access for each department and job classification combination be specified?

A. Security procedures
B. Security standards
C. Human resource policy
D. Human resource standards

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 318

- (Exam Topic 10)
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses
the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a
peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.
Which of the following could have MOST likely prevented the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) program from being installed on the computer?

A. Removing employee's full access to the computer

B. Supervising their child's use of the computer
C. Limiting computer's access to only the employee
D. Ensuring employee understands their business conduct guidelines

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 323

- (Exam Topic 10)
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses
the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a
peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.

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Which of the following methods is the MOST effective way of removing the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) program from the computer?

A. Run software uninstall

B. Re-image the computer
C. Find and remove all installation files
D. Delete all cookies stored in the web browser cache

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 325

- (Exam Topic 10)
The use of proximity card to gain access to a building is an example of what type of security control?

A. Legal
B. Logical
C. Physical
D. Procedural

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 328

- (Exam Topic 10)
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The
organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access.
The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes.
In addition to authentication at the start of the user session, best practice would require re-authentication

A. periodically during a session.

B. for each business process.
C. at system sign-off.
D. after a period of inactivity.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 330

- (Exam Topic 10)
A large university needs to enable student access to university resources from their homes. Which of the following provides the BEST option for low maintenance
and ease of deployment?

A. Provide students with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) Virtual Private Network (VPN) client software.
B. Use Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) VPN technology.
C. Use Secure Shell (SSH) with public/private keys.
D. Require students to purchase home router capable of VPN.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 332

- (Exam Topic 10)
The amount of data that will be collected during an audit is PRIMARILY determined by the

A. audit scope.
B. auditor's experience level.
C. availability of the datA.
D. integrity of the datA.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 336

- (Exam Topic 10)
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
In a Multilevel Security (MLS) system, the following sensitivity labels are used in increasing levels of sensitivity: restricted, confidential, secret, top secret. Table A
lists the clearance levels for four users, while Table B lists the security classes of four different files.

In a Bell-LaPadula system, which user has the MOST restrictions when writing data to any of the four files?

A. User A
B. User B
C. User C

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D. User D

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 338

- (Exam Topic 10)
Which of the following secure startup mechanisms are PRIMARILY designed to thwart attacks?

A. Timing
B. Cold boot
C. Side channel
D. Acoustic cryptanalysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 343

- (Exam Topic 10)
From a security perspective, which of the following is a best practice to configure a Domain Name Service (DNS) system?

A. Configure secondary servers to use the primary server as a zone forwarder.

B. Block all Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connections.
C. Disable all recursive queries on the name servers.
D. Limit zone transfers to authorized devices.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 348

- (Exam Topic 10)
Without proper signal protection, embedded systems may be prone to which type of attack?

A. Brute force
B. Tampering
C. Information disclosure
D. Denial of Service (DoS)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 349

- (Exam Topic 10)
A thorough review of an organization's audit logs finds that a disgruntled network administrator has intercepted emails meant for the Chief Executive Officer (CEO)
and changed them before forwarding them to their intended recipient. What type of attack has MOST likely occurred?

A. Spoofing
B. Eavesdropping
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. Denial of service

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 353

- (Exam Topic 10)
An organization publishes and periodically updates its employee policies in a file on their intranet. Which of the following is a PRIMARY security concern?

A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Ownership

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 357

- (Exam Topic 10)
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A large, multinational organization has decided to outsource a portion of their Information Technology (IT) organization to a third-party provider’s facility. This
provider will be responsible for the design, development, testing, and support of several critical, customer-based applications used by the organization.
What additional considerations are there if the third party is located in a different country?

A. The organizational structure of the third party and how it may impact timelines within the organization
B. The ability of the third party to respond to the organization in a timely manner and with accurate information
C. The effects of transborder data flows and customer expectations regarding the storage or processing of their data
D. The quantity of data that must be provided to the third party and how it is to be used

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 362

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- (Exam Topic 10)

Refer to the information below to answer the question.
An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other
necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.
The effectiveness of the security program can PRIMARILY be measured through

A. audit findings.
B. risk elimination.
C. audit requirements.
D. customer satisfaction.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 367

- (Exam Topic 10)
When using third-party software developers, which of the following is the MOST effective method of providing software development Quality Assurance (QA)?

A. Retain intellectual property rights through contractual wording.

B. Perform overlapping code reviews by both parties.
C. Verify that the contractors attend development planning meetings.
D. Create a separate contractor development environment.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 368

- (Exam Topic 10)
Which of the following is the BEST countermeasure to brute force login attacks?

A. Changing all canonical passwords

B. Decreasing the number of concurrent user sessions
C. Restricting initial password delivery only in person
D. Introducing a delay after failed system access attempts

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 373

- (Exam Topic 10)
What is the MOST important reason to configure unique user IDs?

A. Supporting accountability
B. Reducing authentication errors
C. Preventing password compromise
D. Supporting Single Sign On (SSO)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 375

- (Exam Topic 10)
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
Desktop computers in an organization were sanitized for re-use in an equivalent security environment. The data was destroyed in accordance with organizational
policy and all marking and other external indications of the sensitivity of the data that was formerly stored on the magnetic drives were removed.
Organizational policy requires the deletion of user data from Personal Digital Assistant (PDA) devices before disposal. It may not be possible to delete the user
data if the device is malfunctioning. Which destruction method below provides the BEST assurance that the data has been removed?

