Which of the following links production planning and process planning?

A. When to produce?
B. How much to produce?
C. What products to produce?
D. How to produce?
ANSWER: How to produce?
To which of the following carrying a large amount of historical data is not a drawback?
A. Exponential smoothing
B. Regression analysis
C. Moving averages
D. None
ANSWER: Exponential smoothing
Which of the following statements is true when comparing and contrasting mean absolute
deviation (MAD) and mean squared error (MSE) methods for evaluating forecast
accuracy?
A. MAD is more appropriate for situations with high variability in the data than MSE
B. MAD is more appropriate than MSE because it is more sensitive to outliers
C. Both MAD and MSE are equally appropriate for evaluating forecast accuracy using
three-week historical data
D. MSE is more appropriate for situations with high variability in the data than MAD
ANSWER: MAD is more appropriate for situations with high variability in the data than MSE
How much is the demand for the current period if the smoothing constant is 0.7, the actual
demand for the previous period is 390, and the forecasted demand for the previous demand
is 440.
A. 425
B. 405
C. 273
D. 530
ANSWER: 405
What are the primary advantages of developing a well-defined operations strategy?
A. Improved efficiency and productivity, reduced costs, and increased customer
satisfaction
B. Improved financial performance, increased employee satisfaction, and reduced
turnover rates
C. Improved innovation and creativity, increased market share, and improved brand
reputation
D. Improved customer loyalty, increased employee engagement, and enhanced
corporate social responsibility
ANSWER: Improved efficiency and productivity, reduced costs, and increased customer
satisfaction
Which of the following is not true about QFD?
A. It improves product quality and reliability
B. It increases customer satisfaction and loyalty
C. It helps to identify potential design problems early in the process
D. The relationship and correlation values are not subjective
ANSWER: The relationship and correlation values are not subjective
 What would you recommend if an organization wants to automate routine tasks and providing
users with the tools and resources they need to complete tasks on their own?
A. To offer a customized experience to each individual user
B. To prioritize efficiency for organization over user experience
C. To tailor the service experience to meet the unique needs of individual users
D. To focus on creating a portfolio of services that are consistent and meet a range of
needs
ANSWER: To prioritize efficiency for organization over user experience
How do organizations evaluate the success of their inventory management efforts
comprehensively?
A. By measuring inventory turnover, stock out rates, and inventory holding costs
B. By measuring the number of orders processed and the accuracy of order fulfillment
C. By measuring customer satisfaction with product availability and delivery times
D. By measuring employee satisfaction with the inventory management system
ANSWER: By measuring inventory turnover, stock out rates, and inventory holding costs
Which of the following explains Safety stock in a best way?
A. The inventory level that is held as a buffer against unexpected demand
B. The inventory level that is held to ensure that the production process runs smoothly
C. The inventory level that is held to meet minimum order quantities from suppliers
D. The inventory level that is held as a reserve for future sales promotions
ANSWER: The inventory level that is held as a buffer against unexpected demand
Which of the following is wrong?
A. The more projected available balance, the less the net requirement
B. The planned order receipt is highly dependent on the net requirement
C. The planned order receipt and the planned order release are highly interdependent
D. If the end item has an independent demand then the components of that item also
have independent demand
ANSWER: If the end item has an independent demand then the components of that item also have
independent demand
An end item X is composed of two Bs and one C. moreover, each Bs requires three Ds and
one E, and each D requires four Es. Similarly, each C is made up of two Es and two Fs.
The available inventory on hand of each items B, C, D, and E are 4, 10, 8, and 60
respectively. Which of the following is not correct about the quantities of these components
that will required to assemble 10 Xs?
A. The quantities of B is 16
B. The quantities of C is 1
C. The quantities of D is 40
D. The quantities of E is 116
ANSWER: The quantities of C is 1
Which of the following is related to the time it takes to finish all jobs in scheduling?
A. Shortest processing time
B. Make Span
C. Cycle time
D. Job Flow Time
ANSWER: Make Span
Which is not correct?
 A. Slack Time Scheduling can be more effective than Critical Ratio in reducing the
risk of delays for jobs with similar due dates
B. If several jobs are scheduled to be completed on the same day, leading to potential
delays, then Load sequencing can help to address this problem
C. Machine breakdowns can lead to delays in production schedules
D. Managing production schedules on a day-to-day basis is the purpose of short term
scheduling
ANSWER: Slack Time Scheduling can be more effective than Critical Ratio in reducing the risk
of delays for jobs with similar due dates
A production facility has five jobs to complete. The processing times for the jobs are as
follows: Job A - 3 days, Job B - 6 days, Job C - 2 days, Job D - 5 days, and Job E - 4 days.
