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NEET - Grand Test - 1

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to physics and chemistry, covering various topics such as mechanics, thermodynamics, electromagnetism, and chemical reactions. Each question presents a scenario or concept, followed by four answer options. The test is designed for NEET preparation, with a total of 720 marks available.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
109 views22 pages

NEET - Grand Test - 1

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to physics and chemistry, covering various topics such as mechanics, thermodynamics, electromagnetism, and chemical reactions. Each question presents a scenario or concept, followed by four answer options. The test is designed for NEET preparation, with a total of 720 marks available.

Uploaded by

Bavashi
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 22

NEET

Date : TEST
ID: 1
Time : 03:00:00
Marks: 720

PHYSICS

Single Correct Answer Type

1. A physical quantity is given by X =[ M a Lb T c ] . The percentage error in measurement of


M , L∧T are α , β∧γ respectively. Then, the maximum % error in the quantity X is
a) b) c) a b c d) None of these
aα +bβ +cγ aα +bβ−cγ + +
α β γ
2. Given X =( Gh¿ c 3 ) , where G , h and c are gravitational constant, Planck’s constant and
1 /2

the velocity of light respectively. Dimensions of X are the same as those of


a) Mass b) Time c) Length d) Acceleration

3. A body falling for 2 seconds covers a distance Sis equal to that covered in next second.
Taking g=10 m/ s2 , S=¿
a) 30 m b) 10 m c) 60m d) 20m

Which of the following statements is false for a particle moving in a circle with a
constant angular speed?
4.

a) The velocity vector is tangent to the circle

b) The acceleration vector is tangent to the circle

c) The acceleration vector point to the center of the circle

d) The velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular to each other

The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of projectile
are equal is
5.

a) 45 ° b) −1
θ=tan (0.25)

θ=tan 4or(θ=76 °)
c) −1 d) 60 °

A motorcycle is travelling on a curved track of radius 500 m. If the coefficient of between


road and tyres is 0.5, the speed avoiding skidding will be
6.

a) 50 m/s b) 75 m/s c) 25 m/s d) 35 m/s

A light spring balance hangs from the hook of the other light spring balance and a block
of mass M kg hangs from the former one. Then the true statement about the scale
7.

reading is
a) Both the scales read M /2 kg each

b) Both the scales read M Kg each

c) The scale of the lower one reads M kg and of the upper one zero
d) The reading of the two scales can be anything but the sum of the reading will be M kg

A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table .A ball of mass m at a height h
above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring, so that the spring is
8.

compressed by a distance d . The net work done in the process is


a) mg ( h+d ) + 1 k d 2 b) mg ( h+d ) − 1 k d 2 c) mg ( h−d )− 1 k d 2 d) mg ( h−d )+ 1 k d 2

In the above question, find the angular speed at the bottom


2 2 2 2
9.

a) 68 rad / sec b) 8.5 rad / sec c) 17 rad / sec d) 34 rad /sec


10. In the figure (i) half of the meter scale is made of wood while the other half, of steel. The
wooden part is pivoted at O . A force F is applied at the end of steel part. In figure (ii) the
steel part is pivoted at O and the same force is applied at the wooden end

a) More acceleration will be produced in (i)

b) More acceleration will be produced in (ii)

c) Same acceleration will be produced in both conditions

d) Information is incomplete

11. A particle of mass m is located at a distance r from the centre of a shell of mass M and
radius R . The force between the shell and mass is F (r ). The plot of F ( r ) versus r is

a) b) c) d)

12. The breaking stress of a wire depends upon

a) Length of the wire b) Radius of the wire

c) Material of the wire d) Shape of the cross section

13. Two soap bubbles of radii r 1 and r 2 equal to 4 cm and 5 cm respectively are touching
each other over a common surface AB (shown in figure). Its radius will be
A
5 cm
4 cm

a) 4 cm b) 4.5 cm c) 5 cm d) 20 cm

14. A tank of height H is fully filled with water. If the water rushing from a hole made in the
tank below the free surface, strikes the floor at maximum horizontal distance, then the
depth of the hole from the free surface must be
(4)
a) 3 H
(3)
b) 2 H
(4)
c) 1 H
(2)
d) 1 H

15. The radiation energy density per unit wavelength at a temperature T has a maximum at
a wavelength λ 0. At temperature 2 T , it will have a maximum at a wavelength
a) 4 λ b) 2 λ c) λ /2 d) λ /4

16. If amount of heat given to a system be 50 J and work done on the system be 15 J, then
0 0 0 0

change in internal energy of the system is


a) 35 J b) 50 J c) 65 J d) 15 J

17. When the amount of work done is 333 cal and change in internal energy is 167 cal , then
the heat supplied is
a) 166 cal b) 333 cal c) 500 cal d) 400 cal