A. Knurling
B. Grinding
C. Shredding
D. Degaussing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 377

- (Exam Topic 11)
What is the process called when impact values are assigned to the security objectives for information types?

A. Qualitative analysis
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Remediation
D. System security categorization

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 381

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following is generally indicative of a replay attack when dealing with biometric authentication?

A. False Acceptance Rate (FAR) is greater than 1 in 100,000

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B. False Rejection Rate (FRR) is greater than 5 in 100

C. Inadequately specified templates
D. Exact match

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 382

- (Exam Topic 11)
A security professional has been asked to evaluate the options for the location of a new data center within a multifloor building. Concerns for the data center
include emanations and physical access controls.
Which of the following is the BEST location?

A. On the top floor

B. In the basement
C. In the core of the building
D. In an exterior room with windows

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 386

- (Exam Topic 11)
What is the GREATEST challenge to identifying data leaks?

A. Available technical tools that enable user activity monitoring.

B. Documented asset classification policy and clear labeling of assets.
C. Senior management cooperation in investigating suspicious behavior.
D. Law enforcement participation to apprehend and interrogate suspects.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 388

- (Exam Topic 11)
Data remanence refers to which of the following?

A. The remaining photons left in a fiber optic cable after a secure transmission.
B. The retention period required by law or regulation.
C. The magnetic flux created when removing the network connection from a server or personal computer.
D. The residual information left on magnetic storage media after a deletion or erasure.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 393

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following is the MOST important element of change management documentation?

A. List of components involved

B. Number of changes being made
C. Business case justification
D. A stakeholder communication

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 396

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following is a reason to use manual patch installation instead of automated patch management?

A. The cost required to install patches will be reduced.

B. The time during which systems will remain vulnerable to an exploit will be decreased.
C. The likelihood of system or application incompatibilities will be decreased.
D. The ability to cover large geographic areas is increased.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 397

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on an organization's security posture?

A. International and country-specific compliance requirements

B. Security violations by employees and contractors
C. Resource constraints due to increasing costs of supporting security
D. Audit findings related to employee access and permissions process

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 401

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- (Exam Topic 11)

Regarding asset security and appropriate retention, which of the following INITIAL top three areas are important to focus on?

A. Security control baselines, access controls, employee awareness and training

B. Human resources, asset management, production management
C. Supply chain lead time, inventory control, encryption
D. Polygraphs, crime statistics, forensics

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 402

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following entities is ultimately accountable for data remanence vulnerabilities with data replicated by a cloud service provider?

A. Data owner
B. Data steward
C. Data custodian
D. Data processor

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 407

- (Exam Topic 11)
What is an important characteristic of Role Based Access Control (RBAC)?

A. Supports Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

B. Simplifies the management of access rights
C. Relies on rotation of duties
D. Requires two factor authentication

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 411

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following is the BIGGEST weakness when using native Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) for authentication?

A. Authorizations are not included in the server response

B. Unsalted hashes are passed over the network
C. The authentication session can be replayed
D. Passwords are passed in cleartext

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 412

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following disaster recovery test plans will be MOST effective while providing minimal risk?

A. Read-through
B. Parallel
C. Full interruption
D. Simulation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 413

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following roles has the obligation to ensure that a third party provider is capable of processing and handling data in a secure manner and meeting the
standards set by the organization?

A. Data Custodian
B. Data Owner
C. Data Creator
D. Data User

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 415

- (Exam Topic 11)
What is the MOST efficient way to secure a production program and its data?

A. Disable default accounts and implement access control lists (ACL)

B. Harden the application and encrypt the data
C. Disable unused services and implement tunneling
D. Harden the servers and backup the data

Answer: B

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NEW QUESTION 420

- (Exam Topic 11)
The World Trade Organization's (WTO) agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) requires authors of computer software to be
given the

A. right to refuse or permit commercial rentals.

B. right to disguise the software's geographic origin.
C. ability to tailor security parameters based on location.
D. ability to confirm license authenticity of their works.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 421

- (Exam Topic 11)
An organization has hired a security services firm to conduct a penetration test. Which of the following will the organization provide to the tester?

A. Limits and scope of the testing.

B. Physical location of server room and wiring closet.
C. Logical location of filters and concentrators.
D. Employee directory and organizational chart.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 426

- (Exam Topic 11)
During a fingerprint verification process, which of the following is used to verify identity and authentication?

A. A pressure value is compared with a stored template

B. Sets of digits are matched with stored values
C. A hash table is matched to a database of stored value
D. A template of minutiae is compared with a stored template

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 431

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following describes the BEST configuration management practice?

A. After installing a new system, the configuration files are copied to a separate back-up system and hashed to detect tampering.
B. After installing a new system, the configuration files are copied to an air-gapped system and hashed to detect tampering.
C. The firewall rules are backed up to an air-gapped system.
D. A baseline configuration is created and maintained for all relevant systems.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 432

- (Exam Topic 11)
After acquiring the latest security updates, what must be done before deploying to production systems?

A. Use tools to detect missing system patches

B. Install the patches on a test system
C. Subscribe to notifications for vulnerabilities
D. Assess the severity of the situation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 436

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following is the BEST example of weak management commitment to the protection of security assets and resources?

