The document covers various aspects of community health, including the communicability of diseases like measles and diphtheria, health promotion strategies, and the role of community health nurses. It discusses the epidemiology of cholera, vaccination protocols, and methods for disease prevention and health maintenance. Additionally, it addresses the importance of surveillance, the burden of disease measurement, and the management of health services.
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The document covers various aspects of community health, including the communicability of diseases like measles and diphtheria, health promotion strategies, and the role of community health nurses. It discusses the epidemiology of cholera, vaccination protocols, and methods for disease prevention and health maintenance. Additionally, it addresses the importance of surveillance, the burden of disease measurement, and the management of health services.
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COMMUNITY HEALTH
CLASS II
DR. MAHESWARI JAIKUMAR
[email protected] 1. Communicability of measles declines 1. After onset of fever 2. During prodromal period 3. At time of eruption 4. After appearance of rash 2. Major epidemics or pandemics are caused by 1. Antigenic shift 2. Antigenic drift 3. Antigenic change of lesser degree 4. Stable antigens 3. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a 1. Case 2. Subclinical case 3. Carrier 4. All of the above 4. Current concept of health promotion and the related activities lead to: 1. Better treatment of a problem 2. Critical awareness and life style changes 3. Adoption of prophylactic services 4. Better health services usage 5. Health promotion is the process to achieve health by 1. Enabling people to increase control over their health 2. Improving their health by life style changes 3. Creating awareness among people 4. All of above 6. Health promotion includes all except: 1. Effective and concrete public participation 2. Directed towards action on the determinants of health 3. Does not approach or use complimentary method against health hazards 4. Focusing on people at risk for specific disease 7. Health promotional activities include 1. Inadequate health system 2. Unhealthy life style 3. Poor environment 4. Information, -education and communication 8. Health maintenance requires the measures to achieve health by: 1. Unsafe environment 2. Health services 3.Increasing stress 4.Increasing conditions 9. Main purpose of sentinel surveillance is: 1. To find out total number of cases 2. For intervention of therapeutics 3. To depict natural history of disease 4. Prevention of sentinel piles 10. The measure used to express the global burden of disease i.e., how a healthy life is affected by disease, is: 1. Disability-adjusted life year 2. Case fatality rate 3. Life expectancy 4. Age-specific incidence rate 11. Most important epidemiological tool used for assessing disability in children is: 1. Activities of daily living (ADL) scale 2. Wing s handicaps, behavior and skills (HBS) schedule 3. Binet and Simon IQ tests 4. Physical quality of life index (PQLI) • 12. Objectives of the health services include each of the following except: 1. Delivery of curative care only 2. Health promotion 3. Prevention control, or eradication of disease 4. Treatment and rehabilitation 13. PQLI includes all except: 1.Per capita income 2. Life expectancy at age 1 year 3. Literacy 4. Infant mortality 14.Physical quality of life in India is: 1. 31 2. 43 3. 50 4. 61 • 15. Ability of an infectious agent to induce clinically apparent illness is known -as: 1.Infectivity 2.Virulence 3.Pathogenicity 4.Multiplication 16. As a community health nurse, the best with of promoting healthy life style in children is through: 1. Primary prevention 2. Secondary prevention 3. Tertiary prevention 4. Primordial prevention 17. Loss of anatomical structure or physiological function is known as: 1. Disease 2. Disability 3. Handicap 4. Impairment 18. Possessing the abilities and resources to accomplish family development task is known as: 1. Family health 2. Family development 3. Group function 4. Community health • 19. The community health nurse should not make surprise supervisory visits because: 1. The village health nurse may he on leave 2. The village health nurse