18. The average kinetic energy of hydrogen molecules at 300 K is E . At the same
temperature, the average kinetic energy of oxygen molecules will be
a) E /4 b) E /16 c) E d) 4 E

19. The P.E. of a particle executing SHM at a distance x from its equilibrium position is

a) 1 m ω2 x 2 b) 1 m ω2 a2 c) 1 m ω2 (a 2−x 2) d) Zero

20. The KE and PE of a particle executing SHM of amplitude a will be equal when
2 2 2

displacement is
a) a b) c) 2 a d)
a √2 a / √2
21. The minimum intensity of sound is zero at a point due to two sources of nearly equal
2

frequencies, when
a) Two sources are vibrating in opposite phase

b) The amplitude of two sources are equal

c) At the point of observation, the amplitudes of two S.H.M. produced by two sources are
equal and both the S.H.M. are along the same straight line
d) Both the sources are in the same phase

22. If a dielectric substance is introduced between the plates of a charged air-gap capacitor.
The energy of the capacitor will
a) Increase b) Decrease

c) Remain unchanged d) First decrease and then increase

23. Six charges, three positive and three negative of equal magnitude are to be placed at the
vertices of a regular hexagon such that the electric field at O is double the electric field
when only one positive charge of same magnitude is placed at R. Which of the following
arrangements of charges is possible for P, Q, R, S, T and U respectively?
P Q
U O R
T S
a) +,−,+,−,−,+ ¿ b) +,−,+,−,+,−¿ c) +,+ ,−,+ ,−,−¿ d) −,+ ,+ ,−,+ ,−¿

24. A parallel plate capacitor is charged. If the plates are pulled apart
a) The capacitance increases b) The potential difference increases

c) The total charge increases d) The charge and potential difference


remain the same
25. In the figure shown, the capacity of the condenser C is 2 μF . The current in 2 Ω resistor is


2F

+ –
6V 2.8Ω

a) 9 A b) 0.9 A c) 1 A d) 1 A

26. A battery having e.m.f.5 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω is connected with a resistance of
9 0.9

4.5 Ω then the voltage at the terminals of battery is


a) 4.5 V b) 4 V c) 0 V d) 2 V

27. According to Faraday’s law of electrolysis, the amount of decomposition is proportional


to
a) 1/time for which current passes b) Electrochemical equivalent of the
substance
c) 1/current d) 1/electrochemical equivalent

28. Uniform magnetic B is directed vertically upwards and 3 wires of equal length L,
carrying equal current i are lying in a horizontal plane such that the first one is along
north, second one along north-east and the third one at 60 ° north of east. Force exerted
by magnetic field B on them is
a) Zero on the first b) BiL on the second c) √ 3 BiL on the third d) BiL on all of them
√2 2
29. The true value of angle of dip at a place is 60 ° , the apparent dip in a plane inclined at an
angle of 30 ° with magnetic meridian is
d) None of these
a) −1 1
tan
2
b) −1 c) −1 2
tan (2) tan (3)
30. The magnetic moment of a magnet of length 10 cm and pole strength 4.0 Am will be

a) 0.4 2 b) 1.6 2 c) 20 2 d) 8.0 2


Am Am Am Am
31. The graph shows the variation in magnetic flux ϕ (t ) with time through a coil. Which of
the statements given below is not correct

(t ) B

E
A C t

a) There is a change in the direction as well as magnitude of the induced emf between B
D

and D
b) The magnitude of the induced emf is maximum between B and C

c) There is a change in the direction as well as magnitude of induced emf between A to C


d) The induced emf is not zero at B

32. What is the self-inductance of a coil which produces 5 V when the current changes from
3 A to 2 A in one millisecond?
a) 5000 H b) 5 mH c) 50 H d) 5 H

33. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q 0 is connected to a coil of self inductance
L at t = 0. The time at which the energy is stored equally between the electric and the
magnetic fields is
a) π √ LC b) c) d)
2 π √ LC √ LC π √ LC
34. The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave varies with time of amplitude 2 Vm-1
4

propagating along z -axis. The average energy density of the magnetic field is ( ¿ Jm−3 )
a) −12 b) 8.86 ×10-12 c) 17.72 × 10-12 d) 4.43 × 10-12
13.29 ×10
35. In a plano-convex lens the radius of curvature of the convex lens is 10 cm. If the plane
side is polished, then the focal length will be (Refractive index = 1.5)
a) 10.5 cm b) 10 cm c) 5.5 cm d) 5 cm

36. The refractive index of a prism for a monochromatic wave is √ 2 and its refracting angle
is 60 ° .For minimum deviation, the angle of incidence will be
a) 30 ° b) 45 ° c) 60 ° d) 75 °