A. poor governance over security processes and procedures

B. immature security controls and procedures
C. variances against regulatory requirements
D. unanticipated increases in security incidents and threats

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 437

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following explains why record destruction requirements are included in a data retention policy?

A. To comply with legal and business requirements

B. To save cost for storage and backup
C. To meet destruction guidelines
D. To validate data ownership

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 441

- (Exam Topic 11)
The BEST example of the concept of "something that a user has" when providing an authorized user access to a computing system is

A. the user's hand geometry.

B. a credential stored in a token.
C. a passphrase.
D. the user's face.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 442

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern when using an Internet browser to access a cloud-based service?

A. Insecure implementation of Application Programming Interfaces (API)

B. Improper use and storage of management keys
C. Misconfiguration of infrastructure allowing for unauthorized access
D. Vulnerabilities within protocols that can expose confidential data

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 447

- (Exam Topic 11)
A security professional is asked to provide a solution that restricts a bank teller to only perform a savings deposit transaction but allows a supervisor to perform
corrections after the transaction. Which of the following is the MOST effective solution?

A. Access is based on rules.

B. Access is determined by the system.
C. Access is based on user's role.
D. Access is based on data sensitivity.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 450

- (Exam Topic 11)
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption protects

A. data at rest.
B. the source IP address.
C. data transmitted.
D. data availability.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 453

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which methodology is recommended for penetration testing to be effective in the development phase of the life-cycle process?

A. White-box testing
B. Software fuzz testing
C. Black-box testing
D. Visual testing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 458

- (Exam Topic 11)
Application of which of the following Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) standards will prevent an unauthorized wireless device from being
attached to a network?

A. IEEE 802.1F
B. IEEE 802.1H
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. IEEE 802.1X

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 459

- (Exam Topic 11)
Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

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NEW QUESTION 462

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification negotiates how security tokens will be issued,
renewed and validated? Click on the correct specification in the image below.

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
WS-Trust
The protocol used for issuing security tokens is based on WS-Trust. WS-Trust is a Web service specification that builds on WS-Security. It describes a protocol
used for issuance, exchange, and validation of security tokens. WS-Trust provides a solution for interoperability by defining a protocol for issuing and exchanging
security tokens, based on token format, namespace, or trust boundaries.
Reference: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff650503.aspx

NEW QUESTION 465

- (Exam Topic 11)
Software Code signing is used as a method of verifying what security concept?

A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Availability
D. Access Control

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 469

- (Exam Topic 11)
Data leakage of sensitive information is MOST often concealed by which of the following?

A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

B. Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)
C. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
D. Secure Post Office Protocol (POP)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 471

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following is the MOST effective method of mitigating data theft from an active user workstation?

A. Implement full-disk encryption

B. Enable multifactor authentication
C. Deploy file integrity checkers
D. Disable use of portable devices

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 474

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- (Exam Topic 11)

The PRIMARY outcome of a certification process is that it provides documented

A. system weaknesses for remediation.

B. standards for security assessment, testing, and process evaluation.
C. interconnected systems and their implemented security controls.
D. security analyses needed to make a risk-based decision.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 478

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following methods can be used to achieve confidentiality and integrity for data in transit?

A. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

B. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
C. Federated identity management
D. Multi-factor authentication

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 482

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which one of the following operates at the session, transport, or network layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?

A. Data at rest encryption

B. Configuration Management
C. Integrity checking software
D. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 487

- (Exam Topic 11)
A network scan found 50% of the systems with one or more critical vulnerabilities. Which of the following represents the BEST action?

A. Assess vulnerability risk and program effectiveness.

B. Assess vulnerability risk and business impact.
C. Disconnect all systems with critical vulnerabilities.
D. Disconnect systems with the most number of vulnerabilities.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 492

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following questions can be answered using user and group entitlement reporting?

A. When a particular file was last accessed by a user

B. Change control activities for a particular group of users
C. The number of failed login attempts for a particular user
D. Where does a particular user have access within the network

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 497

- (Exam Topic 11)
When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined?

A. After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed
B. After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed
C. After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins
D. After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 502

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following BEST avoids data remanence disclosure for cloud hosted resources?

A. Strong encryption and deletion of the keys after data is deleted.

B. Strong encryption and deletion of the virtual host after data is deleted.
C. Software based encryption with two factor authentication.
D. Hardware based encryption on dedicated physical servers.

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 505

- (Exam Topic 11)
What is the GREATEST challenge of an agent-based patch management solution?

A. Time to gather vulnerability information about the computers in the program

B. Requires that software be installed, running, and managed on all participating computers
C. The significant amount of network bandwidth while scanning computers
D. The consistency of distributing patches to each participating computer

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 506

- (Exam Topic 11)
Who is ultimately responsible to ensure that information assets are categorized and adequate measures are taken to protect them?

A. Data Custodian
B. Executive Management
C. Chief Information Security Officer
D. Data/Information/Business Owners

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 510

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following protocols would allow an organization to maintain a centralized list of users that can read a protected webpage?

A. Lightweight Directory Access Control (LDAP)

B. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
D. Kerberos

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 511

- (Exam Topic 11)
A Simple Power Analysis (SPA) attack against a device directly observes which of the following?

A. Static discharge
B. Consumption
C. Generation
D. Magnetism

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 516

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following activities BEST identifies operational problems, security misconfigurations, and malicious attacks?