Added to this, the due date for all jobs is 10 days from now. If the facility wants to minimize
the average job completion time, what would be the optimal sequence for scheduling these
jobs?
A. C, A, E, B, D
B. C, E, A, D, B
C. C, A, E, D, B
D. C, E, A, B, D
ANSWER: C, A, E, D, B
One of the following is not true about supply chain profitability?
A. Supply chain profitability is the difference between the revenue generated from the
customer and the overall cost across the supply chain
B. It is the total profit to be shared across all supply chain stages
C. Supply chain success is measured in terms of supply chain profitability and not in
terms of the profits at individual stages
D. The objective of every supply chain is to diminution the overall supply chain
profitability
ANSWER: The objective of every supply chain is to diminution the overall supply chain
profitability
Managing capacity is one the approaches of Responding to Predictable Variability in a
Supply Chain which includes?
A. Timing of promotion and pricing changes is important
B. Use of seasonal workforce
C. Use of subcontracting
D. All except A
ANSWER: Use of seasonal workforce
The major decision areas in supply chain management are?
A. Planning, production, distribution, inventory
B. Location, production, scheduling, inventory
C. Location, production, inventory
D. Location, production, distribution
ANSWER: Planning, production, distribution, inventory
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Supply chain is a subset of logistics
B. Logistics is a subset of supply chain
C. Transportation and logistics are same
 D. Logistics and supply chain are same
ANSWER: Logistics is a subset of supply chain
Which of the following is true for supply chain management?
A. The physical material moves in the direction of the end of chain
B. Flow of cash backwards through the chain
C. Exchange of information moves in both the direction
D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
Logistics is the part of a supply chain involved with the forward and reverse flow of
A. Goods
B. Services
C. Cash
D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
Due to small change in customer demands, inventory oscillations become progressively
larger looking through the supply chain. This is known as
A. Bullwhip effect
B. Netchain analysis
C. Reverse logistics
D. Reverse supply chain
ANSWER: Bullwhip effect
Time study is carried out to determine the time required to complete job by
A. A slow work
B. Fast worker
C. An average worker
D. An apprentice
ANSWER: An average worker
The time taken by a trained worker to perform an operation, while working a steady pace
is known as
A. Standard time
B. Normal time
C. Representative time
D. None of the above
ANSWER: Standard time
Productivity increases when
A. Inputs increase while outputs remain the same
B. Inputs decrease while outputs remain the same
C. Outputs decrease while inputs remain the same
D. Inputs and outputs increase proportionately
ANSWER: Inputs decrease while outputs remain the same
As per principle of motion economy
A. Motion of arms should be symmetrical and in opposite direction
B. Both hands should not remain idle except during rest period
C. Both hands should start and complete their work simultaneously
D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
 Work study comprises following main techniques
A. Method study and work measurement
B. Method study and time study
C. Time study and work measurement
D. Method study and job evaluation
ANSWER: Method study and work measurement
‘Value’ for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as
A. Purchase values
B. Saleable value
C. Depreciated value
D. Function/cost
ANSWER: Function/cost
Work sampling is applied for
A. Estimation of the percentage utilization of machine tools
B. Estimating the percentage of the time consumed by various job activities
C. Finding out time standards, specially where the job is not repetitive and where time
study by stop watch method is not possible
D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
The maintenance organizational structure which facilitates effective coordination both
within and between maintenance and other departments is referred to as
A. Centralized maintenance
B. Hybrid structure
C. Matrix structure
D. Decentralized maintenance
ANSWER: Decentralized maintenance
Plant Characteristics is in need of PM program except:
A. Large volume of scrap and rejects
B. Consequences of failure are slight or does not affect the comprehensive system
function
C. Rise in repair costs due to negligence in lubrication, inspection, and replacement
D. High idle operator times due to failures
ANSWER: Consequences of failure are slight or does not affect the comprehensive system
function
----------- is a systematic process used to determine what has to be accomplished to ensure
that any physical facility is able to continuously meet its designed functions in its current
operating context.
A. Condition based maintenance
B. Corrective maintenance
C. Reliability centered maintenance
D. Preventive maintenance
ANSWER: Reliability centered maintenance
Which one of the following is not correct about MTBF and MTTR?