may not be prepared for visit 3. The aim of supervisory visit is to train the subordinates 4. The village health nurse may be on home visits 20. In the absence of the doctor, to facilitate the services, guidelines used by community health nurses are called; 1. Policy manual 2. Health guidance 3. Standing order 4. Job description 21. The time interval between the invasion of agent and appear cause of first of the disease is 1. Transmission period 2. Incubation period 3. Termination place 22. Immunobiological substance which produces specific protection against a disease 1.Immunity 2.Vaccine 3.Immune globulin 23. Immunoglobulins are administers through 1.Intravenously 2.Intramuscularly 3.Hypodermal 24. Passive immunization is achieved by 1. Vaccines 2. Antisera or antitoxins 3.By birth itself 25. A system which is used to help the storage and transportation of vaccine at low termperature is 1.Cold box 2.Cold chain 3.Refrigerator 26. The most common neurological complication associated swine flu influenza vaccine 1. Increased ICP 2.Guillian Barrie syndrome 3.Epilepsy 27. Corner stone for control of a communicable disease is 1.Health education 2.Rapid identification 3.Treatment 28. Most powerful and cost effective weapons of modem medicine for prevention of communicable disease 1. Immunoglobulin 2. Active immunization 3. Antitoxin 29. Ultimate objective of surveillance is 1.Treatment 2.Prevention 3. Detection 30. Number of existing cases of a disease at specific time is called as: 1. Incidence 2. Prevalence 3. Point prevalence 4. Period prevalence 31. When there is a cholera outbreak in a community, as a community health nurse, you have to carry out the following except 1. Notification 2. Oral rehydration therapy & tetracycline 3. Immunization of the at risk population 4. Chlorination of wells once a week 32. The source of the disease transmission means: 1. One who disseminates the disease agent to host 2. Disease agent multiplies and increases in number on storage 3. Storage of disease producing organisms 4. Receiver of disease agent 33. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in non-communicable diseases is known as: 1. Communicable period 2. Serial interval 3. Latent period 4. Generation time 34. The occurrence of an epidemic is regarded as highly unlikely In the presence of: 1. Active immunity 2. Passive immunity 3. Combined active & passive immunity 4. Herd immunity 35. Ring immunization means: 1. Given around 100 yards of a case detected 2. Given around a mile of a case detected 3. Forms a ring shaped sear 4. Given to produce ring shaped lesions 36. Which of the following is Bacteriostatic-? 1. Rifampicin 2. Ethambutol 3. INH 4. Streptomycin 37. The most accurate technique to measure prevalence of polio is • School survey • House to house • Lameness survey • Serological survey 38. The first serological marker of hepatitis B to appear is, 1. HBsAg 2. HBeAg 3. Anti HB c 4. Anti HBs 39. V. Chlorea produces diarrhea by 1. Increasing motility 2. Increasing secretion 3.Mucosal damage 4. Mal absorption 40. The most common helminthic in the world is 1. Ascariasis 2. Ancylostomiasis 3. Enterobiasis 4. Trihuriasis. 41. The quantification of the following diseases of health is considered very difficult or impossible: 1. Physical 2. Social 3. Mental 4. Spiritual 42. Which is the most suitable method for disposal of night soil, litter, refuses etc in rural area 1. Biogas plant 2. Composting 3. Dumping 4. Manure pit 43. Sullage is 1. Liquid excreta 2. Waste water from kitchen 3. By product of chemical industry 4. Waste water from an industry 44. Solid waste during the preparation, cooking & consumption of food is known as 1. Garbage 2. Refuse 3. Rubbish 4. Litter 45. Orthotolidine test is used to determine 1.Nitrates in water 2. Potassium in water 3. Ammonia in water 4. Free combined chlorine in water 46. Temporary hardness of water can be removed by 1. Boiling 2. Filtering 3. Disinfecting 4. Chlorination 47. When chlorine is added to water what will happen 1. Hydrochloric and hypochlorous acid forms 2. Carbondioxide is released 3. 