Revised exit exam model for industrial Engineering (1)
Revised exit exam model for industrial Engineering (1)
A. When to produce?
B. How much to produce?
C. What products to produce?
D. How to produce?
ANSWER: How to produce?
To which of the following carrying a large amount of historical data is not a drawback?
A. Exponential smoothing
B. Regression analysis
C. Moving averages
D. None
ANSWER: Exponential smoothing
Which of the following statements is true when comparing and contrasting mean absolute
deviation (MAD) and mean squared error (MSE) methods for evaluating forecast
accuracy?
A. MAD is more appropriate for situations with high variability in the data than MSE
B. MAD is more appropriate than MSE because it is more sensitive to outliers
C. Both MAD and MSE are equally appropriate for evaluating forecast accuracy using
three-week historical data
D. MSE is more appropriate for situations with high variability in the data than MAD
ANSWER: MAD is more appropriate for situations with high variability in the data than MSE
How much is the demand for the current period if the smoothing constant is 0.7, the actual
demand for the previous period is 390, and the forecasted demand for the previous demand
is 440.
A. 425
B. 405
C. 273
D. 530
ANSWER: 405
What are the primary advantages of developing a well-defined operations strategy?
A. Improved efficiency and productivity, reduced costs, and increased customer
satisfaction
B. Improved financial performance, increased employee satisfaction, and reduced
turnover rates
C. Improved innovation and creativity, increased market share, and improved brand
reputation
D. Improved customer loyalty, increased employee engagement, and enhanced
corporate social responsibility
ANSWER: Improved efficiency and productivity, reduced costs, and increased customer
satisfaction
Which of the following is not true about QFD?
A. It improves product quality and reliability
B. It increases customer satisfaction and loyalty
C. It helps to identify potential design problems early in the process
D. The relationship and correlation values are not subjective
ANSWER: The relationship and correlation values are not subjective
What would you recommend if an organization wants to automate routine tasks and providing
users with the tools and resources they need to complete tasks on their own?
A. To offer a customized experience to each individual user
B. To prioritize efficiency for organization over user experience
C. To tailor the service experience to meet the unique needs of individual users
D. To focus on creating a portfolio of services that are consistent and meet a range of
needs
ANSWER: To prioritize efficiency for organization over user experience
How do organizations evaluate the success of their inventory management efforts
comprehensively?
A. By measuring inventory turnover, stock out rates, and inventory holding costs
B. By measuring the number of orders processed and the accuracy of order fulfillment
C. By measuring customer satisfaction with product availability and delivery times
D. By measuring employee satisfaction with the inventory management system
ANSWER: By measuring inventory turnover, stock out rates, and inventory holding costs
Which of the following explains Safety stock in a best way?
A. The inventory level that is held as a buffer against unexpected demand
B. The inventory level that is held to ensure that the production process runs smoothly
C. The inventory level that is held to meet minimum order quantities from suppliers
D. The inventory level that is held as a reserve for future sales promotions
ANSWER: The inventory level that is held as a buffer against unexpected demand
Which of the following is wrong?
A. The more projected available balance, the less the net requirement
B. The planned order receipt is highly dependent on the net requirement
C. The planned order receipt and the planned order release are highly interdependent
D. If the end item has an independent demand then the components of that item also
have independent demand
ANSWER: If the end item has an independent demand then the components of that item also have
independent demand
An end item X is composed of two Bs and one C. moreover, each Bs requires three Ds and
one E, and each D requires four Es. Similarly, each C is made up of two Es and two Fs.
The available inventory on hand of each items B, C, D, and E are 4, 10, 8, and 60
respectively. Which of the following is not correct about the quantities of these components
that will required to assemble 10 Xs?
A. The quantities of B is 16
B. The quantities of C is 1
C. The quantities of D is 40
D. The quantities of E is 116
ANSWER: The quantities of C is 1
Which of the following is related to the time it takes to finish all jobs in scheduling?
A. Shortest processing time
B. Make Span
C. Cycle time
D. Job Flow Time
ANSWER: Make Span
Which is not correct?
A. Slack Time Scheduling can be more effective than Critical Ratio in reducing the
risk of delays for jobs with similar due dates
B. If several jobs are scheduled to be completed on the same day, leading to potential
delays, then Load sequencing can help to address this problem
C. Machine breakdowns can lead to delays in production schedules
D. Managing production schedules on a day-to-day basis is the purpose of short term
scheduling
ANSWER: Slack Time Scheduling can be more effective than Critical Ratio in reducing the risk
of delays for jobs with similar due dates
A production facility has five jobs to complete. The processing times for the jobs are as
follows: Job A - 3 days, Job B - 6 days, Job C - 2 days, Job D - 5 days, and Job E - 4 days.
Added to this, the due date for all jobs is 10 days from now. If the facility wants to minimize
the average job completion time, what would be the optimal sequence for scheduling these
jobs?
