Exam Date 12/03/2025

Centre Name ION Digital Zone IDZ KIOT-Campus

Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.

2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : Arithmetic

Q.1 A gift in the form of a cube, whose side measures 10 cm, has to be wrapped with gift
paper, which costs ₹0.05 per cm2. Find the cost of the gift wrap.
Ans 1. ₹60

2. ₹300

3. ₹600

4. ₹30

Q.2 A and B together can do a piece of work in 13 days and A alone can do it in 18 days. In
how many days can B alone do it?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.3 A chair is listed at ₹600 and a discount of 8% is given. The selling price is:
Ans 1. ₹592

2. ₹584

3. ₹552

4. ₹600

Q.4 A number when increased by 40 %', gives 3780. The number is:
Ans 1. 5400

2. 8100

3. 1350

4. 2700

Q.5
Find the value of

Ans 1. 7202

2. 7195

3. 7197

4. 7211
Q.6 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third
number is 123. Find the average of theremaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 191

2. 198

3. 199

4. 192

Q.7 Pipes A and B can fill an empty cistern in 13 minutes and 39 minutes, respectively. Both
Pipe A and Pipe B are opened together. After how much time should Pipe A be turned
off so that the empty cistern is completely filled in a total of 27 minutes?
Ans 1. 7 min

2. 10 min

3. 4 min

4. 5 min

Q.8 The perimeter of a square is 14 cm. If each side of the square is increased by x cm, its
area increases by 120 cm2. What is the value of x?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 6

4. 7

Q.9 After 58 litres of petrol was poured into an empty storage tank, it was still 1% empty.
How much petrol (in litres, rounded off to two decimal place) must be poured into the
storage tank in order to fill it?
Ans 1. 59.59

2. 57.59

3. 58.59

4. 59

Q.10 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 6% per annum, respectively. Mukund
borrowed an amount of ₹440000 from each bank. Find the positive difference between
the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Mukund after 4 years.
Ans 1. 43500

2. 44000

3. 45500

4. 45000

Q.11 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third
number is 118. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 197

2. 190.5

3. 196

4. 191.5

Q.12 The amount that ₹4,375 computes in 2 years at annual compound interest, if the rates
for the successive years be 8% and 12% per annum, respectively, is:
Ans 1. ₹4,417

2. ₹5,292

3. ₹4,812

4. ₹5,250
Q.13

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.14 There are 2822 students in a school and the ratio of boys to girls in the school is 36 : 47,
then find the number of boys in school.
Ans 1. 1224

2. 1207

3. 1226

4. 1218

Q.15 The difference between a discount of 30% on ₹2,200 and two successive discounts of
25% and 5% on the same amount is:
Ans 1. ₹28.5

2. ₹26.5

3. ₹25.5

4. ₹27.5

Q.16
Simplify 103 − 33 − 23/102 + 102 × 35 ÷ 7.
Ans 1. 1472.29

2. 1427.92

3. 1427.29

4. 1472.92

Q.17 What is the largest four-digit number which is exactly divisible by 92?
Ans 1. 9,944

2. 9,996

3. 9,984

4. 9,936

Q.18 The sum of 10 numbers is 324. Find their average.

Ans 1. 32.4

2. 33.4

3. 31.4

4. 30.4
Q.19 An amount of ₹20,000 is invested at an annual interest rate of 10%, compounded
annually. What will be the compound interest earned after 3 years?
Ans 1. ₹6,620

2. ₹5,625

3. ₹6,777

4. ₹6,430

Q.20 The average of first 116 even numbers is

Ans 1. 117

2. 116.5

3. 117.5

4. 118

Q.21 A person buys a toy for ₹70 and sells it for ₹91. What will be his gain percentage?
Ans 1. 50%

2. 20%

3. 30%

4. 40%

Q.22 A bike goes 23 meters in a second. Find its speed in km/hr.

Ans 1. 80.3

2. 82.8

3. 75.5

4. 84.9

Q.23

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.24 A man rows down a river of length 24 km in 4 hours with the stream and returns in 8
hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
Ans 1. 9.4 km/h

2. 4.5 km/h

3. 6.3 km/h

4. 5.4 km/h

Q.25 P sells an item to Q at 54% profit. Q sells the same item to R at 60% loss. If R paid ₹
5467 for the item, then at what price (in ₹) is the item purchased by P?
Ans 1. 8876

2. 8875

3. 8873

4. 8872
Q.26

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.27 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹78 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹14 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹73.5 per kg, there is a profit of 47%?
Ans 1. 34 : 27

2. 36 : 28

3. 35 : 30

4. 37 : 26

Q.28 A car travels 243 km in the first hour and 225 km in the second hour. What is the
average speed (in km/h) of the car for the whole journey?
Ans 1. 234

2. 240

3. 238

4. 243

Q.29 The HCF of 36, 48 and 172 is _______.

