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PRESTORMING – 2024-25
TEST 19 – POLITY FULL TEST - EXPLANATION
INDEX
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1. Consider the following statements :

1. The Government and the Parliament of India
2. The Government and the Legislature of states
3. Non-Statutory Authorities
4. Private Body working as an instrument of the State
How many of the agencies mentioned above can be considered as State under Part III of the Indian
Constitution ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
According to Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, for the purposes of Part III which deals with Fundamental
Rights, the term “State” includes the following:
➢ Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
➢ The Government and legislature of states are the executive and legislative organs of state government.
➢ All local authorities, that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
➢ All other authorities that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
Thus, the State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these
agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights. According to the
Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the
meaning of the 'State' under Article 12. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ARTICLE 12 OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION
Recently Air India Limited (AIL) ceased to be State or its instrumentality under Article 12 of the
in news Constitution after its disinvestment and takeover by the Tata Group in January 2022, and
no case of alleged violation of fundamental right would lie against it, the Supreme Court
ruled on May 16.
➢ The Supreme Court said Air India Limited, after its disinvestment and having been taken
over by a private corporate entity, could not be treated as a state entity anymore, so it
would not be amenable to writ jurisdiction.
➢ A bench of Justices B R Gavai and Sandeep Mehta declined to consider a plea by cabin
crew members alleging stagnation in pay and non-promotion of employees.
About ➢ Article 12 of the Constitution defines the term 'State' as used in different Articles of Part
III of the Constitution.
➢ In this part, unless the context otherwise requires, "the State" includes the Government
and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States
and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the
Government of India.
➢ This definition of the State under Article 12 is applicable only to Part III (Fundamental
Rights) and Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Constitution of India.

2. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements :

1. It is a constitutional body established under Article 82 of the Indian Constitution.
2. Its order has the force of law and cannot be called into question before any court.
3. The orders of the Commission are laid before the House of the People, but no modifications are
permissible by it.
4. The Judge of the Supreme Court, the Election Commissioner and the State Election Commissioner
of the concerned State are the members of the commission.

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Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
The word 'delimitation' literally means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial
constituencies in a country or a Province having a legislative body. The job of delimitation is assigned to a
high-powered body. Such a body is known as the Delimitation Commission or a Boundary Commission.
The Delimitation Commission of India is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body. It is established by
the Central government under the provisions of a law enacted by the Parliament under Article 82 of the
Constitution following each Census. Its function is to demarcate the boundaries of the Parliament and
Assembly Constituencies in the country. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Commission is a powerful body. Its orders have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court.
The orders come into force on a date specified by the President of India. They are laid before the Lok Sabha
and the State Legislative Assembly concerned. But modifications are not permissible therein by them. So
far, four such Commissions have been constituted. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
The Fourth Delimitation Commission of 2002 was a three-member body. It consisted of the following:
➢ The Chairperson who was to be either a serving or a retired judge of the Supreme Court.
➢ The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner nominated by the Chief Election
Commissioner was an ex-officio member.
➢ The State Election Commissioner of the concerned State or Union Territory was the other ex-officio
member.
Additionally, the Commission had ten associate members for each State. Out of them, five were members
of the Lok Sabha elected from that State and another five were members of the State Legislative Assembly.
The number of members of the Lok Sabha in a state was less than five, and all such members were associate
members of that State.
These associated members were nominated by the Speakers of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative
Assemblies concerned. However, these associated members did not have the right to vote or to sign any
order of the Commission. So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
THE DELIMITATION COMMISSION
Recently in The government is set to conduct the much-delayed Census next year and complete
News the process by 2026, with suggestions being made on whether caste enumeration
would be part of the exercise, as per sources.
Following the completion of the Census, the government will go ahead with delimitation
to re-draft constituencies.
About ➢ Delimitation means the process of fixing the number of seats and boundaries of
territorial constituencies in each State for the Lok Sabha and Legislative
assemblies.
➢ It also includes determining the seats to be reserved for Scheduled Castes (SC) and
Scheduled Tribes (ST) in these houses.
➢ Articles 82 and 170 of the Constitution provide that the number of seats in the Lok
Sabha and State Legislative assemblies, as well as its division into territorial
constituencies, shall be readjusted after each Census.
➢ This 'delimitation process' is performed by the 'Delimitation Commission', which is
set up under an act of Parliament. Such an exercise was carried out after the 1951,
1961 and 1971 Census.

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Constitutional Articles 81, 82, 170, 330 and 332 of the Constitution of India deal with the delimitation
Provisions of the Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies. These Articles were amended by
the 84th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2001 and the 87th Constitutional
Amendment Act of 2003. The cumulative effect of these two amendments to the
Constitution is as follows.
➢ The total number of existing seats allocated to various states in the Lok Sabha on
the basis of the 1971 census shall remain unaltered till the first Census to be taken
after the year 2026.
➢ The total number of existing seats in the Legislative Assemblies of all states, as
fixed on the basis of the 1971 census, shall also remain unaltered till the first
Census to be taken after the year 2026.
➢ The number of seats to be reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies shall be reworked on the basis
of the 2001 census.
➢ Each State shall be delimited into territorial parliamentary and assembly
constituencies on the basis of the 2001 census, and the extent of such
constituencies delimited now shall remain frozen till the first Census to be taken
after the year 2026.
➢ The constituencies shall be so re-delimited that the population (on the basis of the
2001 census) of each parliamentary and assembly constituency in a state shall, so
far as practicable, be the same throughout the State.

3. Consider the following :

1. Goods and Services Tax Council
2. Attorney General of India
3. Central Vigilance Commission
4. Finance Commission
How many of the above are statutory bodies ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 paved the way for the introduction of a new tax regime (i.e. goods and
services tax - GST) in the country.
The smooth and efficient administration of this tax requires co-operation and coordination between the
centre and the states. In order to facilitate this consultation process, the amendment provided for the
establishment of Goods and Services Tax Council or the GST Council. The amendment inserted a new
Article 279-A in the Constitution.
GST Council is a Constitutional body under the amendment inserted a new Article 279-A in the
Constitution. This Article empowered the President to constitute a GST Council by an order. Accordingly,
the President issued the order in 2016 and constituted the Council.

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The Secretariat of the Council is located at New Delhi. The Union Revenue Secretary acts as the ex-officio
Secretary to the Council. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Attorney General of India is a Constitutional body under Article 76 has provided for the office of the Attorney
General for India. The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer of the country appointed by the
President. He shall be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
➢ It is the duty of the Attorney General of India to give advice to the Government of India upon such legal
matters and to perform such other duties of legal character as may be referred or assigned to him by
the President.
➢ In the performance of his duties, he has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right
to take part in the proceedings of Parliament without the right to vote.
➢ In discharge of his functions, the Attorney General is assisted by a Solicitor General and Additional
Solicitors Generals. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central
government. It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its
establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).
Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the
Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. So, Statement 3 is correct.
The Finance Commission is a Constitutional body constituted by the President under article 280 of the
Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and
the States and amongst the States themselves.
Two distinctive features of the Commission’s work involve redressing the vertical imbalances between the
taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the States respectively and equalization
of all public services across the States. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CONSTITUTIONAL, STATUTORY, AND NON-STATUTORY BODIES
About ➢ India has different types of government bodies to ensure good governance,
accountability, and transparency.
➢ These bodies are classified into constitutional, statutory, and non-statutory bodies,
each serving a specific role.
➢ Together, these bodies work to maintain democracy, regulate sectors, and provide
quick solutions to governance challenges.
Constitutional ➢ These are created directly by the Constitution and have well-defined powers and
bodies responsibilities.
➢ They act as checks and balances on government power, protecting democracy and
citizens’ rights.
➢ Examples: Election Commission (ECI), UPSC, Finance Commission, CAG, National
Commissions for SCs, STs, and Minorities, Attorney General of India.
Statutory ➢ These are set up by laws passed by Parliament or state legislatures and derive their
bodies authority from those laws.
➢ They regulate and oversee specific sectors, ensuring proper implementation of
policies.
➢ Examples: SEBI (stock markets), NGT (environment), IRDAI (insurance), UGC
(education), RBI (banking), TRAI (telecom), NCW (women’s rights), CVC (anti-
corruption).
Non-statutory ➢ These are formed by government orders or resolutions, not by laws.
bodies ➢ They provide expert advice, handle urgent issues, and oversee special initiatives.
➢ They are flexible, temporary, and dissolve after completing their purpose.
➢ Examples: Committees for disaster response, infrastructure projects, or health
crises.