A. Policy documentation review

B. Authentication validation
C. Periodic log reviews
D. Interface testing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 518

- (Exam Topic 11)
While inventorying storage equipment, it is found that there are unlabeled, disconnected, and powered off devices. Which of the following is the correct procedure
for handling such equipment?

A. They should be recycled to save energy.

B. They should be recycled according to NIST SP 800-88.
C. They should be inspected and sanitized following the organizational policy.
D. They should be inspected and categorized properly to sell them for reuse.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 520

- (Exam Topic 11)
In the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model, which layer is responsible for the transmission of binary data over a communications network?

A. Application Layer
B. Physical Layer
C. Data-Link Layer
D. Network Layer

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 522

- (Exam Topic 11)
Which of the following secures web transactions at the Transport Layer?

A. Secure HyperText Transfer Protocol (S-HTTP)

B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
C. Socket Security (SOCKS)
D. Secure Shell (SSH)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 525

- (Exam Topic 11)
Are companies legally required to report all data breaches?

A. No, different jurisdictions have different rules.

B. No, not if the data is encrypted.
C. No, companies' codes of ethics don't require it.
D. No, only if the breach had a material impact.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 530

- (Exam Topic 11)
The 802.1x standard provides a framework for what?

A. Network authentication for only wireless networks

B. Network authentication for wired and wireless networks
C. Wireless encryption using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Wireless network encryption using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 535

- (Exam Topic 11)
An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST
probable cause?

A. Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)

B. Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution
C. Inadequate cost modeling
D. Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 538

- (Exam Topic 11)
In order for a security policy to be effective within an organization, it MUST include

A. strong statements that clearly define the problem.

B. a list of all standards that apply to the policy.
C. owner information and date of last revision.
D. disciplinary measures for non compliance.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 539

- (Exam Topic 11)
By carefully aligning the pins in the lock, which of the following defines the opening of a mechanical lock without the proper key?

A. Lock pinging
B. Lock picking
C. Lock bumping
D. Lock bricking

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 542

- (Exam Topic 11)
A global organization wants to implement hardware tokens as part of a multifactor authentication solution for remote access. The PRIMARY advantage of this
implementation is

A. the scalability of token enrollment.

B. increased accountability of end users.

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C. it protects against unauthorized access.

D. it simplifies user access administration.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 544

- (Exam Topic 11)
In which order, from MOST to LEAST impacted, does user awareness training reduce the occurrence of the events below?

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 548

- (Exam Topic 12)
A proxy firewall operates at what layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?

A. Transport
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Application

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 549

- (Exam Topic 12)
What is the difference between media marking and media labeling?

A. Media marking refers to the use of human-readable security attributes, while media labeling refers to the use of security attributes in internal data structures.
B. Media labeling refers to the use of human-readable security attributes, while media marking refers to the use of security attributes in internal data structures.
C. Media labeling refers to security attributes required by public policy/law, while media marking refers to security required by internal organizational policy.
D. Media marking refers to security attributes required by public policy/law, while media labeling refers to security attributes required by internal organizational
policy.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 551

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following is a remote access protocol that uses a static authentication?

A. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)

B. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
C. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
D. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 554

- (Exam Topic 12)

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Match the name of access control model with its associated restriction.
Drag each access control model to its appropriate restriction access on the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Mandatory Access Control – End user cannot set controls
Discretionary Access Control (DAC) – Subject has total control over objects
Role Based Access Control (RBAC) – Dynamically assigns roles permissions to particular duties based on job function
Rule Based access control – Dynamically assigns roles to subjects based on criteria assigned by a custodian.

NEW QUESTION 557

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following information MUST be provided for user account provisioning?

A. Full name
B. Unique identifier
C. Security question
D. Date of birth

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 559

- (Exam Topic 12)
The restoration priorities of a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) are based on which of the following documents?

A. Service Level Agreement (SLA)

B. Business Continuity Plan (BCP)
C. Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
D. Crisis management plan

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 560

- (Exam Topic 12)
Network-based logging has which advantage over host-based logging when reviewing malicious activity about a victim machine?

A. Addresses and protocols of network-based logs are analyzed.

B. Host-based system logging has files stored in multiple locations.
C. Properly handled network-based logs may be more reliable and valid.
D. Network-based systems cannot capture users logging into the console.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 561

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following is a strategy of grouping requirements in developing a Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E)?

A. Tactical, strategic, and financial

B. Management, operational, and technical
C. Documentation, observation, and manual
D. Standards, policies, and procedures

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 564

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- (Exam Topic 12)

Which of the following is the MOST important goal of information asset valuation?

A. Developing a consistent and uniform method of controlling access on information assets

B. Developing appropriate access control policies and guidelines
C. Assigning a financial value to an organization’s information assets
D. Determining the appropriate level of protection

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 566

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following sets of controls should allow an investigation if an attack is not blocked by preventive controls or detected by monitoring?