37. In Young’s double slit experiment we get 60 fringes in the field of view of
monochromatic light of wavelength 4000 Å . If we use monochromatic light of wavelength
6000 Å , then the number of fringes obtained in the same field of view are
a) 60 b) 90 c) 40 d) 1.5

38. The de-Broglie wavelength λ associated with an electron having kinetic energy E is given
by the expression
a) h b) 2 h c) 2 mhE d) 2 √ 2 mE
√2 mE mE
39. In Thomson’s method of determining e /m of electrons
h

a) Electric and magnetic fields are parallel to electrons beam

b) Electric and magnetic fields are parallel to each other and perpendicular to electrons
beam
c) Magnetic field is parallel to the electrons beam

d) Electric field is parallel to the electrons beam

40. The nucleus of an atom consists of

a) Electrons and protons b) Electrons, protons and neutrons

c) Electrons and Neutrons d) Neutrons and protons

41. The half-life period of radium is 1600 years. Its average life time will be

a) 3200 years b) 4800 years c) 2319 years d) 4217 years

42. A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A and atomic number Z ) emits 3 α − particles and
2 positrons. The ratio of number of neutrons to that of protons in the final nucleus will be
a) A−Z−8 b) A−Z−4 c) A−Z−12 d) A−Z−4
Z −8 Z −4
43. A NPN transistor conducts when
Z−4 Z−2

a) Both collector and emitter are positive with respect to the base

b) Collector is positive and emitter is negative with respect to the base

c) Collector is positive and emitter is at same potential as the base

d) Both collector and emitter are negative with respect to the base

44. Ozone layer above earth's atmosphere will not

a) Prevent infrared radiations from sun reaching on earth

b) Prevent infrared radiations originated from earth from escaping earth's atmosphere

c) Prevent ultra violet rays from sun

d) Reflect back radio waves

45. In amplitude modulation, the bandwidth is

a) Twice the audio signal frequency

b) Thrice the audio signal frequency

c) Thrice the carrier wave frequency

d) Sum of audio signal frequency and carrier wave frequency

CHEMISTRY

Single Correct Answer Type

46. 2 g of mixture of CO∧CO 2 on reaction with excess I 2 O 5 produced 2.54 g of I 2 .What would be
the mass % of CO 2 in the original mixture?
a) 60 b) 30 c) 70 d) 35

47. 74.4 g of a metallic chloride contains 35.5 g of chlorine. The equivalent weight of the
metal is:
a) 19.5 b) 35.5 c) 39.0 d) 78.0

48. The planck ’ s constant has a unit of :

a) Work b) Energy c) Angular momentum d) Linear momentum

49. In absence of Pauli exclusion principle, the electronic configuration of Li in ground state
may be:
a) 2 2 b) 3 c) 1 2 d) 2 1 1
1s ,2s 1s 1s ,2s 1s ,2s 2 p
50. The correct order of dipole moment is:

a) CH < N F < N H < H O


4 3 3 2

b) N F <C H < N H < H O


3 4 3 2
c) N H < N F <C H < H O
3 3 4 2

d) H O< N H < N F < C H

51. The low density of ice compared to water is due to


2 3 3 4

a) Induced dipole – induced dipole interactions

b) Dipole – induced dipole interaction

c) Hydrogen bonding interactions

d) Dipole –dipole interaction

52. The correct order of decreasing first ionization potential is:

a) C> B> Be> Li b) C> Be> B> Li c) B>C> Be> Li d) Be> Li >B> C

53. Equal masses of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25 ℃ . The
fraction of the total pressure exerted by hydrogen is
a) 1 : 2 b) 1 : 1 c) 1 : 16 d) 15 : 16

54. The energy absorbed by each molecule ( A2 ) of a substance is 4.4 ×10−19 J and bond energy
per molecule is 4.0 × 10−19 J . The kinetic energy of the molecule per atom will be :
a) −20 b) −20 c) −19 d) −19
4.0 × 10 J 2.0 ×10 J 2.2 ×10 J 2.0 ×10 J
55. The correct thermochemical equation is :

a) C+ O ⟶ C O ; ∆ H=−94 kcal
2 2

b) C+ O ⟶ C O ; ∆ H=+ 94 kcal
2 2

c) C (s )+O (g)⟶ C O (g); ∆ H =−94 kcal


2 2

d) C ( s )+O ( g ) ⟶C O ( g ) ; ∆ H=+ 94 kcal

56. At a certain temperature, 2 HI ⇌ H 2 + I 2 only 50% HI is dissociated at equilibrium. The


2 2

equilibrium constant is :
a) 1.0 b) 3.0 c) 0.5 d) 0.25

57. Hydrogen peroxide in aqueous solution decomposes on warming to give oxygen


according to the equation, 2 H 2 O2 ( aq ) ⟶ 2 H 2 O ( l )+O 2 ( g ) under conditions where one mole
of gas occupies 24 d m 3 , 100 c m3 of XM solution of H 2 O2 produces 3 d m 3 of O 2. Thus, X is :
a) 2.5 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) 0.25