A. MTBF metrics replies availability and reliability of machine
B. MTTR metrics a metric support and maintenance teams use to keep repairs on track
 C. The goal of MTTR is, to get this number as high as possible by increasing the
efficiency of repair processes and teams
D. The goal for most companies is to keep MTBF as high as possible
ANSWER: The goal of MTTR is, to get this number as high as possible by increasing the
efficiency of repair processes and teams
A clear understanding of the maintenance management program, responsibilities, and
authorities for supervision, useful methods and techniques, and performance measurement
indices are among one of the following elements;
A. Maintenance policy
B. Work-order system
C. Backlog control and priority system
D. Job planning and scheduling
ANSWER: Maintenance policy
The cost associated with the downtime of machineries include the following:
A. Loss of production
B. Wages paid for the workers
C. Reduction in sales
D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
In the quality improvement effort using statistical thinking, one of the following is correct
except?
A. Control is defined as the complete absence of variation
B. Control is simply a state where all variation is predictable variation
C. A controlled process isn't necessarily a sign of good management, nor is an out-of-
control process necessarily producing non-conforming product
D. We control the process through the use of past experience and to predict/expect the
variation in the future at least within limits
ANSWER: Control is defined as the complete absence of variation
One is correctly matched?
A. Quality control- Are we doing the job correctly
B. Quality control- Can we done the job correctly
C. Process control- Have we done the job correctly
D. Process capability- Can we done the job correctly
ANSWER: Process capability- Can we done the job correctly
For any stable process, if the process follows 6 sigma quality performance, how many
products it will produce defective?
A. 1.9946 ppm
B. 3.4000 ppm
C. 1200 ppm
D. 934 ppm
ANSWER: 3.4000 ppm
In a control chart and run chart, the horizontal axis is used to display?
A. Sample number
B. Time
C. Either sample number or time
D. Frequency of observation
ANSWER: Either sample number or time
In a process, 18 out of 20 points are plotted above the center line (CL) but below the upper
control limit, and only 2 of 20 are plotted between the center line and the lower control limit.
The process state is said to be?
A. In-control
B. Out-of-control
C. Data is not enough to predict
D. Process state is not dependent over this data
ANSWER: Out-of-control
When the upper and lower natural tolerance limits are equal to the upper and lower
specification limits, the process capability ratio, Cp is?
A. Greater than 1
B. zero (0)
C. Less than 1
D. Equal to 1
ANSWER: Equal to 1
For a process, the upper specification limit and lower specification limits are 62 and 38
respectively. If the process has its mean equal to 53, and its standard deviation 2, what is the
value of Cpk for this process?
A. 1.7
B. B. 2.5
C. 1.0
D. 1.5
ANSWER: 1.5
Which of the following is correct?
A. QMS is a tool to fulfill the customer’s needs and requirements
B. QMS is a tool for standardizing organizational processes
C. QMS is a tool for continual improvement of organizations
D. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
Why we need quality auditing?
A. To verify whether the system is effective and suitable
B. To decide about the policy
C. To maintain the standards
D. For monitoring and measurement purpose
ANSWER: To verify whether the system is effective and suitable
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Quality Policy?
A. Quality policy is appropriate to the organization
B. Quality policy commits to the continual improvement
C. It is communicated and understood only within the organization
D. Reviewed periodically for continuing suitability
ANSWER: It is communicated and understood only within the organization
For what duration is the ISO certification valid for any organization?
A. 5 years
B. 4 years
C. 3 years
 D. 2 years
ANSWER: 3 years
Tools used for collecting customer complaints?
A. Comment cards
B. Focus groups
C. Toll free telephone numbers
D. All the above
ANSWER: All of the above
Which of the following is for environment management system?
A. ISO-9000
B. ISO-14000
C. ISO-26000
D. ISO-3100
ANSWER: ISO-14000
The word Flash in forging refers
A. The closing of the dies
B. Excess metal flowing out of a die
C. Fuming of the lubricant
D. Part ejection (the desired part
ANSWER: Excess metal flowing out of a die
Among the following statements which one is the function of chip breaker?