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4. Consider the following :

Statement-I :
Recent Studies revealed that, in India workplace stress negatively impacts the mental health of a
large segment of workers.
Statement-II :
In India, the right to disconnect is guaranteed under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does explain.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
EXPLANATION:
According to recent reports, Indian women in professional jobs, such as auditing, information technology,
and media, work more than 55 hours a week. The working hours vary for those who belong to the
marginalised sections of society and work in the unorganised sector.
➢ According to a study by ADP Research Institute, 49% of Indian workers said workplace stress negatively
impacts their mental health. So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ India must recognise that the right to disconnect will increase productivity and ensure the overall
growth and well-being of employees and employers.
➢ The right to disconnect is an important right. It allows employees to disconnect from their employer
outside of working hours.
➢ India does not have specific laws recognising the right to disconnect from work. However, the
Constitution, the Directive Principles of State Policy, and various judicial pronouncements have spoken
of the right to work in a conducive and healthy environment.
• Article 38 of the Constitution mandates that “the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the
people”.
• Article 39(e) of the Directive Principles of State Policy directs the state to direct its policy towards
securing the strength and health of workers.
In India, the right to disconnect is not guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. So, Statement 2
is not correct.

5. Which one of the following Articles safeguards laws enacted to implement the provisions of the Article
39(b) and Article 39(c) under Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 32
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 31C
EXPLANATION:
Article 31C protects laws enacted to ensure the “material resources of the community” are distributed to
serve the common good (Article 39(b)) and that wealth and the means of production are not “concentrated”
to the “common detriment” (Article 39(c)).
➢ Article 31C, as inserted by the 25th Amendment Act of 1971, contained the following two provisions:
• No law that seeks to implement the socialistic directive principles specified in Article 39(b) or 39(c)
shall be void on the ground of contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14
(equality before law and equal protection of laws) or Article 19 (protection of six rights in respect of
speech, assembly, movement, etc.)
• No law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be questioned in any
court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy.
➢ In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court declared the above second provision of
Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a basic feature of the

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Constitution and hence, cannot be taken away. However, the above first provision of Article 31C was
held to be constitutional and valid.
➢ The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) extended the scope of the above first provision of Article 31C by
including within its protection any law to implement any of the directive principles specified in Part IV
of the Constitution and not merely in Article 39 (b) or 39 (c). However, this extension was declared as
unconstitutional and invalid by the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case (1980). So, Option (d) is
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ARTICLES
Article 39 (b) Article 39 (b): The State shall direct its policy towards securing that the ownership and
control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve
the common good.
Article 39 (c) Article 39 (c): The state shall direct its policy towards securing that the operation of the
economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production
to the common detriment.
Article 14 ➢ The rule of equality before law is not absolute and there are constitutional and other
exceptions to it.
➢ Article 31-C is an exception to Article 14. It provides that the laws made by the state
for implementing the Directive Principles contained in clause (b) or clause (c) of Article
39 cannot be challenged on the ground that they are violative of Article 14.
➢ The Supreme Court held that “where Article 31-C comes in, Article 14 goes out”.
Article 32 Article 32 of the Indian Constitution is a fundamental right that guarantees the right to
constitutional remedies. It is considered one of the most crucial provisions in the
Constitution as it empowers individuals to seek protection and enforcement of their
fundamental rights directly from the Supreme Court of India.
Article 16 Article 16 provides for equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of employment or
appointment to any office under the State.
No citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or office under
the State on grounds of only religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or residence.
➢ There are four exceptions to this general rule of equality of opportunity in public
employment:
• Parliament can prescribe residence as a condition for certain employment or
appointment in a state or union territory or local authority or other authority. As
the Public Employment (Requirement as to Residence) Act of 1957 expired in 1974,
there is no such provision for any state except Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• The State can provide for reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any
backward class that is not adequately represented in the state services.
• A law can provide that the incumbent of an office related to religious or
denominational institution or a member of its governing body should belong to the
particular religion or denomination.
• The state is permitted to make a provision for the reservation of upto 10% of
appointments or posts in favour of any economically weaker sections of citizens.
This reservation of upto 10% would be in addition to the existing reservation. For
this purpose, the economically weaker sections would be notified by the state from
time to time on the basis of family income and other indicators of economic
disadvantage.

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6. Consider the following statements :

1. The Chief Justice of India appoints any judge of a High Court as Ad-Hoc judge with prior consent
of the President.
2. The President can appoint any judge of the Supreme court as the Acting Chief Justice of India
when Chief Justice is temporarily absent.
3. The President can temporarily appoint any retired judge of the Supreme Court as a judge of the
Supreme Court based on the recommendation of the Collegium.
Which of the above are methods of appointment of judges of the Supreme Court in addition to the
normal appointment process?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
According to Article 127 in the constitution of India, when there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges
to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a
High Court as an ad-hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period.
He can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous
consent of the president. The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the
Supreme Court, and (not any judge of High Court).
It is the duty of the judge so appointed to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court, in priority to other
duties of his office. While so attending, he enjoys all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges (and discharges
the duties) of a judge of the Supreme Court. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Under Article 126, the President can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of
India when:
➢ the office of Chief Justice of India is vacant; or
➢ the Chief Justice of India is temporarily absent; or
➢ the Chief Justice of India is unable to perform the duties of his office. So, Statement 2 is correct.
According to Article 128 in the constitution of India, the chief justice of India can request a retired judge of
the Supreme Court or a retired judge of a high court (who is duly qualified for appointment as a judge of
the Supreme Court) to act as a judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period.
He can do so only with the previous consent of the president and also of the person to be so appointed.
Such a judge is entitled to such allowances as the president may determine. He will also enjoy all the
jurisdiction, powers and privileges of a judge of Supreme Court. But, he will not otherwise be deemed to be
a judge of the Supreme Court.
There is no involvement of collegium for the temporary appoint any retired judge of the Supreme Court as
a judge of the Supreme Court. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
TENURE AND REMOVAL
Tenure of ➢ The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the Supreme Court. However,
Judges it makes the following three provisions in this regard:
• He holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any question regarding his age
is to be determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by
Parliament.
• He can resign his office by writing to the president.
• He can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the
Parliament.
Removal of The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge
Judges of the Supreme Court by the process of impeachment:

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➢ A removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members
(in the case of Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/ Chairman.
➢ The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it.
➢ If it is admitted, then the Speaker/ Chairman is to constitute a three-member
committee to investigate into the charges.
➢ The committee should consist of
• the chief justice or a judge of the Supreme Court,
• a chief justice of a high court, and
• a distinguished jurist.
➢ If the committee finds the judge to be guilty of misbehaviour or suffering from
incapacity, the House can take up the consideration of the motion.
➢ After the motion is passed by each House of Parliament by special majority, an address
is presented to the president for removal of the judge.
➢ Finally, the president passes an order removing the judge.