02 & C02 is released 4. None of the above 48. The Greatest advancement in the water purification is 1.Sand bed filtration 2. Disinfection 3.Chlorination 4. All the above 49. House hold purification of water 1. Boiling 2.Mixing of bleaching powder 3.Double pot method 4. None of the above 50. The tests for the biological examination of water includes 1. Algae 2. Diatoms 3. Fungi 4.All 51. Which one of the following is the most effective disinfectant action after chlorination: 1. Sedimentation 2. Storage 3. Filtration 4. All 52. Which one of the following does not indicate water pollution? 1. Sudden decrease in turbidity 2. Sudden decrease in chlorides 3. Sudden increase in chlorides 4. None 53. The sanitary disposal of excreta the important from the following points of view expect: 1. Food contamination 2. Water pollution 3. Air pollution 4. Soil pollution 55. What is the most hygienic method of disposal of solid wastes? 1. Composting 2. Incineration 3. Burial 4. Manure pits 56. In typhoid, a permanent carrier is one who excretes bacilli for more than: 1. 3 months 2. 6 months 3. 1 year 4. 3 years 57. Only human beings are the reservoirs for: 1. Pox 2. Influenza 3. Salmonella 4. Rabies 58. Vomiting occurs in a group of children in the night who had a meal at noon. The causative agent for food poisoning is most likely to be: 1. Salmonella 2. Botulism 3. Staphylococcus 4. Viral gastroenteritis 59. The common cause of diarrhea in children is: 1. Rota virus 2. Norwalk virus 3. Adenovirus 4. Giardiasis 60. Regarding cholera vaccine all are correct except that: 1. It is given at intervals of 6 months 2. Long-lasting immunity 3. Not useful in epidemics 4. Not given orally 61. As per the latest guidelines which of the following dehydration status required ORS prescription: 1. Mild dehydration 2. Moderate dehydration 3. Some dehydration 4. Any dehydration 62. In a cholera epidemic, the information is to be given up to level of: 1. Health ministry 2. DGFAMS 3. Hospital 4. CMO and lMO 63. The drug of choice in cholera is: 1. Tetracycline 2. Sulphadiazine 3. Ampicillin 4. Streptomycin 64.Citrate is added to conventional oral rehydration solution (ORS) in order to: 1. Improve sodium chloride absorption 2. Correct acidosis 3. Increases its shelf-life 4. Improve glucose absorption 65. Oral rehydration therapy consists of the following except 1.Sodium chloride 2.Potassium chloride 3.Magnesium sulphate 4.Glucose 66. Which is not essential in case of cholera epidemic? 1. Weekly chlorination 2. Notification 3. Vaccination of individuals 4. Treatment with ORS and tetracycline 67. In a case control study of a suspected association between breast cancer and the contraceptive pill, all- of the following are true statements except: 1. The control should come from a population that has the same potential for breast cancer as the cases 2. The control should exclude women known to be taking the pill at the time of the survey 3. All the control needs to be healthy 4. The attributable risk of breast cancer resulting from the pill may be directly measured. 68. Which one of the following is the longest carrier state found in the disease of cholera? 1. 2 to 3 weeks 2. 1 to 5 years 3. 5 to 10 years 4. Above 10 years 69. Epidemiology of cholera in England was classified by: 1. John Snow 2. Winslow 3.Chadwick 4.Howard Hughes 70. True about Eltor epidemiology are all except: 1. Chronic carrier are common 2. Asymptomatic mild cases common 3. Long extra intestinal survival 4. High secondary attack rate in families 71. True in Eltor cholera are : 1. Infections are mild and symptomatic 2. They are resistant to polymyxin-b unit disc 3. Chronic carriers are common 4. Secondary attacks rate high 72. About cholera true is: 1. Eltor variety rarer than classical 2. Vaccine is essential during epidemics 3. Antibiotic therapy contraindicated 4. Ganglioside receptors in the intestines 73. Cholera is a vehicle transmitted disease because: 1. When the vehicle is controlled he epidemic subsides 2. It is always possible to isolate :he organism from the vehicle 3. The common source of infection is riot traceable 4. The organism does not travel great distances 74. Maximum maternal mortality is seen in: 1. Hepatitis B 2. Hepatitise E 3. Hepatitis C 4. Hepatitis 75. Best method to protect newborn from HBsAg +ve, mother is: 1. Isolation 2. Stopping breastfeeding 3. Hep B immunoglobulin 4. Hep B-vaccine and immunoglobulin 76. True about viral hepatitis B is: 1. Transmits by oral route 2. More incubation period than viral A 3. Different histopathologically from