Mark the correct answer with an X.

Please return the question paper with your

answer sheet. Please note that this test is not a CRM exercise, anyone
caught sharing answers will be asked to leave the interview.

NTR EXAM 5

Question A B C D Question A B C D
Number Number
1 26
2 27
3 28
4 29
5 30
6 31
7 32
8 33
9 34
10 35
11 36
12 37
13 38
14 39
15 40
16 41
17 42
18 43
19 44
20 45
21 46
22 47
23 48
24 49
25 50

NAME _________________________ EXAMINER ___________________

_______________________________ SCORE %_____________________

CANIDATE SIGNATURE
DATE ________________________
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NTR
TECHNICAL QUESTIONNAIRE No. 5

1 The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is :

(a) A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.
(b) Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.
(c) Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.
(d) Water may only be used for minor fires.

2 Above flight level FL 290 in non-RVSM airspace, the vertical flight separation between aircraft
on the same direction is:
(a) 3 000 feet.
(b) 1 500 feet.
(c) 4 000 feet.
(d) 2 000 feet.

3 A class B fire is a fire of:

(a) electrical source fire
(b) special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
(c) liquid or liquefiable solid
(d) solid material usually of organic nature

4 The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A
Code:
(a) 7700
(b) 7600
(c) 2000
(d) 7500

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NTR
TECHNICAL QUESTIONNAIRE No. 5

5 The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable
in landing configuration is abbreviated as
(a) VS1.
(b) VS.
(c) VMC.
(d) VSO.

6 Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport. FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA
BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Lisbon to
Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ?
(a) 10 or more km
(b) 8 km
(c) 8 NM
(d) 10 NM

7 In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning.
Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
(a) Dull headache and bends.
(b) Dizziness, hypothermia.
(c) Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.
(d) Nausea and barotitis.

8 The first segment of the take-off flight path ends

(a) at completion of gear retraction.
(b) at completion of flap retraction.
(c) at reaching V2.
(d) at 35 ft above the runway.

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NTR
TECHNICAL QUESTIONNAIRE No. 5

9 Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on :

(a) pressure.
(b) density.
(c) temperature.
(d) temperature and the pressure.

10 Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct ?

(a) Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
(b) Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
(c) Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed.
(d) Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed.

11 Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA?
(a) High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation.
(b) Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
(c) Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation.
(d) High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.

12 During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be :
(a) to warn the ATC
(b) to comfort your passengers
(c) to put on the oxygen mask
(d) to set the transponder to 7700

13 Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
(a) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.
(b) lower.
(c) higher.
(d) unaffected.

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NTR
TECHNICAL QUESTIONNAIRE No. 5

14 The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of
(a) 8 km and 5-15 minutes
(b) 12 km and 5-10 minutes
(c) 4 km and 1-5 minutes
(d) 4 km and 30-40 minutes

15 A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:

(a) unreliable
(b) medium
(c) good
(d) poor

16 The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:

(a) 644 kt.
(b) 332 kt.
(c) 661 kt.
(d) 1059 kt.

17 Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
(a) A DME station sited on the flight route
(b) An ADF sited on the flight route
(c) A VOR station sited on the flight route
(d) A DME station sited across the flight route

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NTR
TECHNICAL QUESTIONNAIRE No. 5

18 Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ? 00000KT 0200

R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
(a) Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C,
vertical visibility 100 metres
(b) Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical
visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
(c) Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway
16 more than 1500 metres
(d) RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility
improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours

19 A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360
will obtain a DME range of approximately:
(a) 7 NM
(b) 11 NM
(c) 8 NM
(d) 6 NM

20 The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
(a) air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft
surveillance capability
(b) collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication
capability.
(c) continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS)
satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS II
(d) the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic
separation between aircraft using TCAS II

21 For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :
(a) 150 ft
(b) 100 ft
(c) 200 ft
(d) 250 ft

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NTR
TECHNICAL QUESTIONNAIRE No. 5

22 For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to
be observed such as :
(a) the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion
(b) the boarding has to be done at the state discretion
(c) boarding prior to all passengers
(d) boarding after to all other passengers

23 Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning hyperventilation?