A. Logging and audit trail controls to enable forensic analysis

B. Security incident response lessons learned procedures
C. Security event alert triage done by analysts using a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system
D. Transactional controls focused on fraud prevention

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 570

- (Exam Topic 12)
Match the types of e-authentication tokens to their description.
Drag each e-authentication token on the left to its corresponding description on the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Look-up secret token - A physical or electronic token that stores a set of secrets between the claimant and the credential service provider
Out-of-Band Token - A physical token that is uniquely addressable and can receive a verifier-selected secret for one-time use
Pre-registered Knowledge Token - A series of responses to a set of prompts or challenges established by the subscriber and credential service provider during the
registration process
Memorized Secret Token - A secret shared between the subscriber and credential service provider that is typically character strings

NEW QUESTION 572

- (Exam Topic 12)
An application developer is deciding on the amount of idle session time that the application allows before a timeout. The BEST reason for determining the session
timeout requirement is

A. organization policy.
B. industry best practices.
C. industry laws and regulations.
D. management feedback.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 577

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which type of security testing is being performed when an ethical hacker has no knowledge about the target system but the testing target is notified before the

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test?

A. Reversal
B. Gray box
C. Blind
D. White box

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 581

- (Exam Topic 12)
What does the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) determine?

A. The estimated period of time a business critical database can remain down before customers are affected.
B. The fixed length of time a company can endure a disaster without any Disaster Recovery (DR) planning
C. The estimated period of time a business can remain interrupted beyond which it risks never recovering
D. The fixed length of time in a DR process before redundant systems are engaged

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 582

- (Exam Topic 12)
The PRIMARY purpose of accreditation is to:

A. comply with applicable laws and regulations.

B. allow senior management to make an informed decision regarding whether to accept the risk of operating the system.
C. protect an organization’s sensitive datA.
D. verify that all security controls have been implemented properly and are operating in the correct manner.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 583

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following BEST describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?

A. Time of application resumption after disaster

B. Time of application verification after disaster.
C. Time of data validation after disaster.
D. Time of data restoration from backup after disaster.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 587

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following command line tools can be used in the reconnaissance phase of a network vulnerability assessment?

A. dig
B. ipconfig
C. ifconfig
D. nbstat

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 591

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following would BEST describe the role directly responsible for data within an organization?

A. Data custodian
B. Information owner
C. Database administrator
D. Quality control

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 592

- (Exam Topic 12)
What is the BEST way to encrypt web application communications?

A. Secure Hash Algorithm 1 (SHA-1)

B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
C. Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code (CBC-MAC)
D. Transport Layer Security (TLS)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 595

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- (Exam Topic 12)

At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model are the source and destination address for a datagram handled?

A. Transport Layer
B. Data-Link Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Application Layer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 600

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of a formalized information classification program?

A. It minimized system logging requirements.

B. It supports risk assessment.
C. It reduces asset vulnerabilities.
D. It drives audit processes.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 602

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following BEST represents the concept of least privilege?

A. Access to an object is denied unless access is specifically allowed.

B. Access to an object is only available to the owner.
C. Access to an object is allowed unless it is protected by the information security policy.
D. Access to an object is only allowed to authenticated users via an Access Control List (ACL).

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 606

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following approaches is the MOST effective way to dispose of data on multiple hard drives?

A. Delete every file on each drive.

B. Destroy the partition table for each drive using the command line.
C. Degauss each drive individually.
D. Perform multiple passes on each drive using approved formatting methods.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 608

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which one of the following activities would present a significant security risk to organizations when employing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) solution?

A. VPN bandwidth
B. Simultaneous connection to other networks
C. Users with Internet Protocol (IP) addressing conflicts
D. Remote users with administrative rights

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 613

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following is BEST suited for exchanging authentication and authorization messages in a multi-party decentralized environment?

A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

B. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
C. Internet Mail Access Protocol
D. Transport Layer Security (TLS)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 618

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

A. The dynamic reconfiguration of systems

B. The cost of downtime
C. A recovery strategy for all business processes
D. A containment strategy

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 623

- (Exam Topic 12)
A security architect plans to reference a Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model for implementation. This indicates that which of the following properties are being
prioritized?

A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Accessibility

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 626

- (Exam Topic 12)
The goal of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is to determine which of the following?

A. Cost effectiveness of business recovery

B. Cost effectiveness of installing software security patches
C. Resource priorities for recovery and Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)
D. Which security measures should be implemented

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 629

- (Exam Topic 12)
An organization publishes and periodically updates its employee policies in a file on their intranet. Which of the following is a PRIMARY security concern?

A. Ownership
B. Confidentiality
C. Availability
D. Integrity

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 632

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following are effective countermeasures against passive network-layer attacks?

A. Federated security and authenticated access controls

B. Trusted software development and run time integrity controls
C. Encryption and security enabled applications
D. Enclave boundary protection and computing environment defense

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 635

- (Exam Topic 12)
From a cryptographic perspective, the service of non-repudiation includes which of the following features?

A. Validity of digital certificates

B. Validity of the authorization rules
C. Proof of authenticity of the message
D. Proof of integrity of the message

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 638

- (Exam Topic 12)
Knowing the language in which an encrypted message was originally produced might help a cryptanalyst to perform a

A. clear-text attack.
B. known cipher attack.
C. frequency analysis.
D. stochastic assessment.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 640

- (Exam Topic 12)
Backup information that is critical to the organization is identified through a

A. Vulnerability Assessment (VA).

B. Business Continuity Plan (BCP).
C. Business Impact Analysis (BIA).
D. data recovery analysis.

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 645

- (Exam Topic 12)
When building a data classification scheme, which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?

A. Purpose
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Availability
D. Authenticity

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 649

- (Exam Topic 12)
What balance MUST be considered when web application developers determine how informative application error messages should be constructed?