7. Consider the following statements :

1. The Indian Constitution mandates registration of political parties with the Election Commission
of India.
2. Representation of the Peoples’ Act of 1950 mandates internal elections for all recognised political
parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them recognition
as national or state parties on the basis of their poll performance. The other parties are simply declared as
registered-unrecognized parties.
The recognition granted by the Commission to the parties determines their right to certain privileges like
allocation of the party symbols, provision of time for political broadcasts on the state-owned television and
radio stations and access to electoral rolls.
The Indian Constitution doesn’t mandate the registration of political parties with the ECI. It is up to the
political party whether to register or not. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Representation of the People Act, 1950 (RPA, 1950) primarily deals with the delimitation of
constituencies, preparation of electoral rolls, and the conduct of elections. It does not contain provisions
related to internal elections of political parties.
Neither Election Commission has any mandate regarding internal elections for the political party. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
RECOGNITION OF NATIONAL AND STATE PARTIES
About ➢ The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and
grants them recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their poll
performance.
➢ The other parties are simply declared as registered-unrecognized parties.
➢ The recognized parties need only one proposer to file the nomination. Also, these
parties are allowed to have forty “star campaigners” during the time of elections, and
the registered unrecognized parties are allowed to have twenty “star campaigners”.

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➢ The travel expenses of these star campaigners are not included in the election
expenditure of the candidates of their parties.
➢ Every national party is allotted a symbol exclusively reserved for its use throughout
the country.
➢ Similarly, every state party is allotted a symbol exclusively reserved for its use in the
state or states in which it is so recognized.
➢ A registered-unrecognized party, on the other hand, can select a symbol from a list
of free symbols. In other words, the Commission specifies certain symbols as
‘reserved symbols’, which are meant for the candidates set up by the recognized
parties and others as ‘free symbols’, which are meant for other candidates.
Conditions for At present, a party is recognized as a national party if any of the following conditions are
Recognition as fulfilled:
a National ➢ If it secures six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general
Party election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly and, in addition, it wins four
seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states (or)
➢ If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election, and these
candidates are elected from three states (or)
➢ If it is recognized as a state party in four states.
Conditions for A party is recognized as a state party in a state if any of the following conditions are
Recognition as fulfilled:
a State Party ➢ If it secures six per cent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to
the legislative assembly of the state concerned and, in addition, it wins 2 seats in the
assembly of the state concerned (or)
➢ If it secures six per cent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to
the Lok Sabha from the state concerned and, in addition, it wins 1 seat in the Lok
Sabha from the state concerned, (or)
➢ If it wins three per cent of seats in the legislative assembly at a general election to
the legislative assembly of the state concerned or 3 seats in the assembly, whichever
is more, (or)
➢ If it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any fraction thereof allotted
to the state at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned (or)
➢ If it secures eight per cent of the total valid votes polled in the state at a General
Election to the Lok Sabha from the state or to the legislative assembly of the state.
This condition was added in 2011.
The number of recognized parties keeps on changing on the basis of their performance
in the general elections.

8. Consider the following statements :

1. The insecticides which are registered with the Central Insecticides Board can only be used for
domestic and commercial purposes in India.
2. The Central Insecticides Board is established under the provisions of the Environment Protection
Act, 1986.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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EXPLANATION:
• The severity of pesticide-related risks became evident in 1958 when a mass methyl parathion poisoning in
Kerala led to the enforcement of the Insecticides Act 1968 and Insecticide Rules 1971. These laws aimed
to regulate the import, manufacture, sale, and use of insecticides to protect human and animal health.
• Key provisions included mandatory product registration, licenses for manufacturing and sale, and the
creation of the Central Insecticides Board (CIB) for technical guidance. The government was also
empowered to ban harmful pesticides and impose penalties for violations.
• All insecticides (pesticides) have to necessarily undergo the registration process with the Central
Insecticides Board before they can be made available for use or sale. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Central Insecticides Board was established Under Section 4 of the Insecticides Act 1968. It advises the
Central Government and State Governments on technical matters arising out of the administration of this
Act and to carry out the other functions assigned to the Board by or under this Act.
The matters on which the Board may advise include:
➢ The risk to human beings or animals involved in the use of insecticides and the safety measures
necessary to prevent such risk;
➢ The manufacture, sale, storage, transport and distribution of insecticides with a view to ensuring the
safety of human beings or animals. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
INSECTICIDES
About In India, insecticides are regulated under the Insecticides Act 1968 and Insecticides Rules
1971 of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer Welfare, Government of India.
➢ Insecticides are chemicals used to control insects by killing them or preventing them
from engaging in undesirable or destructive behaviours. They are classified based on
their structure and mode of action.
➢ Many insecticides act upon the insect's nervous system (e.g., cholinesterase
inhibition), while others act as growth regulators or endotoxins.
Insecticides are commonly used in agricultural, public health, industrial, household and
commercial applications.
Good Good Agricultural Practices (GAP) focus on sustainability across environmental, economic,
Agricultural and social aspects of farming, ensuring safe and quality agricultural products. GAP covers
Practices four key pillars: economic viability, environmental sustainability, social acceptability, and
(GAP) food safety and quality.
Objectives of GAP:
➢ Ensure food safety and product quality.
➢ Unlock new market opportunities by improving supply chain practices.
➢ Enhance the use of natural resources, improve worker health, and create better
working conditions, benefiting farmers and exporters, especially in developing
countries.
Functions of ➢ Advise the Central Government on the manufacture of insecticides under the
Central Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 (65 of 1951).
Insecticides ➢ Specify the uses of the classification of insecticides on the basis of their toxicity as well
Board as their suitability for aerial application.
➢ Advise tolerance limits for insecticide residues and establishment of minimum
intervals between the application of insecticides and harvest with respect to various
commodities.
➢ Specify the shelf-life of insecticides.
➢ Suggest colourisation, including colouring matter, which may be mixed with
concentrates of insecticides, particularly those of a highly toxic nature.

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➢ Carry out such other functions as are supplemental, incidental or consequential to

any of the functions conferred by the Act or the Rules.
By-laws have been framed for the Central Insecticides Board. The by-laws require the
Central Insecticides Board to meet at least once every 6 months.

9. With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution classifies DPSP as socialist, Gandhian and liberal-intellectual.
2. Preventing social injustice faced by the Scheduled Castes is a socialist principle.
3. Prohibiting the consumption of intoxicating substances is a Gandhian principle.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The makers of the Indian Constitution incorporated the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part 4 of the
Constitution from articles 36 to 51. These principles lay down the roadmap for the government to ensure
social, economic, and political justice and promote the welfare of the people. These directives are not
recognized by the courts, but the principles are considered fundamental to governance. Hence, it becomes
the duty of the State to apply these principles when making laws to establish a just society.
The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their
content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories: socialistic, Gandhian, and liberal-
intellectual. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
According to Article 46 under part of Part IV, the State shall promote with special care the educational and
economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and
the Scheduled Tribes, and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation; these
principles are considered Gandhian principles (Not socialist principle).
This represents Gandhi's reconstruction programme during the national movement. Some of his ideas were
included as Directive Principles to fulfil Mahatma Gandhi's dreams. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Article 47 of the Indian Constitution states that the State shall regard raising the level of nutrition and the
standard of living of its people and improving public health as among its primary duties. In particular, the
State shall endeavour to prohibit consumption, except for medicinal purposes, of intoxicating drinks and
drugs that are injurious to health. This is considered a Gandhian principle. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
THE DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY
(Part IV Article 39—43)
About The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on
the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad
categories: socialistic, Gandhian, and liberal-intellectual.
Socialistic ➢ To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice–
Principles social, economic and political and to minimize inequalities in income, status,
facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
➢ To secure (a) the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens; (b) the
equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good;
(c) prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production; (d) equal pay for
equal work for men and women; (e) preservation of the health and strength of
workers and children against forcible abuse; and (f) opportunities for healthy
development of children (Article 39).
➢ To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).