A. It uses as a lubrication to reduce temperature
B. Used to produce a continuous chip
C. It is a device cause the chip to curl and break into pieces of a short section
D. It is used to protect the cutting tool from breakdown
ANSWER: It is a device cause the chip to curl and break into pieces of a short section
Non-Consumable (fusible) electrode is used in
A. MIG and SAW
B. SMAW and GMAW
C. TIG and PAW
D. FCAW and SAW
ANSWER: TIG and PAW
Which one is the correct definition of property of sand mold the so called REFRACTORINESS
A. It is the capacity of the mold to allow hot air and gases from the casting operation
B. It is the ability to remove the sand from the casting without cracking
C. It is the ability of molding sand to withstand high temperatures without breaking
down or fusing
D. It is property of molding sand by virtue which the sand grain particles interact and
attract each other within the molding sand
ANSWER: It is the ability of molding sand to withstand high temperatures without breaking down
or fusing
Which of the following processes does not use mechanical energy as the principal energy
source?
A. Laser beam machining
B. Abrasive jet machining
 C. Ultrasonic machining
D. Water jet cutting
ANSWER: Laser beam machining
Which of the following is a perfect composition of clay (Bentonite) used in molding sand?
A. Al2O3
B. Al2O3.2SiO2
C. Al2O3.2H2O
D. Al2O3.2SiO2.2H2O
ANSWER: Al2O3.2SiO2.2H2O
Which statement is incorrect about casting process
A. Casting is one of the most versatile forms of mechanical process
B. When removed from the mold the casting is the same shape and no size difference
C. Although all metals can be cast, but iron is mostly used in casting process
D. Pure silica sand is not suitable for molding to produce quality casting
ANSWER: When removed from the mold the casting is the same shape and no size difference
From the following machine operations indicated below, which one is correct?

A. Figure 2 is boring done by drilling machine

B. Figure 1 is a milling operation done by milling machine
C. Figure 3 is turining oeperation
D. Figure 4 is facing operation
ANSWER: Figure 1 is a milling operation done by milling machine
When the molten metal leaks out of mould which defect occurs?
A. Run out
B. Misrun
C. Fusion
D. Drop
ANSWER: Run out
The type of joint used in spot welding is
A. Butt welding
 B. Lap welding
C. Corner welding
D. Edge welding
ANSWER: Lap welding
Hot working of metals is carried out
A. At the re-crystalaization temprature
B. Below the re-crstalization temprature
C. Above the re crystalaization temprature
D. Just above the melting temprature
ANSWER: Above the re crystallization temperature
The Permeability is the property of a sand due to which
A. The ability of the sand grains to stick together
B. The ability of the sand to cling to the sides of a moulding box
C. Ability to give way and allow casting to shrink without cracking the casting
D. The ability to allow hot air and gases to pass through voids in sand
ANSWER: The ability to allow hot air and gases to pass through voids in sand
In which layout type the workstations or materials are brought to the center where the
product is being produced?
A. Fixed position
B. Product
C. Group
D. Process
ANSWER: Fixed position
A machine part has a machinery time of 2.8 min/part on a milling machine. During an 8-hr
shift 200 units are to be produced. Of the 480 min available time for production, the milling
machine will be operational 80% of the time. Meanwhile the machine is operational and
parts are produced at a rate equal to 95% of the standard time. What square-meter will be
required if the size of one machine is 1m x 2m (length by width)?
A. 2 m2
B. 4 m2
C. 16 m2
D. 1 m2
ANSWER: 4 m2
During designing the facility layout and material handling, one comes first so as develop
cost effective planning. Hence; which comes first, the material handling system or the
facility layout?
A. Facility layout then material handling system
B. The layout and the handling system should be designed simultaneously
C. Material handling system then facility layout
D. None of the above
ANSWER: Facility layout then material handling system
There are techniques used to determine the facility layout. Which technique emphasizes
transportation cost?
A. Location rating factor technique
B. Transportation technique
C. Centre-of-gravity technique
 D. All
ANSWER: Centre-of-gravity technique
Pair-wise exchange method is applied for __________.
A. New layouts
B. Improvement layouts
C. Both
D. None of the above
ANSWER: Improvement layouts
Which of the following factor doesn’t, majorly, affect the facility location decision?
A. Cost, availability, skill and productivity of labor,
B. Government regulations at the federal, state, county and local levels,
C. Taxes at the federal, state, county and local levels,
D. None of the above
ANSWER: None of the above
Which material principle seeks to adapt work or working conditions to suit the abilities of
the worker?
A. Standardization Principle
B. Ergonomic Principle
C. Space Utilization.
D. Environmental Principle
ANSWER: Ergonomic Principle
In designing an efficient workspace, the left hand will cover?