58. Sulphurous acid can be used as :

a) Oxidising agent b) Reducing agent c) Bleaching agent d) All of these

59. Heavy water is

a) Water at 0 ℃

b) Water containing Fe, Cr, Mn

c) D O
2
d) Water obtained after a number of distillations

60. The raw materials in Solvay process are:

a) NaOH , CaO∧N H
3

b) N a C O ,CaC O ∧N H
2 3 3 3

c) N a S O ,CaC O ∧N H
2 4 3 3

d) NaCl , N H , CaC O

61. The chemical formula of phosgene or carbonyl chloride is:


3 3

a) PH b) COCl c) POCl d) PCl

62. Among the various allotropes of carbon :


3 2 3 3

a) Diamond is the hardest and graphite is the softest

b) Diamond is the hardest and coke is the softest

c) Diamond is the hardest and lamp black is the softest.

d) Coke is hardest and diamond is softest

63. The correct statement about the compounds (A), (B) and (C) is
COOCH3 COOH COOH
H OH H OH H H

H OH H OH HO H
COOH COOCH3 COOCH3
(A) (B) (C)
a) (A) and (B) are identical b) (A) and (B) are diastereomers

c) (A) and (C) are enantiomers d) (A) and(B) are enantiomers

64. Ozonolysis of an organic compounds gives formaldehyde as one of the products.


This confirms the presence of
a) Two ethylenic double bonds b) A vinyl group

d) An acetylenic triple bond


c)
An iso-propyl group
65. A mixture of 1-chlorobutane and 2-chlorobutane when treated with alcoholic KOH
gives
a) 1-butene b) 2-butene

d) Mixture of 1-butene+2-butene
c) iso
-butylene
66. The region which is greatly affected by air pollution is

a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere

67. If Z is the number of atoms in the unit cell that represents the closest packing sequence
− ABC ABC −, the number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell is equal to :
a) Z b) 2 Z c) Z d) Z
2 4
68. How many tetrahedral holes are occupied in diamond?

a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

69. On adding a solute to a solvent having vapour pressure 0.80 atm vapour pressure
reduces to 0.60 atm. Mole fraction of solute is
a) 0.25 b) 0.75 c) 0.50 d) 0.33

70. The vapour pressure of water at 20∘ C is17.5 mmHg .


If 18 g of glucose (C6 H 12 O6 ) is added to 178.2 g of water at 20∘ C , the vapour pressure of
the resulting solution will be
a) 17.675 mmHg b) 15.750 mmHg c) 16.500 mmHg d) 17.325 mmHg

71. Rusting of iron is catalysed by which of the following?

a) Fe b) Zn c) O d) H +¿¿

72. The number of molecules of the reactants taking part in a single step of the reaction tells
2

about:
a) Molecularity of the reaction

b) Mechanism of the reaction

c) Order of reaction

d) All of the above

73. For a reaction of the type A+ B → x products, it is observed that doubling the
concentration of A causes the reaction rate ( k 1 ) to be four times as great but doubling the
amount of B does not affect the rate ( k 2 ) . The rate equation is
a) k =k +k b) k =k k c) k = k 1 d) 1/2
1 2 1 2 k =k 1 ×k 2
k2
74. Which characteristic of adsorption is wrong?

a) Physical adsorption in general decreases with temperature

b) Physical adsorption in general increases with temperature

c) Physical adsorption is a reversible process

d) Adsorption is limited to the surface only

75. Carbon reduction is used for the extraction of:

a) Fe b) K c) Al d) None of these

76. Which method of purification is represented by the following equation?


Ti ( s )+ 2 I 2 ( g ) 523 K Ti I 4 ( g ) 1700 K Ti ( s )+ 2 I 2 (g)
a) Cupellation b) Poling c) Van Arkel d) Zone refining
→ →

77. The O—O bond length in ozone is:

a) 1.27 Å b) 1.21 Å c) 1.34 Å d) 1.48 Å

78. Which metal is purified by Pattinson’s process?


a) Ag b) Au c) Fe d) Sb

79. Amalgams are:

a) Always solid

b) Highly coloured alloys

c) Alloys which contain mercury as one of the contents

d) Compounds of mercury

80. In which of the following complex ion, the central metal ion is in a state of s p3 d 2
hybridisation?
a) Co F 3−¿¿ b) Co NH 3+¿ ¿ c) d) Cr NH 3+¿¿
[ ( 6 )] [ ( 3 )6 ] [ ( 3 )6 ]
3−¿¿
[ Fe ( CN )6 ]
81. 1-chlorobutane on reaction with alcoholic potash gives

a) but-1-ene b) butan-1-ol c) but-2-ene d) butan-2-ol

82. In the following compounds the order of acidic strength is


OH OH OH OH

NO2
CH3 NO2
(I)
a) III > IV > I > II b) I > IV > III > II c) II > I > III > IV d) IV > III > I > II
(II) (III) (IV)