Ans 1. 4

2. 12

3. 8

4. 6

Q.30 Find the value of 7.56 + 3.48 − 8.52 + 2.78 − 3.14.

Ans 1. 2.16

2. 3.85

3. 3.25

4. 2.01

Q.31 The HCF of 218−1 and 220−1 is _____.

Ans 1. 15

2. 3

3. 65

4. 7

Q.32 There are 380 members in a club; 25% more persons joined the club. What is the new
strength of the club?
Ans 1. 425

2. 475

3. 405

4. 450

Q.33 If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 32% and its height is
increased by 168%, then what is the percentage increase (closest integer) in its
volume?
Ans 1. 24%

2. 6%

3. 23%

4. 46%
 Q.34 6 men can complete a piece of work in 10 days while 3 women can do it in 14 days. In
how many days can 7 women and 5 men complete it?
Ans 1. 6 days

2. 4 days

3. 7 days

4. 8 days

Q.35 A 214 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 5.7 km/h in the opposite
direction in 9 seconds. What is the speed (in km/h) of the train?
Ans 1. 79.9

2. 82.8

3. 83.7

4. 84.3

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

62, 71, 89, 116, ?, 197

Ans 1. 152

2. 142

3. 162

4. 123

Q.37 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
6721584, what will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second
from the right?
Ans 1. 10

2. 13

3. 14

4. 12

Q.38 Satish starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards North. He then takes a right turn,
drives 12 km, turns right and drives 5 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 23 km.
He takes a final left turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 10 km towards North

2. 11 km towards West

3. 11 km towards East

4. 12 km towards South

Q.39 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

74 75 67 94 30 ?
Ans 1. 165

2. 246

3. 155

4. 264
Q.40 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

RJD : NNZ
IKA : EOW
Ans 1. MRC : IVX

2. SNG : ORK

3. HPK : DTG

4. SFT : OBP

Q.41 In a certain code language, ‘SINE’ is coded as ‘2893’ and ‘NOSE’ is coded as ‘1293’.
What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 9

3. 2

4. 3

Q.42 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
18 B 3 D 16 A 4 C 11 = ?
Ans 1. 61

2. 59

3. 69

4. 41

Q.43 Shivam starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards south. He then takes a right turn,
drives 8 km, turns right and drives 13 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 3 km to the west

2. 4 km to the east

3. 3 km to the east

4. 4 km to the west

Q.44 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only and counting to be done from left to right only).

(Left) 7 9 8 9 4 8 5 6 8 7 2 2 6 7 1 7 8 4 8 2 5 5 1 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans 1. Two

2. None

3. One

4. Three
Q.45 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some coats are elephants.
All elephants are stories.

Conclusions:
(I) : Some coats are stories.
(II) : Some stories are elephants.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (I) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.46 In a certain code language,

'A ÷ B' means ‘A is the wife of B’,

'A # B' means ‘A is the father of B’,
'A ! B' means ‘ A is the brother of B’ and
'A @ B' means ‘A is the sister of B’.

How is T related to Z if 'T @ U ! W # X ÷ Z'?

Ans 1. Wife's father's son

2. Wife's father's sister

3. Wife's father's brother

4. Wife's father's daughter

Q.47 E, F, G, H, I, and J are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. F sits second to
the left of J. I is an immediate neighbour of F. Only H sits between I and E. How many
people sit between G and H when counted from the right of G?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. None

Q.48 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. RT - XZ

2. PR - VX

3. GI - MO

4. MJ - RV

Q.49 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, L, M and N are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order.
N is kept immediately above L. M is kept immediately above B. Only A is kept above C.
Only two boxes are kept above N. M is not kept at the third position from the bottom.
How many boxes are kept between D and A?
Ans 1. Four

2. Three

3. One

4. Two
Q.50 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 436 147 325 594 672 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position of how many number(s)
will remain unchanged?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. None

4. Three

Q.51 In a certain code language, ‘HIDE’ is coded as ‘2453’ and ‘HELD’ is coded as ‘5314’.
What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 4

4. 1

Q.52 Six friends R, S, T, X, Y, and Z are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two people
sit to the left of X. S sits second to the right of X. Only one person sits between X and T.
Only two persons sit to the right of Z. Y is not an immediate neighbour of X. How many
people sit between Y and R?
Ans 1. Four

2. Two

3. Three

4. One

Q.53 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /
subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(5, 14, 21)

(7, 18, 25)
Ans 1. (8, 20, 27)

2. (10, 29, 36)

3. (6, 15, 22)

4. (9, 14, 21)

Q.54 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

782 780 776 770 762 ?