A. Maximum working area
B. Normal working area
C. Minimal working area
D. Any of the above
ANSWER: Maximum working area
1. The priorities, when large number of controls and displays are to be arranged, are
1. First priority: Primary visual task
2. Second priority: Primary controls (interacting with primary visual task)
3. Third priority: Better controls-display relationships
4. Fourth priority: Location of frequently used items with easy use
Which of the above is nor correctly matched?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
ANSWER: 4
The correct sequence of development of Anthropometric considerations in design step by
step, is?
A. Decide the user population – Decide the relevant body measurement – Determine the
applicable principle – Decide the percentage of population
B. Decide the relevant body measurement – Decide the user population –Determine the
applicable principle – Decide the percentage of population
C. Decide the user population – Decide the relevant body measurement – Decide the
percentage of population – Determine the applicable principle
 D. Decide the user population – Determine the applicable principle – Decide the relevant
body measurement – Decide the percentage of population
ANSWER: Decide the user population – Decide the relevant body measurement – Determine the
applicable principle – Decide the percentage of population
The greater the match between worker capabilities and task demands?
A. The greater the chance of worker injury/illness
B. The lower the chance of worker injury/illness
C. Has no impact on chance of worker injury/illness
D. The greater the chance of being exposed to high risk jobs
ANSWER: The lower the chance of worker injury/illness
All of the following are common locations of injury due to exerting excessive force,
except___?
A. Neck/shoulder
B. Foot/ankle
C. Upper back
D. Wrist/hand
ANSWER: Foot/ankle
Vibration and radiation comes under?
A. Chemical hazards
B. Physical hazards
C. Electrical hazards
D. Psychological hazards
ANSWER: Physical hazards
When hazardous conditions and unsafe behaviors exist, it’s usually because____?
A. Employees lack common sense at work
B. Employees have poor attitudes
C. Managers don’t care about employees
D. The safety management system has failed
ANSWER: The safety management system has failed
All the statements are correct about goal programming concept except
A. If the original ith inequality is of the type <= and its di-> 0, the ith goal is not satisfied
B. If the original ith inequality is of the type >= and its di+ > 0, the ith goal is satisfied
C. If the original ith inequality is of the type <= and its di+ > 0, the ith goal is not satisfied
D. If the original ith inequality is of the type <= and its di-> 0, the ith goal is satisfied
ANSWER: If the original ith inequality is of the type <= and its di-> 0, the ith goal is not satisfied
What it indicates in iteration computation of transportation model with the most positive
non basic variable cost (Cij = C12)?
A. Each unit of X12 that is entered into the basis will increase the cost by C12
B. Each unit of X12 that is entered into the basis will decrease the cost by C12
C. Each unit of X12 that is entered into the basis will decrease the cost by unknown amount
D. Each unit of X12 that is entered into the basis will increase the cost by unknown amount
ANSWER: Each unit of X12 that is entered into the basis will decrease the cost by C12
Consider the linear equation subjected to: x1 + 3 x2 - 4 x3 = 12. How many decision
variables and constraints are defined by this equation respectively?
A. 2 and 3
B. 3 and 1
 C. 3 and 2
D. 1 and 3
ANSWER: 3 and 1
A feasible solution to a linear programming problem ______________.
A. Must satisfy all the constraints of the problem simultaneously
B. Need not satisfy all of the constraints, only some of them
C. Must be a corner point of the feasible region
D. Must optimize the value of the objective function
ANSWER: Must satisfy all the constraints of the problem simultaneously
If there is no non-negative replacement ratio in a solution which is sought to be improved,
then the solution is ______________.
A. Bounded
B. Unbounded
C. No solution
D. Alternative solution
ANSWER: Unbounded
At which condition of integer programming problem LPi becomes fathomed?
A. The optimal Z-value of LPi cannot yield a better objective value than the current lower
bound
B. LPi yields a better feasible integer solution than the current lower bound
C. LPi has no feasible solution
D. All
ANSWER: All
In case of an unbalanced problem, shipping cost coefficients of ______ are assigned to
each created dummy factory or warehouse.
A. Very high positive costs
B. Very high negative costs
C. 10
D. Zero
ANSWER: Zero
Given present sate, future state is independent of the past.
A. Markov property
B. Steady state property
C. Independent increment
D. Stationary increment
ANSWER: Markov property
Assume that you as industrial engineer wanted to develop a tool that serves as policy
generation and evaluation device for a company. Which one of the following is best option?