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➢ To secure the right to work, to receive education, and to receive public assistance in
cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement (Article 41).
➢ To make provisions for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
(Article 42).
➢ To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural
opportunities for all workers (Article 43).
➢ To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries
(Article 43 A).
➢ To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve
public health (Article 47).
Gandhian ➢ To organize village panchayats and endow them with the necessary powers and
Principles authority to enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40).
➢ To promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperative basis in rural areas
(Article 43).
➢ To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and
professional management of cooperative societies (Article 43B).
➢ To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker
sections of society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article
46).
➢ To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to
health (Article 47).
➢ Prohibiting the slaughter of cows, calves, and other millch and draught cattle and
improving their breeds (Article 48).
Liberal- ➢ To secure a uniform civil code for all citizens throughout the country (Article 44).
Intellectual ➢ To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete
Principles the age of six years (Article 45).
➢ To organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines (Article
48).
➢ To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article
48 A).
➢ To protect monuments, places, and objects of artistic or historical interest that are
declared to be of national importance (Article 49).
➢ To separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State (Article
50).
➢ To promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable
relations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty
obligations; and to encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration
(Article 51).
New Directive The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original
Principles list. They require the State:
➢ To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children (Article 39).
➢ To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
➢ To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries
(Article 43 A).
➢ To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article
48 A).
➢ The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires
the State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities
(Article 38).

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➢ The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made
elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A. The amended directive
requires the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until
they complete the age of six years.
➢ The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to
cooperative societies. It requires the State to promote voluntary formation,
autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of
cooperative societies (Article 43B).

10. Consider the following :

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above contain provisions for protection of children’s rights in India ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The constitution of India has a set of provisions which are applicable exclusively for the protection of
children. The fundamental rights of the constitution of India have the following provisions that are
applicable to children. These are constitutional mandates that the State has to deliver.
➢ Article 14: The State shall not deny any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the
laws within the territory of India.
➢ Article 15: The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste,
sex, Place of birth or any of them.
➢ Article 15(3): Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women
and children.
➢ Article 19(1) (a): All the citizens shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression.
➢ Article 21: Protection of life and personal liberty- No person shall be deprived of his life or personal
liberty except according to procedure established by law.
➢ Article 21 A: Free and compulsory education for all children of the age of 6 to 14 years.
➢ Article 23: Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour- Traffic in human beings and
beggars and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited, and any contravention of this provision
shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.
➢ Article 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. –No child below the age of fourteen
years shall be employed in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
Fundamental duties mentioned in Part IVA of the Constitution are the duties of citizens owed to the State.
The addition of Fundamental duties stressed that citizens should become conscious that in addition to the
enjoyment of rights, they also have certain duties to perform.
According to Article 51A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to provide opportunities for education
to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years. This duty was added by the 86th
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Directive Principles of State Policy of the constitution of India have the following provisions, which are
applicable to children. These are constitutional mandates that the State has to deliver.
➢ Article 39: The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing.
➢ Article 39(e): that the health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children
are not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter vocations unsuited to
their age of strength.

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➢ Article 39 (f): that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in
conditions of freedom and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and
against moral and material abandonment.
➢ Article 45: The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children
until they complete the age of six years.
➢ Article 46: The right of weaker sections of the people to be protected from social justice and all forms
of exploitation.
➢ Article 47: Right to nutrition and standard of living and improved public health.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
LEGISLATIVE FRAMEWORK FOR PROTECTION OF CHILDREN IN INDIA
About The legislative landscape governing child rights in India is marked by various statutes, each
addressing specific aspects of children's welfare. The key laws include:
➢ The Constitution of India
➢ The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
➢ The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
➢ The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009
➢ The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016
➢ The National Food Security Act, 2013
➢ The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
➢ The Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005

11. Consider the following statements with reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(CAG) :
1. The CAG can audit non-commercial autonomous bodies and authorities owned by the States.
2. The CAG submits three audit reports to the President.
3. The cabinet secretariat scrutinises the report of the CAG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian
of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels of the Centre
and the State. His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of
financial administration.
The organizations subject to the audit of the CAG are:-
➢ All the Union and State Government departments, including the Indian Railways, Defence and Posts
and Telecommunications.
➢ About 1500 public commercial enterprises are controlled by the Union and State governments, i.e.
government companies and corporations.
➢ Around 400 non-commercial autonomous bodies and authorities are owned or controlled by the Union
or the States.
➢ Bodies and authorities substantially financed by the Union are some of the local bodies and Panchayati
Raj Institutions, which are critical grassroots agencies for the implementation of developmental
programmes and delivery of services. So, Statement 1 is correct.

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The CAG submits three audit reports to the President: an audit report on appropriation accounts, an audit
report on finance accounts, and an audit report on public undertakings.
The President lays these reports before both the Houses of Parliament. After this, the Public Accounts
Committee will examine them and report its findings to the Parliament.
The appropriation accounts compare the actual expenditure with the expenditure sanctioned by the
Parliament through the Appropriation Act, while the finance accounts show the annual receipts and
disbursements of the Union government. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The reports of the CAG are submitted to the President in case of the Union and to the Governor in case of
the State, who in turn cause them to be tabled before the House. Once tabled in the House, the Reports
stand permanently referred to the Central and State Standing Committees on Public Accounts
(PAC)/Committees on Public Undertakings (COPU).
➢ These specialized committees (not the cabinet secretariat) have been constituted to facilitate timely and
intensive scrutiny of the Annual Accounts and the Audit Reports thereon.
➢ The Committees select those findings and recommendations from our reports that they judge to be the
most critical to the public interest and arrange for hearings on them.
➢ CAG provide technical assistance to the Committees in this task. At the hearings of the Committees,
the executive can be called to account for their actions/inactions. Based on their Examination, the
Committees prepare and submit their reports to the Legislature that summarise the Committee's
hearings and the actions taken by the executive and include recommendations to improve
administrative practices and procedures. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL OF
INDIA
Recently in President has appointed K Sanjay Murthy as the next Comptroller and Auditor General
news of India (CAG).
About Articles 149-151 of the Constitution prescribe the unique role of the CAG.
➢ Article 148. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
➢ Article 149. Duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General
➢ Article 150. Form of accounts of the Union and of the States
➢ Article 151. Audit reports
Independence The Constitution enables the independent and unbiased nature of audit by the CAG
by providing for His appointment by the President of India, Special procedure for
removal (like a Supreme Court Judge), Salary and expenses Charged (not Voted) to the
Consolidated Fund of India, Disallowing him from holding any other Government office
after his term expires.
Types of Audits Depending upon the objective of the audit, we classify audits by CAG into:
➢ Compliance Audit
➢ Financial Attest Audit
➢ Performance Audit
Apart from these traditional audits, we have successfully done a number of audits of
Information Technology (IT) Systems and Environmental issues.
Powers ➢ Power to inspect any office or organization subject to his audit.
➢ Power to examine all transactions and question the executive.
➢ Power to call for any records, papers, or documents from any audited entity.
➢ Power to decide the extent and manner of an audit.
Central The central secretariat may be defined as a common name for all the ministries and
Secretariat departments of the Central Government.
➢ The political head of the ministry is the minister, and the administrative head is
the Secretary,

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➢ At the lowest level is the office, which may consist of a few secretariats,
➢ A ministry may be composed of one department or more than one department,
➢ The main function of the secretariat is to advise the minister concerned in matters
of policy and administration,
➢ Each minister is aided by the secretariat staff.
Cabinet ➢ The Cabinet Secretary's Office was created in 1950, and the Cabinet Secretary
Secretary functions under the leadership of the Prime Minister. The chief function of the
Cabinet Secretary is to aid the council of ministers, and he deals primarily with
cabinet affairs.
➢ He is the head of the civil service and ensures that the morale of the civil servants
remains high. He must act as a buffer between the politicians and the civil servants
and protect the interest of the latter in situations of conflict between the two.
Function of ➢ To provide secretarial assistance to the cabinet
Cabinet ➢ To prepare for the meetings of the cabinet
Secretariat ➢ Providing information and material for its deliberations
➢ It keeps a record of the discussions and decisions of the cabinet, circulation of
memorandum on issues awaiting cabinet approval and circulation of the cabinet
decisions to all the ministries
➢ Preparation and submission of monthly summaries on many specified subjects to
the cabinet
➢ It oversees the implementation of the cabinet decisions by the concerned ministries
and other executive agencies
➢ It functions as the prime coordinating agency for the Government of India.