Ans 1. 752

2. 756

3. 750

4. 754
Q.55 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:

Some shoes are crocs.

All crocs are formals.

Some crocs are blankets.

Conclusions:

I. Some shoes are blankets.

II. At least some blankets are formals.

Ans 1. Neither I nor II follows

2. Both I and II follow

3. Only II follows

4. Only I follows

Q.56 In a certain code language,

A # B means ‘ A is the brother of B’
A ! B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A ~ B means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is L related to T if 'L # I ! G ~ H + T’?
Ans 1. Mother's sister's son

2. Mother's mother's brother

3. Mother's daughter's son

4. Mother's mother's father

Q.57 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

ULX RJU OHR LFO ?

Ans 1. JDL

2. ICL

3. IDL

4. IDK

Q.58 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

IK – LN – OQ
GC – JF – MI
Ans 1. AM – DP – GS

2. NF – RJ – TL

3. CH – GK – JO

4. DP – GS – JU

Q.59 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. E sits to the
immediate right of G. C sits third to the left of E. F is the immediate neighbour of B and
D. A sits third to the left of D.
How many people sit between E and B when counted from the left of B?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. Five

4. Two
Q.60 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

UBIP DKRY MTAH VCJQ ?

Ans 1. SLZE

2. ELSZ

3. ELZS

4. SLEZ

Q.61 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All books are guides.
No guide is a reference.
No guide is a novel.
Conclusions:
(I): No book is a reference.
(II): Some novels are references.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.62 Each of the digits in the number 6315428 is arranged in descending order from left to
right. The position of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the
original number?
Ans 1. None

2. Three

3. One

4. Two

Q.63 In a certain code language, ‘7029’ is coded as ‘RYXQ’ and ‘2069’ is coded as
‘QSXY’.What is the code for ‘6’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. Y

2. X

3. S

4. Q

Q.64 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in
the following series.
UY21 TX29 SW37 RV45 ?
Ans 1. QU53

2. QU54

3. QV54

4. QV53

Q.65 AXVJ is related to MIFS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, WPJT is related to IATC. To which of the given options is GWNU related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. SXDH

2. SXHD

3. SHDX

4. SHXD
Q.66 Each of D, I, R, E, C, T and S has holidays on a different day of a week, starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Only S has a holiday after T. Only
three people have holidays between C and T. Only three people have holidays between
D and S. E has a holiday on some day before I and on some day after R. How many
people have a holiday before D?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. Zero

4. One

Q.67 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
shown below.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
 Q.68 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
shown below.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.69 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. OL-SQ

2. UR-YW

3. MJ-QO

4. HE-LI

Q.70 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 421 731 375 762 547 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position(s) of how
many numbers will remain unchanged?
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 0

4. 3

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 Which countries have participated in Maritime Exercise Malabar 2024 in Visakhapatnam
with host nation India?
Ans 1. Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh

2. Sri Lanka, Indonesia, Malaysia

3. Germany, France, England

4. Australia, Japan, USA

Q.72 Who is the director of the film 'To Kill a Tiger', which was nominated in the ‘Best Feature
Documentary’ category for the Oscars 2024?
Ans 1. Anshuman Vichare

2. Nisha Pahuja

3. Kartiki Gonsalves

4. Supriyo Sen

Q.73 Which of the following rivers is known for creating a rift valley in the Deccan Plateau
and flows from Central India to the Arabian Sea?
Ans 1. Narmada

2. Krishna

3. Godavari

4. Mahi

Q.74 In September 2024, the Supreme Court held that viewing, storing and possessing ‘child
pornography’ is punishable under the POCSO Act. What does 'P' stand for in POCSO?
Ans 1. Prevention

2. Prohibition

3. Provision

4. Protection

Q.75 During which of the following periods will Phase IV of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak
Yojana be implemented?
Ans 1. FY 2024-25 to FY 2027-28

2. FY 2024-25 to FY 2028-29

3. FY 2024-25 to FY 2025-26

4. FY 2024-25 to FY 2026-27

Q.76 What is the phenomenon called when two or more compounds with the same molecular
formula display different physical or chemical properties?
Ans 1. Polymerization

2. Homomorphism

3. Isotopes

4. Isomerism

Q.77 How many Atal Tinkering Labs have been established across India as of October 2024?
Ans 1. 10,000