83. In the fermentation of sugar molasses, the percentage of ethanol formed is:

a) 10 % b) 40 % c) 95 % d) 70 %

84. Cannizaro reaction is given by

a) HCHO b) c) CHCH2CHO d) C H C H OH
C(OH)COOH 3 2

85. Identify X in the sequence,

a) CH —NH—CH —CH
3 2 3

b) CH —CH —CH — NH
3 2 2 2

c) CH N
( 3 )3
d) None of the above

86. C H 3 CON H 2 + NaOH ⟶C H 3 COONa + A


Urea is obtained if product if product ‘ A ’ in the above reaction reacts with the following
compound
a) Ethyl carbonate b) Ethyl urethane c) Phosgene d) All of these

87. Which one of the following is an example of a non-reducing sugar?

a) Sucrose b) Lactose c) Maltose d) Cellobiose


88. Copolymer is:

a) Nylon-6 b) Nylon-6,6 c) Bakelite d) Polythene

89. Dacron is an example of

a) Elastomer b) Fibre

c) Thermoplastic d) Thermosetting polymer

90. Which of the following is pheromone?

a) Linalool b) Disparlure c) BHA d) Alifame

BIOLOGY

Single Correct Answer Type

91. A genus with a single species is called

a) Typical b) Polytype c) Monotype d) Syntype

92. Who has proposed five kingdom system of classification?

a) RH Whittaker b) Simpson c) Haldane d) Bentham and Hooker

93. The term ‘species’ was coined by

a) Aristotle b) Engler c) John Ray d) Linnaeus

94. Black stem rust of wheat is caused by

a) Fungi b) Protozoa c) Algae d) Bacteria

95. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH2) habitats belong to
the two groups
a) Eubacteria and archaea b) Cyanobacteria and diatoms

c) Protists and mosses d) Liverworts and yeasts

96. In Funaria capsule, dispersal of spores takes place through

a) Peristomial teeth b) Annulus c) Calyptra d) Operculum

97. In Cycas

a) Archegonia are present b) Antheridia are present

c) Archegonia are absent d) Both (a) and (b)

98. Spermathecae in Pheretima is located in the segments

a) 14 to 18 b) 10 to 13 c) 6 to 10 d) 6 to 9

99. Which one of the following is a flightless bird?

a) Passer b) Corvus c) Aptenodytes d) Pavo cristatus

100 Which of the following statements are correct?


I.Venom of cobra is neurotoxic.
II.Venom of sea snake is neurotoxic.
III.Venom of viper is haemotoxic.
.

a) I, II and III b) I and III c) I and II d) II and III

101 Identify A , B and C in the given diagram


.

a) A-Leaf base, B-Petiole, C-Lamina

b) A-Leaf base, B-Lamina, C-Petiole

c) A-Lamina, B-Petiole, C-Leaf base

d) A-Lamina, B-Leaf base, C-Petiole

102 Ginger is an example of underground modified stem called


.

a) Rhizome b) Corm c) Tuber d) Bulb

103 A compound leaf, which appears as simple leaf due to the suppression of one or two
. leaflets is found in one of the following plants

a) Hardwickia b) Parkinsonia c) Coriandrum d) Citrus

104 Study the following table and choose the correct pair.
. I. False whorls-like Many sessile bisexual Leonotis
inflorescence flowers
II. Single flower-like Many stalked staminate Poinsettia
inflorescence and pistillate flowers
III. Fruit-like Many sessile staminate Ficus
inflorescence flowers on the top and pistillate flowers at
the
base and sterile flowers in between
IV. Fleshy axis of Many stalked staminate Colocacia flowers at the
Inflorescence Base and pistillate flowers on the top and sterile
flowers in between
a) I and III b) I and IV c) II and III d) II and IV

105 Duramen is present in


.

a) Inner region of secondary wood b) Part of sapwood

c) Outer region of secondary wood d) Region of pericycle

106 Which of the following statement is correct?


. I. Many organs of aquatic plants floats in water
II. Large air gaps are present in the collenchyma tissue of lotus leaf
a) I is correct, but II is incorrect b) II is correct, but I is incorrect

c) I and II are correct d) I and II are incorrect


107 Red cell count is carried out by
.

a) Haemocytometer b) Haemoglobinometer

c) Sphygmomanometer d) Electrocardiogram

108 Heart of frog is


.

a) Venous heart b) Simple circuit c) Double circuit d) Mixed circuit

109 Which of the following is not a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?


.