12. Which of the following statements regarding lysozyme is/are correct ?

1. It is an enzyme found in various tears, saliva, and mucus of humans.
2. It is predominately produced in the Liver.
3. It acts as a natural antibiotic by breaking down the cell walls of certain bacteria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Lysozyme is a protein present in many mucosal secretions and tissues of animals and plants and plays an
important role in innate immunity, providing protection against bacteria, viruses, and fungi.
➢ Lysozyme enzyme is abundant in secretions, including tears, saliva, human milk, and mucus. On the
other hand, ions are an integral part of the living body and are involved in multiple biological processes
such as regulation of electrochemical potential, fluid-electrolyte equilibrium, extra-cellular acid-base
equilibrium, muscle contraction and so on. So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ Lysozyme is produced in human neutrophils and macrophages, as well as at mucosal surfaces,
particularly in alveolar type II epithelial cells in the lungs and Paneth cells in the small intestine. It is
not produced in the Liver. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
➢ To stop eye infections, we have evolved chemicals called lysozymes in our tears. These are enzymes that
destroy bacterial cells by breaking down their cell walls. Lysozymes are chemicals, so, like stomach
acid, they are a form of chemical defence against infection. So, Statement 3 is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
LYSOZYME
About ➢ Lysozyme is an important part of the innate immune system, and it protects against
infections, acts as a natural antibiotic, and enhances the efficacy of other antibiotics
while strengthening the immune system.
➢ In pharmaceutical industries, Lysozyme can be applied to prevent many diseases of
bacterial, viral, fungal, and inflammatory origins. It also exerts immune stimulatory
and antihistaminic effects.
➢ The improved Lysozyme even provides new opportunities in the field of clinical
medicine.
Source and
Source of Lysozyme Amount of Lysozyme
its amount
of Lysozyme Tears 3000–5000 µg/mL

Chicken egg white 2500–3500 µg/mL

Duck egg white 1000–1300 µg/mL

Goose egg white 500–700 µg/mL

Human milk 55-75 µg/mL

Cow milk 10–15 µg/mL

Cauliflower juice 25–28 µg/mL

Cabbage juice 7–8 µg/mL

Papaya juice 9 µg/mL

Spleen 50–160 mg/kg

Thymus 60–80 mg/kg

Pancreas 20–35 mg/kg

13. Consider the following pairs :

Sl. Devices of direct
Description
No. Democracy
1. Plebiscite - It is to obtain opinion of people on the issue
of public importance
2. Recall - Voters can remove the representatives
before the expiry of the term
3. Initiative People proposing the bill to the legislature
for the enactment
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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EXPLANATION:
Democracy is of two types–direct and indirect. In direct democracy, the people exercise their supreme
power directly, as is the case in Switzerland. There are four devices of direct democracy, namely,
Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite.
A plebiscite is a method of obtaining the opinion of people on any issue of public importance. It is generally
used to solve the territorial disputes. For Example: The issue of Junagarh princely state in Gujarat was
resolved after a plebiscite confirmed people’s desire to join India. So, Pair (1) is correct.
The recall is a method by which the voters can remove a representative or an officer before the expiry of
his term when he fails to discharge his duties properly. Widely adopted in the United States, the recall
was originally designed to ensure that elected officials would act in the interests of their constituencies
rather than in the interests of their political parties or according to their own consciences. So, Pair (2) is
correct.
The initiative is a method by which the people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment. Through
the initiative, a specified number of voters may petition to invoke a popular vote on a proposed law or an
amendment to a constitution.
An initiative may be direct (a proposal supported by the required number of voters is submitted directly
to a popular vote for decision) or indirect (the proposal is submitted to the legislature).
Referendum is a procedure whereby a proposed legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by
their direct votes. So, Pair (3) is correct.

14. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I :
The Government of India Act of 1935 was not repealed at the commencement of the Constitution.
Statement II :
Many important provisions of the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the Government of India
Act of 1935.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct Explanation for
Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct Explanation for
Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
EXPLANATION:
According to the Article 395, Constitution of India 1950, The Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the
Government of India Act, 1935, together with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter Act,
but not including the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949, were repealed at the commencement
of constitution on 26th January 1950. So, Statement I is not correct.
Indian Constitution came into existence on November 26, 1949. The Constituent Assembly of India drafted
it, with the consideration of features included in the Constitutions of the other countries and also from the
Government of India Act 1935.
The Government of India Act 1935 contributed the following to the Constitution of India:
➢ Federal Scheme
➢ Office of the governor
➢ Judiciary
➢ Public Service Commissions
➢ Emergency provisions
➢ Administrative details
Therefore many important provisions of the Indian constitution have been borrowed from the Government
of India Act 1935. So, Statement II is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT OF 1935
Features ➢ Established an All-India Federation with provinces and princely states as units.
However, it never materialized because princely states did not join.
➢ The Act divided powers into three lists:
• Federal List (59 items) – for the Centre
• Provincial List (54 items) – for provinces
• Concurrent List (36 items) – for both
➢ The Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy.
➢ Replaced dyarchy in provinces with provincial autonomy, allowing them to function
independently in their spheres.
➢ Introduced responsible government in provinces, where governors acted on ministers'
advice. This system lasted from 1937 to 1939.
➢ Introduced dyarchy at the Centre, dividing federal subjects into reserved and
transferred subjects, but this was never implemented.
➢ Introduced bicameral legislatures in six provinces (Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar,
Assam, United Provinces), though with restrictions.
➢ Extended communal representation, granting separate electorates for Scheduled
Castes, women, and workers.
➢ Abolished the Council of India (formed in 1858) and appointed advisors for the
Secretary of State for India.
➢ Expanded voting rights, giving about 10% of the population the right to vote.
➢ Established the Reserve Bank of India to manage the country’s currency and credit.
➢ Set up three Public Service Commissions:
• Federal Public Service Commission
• Provincial Public Service Commission
• Joint Public Service Commission (for multiple provinces)
➢ Created the Federal Court in 1937.

15. Consider the following statements :

1. The 44th Amendment Act inserted the words "socialist" and "secular" in the Preamble.
2. The 42nd Amendment Act provides for the creation of an All India Judicial Service.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The term "socialist" and "secular" was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. Even
before the term was added in 1976, the Constitution had a socialist content in the form of certain Directive
Principles of State Policy.
➢ Socialist: The Indian brand of socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’ and not a ‘communistic socialism’
(also known as ‘state socialism’).
• Communistic socialism involves the nationalisation of all means of production and distribution
and the abolition of private property.
• Democratic socialism, on the other hand, holds faith in a ‘mixed economy’ where both public
and private sectors co-exist side by side.
➢ Secular: In 1974, The Supreme court said that, Though the words ‘secular state’ were not expressedly
mentioned in the Constitution, there can be no doubt that Constitution makers wanted to establish