A. Risk versus benefit

B. Availability versus auditability
C. Confidentiality versus integrity
D. Performance versus user satisfaction

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 652

- (Exam Topic 12)
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform regular vulnerability scanning of an organization network?

A. Provide vulnerability reports to management.

B. Validate vulnerability remediation activities.
C. Prevent attackers from discovering vulnerabilities.
D. Remediate known vulnerabilities.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 655

- (Exam Topic 12)
What is a characteristic of Secure Socket Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS)?

A. SSL and TLS provide a generic channel security mechanism on top of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
B. SSL and TLS provide nonrepudiation by default.
C. SSL and TLS do not provide security for most routed protocols.
D. SSL and TLS provide header encapsulation over HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 659

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following is the BEST reason for writing an information security policy?

A. To support information security governance

B. To reduce the number of audit findings
C. To deter attackers
D. To implement effective information security controls

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 660

- (Exam Topic 13)
A security analyst for a large financial institution is reviewing network traffic related to an incident. The analyst determines the traffic is irrelevant to the investigation
but in the process of the review, the analyst also finds that an applications data, which included full credit card cardholder data, is transferred in clear text between
the server and user’s desktop. The analyst knows this violates the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS). Which of the following is the
analyst’s next step?

A. Send the log file co-workers for peer review

B. Include the full network traffic logs in the incident report
C. Follow organizational processes to alert the proper teams to address the issue.
D. Ignore data as it is outside the scope of the investigation and the analyst’s role.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Security Operations

NEW QUESTION 661

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- (Exam Topic 13)

Which of the following is the MOST effective practice in managing user accounts when an employee is terminated?

A. Implement processes for automated removal of access for terminated employees.

B. Delete employee network and system IDs upon termination.
C. Manually remove terminated employee user-access to all systems and applications.
D. Disable terminated employee network ID to remove all access.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 663

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following steps should be performed FIRST when purchasing Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) software?

A. undergo a security assessment as part of authorization process

B. establish a risk management strategy
C. harden the hosting server, and perform hosting and application vulnerability scans
D. establish policies and procedures on system and services acquisition

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 668

- (Exam Topic 13)
What is the MAIN goal of information security awareness and training?

A. To inform users of the latest malware threats

B. To inform users of information assurance responsibilities
C. To comply with the organization information security policy
D. To prepare students for certification

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 672

- (Exam Topic 13)
An organization’s security policy delegates to the data owner the ability to assign which user roles have access to a particular resource. What type of authorization
mechanism is being used?

A. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

B. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
C. Media Access Control (MAC)
D. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 676

- (Exam Topic 13)
As part of the security assessment plan, the security professional has been asked to use a negative testing strategy on a new website. Which of the following
actions would be performed?

A. Use a web scanner to scan for vulnerabilities within the website.

B. Perform a code review to ensure that the database references are properly addressed.
C. Establish a secure connection to the web server to validate that only the approved ports are open.
D. Enter only numbers in the web form and verify that the website prompts the user to enter a valid input.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 680

- (Exam Topic 13)
A company seizes a mobile device suspected of being used in committing fraud. What would be the BEST method used by a forensic examiner to isolate the
powered-on device from the network and preserve the evidence?

A. Put the device in airplane mode

B. Suspend the account with the telecommunication provider
C. Remove the SIM card
D. Turn the device off

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 684

- (Exam Topic 13)
An organization plan on purchasing a custom software product developed by a small vendor to support its
business model. Which unique consideration should be made part of the contractual agreement potential long-term risks associated with creating this
dependency?

A. A source code escrow clause

B. Right to request an independent review of the software source code
C. Due diligence form requesting statements of compliance with security requirements

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D. Access to the technical documentation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 685

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following are important criteria when designing procedures and acceptance criteria for acquired software?

A. Code quality, security, and origin

B. Architecture, hardware, and firmware
C. Data quality, provenance, and scaling
D. Distributed, agile, and bench testing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 690

- (Exam Topic 13)
What is the PRIMARY role of a scrum master in agile development?

A. To choose the primary development language

B. To choose the integrated development environment
C. To match the software requirements to the delivery plan
D. To project manage the software delivery

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 693

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which security access policy contains fixed security attributes that are used by the system to determine a user’s access to a file or object?

A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

B. Access Control List (ACL)
C. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
D. Authorized user control

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 694

- (Exam Topic 13)
Even though a particular digital watermark is difficult to detect, which of the following represents a way it might still be inadvertently removed?

A. Truncating parts of the data

B. Applying Access Control Lists (ACL) to the data
C. Appending non-watermarked data to watermarked data
D. Storing the data in a database

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 696

- (Exam Topic 13)
Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Risk - A measure of the extent to which an entity is threatened by a potential circumstance of event, the adverse impacts that would arise if the circumstance or
event occurs, and the likelihood of occurrence.
Protection Needs Assessment - The method used to identify the confidentiality, integrity, and availability requirements for organizational and system assets and to
characterize the adverse impact or consequences should be asset be lost, modified, degraded, disrupted, compromised, or become unavailable.
Threat assessment - The method used to identify and characterize the dangers anticipated throughout the life cycle of the system.
Security Risk Treatment - The method used to identify feasible security risk mitigation options and plans.

NEW QUESTION 697

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which security modes is MOST commonly used in a commercial environment because it protects the integrity
of financial and accounting data?