a) Circular DNA b) Mesosome

c) Photosynthetic membrane system d) Membrane bound organelles

110 Sequence of DNA (non- coding) is known as


.

a) Exon b) Intron c) Cistron d) None of these

111 Histone octamer contains


.

a) Eight types of histones b) Eight histones of four different types

c) Five histones d) Six types of histones

112 …….. is the most abundant protein in whole of the biosphere


.

a) Collagen b) Trypsin c) Insulin d) RUBISCO

113 Select the correct option


.

a) Division of the cytoplasm occurs before the division of the nucleus

b) Division of the nucleus occurs before the division of the cytoplasm

c) Both the division of the nucleus and cytoplasm occurs at the same time

d) None of the above

114 Identify the diagram and name the stage of meiosis correctly
.

a) Pachytene (crossing over) b) Zygotene


c) Leptotene d) Diplotene

115 A cell dipped in 0.5 M sucrose solution has no effect but when the same will be
. dipped in 0.5 M NaCl solution, the cell will
a) Increase in size b) Decrease in size

c) Will be turgid d) Will get deplasmolysed

116 Read the following statement and choose the correct one from the codes given below
. I. The apoplastic movement of water takes place exclusively through intercellular spaces
and cell wall without crossing any membrane
II. Symplastic movement occurs from cell to cell through plasmodesmata, i .e ., adjacent
cells are connected through plasmodesmata
III. Permeability of a membrane depends on its composition and chemical nature of the
solute
IV. Solutes present in a cell increases the free energy of the water or water potential
a) I, II and III b) I, II and IV c) II and IV d) I and IV

117 The diagram given below represents the simple ringing or girdling experiment. Bark
. containing phloem is removed. This experiment proves and justify that phloem is the
path for translocation of food. In the given diagram, swollen part of stem has been
indicated. What is cause of swollen part?

Choose the correct option


a) Accumulation of food material just above the ringing space

b) Accumulation of minerals and water just above the ringing space

c) A repairing mechanism is taken

d) Injured part undergo turgor change

118 Nitrogen is required mainly by which of the following parts of the plants?
. I. Meristematic tissues
II. Differentiating tissues
III. Apical tissues
IV. Metabolically active cell
Choose the correct option
a) Only II b) Only I c) I and II d) I and IV

119 Which of the following gene is responsible for biological nitrogen fixation?
.

a) Nitrogenase b) Nif gene

c) Yeast alanine tRNA synthetase d) RNA synthetase

120 In half leaf experiment, a part of a leaf is enclosed in a test tube containing KOH soaked
. cotton, while the other half is exposed to air and then setup is placed in light for
sometime. It was latter found that part of leaf which was exposed to air tested positive
for starch. This indicates that
a) Light is essential for photosynthesis

b) Oxygen is liberated in photosynthesis

c) Water is essential for photosynthesis because in KOH soaked leaf, starch synthesis do
not occurs as water reacts with KOH and it become unavailable for photosynthesis
Carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis because in KOH soaked leaf, starch
d) synthesis do not occurs as C O is absorbed by, so C O is not available for
photosynthesis
2 2

121 Select the correct pathway for electron transport during photosynthesis
.

a) C O → RUBP → Glucose- ATP b) H O→ PS- I → PS- II → NADPH → H +¿ ¿


2 2

c) H O→ PS- II → PS - +¿¿ d) H O→ PS- II → PS - I → ATP


I → NADPH → H
122 Co-Factor required for formation of acetyl Co-A is
2 2

a) TPP b) Lipoic acid c) 2+¿¿


, Co-A d) All of these
Mg
123 For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is
.

a) Helicobactor pylori b) Methophilic bacteria

c) Streptococcus lactis d) Butyric acid bacteria

124 Vernalisation can be reversed by


.

a) Application of high temperature b) Application of auxin

c) Application of more less temperature d) Application of gibberellin

125 In some plants, sleep movement of leaves is due to


.

a) Excess of photosynthesis b) Osmotic changes at base of leaf

c) Excess of respiration d) Excess of transpiration

126 When transition from juvenile to adult is gradual than this type of development is called
.

a) Homoblastic development b) Heteroblastic development

c) Homoheteroblastic development d) Hetero and homoblastic development

127 The deficiency of this vitamin is known to cause abortion in early pregnancy of rat?
.

a) Retinol b) Calciferol c) Tocopherol d) Naphthoquinone


128 Which is the correct sequence of 4 layers of alimentary canal from periphery to centre?
.

a) Muscularis → Serosa → Mucosa → Submucosa

b) Serosa → Mucosa → Muscularis → Submucosa

c) Serosa → Muscularis → Submucosa → Mucosa

d) Serosa → Mucosa → Submucosa → Muscularis

129 The vital capacity of human lung is equal to


.