A. C, A, E, B, D
B. C, E, A, D, B
C. C, A, E, D, B
D. C, E, A, B, D
ANSWER: C, A, E, D, B
One of the following is not true about supply chain profitability?
A. Supply chain profitability is the difference between the revenue generated from the
customer and the overall cost across the supply chain
B. It is the total profit to be shared across all supply chain stages
C. Supply chain success is measured in terms of supply chain profitability and not in
terms of the profits at individual stages
D. The objective of every supply chain is to diminution the overall supply chain
profitability
ANSWER: The objective of every supply chain is to diminution the overall supply chain
profitability
Managing capacity is one the approaches of Responding to Predictable Variability in a
Supply Chain which includes?
A. Timing of promotion and pricing changes is important
B. Use of seasonal workforce
C. Use of subcontracting
D. All except A
ANSWER: Use of seasonal workforce
The major decision areas in supply chain management are?
A. Planning, production, distribution, inventory
B. Location, production, scheduling, inventory
C. Location, production, inventory
D. Location, production, distribution
ANSWER: Planning, production, distribution, inventory
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Supply chain is a subset of logistics
B. Logistics is a subset of supply chain
C. Transportation and logistics are same
D. Logistics and supply chain are same
ANSWER: Logistics is a subset of supply chain
Which of the following is true for supply chain management?
A. The physical material moves in the direction of the end of chain
B. Flow of cash backwards through the chain
C. Exchange of information moves in both the direction
D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
Logistics is the part of a supply chain involved with the forward and reverse flow of
A. Goods
B. Services
C. Cash
D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
Due to small change in customer demands, inventory oscillations become progressively
larger looking through the supply chain. This is known as
A. Bullwhip effect
B. Netchain analysis
C. Reverse logistics
D. Reverse supply chain
ANSWER: Bullwhip effect
Time study is carried out to determine the time required to complete job by
A. A slow work
B. Fast worker
C. An average worker
D. An apprentice
ANSWER: An average worker
The time taken by a trained worker to perform an operation, while working a steady pace
is known as
A. Standard time
B. Normal time
C. Representative time
D. None of the above
ANSWER: Standard time
Productivity increases when
A. Inputs increase while outputs remain the same
B. Inputs decrease while outputs remain the same
C. Outputs decrease while inputs remain the same
D. Inputs and outputs increase proportionately
ANSWER: Inputs decrease while outputs remain the same
As per principle of motion economy
A. Motion of arms should be symmetrical and in opposite direction
B. Both hands should not remain idle except during rest period
C. Both hands should start and complete their work simultaneously
D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
Work study comprises following main techniques
A. Method study and work measurement
B. Method study and time study
C. Time study and work measurement
D. Method study and job evaluation
ANSWER: Method study and work measurement
‘Value’ for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as
A. Purchase values
B. Saleable value
C. Depreciated value
D. Function/cost
ANSWER: Function/cost
Work sampling is applied for
A. Estimation of the percentage utilization of machine tools
B. Estimating the percentage of the time consumed by various job activities
C. Finding out time standards, specially where the job is not repetitive and where time
study by stop watch method is not possible
D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
The maintenance organizational structure which facilitates effective coordination both
within and between maintenance and other departments is referred to as
A. Centralized maintenance
B. Hybrid structure
C. Matrix structure
D. Decentralized maintenance
ANSWER: Decentralized maintenance
Plant Characteristics is in need of PM program except:
A. Large volume of scrap and rejects
B. Consequences of failure are slight or does not affect the comprehensive system
function
C. Rise in repair costs due to negligence in lubrication, inspection, and replacement
D. High idle operator times due to failures
ANSWER: Consequences of failure are slight or does not affect the comprehensive system
function
----------- is a systematic process used to determine what has to be accomplished to ensure
that any physical facility is able to continuously meet its designed functions in its current
operating context.
A. Condition based maintenance
B. Corrective maintenance
C. Reliability centered maintenance
D. Preventive maintenance
ANSWER: Reliability centered maintenance
Which one of the following is not correct about MTBF and MTTR?
A. MTBF metrics replies availability and reliability of machine
B. MTTR metrics a metric support and maintenance teams use to keep repairs on track
C. The goal of MTTR is, to get this number as high as possible by increasing the
efficiency of repair processes and teams
D. The goal for most companies is to keep MTBF as high as possible
ANSWER: The goal of MTTR is, to get this number as high as possible by increasing the
efficiency of repair processes and teams
A clear understanding of the maintenance management program, responsibilities, and
authorities for supervision, useful methods and techniques, and performance measurement
indices are among one of the following elements;
A. Maintenance policy
B. Work-order system
C. Backlog control and priority system
D. Job planning and scheduling
ANSWER: Maintenance policy
The cost associated with the downtime of machineries include the following:
A. Loss of production
B. Wages paid for the workers
C. Reduction in sales
D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
In the quality improvement effort using statistical thinking, one of the following is correct
except?