2. 12,000

3. 5,000

4. 8,000
Q.78 Which of the following banks announced in June 2024 that it would increase its equity
stake in Max Life Insurance by acquiring additional shares worth ₹336 crore?
Ans 1. HDFC Bank

2. Kotak Mahindra Bank

3. Axis Bank

4. ICICI Bank

Q.79 What is the primary purpose of pedigree analysis in the context of genetics?
Ans 1. To measure the physical traits of individuals in a population

2. To track the inheritance of specific traits across generations within a family

3. To analyse the nutritional requirements of different organisms

4. To study the ecological interactions between species in an environment

Q.80 On which of the following days did the Congress Party make a public announcement,
urging Indians to celebrate it as 'Independence Day'?
Ans 1. 26 January 1928

2. 26 January 1929

3. 26 January 1932

4. 26 January 1930

Q.81 Which of the following classes of elements are used in transistors?

Ans 1. Metals

2. Lanthanoids

3. Metalloids

4. Nonmetals

Q.82 Which of the following countries' Senate approved a controversial judicial reform in
September 2024 under which judges will be elected by popular vote?
Ans 1. Sweden

2. Mexico

3. New Zealand

4. Spain

Q.83 Who among the following propagated the motto 'Back to the Vedas'?
Ans 1. Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

3. Swami Dayanand Saraswati

4. Swami Vivekananda

Q.84 At which of the following places was the 'Servants of India Society' founded by Gopal
Krishna Gokhale in 1905?
Ans 1. Pune

2. Raigad

3. Nagpur

4. Amravati

Q.85 SBI's Gross NPA ratio at the end of Q3 FY24 was reduced to how much percentage?
Ans 1. 74.17%

2. 2.42%

3. 13.05%

4. 0.64%
Q.86 As per the RBI’s April 2024 Monetary Policy Committee, which new entity will be allowed
to distribute Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) in India?
Ans 1. Stock brokers

2. Foreign exchange agencies

3. Commercial banks only

4. Non-bank payment system operators

Q.87 Name the author who wrote the book Tajul-Ma'asir, considered as the first official
history of the Delhi Sultanate.
Ans 1. Ibn Battuta

2. Abdur Razzaq

3. Hasan Nizami

4. Abul Fazl

Q.88 Which of the following was the unique feature of Dholavira’s city layout during the
Indus Valley Civilisation?
Ans 1. It was divided into three distinct parts.

2. It was a single unique tomb.

3. It was divided into eight parts.

4. It was divided into two distinct parts.

Q.89 Under the sports category, who among the following won the Pradhan Mantri
Rashtriya Bal Puraskar (PMRBP), 2024?
Ans 1. Suhani Chauhan

2. Ishfaq Hamid

3. Aryan Singh

4. Charvi A

Q.90 RBI retained which monetary policy instrument at 3.35% on 9 October 2024?
Ans 1. Bank rate

2. Standing deposit facility rate

3. Marginal standing facility rate

4. Reverse repo rate

Q.91 The Rajya Sabha is to the Union Government as the ________ is to the State
Government.
Ans 1. Chief Minister's Office

2. State Legislative Council

3. Governor's Office

4. State Legislative Assembly

Q.92 What is the name of the blockchain framework launched by the Ministry of Electronics
and Information Technology, Government of India in September 2024?
Ans 1. Krishi-Blockchain Technology Stack

2. Bharat-Blockchain Technology Stack

3. Vikram-Blockchain Technology Stack

4. Vishvasya-Blockchain Technology Stack

Q.93 Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years in
India?
Ans 1. 73rd Amendment

2. 52nd Amendment

3. 61st Amendment

4. 44th Amendment

Q.94 Which initiative in the 1960s marked the beginning of technological advancement in
agriculture in India?
Ans 1. Land Reforms

2. New Industrial Policy

3. Industrial Licensing

4. Green Revolution

Q.95 The radioactive elements radium and polonium were discovered by:
Ans 1. John Dalton

2. Avogadro

3. Irène Joliot-Curie

4. Marie Curie

Q.96 The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India was borrowed from which of the
following countries?
Ans 1. Canada

2. United States of America

3. Australia

4. United Kingdom

Q.97 Which of the following is the largest lagoon in India?

Ans 1. Pulicat Lake

2. Vembanad Lake

3. Kolleru Lake

4. Chilika Lake

Q.98 Which sector of the economy involves industries and manufacturing?