a) 500 mL b) 4600 mL c) 5800 mL d) 2300 mL

130 Which of the following conditions are found in the alveoli of lungs?
. I. high p O2 II. Low p C O 2
III. high p C O 2 IV. low p O2
V. low H VI. High H
+¿¿ +¿¿

Choose the correct option


a) I, III and V b) III, IV and VI c) I, IV and VI d) I, II and V

131 Plasma is a straw coloured viscous fluid constituting nearly …A…% of the blood, …B…%
. of the plasma is water and the protein constitutes …C…% of it.
Choose the correct option for the blanks A, B and C
a) A-55, B-90-92, C-6- b) A-45, B-70-80, C-6- c) A-35, B-90-92, C-6- d) A-45, B-90-92, C-6-
8 8 8 8
132 A healthy individual has …A… grams of haemoglobin in every …B… mL of blood. These
. molecules plays a significant role in the transport of …C… gases.
Choose the correct option for A, B and C
a) A-12-16, B-100, C-respiratory b) A-6-8, B-100, C-respiratory

c) A-7-10, B-1000, C-respiratory d) A-16-20, B-1000, C-respiratory

133 Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?


.

a) Convoluted tubules b) Collecting ducts

c) Hanle’s loop d) Peritubular capillaries

134 Excretion of bile pigments in the urine indicates


.

a) Rickets b) Jaundice c) Diabetes d) Anaemia

135 An increase in blood flow to atria of heart can cause release of …A… causes …B… and
. there by decrease the blood pressure. ANF mechanism therefore acts as checks on …C…
Here, A – C refers to
a) A-ANF, B-vaso constrictor, C-renin-angiotensis mechanism

b) A-ANF, B-vasodilator, C-renin-angiotensin mechanism

c) A-vasopressin, B-vasodilator, C-renin-angiotensin mechanism


d) A-vasopressin, B-vaso constrictor, C-renin-angiotensin mechanism

136 The number of cervical vertebrae present in giraffe is


.

a) 14 b) 5 c) 4 d) 12

137 Total number of bones found in right upper limb is


.

a) 25 b) 26 c) 30 d) 60

138 In which of the following condition, progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles


. happens?

a) Myasthenia gravis b) Muscular dystrophy c) Tetany d) Arthritis

139 Mechanism of neural coordination involves


.

a) Transmission of nerve impulse b) Impulse conduction across a synapse

c) Physiology of reflex action d) All of the above

140 Which of the following statements are correct for iris?


. I. The ciliary body extends forward to form iris
II. It is pigmented and opaque structure
III. It is the visible coloured portion of the eye
Choose the correct option
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III

141 The thyroid gland is composed of


.

a) Follicles b) Stromal tissue c) Trachea d) Both (a) and (b)

142 In females the …A... induces the ovulation of fully mature follicle called …B... and
. maintain the …C… formed from remnants of the Graafian follicle after ovulation. Select
the correct combination in reference to the above given statement
a) A-LH, B-Graafian follicles, C-pregnancy b) A-FSH, B-Graafian follicles, C-corpus
luteum
c) A-FSH, B-Graafian follicles, C-pregnancy d) A-LH, B-Graafian follicles, C-corpus
luteum
143 Scion is the term used in relation to:
.

a) Embryology b) Grafting c) Agamospermy d) Emasculation

144 Strobilanthus kunthiana is also called


.

a) Neela Kuranji b) Peela Kuranji c) Hara Kuranji d) Violet Kuranji

145 Stalk with which ovules attached to the placenta is called


.
a) Funicle b) Raphe c) Hilum d) Chalaza

146 ‘In coconut the cellular endosperm surrounds the nuclear endosperm’.
. The above statement is

a) True b) False

c) Sometimes (a) and sometimes (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)

147 Name the parts A, B, C, D and E in the given diagram.


.

a) A – Germ pore B – Generative cell


C – Intine D – Exine
E - Vegetation cell
b) A – Germ pore B – Generative cell
C – Exine D – Intine
E - Vegetation cell
c) A – Intine B –Exine
C – Germ pore D – Generative cell
E - Vegetation cell
d) A – exine B –Intine
C – vegetation cell D –Germ pore
E-Generative cell
148 Which of the following hormones does not play any role is menstruation?
.

a) GH b) FSH c) LH d) None of these

149 Uterine endometrium, epithelial glands and connective tissue are broken in menstrual
. phase. This is due to

a) Over secretion of FSH b) Lack of oestrogen

c) Lack of progesterone d) Over production of progesterone

150 Vaginal orifice, urethral orifice are open in


.

a) Vulva b) Labia majora c) Labia minora d) Cervix

151 Withdrawl of which hormone cause desintegration of corpus luteum?


.