A. Biba
B. Graham-Denning
C. Clark-Wilson
D. Beil-LaPadula

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 698

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following is a benefit in implementing an enterprise Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution?

A. Password requirements are simplified.

B. Risk associated with orphan accounts is reduced.
C. Segregation of duties is automatically enforced.
D. Data confidentiality is increased.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 703

- (Exam Topic 13)
When determining who can accept the risk associated with a vulnerability, which of the following is MOST
important?

A. Countermeasure effectiveness
B. Type of potential loss
C. Incident likelihood
D. Information ownership

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 708

- (Exam Topic 13)
An organization has outsourced its financial transaction processing to a Cloud Service Provider (CSP) who will provide them with Software as a Service (SaaS). If
there was a data breach who is responsible for monetary losses?

A. The Data Protection Authority (DPA)

B. The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)
C. The application developers
D. The data owner

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 709

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following is the BEST reason for the use of security metrics?

A. They ensure that the organization meets its security objectives.

B. They provide an appropriate framework for Information Technology (IT) governance.
C. They speed up the process of quantitative risk assessment.
D. They quantify the effectiveness of security processes.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 711

- (Exam Topic 13)
What is the MAIN purpose of a change management policy?

A. To assure management that changes to the Information Technology (IT) infrastructure are necessary
B. To identify the changes that may be made to the Information Technology (IT) infrastructure
C. To verify that changes to the Information Technology (IT) infrastructure are approved
D. To determine the necessary for implementing modifications to the Information Technology (IT) infrastructure

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Security Operations

NEW QUESTION 714

- (Exam Topic 13)
The organization would like to deploy an authorization mechanism for an Information Technology (IT) infrastructure project with high employee turnover.
Which access control mechanism would be preferred?

A. Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC)

B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
C. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
D. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 717

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following is a common characteristic of privacy?

A. Provision for maintaining an audit trail of access to the private data

B. Notice to the subject of the existence of a database containing relevant credit card data
C. Process for the subject to inspect and correct personal data on-site
D. Database requirements for integration of privacy data

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 720

- (Exam Topic 13)
What is the MOST significant benefit of an application upgrade that replaces randomly generated session keys with certificate based encryption for
communications with backend servers?

A. Non-repudiation
B. Efficiency
C. Confidentially
D. Privacy

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 724

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following is a responsibility of the information owner?

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A. Ensure that users and personnel complete the required security training to access the Information System (IS)
B. Defining proper access to the Information System (IS), including privileges or access rights
C. Managing identification, implementation, and assessment of common security controls
D. Ensuring the Information System (IS) is operated according to agreed upon security requirements

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 728

- (Exam Topic 13)
Proven application security principles include which of the following?

A. Minimizing attack surface area

B. Hardening the network perimeter
C. Accepting infrastructure security controls
D. Developing independent modules

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 733

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which type of test would an organization perform in order to locate and target exploitable defects?

A. Penetration
B. System
C. Performance
D. Vulnerability

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 738

- (Exam Topic 13)
The core component of Role Based Access Control (RBAC) must be constructed of defined data elements. Which elements are required?

A. Users, permissions, operations, and protected objects

B. Roles, accounts, permissions, and protected objects
C. Users, roles, operations, and protected objects
D. Roles, operations, accounts, and protected objects

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 743

- (Exam Topic 13)
In a change-controlled environment, which of the following is MOST likely to lead to unauthorized changes to production programs?

A. Modifying source code without approval

B. Promoting programs to production without approval
C. Developers checking out source code without approval
D. Developers using Rapid Application Development (RAD) methodologies without approval

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 745

- (Exam Topic 13)
What is the second step in the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?

A. Provisioning
B. Review
C. Approval
D. Revocation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 748

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following is MOST appropriate for protecting confidentially of data stored on a hard drive?

A. Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES)

B. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. Message Digest 5 (MD5)
D. Secure Hash Algorithm 2(SHA-2)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 750

- (Exam Topic 13)

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What is the expected outcome of security awareness in support of a security awareness program?

A. Awareness activities should be used to focus on security concerns and respond to those concerns accordingly
B. Awareness is not an activity or part of the training but rather a state of persistence to support the program
C. Awareness is trainin
D. The purpose of awareness presentations is to broaden attention of security.
E. Awareness is not trainin
F. The purpose of awareness presentation is simply to focus attention on security.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 755

- (Exam Topic 13)
An Information Technology (IT) professional attends a cybersecurity seminar on current incident response methodologies.
What code of ethics canon is being observed?

A. Provide diligent and competent service to principals

B. Protect society, the commonwealth, and the infrastructure
C. Advance and protect the profession
D. Act honorable, honesty, justly, responsibly, and legally

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Security Operations

NEW QUESTION 757

- (Exam Topic 13)
Transport Layer Security (TLS) provides which of the following capabilities for a remote access server?

A. Transport layer handshake compression

B. Application layer negotiation
C. Peer identity authentication
D. Digital certificate revocation

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 758

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following MUST be scalable to address security concerns raised by the integration of third-party identity services?

A. Mandatory Access Controls (MAC)

B. Enterprise security architecture
C. Enterprise security procedures
D. Role Based Access Controls (RBAC)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 761

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following would MINIMIZE the ability of an attacker to exploit a buffer overflow?

A. Memory review
B. Code review
C. Message division
D. Buffer division

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 766

- (Exam Topic 13)
When developing a business case for updating a security program, the security program owner MUST do
which of the following?