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such a state and accordingly Articles 25 to 28 (guaranteeing the fundamental right to freedom of
religion) have been included in the constitution.
➢ The Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism i.e., all religions in our country
(irrespective of their strength) have the same status and support from the state.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Article 312 of the Indian Constitution, as amended by the 42nd Amendment, provides for the establishment
of All India Judicial Service (AIJS), which shall not include any post inferior to that of a District Judge as
defined in Article 236.
A law providing for the creation of this service is not to be deemed as an amendment of the Constitution
for the purposes of Article 368.
Though the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 made the provision for the creation of all India judicial service,
no such law has been made so far. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
42nd AND 44th AMENDMENT ACT OF THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
42 nd The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, often referred to as the “Mini-Constitution,” is one of
Amendment the most extensive amendments to the Indian Constitution. It gave effect to the
Act recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee.
➢ Added three new words (i.e., socialist, secular and integrity) in the Preamble.
➢ Added Fundamental Duties by the citizens (new Part IV A).
➢ Made the president bound by the advice of the cabinet.
➢ Provided for administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters (Added Part XIV
A).
➢ Froze the seats in the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies on the basis of 1971
census till 2001.
➢ Made the constitutional amendments beyond judicial scrutiny.
➢ Curtailed the power of judicial review and writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and
high courts.
➢ Raised the tenure of Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies from 5 to 6 years.
➢ Provided that the laws made for the implementation of Directive Principles cannot be
declared invalid by the courts on the ground of violation of some Fundamental Rights.
➢ Empowered the Parliament to make laws to deal with anti-national activities and such
laws are to take precedence over Fundamental Rights.
➢ Added three new Directive Principles viz., equal justice and free-legal aid,
participation of workers in the management of industries and protection of
environment, forests and wild life.
➢ Facilitated the proclamation of national emergency in a part of territory of India.
➢ Extended the one-time duration of the President’s rule in a state from 6 months to
one year.
➢ Empowered the Centre to deploy its armed forces in any state to deal with a grave
situation of law and order.
➢ Shifted five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list, viz, education, forests,
protection of wild animals and birds, weights and measures and administration of
justice, constitution and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the
high courts.
➢ Did away with the requirement of quorum in the Parliament and the state legislatures.
➢ Empowered the Parliament to decide from time to time the rights and privileges of its
members and committees.
➢ Provided for the creation of the All- India Judicial Service.

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➢ 19. Shortened the procedure for disciplinary action by taking away the right of a civil
servant to make representation at the second stage after the inquiry (i.e., on the
penalty proposed).
44th ➢ Restored the original term of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies (i.e.,
Amendment 5 years)."
Act ➢ Restored the provisions with regard to quorum in the Parliament and state
legislatures.
➢ Omitted the reference to the British House of Commons in the provisions pertaining
to the parliamentary privileges.
➢ Gave constitutional protection to publication in newspaper of true reports of the
proceedings of the Parliament and the state legislatures.
➢ Empowered the president to send back once the advice of cabinet for reconsideration.
But, the reconsidered advice is to be binding on the president.
➢ Deleted the provision which made the satisfaction of the president, governor and
administrators final in issuing ordinances.
➢ Restored some of the powers of the Supreme Court and high courts.
➢ Replaced the term “internal disturbance” by “armed rebellion” in respect of national
emergency.
➢ Made the President to declare a national emergency only on the written
recommendation of the cabinet.
➢ Made certain procedural safeguards with respect to national emergency and
President’s rule.
➢ Deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it only a
legal right.
➢ Provided that the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be
suspended during a national emergency.
➢ Omitted the provisions which took away the power of the court to decide the election
disputes of the president, the vice-president, the prime minister and the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha.

16. Arrange the following states in the increasing order of area wise top three states having largest forest
and tree cover using the codes given below :
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
Codes :
(a) 1 - 2 - 3
(b) 2 - 3 - 1
(c) 2 - 1 - 3
(d) 3 - 2 - 1
EXPLANATION:
Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change released the 'India State of Forest Report 2023. The
ISFR has been brought out by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) on a biennial basis since 1987.
The Forest and Tree cover of the country is 8,27,357 sq km, which is 25.17 per cent of the geographical
Area of the country, consisting of 7,15,343 sq km (21.76%) as forest cover and 1,12,014 sq km (3.41%) as
tree cover.
Area-wise, the top three states having the largest forest and tree cover are Madhya Pradesh (85,724 sq km),
followed by Arunachal Pradesh (67,083 sq km) and Maharashtra (65,383 sq km).
Therefore, the top three states having the largest forest and tree cover in the increasing order of Area-wise
are:

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➢ Maharashtra (65,383 sq. km)

➢ Arunachal Pradesh (67,083 sq. km)
➢ Madhya Pradesh (85,724 sq. km) (3-2-1). So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
INDIA STATE OF FOREST REPORT 2023
Recently in According to the Government report, 25% of India's total Area is under green cover.
news
About ➢ The increase of Forest and Tree cover to 25.17% breaks down to 21.76% of forest cover
(7.15 lakh sq. km) and 3.41% of tree cover (1,289 sq. km).
➢ The Forest Survey of India (FSI) defines "forest cover" as land with tree canopy density
exceeding 10% and covering at least one hectare. Thus, "forest" in ISFR includes
plantations.
➢ The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023 is the 18th such report in the series. The
ISFR has been brought out by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) on a biennial basis since
1987.
➢ FSI carries out an in-depth assessment of the country's forest and tree resources
based on the interpretation of remote sensing satellite data and field-based National
Forest Inventory (NFI), and the results are published in the ISFR.
➢ The report contains information on forest cover, tree cover, mangrove cover, growing
stock, carbon stock in India's forests, instances of forest fire, Agroforestry, etc.
➢ To present a detailed picture of the forest health at the country level, special thematic
information on forest cover and important characteristics of forests have been reported
in the ISFR.
Forest and As compared to the assessment of 2021, there is an increase of 1445 sq km in the forest
Tree cover and tree cover of the country, which includes a 156 sq km increase in the forest cover and
a 1289 sq km increase in tree cover.
The top four states showing the maximum increase in forest and tree cover are
➢ Chhattisgarh (684 sq km)
➢ Uttar Pradesh (559 sq km),
➢ Odisha (559 sq km) and
➢ Rajasthan (394 sq km).
The top three states showing the maximum increase in forest cover are
➢ Mizoram (242 sq km)
➢ Gujarat (180 sq km) and
➢ Odisha (152 sq km).
Largest Area-wise, the top three states having the largest forest cover are
forest cover ➢ Madhya Pradesh (77,073 sq km)
➢ Arunachal Pradesh (65,882 sq km) and
➢ Chhattisgarh (55,812 sq km).
In terms of the percentage of forest cover with respect to the total geographical Area,
➢ Lakshadweep (91.33 per cent) has the highest forest cover.
➢ Mizoram (85.34 percent) and
➢ Andaman & Nicobar Island (81.62 percent).
The present assessment also reveals that 19 states/UTs have more than 33 per cent of
the geographical Area under forest cover. Out of these, eight states/UTs, namely Mizoram,
Lakshadweep, Andaman & Nicobar Island, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya,
Tripura, and Manipur, have forest cover above 75 per cent.
Mangrove The total mangrove cover is 4,992 sq km in the country.
cover

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➢ The total growing stock of India's forest and trees outside forests is an increase of total
growing stock as compared to the previous assessment.
➢ The extent of bamboo bearing area for the country compared to the last assessment
done in 2021 shows an increase in bamboo area.
➢ In the present assessment, the total carbon stock in the country's forest is estimated
to be increasing compared to the last assessment.
Regarding the status of achievement of the target under Nationally Determined
Contribution (NDC) related to carbon sequestration, the current assessment shows that
India's carbon stock has reached 30.43 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent, which indicates
that as compared to the base year of 2005, India has already reached 2.29 billion tonnes
of additional carbon sink as against the target of 2.5 to 3.0 billion tonnes by 2030.