a) Progesterone b) LH c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

152 What was the world human population in 2011?


.

a) 6 billion b) 7 billion c) 3 billion d) 5 billion

153 What is the function of copper T?


.
a) Prevents mutation b) Prevents fertilization

c) Prevents zygote formation d) (B) and (C)

154 In haplodiploidy determination of sex, males is


.

a) Haploid b) Diploid c) Haplodiploid d) Diplohaploid

155 A cross between F 1-hybrid and a heterozygous parent (Tt × tT) gives the phenotypic
. ratio of
a) 1 : 1 b) 3 : 1 c) 2 : 1 d) 4 : 1

156 Which cross was used to study the independent assortment?


.

a) Monohybrid cross b) Dihybrid cross c) Trihybrid cross d) Tetrahybrid cross

157 Shape of 3-D view of tRNA is


.

a) Z-shaped b) X-shaped c) Y-shaped d) L-shaped

158 Cistron is functional unit of gene that


.

a) Specifies the synthesis of polypeptides

b) Specifies the mutations

c) Specifies the recombination

d) All of the above

159 Some persons can move their pinnae. This ability is imparted by
.

a) Recapitulation b) Atavism c) Over specialization d) Regeneration

160 What is the relationship between the wing of a bird and the wing of a bat?
.

a) They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a
common ancestor (forelimbs)
b) They are analogous because while each carries out the same function (fight), this trait
has arisen independently as a result of convergence
c) There is no relation between the wings of bird and wings of bat

d) They both have undergone severe mutation

161 Necessary steps for achieving good health are


. I. awareness about disease
II. vaccination
III. proper disposal of wastes
IV. maintenance of hygienic food and water resources
V. Water resources
The correct combination having necessary steps is
a) I, II and III b) II, III and IV c) I, III and IV d) I, II, III and IV

162 Activity of brain is recorded by


.

a) ECG b) EEG c) MET d) CT

163 Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate the secretion of adrenaline and nor-
. adrenaline. The component causing this could be

a) Nicotine b) Tannic acid c) Curaimin d) Heamozoin

164 Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by


.

a) All eukaryotic cells b) Only bacterial cells

c) Only gymnosperm cells d) All plant cells

165 Rinderpest is the disease of:


.

a) Cattle b) Poultry c) Fish d) Camel

166 Curd is formed by adding a small amount of curd to milk, which acts as a
.

a) Starter b) Inoculum c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

167 Which one of the following pesticides is banned now-a-days?


.

a) DDT b) Eldrin c) Aldrin d) Toxaphene

168 Human genome contains about:


.

a) 10,000 nucleotides b) 10,000 genes c) 6 billion d) 6 billion genes


nucleotides
169 Yeast has become important in genetic engineering because it:
.

a) Has plasmids that can be genetically engineered

b) Allows the study of eukaryotic gene regulation and expression

c) Grows readily and rapidly in the laboratory

d) All of the above

170 Biopiracy is related to which of the following?


.

a) Traditional knowledge b) Biomolecules and regarding bioresources

c) Bioresources d) All of the above


171 A kind of biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA is
.

a) DNA replication b) Genetic c) Denaturation d) Renaturation


engineering
172 Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which
.

a) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule

b) Recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase

c) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase

d) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule

173 Altitude sickness is


.

a) Genotypic adaptation b) Phenotypic adaptation

c) Physiological adaptation d) Cold hardening

174 Ecosystem components includes


.

a) Biotic b) Abiotic c) Both (a) and (b) d) Species

175 Which of the following pyramid of numbers in ecology is not upright?


.

a) Pond ecosystem b) Desert ecosystem c) Tree ecosystem d) Forest ecosystem

176 Select the formula for ecological efficiency.


.

a) Gross primary productivity × 100 b) Food energy assimilated ×100


Incident total solar radiatio Food energy ingested
Energy∈biomass production
c) Net primary productivity × 100 d) at trophic level
×100
Gross primary productivity Energy∈biomass production

177 Which endangered animal is the source of the world’s finest, lightest, warmest, and most
at previoustrophic level

. expensive wool-the Shahtoosh?

a) Kashmiri goat b) Chiru c) Nilgai d) Cheetal

178 A keystone species is the one that


.

a) Causes other species to become extinct

b) Exerts a strong influence on an ecosystem

c) Has a weak influence on an ecosystem

d) Has a higher likelihood of extinction than a non-keystone species


179 Ozone layer is being destroyed by
.

d) Photochemical
smog
a) S O b) N O c) CFCs
2 2

180 Photochemical smog formed in congested metropolitan cities mainly consist of


.

a) Ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate and N O b) Smoke, peroxyacetyl nitrate and S O


x 2

c) Hydrocarbon, S O and C O d) Hydrocarbon , ozone and S O


2 2 2

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