A. Control is defined as the complete absence of variation
B. Control is simply a state where all variation is predictable variation
C. A controlled process isn't necessarily a sign of good management, nor is an out-of-
control process necessarily producing non-conforming product
D. We control the process through the use of past experience and to predict/expect the
variation in the future at least within limits
ANSWER: Control is defined as the complete absence of variation
One is correctly matched?
A. Quality control- Are we doing the job correctly
B. Quality control- Can we done the job correctly
C. Process control- Have we done the job correctly
D. Process capability- Can we done the job correctly
ANSWER: Process capability- Can we done the job correctly
For any stable process, if the process follows 6 sigma quality performance, how many
products it will produce defective?
A. 1.9946 ppm
B. 3.4000 ppm
C. 1200 ppm
D. 934 ppm
ANSWER: 3.4000 ppm
In a control chart and run chart, the horizontal axis is used to display?
A. Sample number
B. Time
C. Either sample number or time
D. Frequency of observation
ANSWER: Either sample number or time
In a process, 18 out of 20 points are plotted above the center line (CL) but below the upper
control limit, and only 2 of 20 are plotted between the center line and the lower control limit.
The process state is said to be?
A. In-control
B. Out-of-control
C. Data is not enough to predict
D. Process state is not dependent over this data
ANSWER: Out-of-control
When the upper and lower natural tolerance limits are equal to the upper and lower
specification limits, the process capability ratio, Cp is?
A. Greater than 1
B. zero (0)
C. Less than 1
D. Equal to 1
ANSWER: Equal to 1
For a process, the upper specification limit and lower specification limits are 62 and 38
respectively. If the process has its mean equal to 53, and its standard deviation 2, what is the
value of Cpk for this process?
A. 1.7
B. B. 2.5
C. 1.0
D. 1.5
ANSWER: 1.5
Which of the following is correct?
A. QMS is a tool to fulfill the customer’s needs and requirements
B. QMS is a tool for standardizing organizational processes
C. QMS is a tool for continual improvement of organizations
D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
Why we need quality auditing?
A. To verify whether the system is effective and suitable
B. To decide about the policy
C. To maintain the standards
D. For monitoring and measurement purpose
ANSWER: To verify whether the system is effective and suitable
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Quality Policy?
A. Quality policy is appropriate to the organization
B. Quality policy commits to the continual improvement
C. It is communicated and understood only within the organization
D. Reviewed periodically for continuing suitability
ANSWER: It is communicated and understood only within the organization
For what duration is the ISO certification valid for any organization?
A. 5 years
B. 4 years
C. 3 years
D. 2 years
ANSWER: 3 years
Tools used for collecting customer complaints?
A. Comment cards
B. Focus groups
C. Toll free telephone numbers
D. All the above
ANSWER: All of the above
Which of the following is for environment management system?
A. ISO-9000
B. ISO-14000
C. ISO-26000
D. ISO-3100
ANSWER: ISO-14000
The word Flash in forging refers
A. The closing of the dies
B. Excess metal flowing out of a die
C. Fuming of the lubricant
D. Part ejection (the desired part
ANSWER: Excess metal flowing out of a die
Among the following statements which one is the function of chip breaker?
A. It uses as a lubrication to reduce temperature
B. Used to produce a continuous chip
C. It is a device cause the chip to curl and break into pieces of a short section
D. It is used to protect the cutting tool from breakdown
ANSWER: It is a device cause the chip to curl and break into pieces of a short section
Non-Consumable (fusible) electrode is used in
A. MIG and SAW
B. SMAW and GMAW
C. TIG and PAW
D. FCAW and SAW
ANSWER: TIG and PAW
Which one is the correct definition of property of sand mold the so called REFRACTORINESS
A. It is the capacity of the mold to allow hot air and gases from the casting operation
B. It is the ability to remove the sand from the casting without cracking
C. It is the ability of molding sand to withstand high temperatures without breaking
down or fusing
D. It is property of molding sand by virtue which the sand grain particles interact and
attract each other within the molding sand
ANSWER: It is the ability of molding sand to withstand high temperatures without breaking down
or fusing
Which of the following processes does not use mechanical energy as the principal energy
source?
A. Laser beam machining
B. Abrasive jet machining
C. Ultrasonic machining
D. Water jet cutting
ANSWER: Laser beam machining
Which of the following is a perfect composition of clay (Bentonite) used in molding sand?
A. Al2O3
B. Al2O3.2SiO2
C. Al2O3.2H2O
D. Al2O3.2SiO2.2H2O
ANSWER: Al2O3.2SiO2.2H2O
Which statement is incorrect about casting process
A. Casting is one of the most versatile forms of mechanical process
B. When removed from the mold the casting is the same shape and no size difference
C. Although all metals can be cast, but iron is mostly used in casting process
D. Pure silica sand is not suitable for molding to produce quality casting
ANSWER: When removed from the mold the casting is the same shape and no size difference
From the following machine operations indicated below, which one is correct?