(a) Slow heart beat
(b) Slow rate of breathing
(c) Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)
(d) Dizzy feeling

24 The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to:

(a) Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load
(b) Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel
(c) Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel
(d) Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load

25 The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the
(a) air temperature
(b) relative humidity
(c) stability of the air
(d) dewpoint

26 During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an
indication of the true:
(a) height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
(b) altitude of the aircraft.
(c) height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.
(d) height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.

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NTR
TECHNICAL QUESTIONNAIRE No. 5

27 Altostratus clouds are classified as

(a) high level clouds
(b) convective clouds
(c) medium level clouds
(d) low level clouds

28 The maximum certificated take - off mass is :

(a) a take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2 .
(b) limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.
(c) a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.
(d) a take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature.

29 Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper ?

(a) Spiral dive.
(b) Buffeting
(c) Dutch roll.
(d) Tuck under.

30 The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains :

(a) two modes, each of 4096 codes
(b) four modes, each 1024 codes
(c) four modes, each 4096 codes
(d) two modes, each 1024 codes

31 If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
(a) continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred
(b) gradually indicate zero
(c) under-read
(d) indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale

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NTR
TECHNICAL QUESTIONNAIRE No. 5

32 An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be
adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be
(a) 4278 FT.
(b) 4194 FT.
(c) 3006 FT.
(d) 2922 FT.

33 You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all
turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an
inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available e ntry procedure.
(a) Either "off set" or "parallel".
(b) Off set.
(c) Parallel.
(d) Direct.

34 The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available
prepared as a suitable area where:
(a) An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped
(b) An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-
off.
An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
(c) A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
(d) A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.

35 The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH
to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
(a) Transition level.
(b) The level specified by ATC.
(c) Transition altitude.
(d) Transition layer.

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NTR
TECHNICAL QUESTIONNAIRE No. 5

36 Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
(a) It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
(b) It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
(c) It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity

(d) It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is
unknown

37 The temperature at 10000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is :

(a) -20°C
(b) -35°C
(c) -5°C
(d) 0°C

38 After take-off the slats are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ?
(a) Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less
drag.
(b) Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less
drag.
(c) Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS
EXTENDED.
(d) Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS
EXTENDED situation.

39 Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
(a) from take off to landing.
(b) while at their station.
(c) only during take off and landing.
(d) only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the
interest of safety.

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NTR
TECHNICAL QUESTIONNAIRE No. 5

40 Reduced take-off thrust

(a) can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.
(b) has the benefit of improving engine life.
(c) can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off
mass.
(d) is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).

41 ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:

(a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway
provided).
(b) The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).
(c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if
provided).
(d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

42 An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences
on landing performance:
(a) a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance
(b) a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance
(c) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
(d) an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance

43 A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes
the airspeed indicator to :
(a) freeze at zero.
(b) react like an altimeter.
(c) read a little high.
(d) read a little low.

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NTR
TECHNICAL QUESTIONNAIRE No. 5

44 Fallstreaks or virga are

(a) strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation
(b) water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporates before reaching the ground
(c) strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
(d) gusts associated with a well developed Bora

45 Which statement with respect to the climb is correct ?

(a) At constant Mach number the IAS increases
(b) At constant TAS the Mach number decreases
(c) At constant IAS the Mach number increases
(d) At constant IAS the TAS decreases

46 The Density Altitude

(a) is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
(b) is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
(c) is equal to the pressure altitude.
(d) is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.

47 The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft
during take-off is about:
(a) 10 minutes.
(b) 3 minutes.
(c) 30 seconds.
(d) 1 minute.

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NTR
TECHNICAL QUESTIONNAIRE No. 5

48 What does the term METAR signify?

(a) A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
(b) A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic
report.
(c) A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in
half-hourly intervals.
(d) A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.

49 In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or
cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
(a) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
(b) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
(c) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
(d) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

50 In a standard holding pattern turns are made :

(a) to the left
(b) in a direction depending on the entry
(c) in a direction depending on the wind direction
(d) to the right

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