Ans 1. Secondary

2. Tertiary

3. Informal

4. Primary

Q.99 Which of the following authorities decides, how far the fundamental rights can apply to
the members of the armed forces in India?
Ans 1. Armed forces

2. Supreme Court

3. Parliament of India

4. President of India

Q.100 Who among the following leaders strongly supported the idea of self-reliance and was
an extremist?
Ans 1. Dadabhai Naoroji

2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

3. Feroz Shah Mehta

4. Surendranath Banerjee
Q.101 In which year did India discontinue the Five Year Plan model?
Ans 1. 2019

2. 2017

3. 2012

4. 2015

Q.102 Which of the following states was NOT part of the Phase-7 polling for the Indian Lok
Sabha elections conducted in June 2024?
Ans 1. Himachal Pradesh

2. Punjab

3. Karnataka

4. Bihar

Q.103 The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a constitutional body under which
Article of the Indian Constitution, and what is its primary responsibility?
Ans 1. Article 310; Responsible for conducting state elections

2. Article 315; Responsible for recruitment and examinations for All India Services

3. Article 356; Responsible for appointing Governors in states

4. Article 325; Responsible for appointing Chief Ministers in states

Q.104 After the 1991 reforms, foreign direct investment (FDI) was allowed in:
Ans 1. all sectors without restrictions

2. selected sectors with limitations

3. agriculture only

4. education only

Q.105 A raga must have at least how many of the notes of M, M′ and P (to serve as an
additional reference for the upper tetrachord)?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Three

4. Not necessary to have any one

Q.106 The Lakshadweep Islands lie close to the which coastal plain of India?
Ans 1. Coromandel Coast

2. Northern Circar Coast

3. Malabar Coast

4. Kathiawar Coast

Q.107 According to Basic Road Statistics in India-2018-19, which state has the largest network
of National Highways?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Maharashtra

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.108 Which of the following Indus Valley sites was discovered by Rakhal Das Bannerjee?
Ans 1. Harappa

2. Mohenjo-Daro

3. Surkotada

4. Kalibangan
Q.109 Which of the following is the cheapest and most suitable mode of transport for carrying
heavy and bulky material?
Ans 1. Roadways

2. Railways

3. Airways

4. Waterways

Q.110 Which of the following best describes the purpose of the industrial licensing system
introduced by the Indian government in the 1950s?
Ans 1. To control the expansion and activities of private enterprises, ensuring alignment with the national planners’ goals and limiting
competition from foreign industries
2. To dismantle trade protection and encourage a free-market approach, reducing government intervention in the private sector

3. To allow private firms the freedom to expand capacity and change input mixes freely, promoting rapid industrial growth

4. To create a competitive environment by encouraging private enterprises to compete with efficient foreign producers

Q.111 On which day was Delhi declared captured by the British during the suppression of the
Revolt of 1857?
Ans 1. 21 July

2. 30 August

3. 21 September

4. 30 June

Q.112 Which of the following musical forms in Carnatic classical music DOES NOT have a
counterpart in Hindustani music?
Ans 1. Kirtanam

2. Pada

3. Varnam

4. Gitam

Q.113 Which Constitutional Amendment Act added Article 371A, granting special status to
Nagaland?
Ans 1. 13th Amendment

2. 10th Amendment

3. 14th Amendment

4. 12th Amendment

Q.114 Which of the following teams won the Women's T20 World Cup 2024?
Ans 1. England

2. New Zealand

3. Australia

4. South Africa

Q.115 Who is credited with starting the rumour about cartridges coated with cow and pig fat,
which resulted in the outbreak of the First War of Independence in India in 1857?
Ans 1. A Brahmin priest

2. A low-caste khalasi working in Dum Dum

3. A British officer

4. A sepoy commander
Q.116 Which of the following activities is included in the service sector?
Ans 1. Construction

2. Mining

3. Banking

4. Farming

Q.117 In the Thar Desert, inselbergs are:

Ans 1. flat desert plains formed by wind erosion

2. isolated rock hills rising sharply from the surrounding plain

3. sand dunes shaped by monsoon winds

4. riverbeds that are periodically dry

Q.118 Consider the following.

At a constant temperature, the pressure of a fixed amount of gas is inversely

proportional to its volume. This gas law is known as:
Ans 1. Charles's law

2. Gay-Lussac's law

3. Avogadro's law

4. Boyle's law

Q.119 Which of the following is the fastest supercomputer of India as on 1 November 2024,
which ranked 75th among Global Top 500 supercomputers in 2023?
Ans 1. Mihir (Cray XC40)

2. PARAM Siddhi-AI

3. Pratyush (Cray XC40)

4. Airawat PSAI

Q.120 ‘The state shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment’ is a Directive
Principle of State Policy inserted by the _____ of the Indian Constitution.
Ans 1. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

2. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act

3. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act

4. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act