17. With reference to the Chief Justice of India (CJI), consider the following statements :
1. Oath or affirmation for CJI is mentioned in the Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
2. Article 124 provides for a term of five years for the CJI.
3. Only the senior most judge of the Supreme Court has been appointed as the CJI.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Article 124(6) in the Constitution of India deals with the oath and affirmation of the judges of the supreme
court.
As per provision, every person appointed to be a Judge of the Supreme Court shall, before he enters upon
his office, make and subscribe before the President, or some person appointed in that behalf by him, an
oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.
Therefore, Oath or affirmation for CJI is mentioned in the Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
Article 124 in the constitution of India deals with the Establishment and Constitution of Supreme Court.
There is no fixed tenure mentioned for chief justice of India in the provision. The chief justice of India serves
the role until he/she reach the age of 65 or removed by the process of impeachment. So, Statement 2 is
not correct.
The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under
clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
Appointment to the office of the Chief Justice of India should be of the seniormost Judge of the Supreme
Court considered fit to hold the office.
From 1950 to 1973, the practice has been to appoint the senior most judge of the Supreme Court as the
chief justice of India.
This established convention was violated in 1973 when A.N. Ray was appointed as the Chief Justice of
India by superseding three senior judges.
Again in 1977, M.U. Beg was appointed as the chief justice of India by superseding the then senior-most
judge.
This discretion of the government was curtailed by the Supreme Court in the Second Judges Case (1993),
in which the Supreme Court ruled that the senior most judge of the Supreme Court should alone be
appointed to the office of the chief justice of India.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
APPOINTMENT AND QUALIFICATION OF THE JUDGES OF SUPREME COURT
Recently in ➢ Recently, Justice Sanjiv Khanna takes over as 51st Chief Justice of India.
news
Appointment of ➢ The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the president.
judges of ➢ The chief justice is appointed by the president after consultation with such judges
supreme court of the Supreme Court and high courts as he deems necessary.
➢ The other judges are appointed by president after consultation with the chief justice
and such other judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts as he deems
necessary.
➢ The consultation with the chief justice is obligatory in the case of appointment of a
judge other than Chief justice.
Procedure for ➢ The Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs would, at the appropriate
Appointment of time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for the
CJI appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
➢ Whenever there is any doubt about the fitness of the seniormost Judge to hold the
office of the Chief Justice of India, consultation with other Judges as envisaged in
Article 124 (2) of the Constitution would be made for appointment of the next Chief
Justice of India.
➢ After receipt of the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India, the Union Minister
of Law, Justice and Company Affairs will put up the recommendation to the Prime
Minister who will advise the President in the matter of appointment
Qualifications A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following
of judges qualifications:
➢ He should be a citizen of India.
➢ He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five
years;
Or He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in
succession) for ten years;
He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
➢ From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age
for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.

18. Which one of the following articles provides for the establishment of the Inter-State Council ?
(a) Article 262
(b) Article 248
(c) Article 263
(d) Article 272
EXPLANATION:
The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India through a
Presidential Order dated 28th May 1990.
➢ The Council consists of:-
• Prime Minister – Chairman
• Chief Ministers of all States – Members
• Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a Legislative Assembly and Administrators of UTs not
having a Legislative Assembly – Members
• Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime
Minister – Members
➢ The President of India can establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the public
interest would be served by its establishment.
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➢ He can define the nature of duties to be performed by such a council and its organisation and
procedure.
➢ Even though the president is empowered to define the duties of an inter-state council, Article 263
specifies the duties that can be assigned to it in the following manner:
• Enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may arise between states;
• Investigating and discussing subjects in which the states or the Centre and the states have a
common interest; and
• Making recommendations upon any such subject, and particularly for the better co-ordination of
policy and action on it. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CENTRE-STATE Relations
About The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1983–88) made a strong case for the
establishment of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution.
It recommended that in order to differentiate the Inter-State Council from other bodies
established under the same Article 263, it must be called as the Inter-Governmental
Council.
Article 262 Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter- state water disputes.
It makes two provisions:
➢ Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with
respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river
valley.
➢ Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to
exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
➢ Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted two laws [the River Boards Act (1956)
and the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956)].
Article 248 ➢ Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of India’s Constitution spell out legislative relations
between the Centre and the States.
➢ Article 248 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Residuary powers of legislation.
➢ The Residuary powers legislation is given to Centre, and Parliament of India alone can
make legislation on the subjects not included in any of the three lists (Union List, State
List, and Concurrent List).
➢ This residuary power consists of the power to levy any residuary taxes also.
Article 272 Taxes which are levied and collected by the Union and may be distributed between the
(Repealed) Union and the States (Repealed)
➢ Under Article 272 of the Constitution, union duties on excise other than that on
medicinal and toilet preparations as mentioned in the union list are levied and
collected by the centre, but if Parliament provides by law may be shared between the
centre and the states. The states' share has been successively increased.
➢ The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act, 2000 has altered the pattern of sharing
of Central taxes between the Centre and the States in a fundamental way.
➢ Prior to this amendment, Taxes on Income other than agriculture income and Union
duties of excise were shared with States under articles 270 and 272 respectively.
➢ The Eightieth Amendment Act has substituted a new article for article 270 and omitted
the old article 272.

19. Consider the following :

1. Annie Mascarene
2. Durgabai Deshmukh
3. Dakshayini Velayudhan
4. Ammu Swaminathan
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How many among the above were members of the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Annie Mascarene:
➢ Born in 1902, Annie Mascarene’s work as a lawyer and politician in Travancore influenced her
arguments in the Constituent Assembly Debates greatly.
➢ She fought to integrate the princely state of Travancore into the newly independent India and became
the first woman to hold a ministerial and legislative assembly position in Travancore.
➢ Mascarene in the Constituent Assembly Debates firmly believed in the centralisation of power for a
smooth functioning of a democracy.
➢ She also warned against complete centralisation which would negatively affect the nature of democratic
institutions. She said that the task of the Assembly was to lay down the rudimentary principles of
democracy for generations to come and not just for the near future.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Durgabai Deshmukh was an Indian freedom fighter, lawyer, social worker and politician. She was a
member of the Constituent Assembly of India and of the Planning Commission of India.
➢ Durgabai Deshmukh remembered as the ‘Mother of Social Work’, she was one of the drivers of rigorous
nation-building and social reform. When she was jailed during the Salt Satyagraha, Deshmukh
observed that several women were imprisoned for crimes they did not even commit.
➢ After this, Deshmukh decided to become a lawyer and pioneered the Andhra Mahila Sabha in 1937,
which became an institution of education and social welfare.
➢ In the Constituent Assembly, she weighed in on judicial matters and advocated lowering the age from
35 to 30 to hold a seat in the Council of Ministers.
➢ After Independence, she also served in the Planning Commission as a leader of social services and
became the chairperson of the Central Social Welfare Board (CSWB).
So, Statement 2 is correct.
Dakshayini Velayudhan was elected to the Constituent Assembly from the Madras constituency.
➢ At the age of 34, she was one of the youngest and the only Dalit woman member of the Constituent
Assembly.
➢ Velayudhan affirmed that the Constituent Assembly does not just “provide a new framework for the
country but also grants the people a new framework of life”.
➢ She was a Gandhian and opposed untouchability. She supported Article 17 of the Constitution which
abolishes untouchability.
➢ Velayudhan did not pursue electoral politics but was actively involved in social work in Delhi.
So, Statement 3 is correct.
Ammu Swaminathan was elected to the Constituent Assembly from the Madras Constituency in 1946. She
spoke on fundamental rights and directive principles.
➢ Fearless and politically charged, Ammu Swaminathan was a social worker, politician and anti-caste
activist. Despite being born into an upper caste family, Swaminathan actively fought to erase caste-
based discrimination in India.
➢ Swaminathan started becoming politically involved in 1917 when she formed the Women’s India
Association along with Annie Besant to address the social and economic problems of women workers.
➢ In the Constituent Assembly, Swaminathan supported the adult franchise and the removal of
untouchability.
➢ Having been at the receiving end of the practice of child marriage herself, she advocated for the Child
Marriage Restraint Act and Age of Consent Act and the various Hindu Code Bills that pushed for reform
in Hindu religious laws. So, Statement 4 is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
WOMEN IN THE CONSTITUTION ASSEMBLY OF INDIA
About The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to frame the Indian Constitution and had
389 members, of which 15 were women. These women played a crucial role in shaping
independent India.
These women helped lay the foundation for a progressive and inclusive India through their
contributions to law, politics, and social reforms.
➢ Ammu Swaminathan – A fearless social worker and politician who fought for women's
rights and adult franchise.
➢ Annie Mascarene – A leader in the integration of princely states and a key figure in the
Hindu Code Bill committee.
➢ Dakshayani Velayudhan – The only Dalit woman in the Assembly, advocating against
caste discrimination.
➢ Begum Aizaz Rasul – The only Muslim woman in the Assembly, known for her
contributions to women's hockey and legislative work.
➢ Durgabai Deshmukh – A social reformer who played a role in the Civil Disobedience
Movement and advocated for family courts in India.
➢ Hansa Jivraj Mehta – A member of several constitutional committees and the one who
presented the first national flag to the Assembly.
➢ Kamla Chaudhry – A Hindi writer and freedom fighter involved in the Civil Disobedience
Movement.
➢ Leela Roy – The only elected woman from Bengal, resigned in protest against Partition.
➢ Malati Choudhury – Focused on rural education and was part of the Bhoodan
Movement.
➢ Purnima Banerjee – A radical freedom fighter and secretary of the Congress Committee
in Allahabad.
➢ Rajkumari Amrit Kaur – India’s first Health Minister, key in founding AIIMS and Lady
Irwin College.
➢ Renuka Ray – Advocate for women’s rights, inheritance rights, and minority rights.
➢ Sarojini Naidu – The ‘Nightingale of India’, a poet and activist, later became Governor
of Uttar Pradesh.
➢ Sucheta Kriplani – Played a major role in the Quit India Movement and became India’s
first woman Chief Minister.
➢ Vijayalakshmi Pandit – A diplomat and activist, the first woman cabinet minister in
British India.