viral A hepatitis 4. Can be cultured 77. All of the following feature is suggestive of asbestosis except: 1. Occurs within five years of exposure 2. The disease progress even after removal of contract 3. Can lead to pleural mesothelioma 4. Sputum contains asbestos bodies 78. In an epidemic of poliomyelitis best to stop spread by: 1. Injection of killed vaccine 2. OPV drops to all children 3.Isolation of the cases 4. Chlorination of all the wells 79. False regarding polio vaccine: 1. Helps in herd immunity 2. Killed vaccine prevents paralysis 3. Difficult to maintain chain 4. Immunity takes a long time to develop 80.The following statements are true for inactivated polio vaccine except: 1. It does not produce intestinal immunity 2. It prevents paralysis 3. It is contraindicated in immune deficiency disorders 4. Booster doses with oral polio vaccine can be given 81. The following is not true of inactivated polio vaccine: 1. Induces only circulating antibodies 2. Prevents both paralysis and re infection by wild polio virus 3. Does not require stringent epidemics 4. Not useful in controlling epidemics 82. Least likely to diagnosed Polio is: 1. Fever, malaise for 2 days 2. Fever and signs of neck rigidity 3. Descending symmetrical paralysis with preservation of reflexes and sensory system 4. Gradual recovery of muscle function in 6 months 83. The epidemiological trend of poliomyelitis are all except: 1. Affects higher age groups 2. Increasing in tropics 3. Also cause upper limb paralysis 4. Sporadic to epidemic 84. Wrong about polio patient who had paralysis: 1. Can transmit it by nasal discharge 2. Sub clinical infection common 3. Can by given vaccine 4. None of the above 85. All true for a polio epidemic curve in a community except: 1. All cases within 7-14 days 2. Orofaecal mode of transmission 3. Herd immunity present 4. Epidemic curve has a slow rising slope and decline 86. All are true of BCG inoculation, except: 1. Papule in 7 days 2.Forms an ulcer 3.Heals spontaneously 4.Size of 4-8mm in 5 weeks 87. A positive Mantoux test indicates that the child: 1. Is suffering from active TB 2. Has had BCG vaccination recently 3.Has had tuberculosis infection 4. all of the above 88. BCG is not given to patients with: 1. Generalised eczema 2. Infective dermatosis 3. Hypogammaglobulin anemia 4. All of the above 89. In the administration of BCG vaccine, the diluent is: 1. Glycerine 2. Glycerol 3. Normal saline 4. Distilled water 90. The vaccine administered by subcutaneous route is: 1. BCG 2. OPV 3. Tetanus toxoid 4. Measles 91. BCG vaccine is administered to children: 1. Intradermally 2. Subcutaneously 3. Intramuscularly 4. Orally 92. All the following are correct regarding BCG vaccination reactions except: 1. Ulceration with crust 2. Heals within 6 19 weeks 3. Maximum size of papule is reached at 5 weeks 4. Suppurative lymphadenitis 93. To prevent emergence of resistance in TB following are done except: 1. Multidrug regimen used 2. Drug to which bacteria are sensitive is used 3. Defaulter action 4. Pre-treatment regular culture sensitivity 94. True about tuberculin test: 1.Used for diagnosis of TB 2. Measure incidence of disease 3. More than 10 mm in 72 hr indicates positive test 4. Measure immunity status 95. Tuberculin test positivity depends on: 1. Erythema 2. Nodule formation 3. Induration 4. Ulcerative change 96. Annual infection rate in TB is the percentage of: 1. Persons converted from tuberculine negative to positive 2. New cases of tuberculosis 3. Sputum positive cases 4. Radiological cases 97. All the features of lymphatic filariasis except 1. Adult worms live in blood vessels 2. Microfilaria in blood increase at night 3. Disease is not some cases 98. Second generation tissue culture vaccine refers to rabies vaccine of 1. Human origin 2.Non human origin 3. Synthetic origin 4. None of the above 99. Oral rabies vaccine has been introduced for immunoglobulin of 1. Humans 2. Dogs 3. Foxes 4. All of the above 100. In which state in India is Kyasanur forest disease prevalent 1. Kerala 2.Tamil Nadu 3.Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh 101. is receiving special attention in the prevention of chronic disease? 1. Primary prevention 2. Secondary prevention 3.Pre-morbid prevention 4. Tertiary prevention
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