A. Identify relevant metrics

B. Prepare performance test reports
C. Obtain resources for the security program
D. Interview executive management

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 769

- (Exam Topic 13)
When network management is outsourced to third parties, which of the following is the MOST effective method of protecting critical data assets?

A. Log all activities associated with sensitive systems

B. Provide links to security policies

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C. Confirm that confidentially agreements are signed

D. Employ strong access controls

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 772

- (Exam Topic 13)
Who is accountable for the information within an Information System (IS)?

A. Security manager
B. System owner
C. Data owner
D. Data processor

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Security Operations

NEW QUESTION 775

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) process can be used to maintain the principle of least privilege?

A. identity provisioning
B. access recovery
C. multi-factor authentication (MFA)
D. user access review

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 778

- (Exam Topic 13)
A chemical plan wants to upgrade the Industrial Control System (ICS) to transmit data using Ethernet instead of RS422. The project manager wants to simplify
administration and maintenance by utilizing the office network infrastructure and staff to implement this upgrade.
Which of the following is the GREATEST impact on security for the network?

A. The network administrators have no knowledge of ICS

B. The ICS is now accessible from the office network
C. The ICS does not support the office password policy
D. RS422 is more reliable than Ethernet

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 780

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following is part of a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?

A. A non-volatile tamper-resistant storage for storing both data and signing keys in a secure fashion
B. A protected Pre-Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) which specifies a method or a metric for “measuring”the state of a computing platform
C. A secure processor targeted at managing digital keys and accelerating digital signing
D. A platform-independent software interface for accessing computer functions

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 781

- (Exam Topic 13)
What does a Synchronous (SYN) flood attack do?

A. Forces Transmission Control Protocol /Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connections into a reset state
B. Establishes many new Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connections
C. Empties the queue of pending Transmission Control Protocol /Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) requests
D. Exceeds the limits for new Transmission Control Protocol /Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connections

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 786

- (Exam Topic 13)
An organization has discovered that users are visiting unauthorized websites using anonymous proxies. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future
occurrences?

A. Remove the anonymity from the proxy

B. Analyze Internet Protocol (IP) traffic for proxy requests
C. Disable the proxy server on the firewall
D. Block the Internet Protocol (IP) address of known anonymous proxies

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 789

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when reusing media that contains sensitive data?

A. Erase
B. Sanitize
C. Encrypt
D. Degauss

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 793

- (Exam Topic 13)
A user has infected a computer with malware by connecting a Universal Serial Bus (USB) storage device. Which of the following is MOST effective to mitigate
future infections?

A. Develop a written organizational policy prohibiting unauthorized USB devices

B. Train users on the dangers of transferring data in USB devices
C. Implement centralized technical control of USB port connections
D. Encrypt removable USB devices containing data at rest

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 798

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following is the MOST important part of an awareness and training plan to prepare employees for emergency situations?

A. Having emergency contacts established for the general employee population to get information
B. Conducting business continuity and disaster recovery training for those who have a direct role in the recovery
C. Designing business continuity and disaster recovery training programs for different audiences
D. Publishing a corporate business continuity and disaster recovery plan on the corporate website

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 803

- (Exam Topic 13)
What is the correct order of steps in an information security assessment?
Place the information security assessment steps on the left next to the numbered boxes on the right in the correct order.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

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Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 807

- (Exam Topic 13)
A company receives an email threat informing of an Imminent Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack
targeting its web application, unless ransom is paid. Which of the following techniques BEST addresses that threat?

A. Deploying load balancers to distribute inbound traffic across multiple data centers
B. Set Up Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) to filter out malicious traffic
C. Implementing reverse web-proxies to validate each new inbound connection
D. Coordinate with and utilize capabilities within Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 809

- (Exam Topic 13)
During examination of Internet history records, the following string occurs within a Unique Resource Locator (URL):
http://www.companysite.com/products/products.asp?productid=123
or 1=1
What type of attack does this indicate?

A. Directory traversal
B. Structured Query Language (SQL) injection
C. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
D. Shellcode injection

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 811

- (Exam Topic 13)
Attack trees are MOST useful for which of the following?

A. Determining system security scopes

B. Generating attack libraries
C. Enumerating threats
D. Evaluating Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 816

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following management process allows ONLY those services required for users to accomplish
their tasks, change default user passwords, and set servers to retrieve antivirus updates?

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A. Configuration
B. Identity
C. Compliance
D. Patch

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 819

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive filtering of Peer-to-Peer (P2P) traffic?

A. Application proxy
B. Port filter
C. Network boundary router
D. Access layer switch

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 820

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which one of the following considerations has the LEAST impact when considering transmission security?

A. Network availability
B. Node locations
C. Network bandwidth
D. Data integrity

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 824

- (Exam Topic 13)
Which of the following techniques is known to be effective in spotting resource exhaustion problems, especially with resources such as processes, memory, and
connections?

A. Automated dynamic analysis

B. Automated static analysis
C. Manual code review
D. Fuzzing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 825

- (Exam Topic 13)
Access to which of the following is required to validate web session management?

A. Log timestamp
B. Live session traffic
C. Session state variables
D. Test scripts

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 828

- (Exam Topic 13)
The security accreditation task of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) process is completed at the end of which phase?

A. System acquisition and development

B. System operations and maintenance
C. System initiation
D. System implementation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 831

......

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