A. Linear programing
B. Nonlinear programing
C. Stochastic programing
D. Dynamic Programing
ANSWER: Dynamic Programing
One that doesn’t characterize perfectly nonlinear programing (NLP) is
A. Optimal solution is at the extreme
B. Optimal solution is at the boundary of the feasible region
 C. Optimal solution is at the entire of the feasible region
D. Local and global optima always equal
ANSWER: Local and global optima always equal
Take a barber shop at city x that usually opened at 8:00 am and closed at 7:00 pm. If
customer arrival follows a stochastic process, one of the following is not a convent
representation of the arrival process
A. Discreet state - Continuous time
B. Discrete state - Discrete time
C. Continuous sate –Discrete time
D. Continuous time Markov chain
ANSWER: Continuous sate –Discrete time
Choose one that is not true about expected value of perfect information (EVPI)
A. EVPI gives upper bound for the value of any information
B. EVPI remove all uncertainty about what the true state of nature is
C. EVPI should equal with expected opportunity loss (EOL)
D. EVPI equals with Expected value of information (EVI)
ANSWER: EVPI equals with Expected value of information (EVI)
One upon a time Ato Ayele put himself around his table to decide about whether to bring
an umbrella or not to his office. According to his understanding the probability of raining
in that day was about 56%. But Ato Ayele decided not to bring umbrella. This kind of
decision is
A. Decision with certainty
B. Decision under risk
C. Decision under uncertainty.
D. Decision with insufficient reason
ANSWER: Decision under risk
Which one of the following is correct about depreciation?
A. A decline in the market value of an asset
B. A decline in the value of an asset to its owner
C. The allocation of the cost of an asset over useful life
D. Book depreciation of an economic depreciation
ANSWER: Book depreciation of an economic depreciation
Machine A has initial cost of 20,000 and machine B has 38,000 initial cost and assume
there is no salvage value and annual operating cost and the useful life is 2 and 4 with interest
rate of 10% per year then which machine is economical using present worth comparison
method?
A. Machine A
B. Machine b
C. Both are economical
D. None of those are economical
ANSWER: Machine A
A manufacturer pays a rent of warehouse 2.5 million per month, the revenue obtained per
month is 75,000 and the prime cost is 35,000 per month, at what level of production per
month a manufacturer starts to gain profit?
A. 42 unit
B. 80 unit
 C. 62.5 unit
D. 60 unit
ANSWER: 62.5 unit
Man, A loans man B sum of 4200birr at the beginning of first year and 6200 at the
beginning of year 3, the loan is to be discharged by b a single payment made at the end of
year 6 with interest rate 8% per year the what sum man A pays?
A. 16099.9
B. 15099.9
C. 17099.9
D. 14099.9
ANSWER: 15099.9
Which one of the following is the components of prime cost?
A. Direct material cost
B. Direct overhead cost
C. Direct labor cost
D. Direct supervisor cost
ANSWER: Direct supervisor cost
The mold machine operator can produce 200 unit of product per day, each unit weights 3kg
and the gear material costs 20 birr/kg, and overhead expense are 150% of direct labor cost
and molders are paid at 60 per day what is the cost of one gear.
A. 50
B. 45.5
C. 60.75
D. 54.25
ANSWER: 60.75
A PERT network has 9 activities on its critical path. The standard deviation of each activity
on the critical path is 3. The standard deviation of the path is?
A. 3
B. 9
C. 81
D. 27
ANSWER: 9
The primary objective of crashing is CPM is?
A. To decrease cost
B. To increase cost
C. To decrease project duration
D. To optimize the path
ANSWER: To decrease project duration
The normal duration and normal cost of activity are 24 days and 50,000 birr respectively.
The activity crash duration is 22 days and the indirect cost is 1000 birr per day. If the cost
slope is 1500birr per day, then the total cost of activity after the crashing will be?
A. 47,500 birr
B. 54,500 birr
C. 51,000 birr
D. 45,500 birr
ANSWER: 51,000 birr
The strategy used to correct resource over-allocations by balancing demand for resources
and the available supply is known as?
A. Resource assignment
B. Resource leveling
C. Resource splitting
D. Resource scheduling
ANSWER: Resource leveling
A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an
example of?
A. Finish-to-Start
B. Start-to-Finish
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
ANSWER: Finish-to-Start
Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finishing
time for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will be the earliest starting time
for Y?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
D. Cannot be determined
ANSWER: 15
Which from the following represents the correct project cycle?
A. Planning→Initiating→Executing→Closing
B. Planning→Executing→Initiating→Closing
C. Initiating→Planning→Executing→Closing
D. Initiating→Executing→Planning→Closing
ANSWER: Initiating→Planning→Executing→Closing