20. Exercise Harimau Shakti is a joint military exercise of India and

(a) Indonesia
(b) Maldives
(c) Malaysia
(d) Sri Lanka
EXPLANATION:
Exercise Harimau Shakti" is aimed at enhancing India and Malaysia's joint military capability to undertake
counter-insurgency operations in jungle terrain under Chapter VII of the United Nations Mandate. The
exercise will focus on operations in the jungle environment.
➢ The 4th edition of India- Malaysia Joint Military Exercise Harimau Shakti, in Dec 2024 at Bentong
camp, Pahang district, Malaysia.
➢ Indian contingent comprising 78 personnel is being represented by a Battalion of Mahar Regiment. The
Malaysian contingent is being represented by 123 personnel from The Royal Malaysian Regiment.

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➢ Joint Exercise Harimau Shakti is an annual training event conducted alternatively in India and
Malaysia. The last edition was conducted in Nov 2023 at Umroi Cantonment in Meghalaya, India.
➢ Exercise Harimau Shakti will enable both sides to share best practices in Tactics, Techniques and
Procedures for conducting joint operations. It will facilitate the development of inter-operability,
bonhomie and camaraderie between the two armies. The Joint Exercise will also enhance defence
cooperation, further augmenting bilateral relations between the two friendly nations. So, Option (c) is
correct.

21. Consider the following :

1. Article 39A
2. Article 21
3. Article 12
Which of the above articles provide for legal aid to the poor ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Legal aid services were provided by France Government in 1851. Further, in 1944, England Government
made effort to provide legal assistance to poor and needy persons.
In India, Article 39A of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) mandates that the state make sure
the functioning of the judicial system promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity.
It expressly states that the state must offer free legal aid through appropriate laws, programmes, or any
other method to ensure that no citizen's access to justice is restricted because of their financial situation
or another obstacle. This article shall be inserted through Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act,
1976. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Fundamental Rights are enforceable rights that individuals can directly seek the protection of the courts
for, in contrast to DPSPs which are non-Justiciable principles.
The right to life and personal freedom is guaranteed by Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which is a
part of Fundamental Rights. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
The judiciary has broadened its interpretation of this right over time to encompass the right to
uncompensated legal aid. This means that if a person cannot afford legal representation and their personal
liberty is at stake, they have the right to access free legal aid.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
Article 12 is a gateway provision for Part III on Fundamental Rights, defining the term 'State' used
throughout the Part. According to it, the State includes the following:
• The executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
• The executive and legislative organs of state government.
• All local authorities that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
• All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these
agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.
According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State
falls within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12. There is no provision related to provide for legal aid
to the poor. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
LEGAL SERVICES
About ➢ The right to legal aid is a cornerstone of justice and a fundamental human right that
guarantees everyone, regardless of means, equal access to the judicial system.
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➢ Legal Aid implies giving free legal services to the poor and needy who cannot afford the
services of a lawyer for the conduct of a case or a legal proceeding in any court, tribunal
or before an authority.
➢ These services are governed by Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 and headed by the
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
➢ Free Legal Services also include provision of aid and advice to the beneficiaries to access
the benefits under the welfare statutes and schemes framed by the Central Government
or the State Government and to ensure access to justice in any other manner.
Provisions Provision of free legal aid may include:
of free • Representation by an Advocate in legal proceedings.
legal aid • Payment of process fees, expenses of witnesses and all other charges payable or
incurred in connection with any legal proceedings in appropriate cases;
• Preparation of pleadings, memo of appeal, paper book including printing and
translation of documents in legal proceedings;
• Drafting of legal documents, special leave petition etc.
• Supply of certified copies of judgments, orders, notes of evidence and other documents
in legal proceedings.
➢ Free legal aid is not confined to cases before the subordinate Courts.
➢ Legal Aid is provided to the needy from the lowest Court to the Supreme Court of India.
➢ Legal Aid Counsel represents such needy persons before the lower Courts, High Courts
and also before the Supreme Court of India.
NALSA, ➢ National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)
SLSA & • Established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
DLSA • Aims to provide free legal services to weaker sections of society.
• Organizes Lok Adalats for the amicable settlement of disputes.
• The Chief Justice of India (CJI) serves as the Patron-in-Chief.
➢ State Legal Services Authority (SLSA)
• Constituted in each state to implement NALSA’s policies and directions.
• Provides free legal services and conducts Lok Adalats at the state level.
• Headed by the Chief Justice of the respective High Court as the Patron-in-Chief.
• A senior-most High Court Judge is nominated as the Executive Chairman.
➢ District Legal Services Authority (DLSA)
• Implements legal services programs at the district level.
• Located within the District Courts Complex.
• Chaired by the District Judge of the respective district.
• A Civil Judge Cadre Judicial Officer is appointed as a full-time Secretary.

22. With reference to the Right to Information Act of 2005, consider the following statements :
1. Access to information under the control of private authorities
2. Establishment of a Central Information Commission
3. Smoother functioning of the democracy
How many of the above statements is/are objectives of the Act ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Right to Information Act, 2005 has been enacted to provide for setting out a practical regime of the
right to information for citizens to secure access to information under the control of Public authorities (not

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private authorities), in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every Public
authority.
The main objective of this Act is to provide information to citizens who desire to have it and contain
corruption and to hold Government and their instrumentalities accountable to the governed keeping in
mind the preservation of confidentiality of sensitive information. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Central Information Commission has been constituted on Oct 2005 under the Right to Information
Act, 2005. The jurisdiction of the Commission extends over all Central Public Authorities.
These broadly relate to adjudication in second appeal for giving information; direction for record keeping,
suo motu disclosures receiving and enquiring into a complaint on inability to file RTI etc; imposition of
penalties and Monitoring and Reporting including preparation of an Annual Report. The decisions of the
Commission are final and binding. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Government of India lays emphasis on making the lives of its citizens easy, smooth and making India
truly democratic and keeping this in mind the RTI Act has been established.
RTI stands for Right To Information and has been given the status of a fundamental right under Article
19(1) of the Constitution.
The basic object of the Right to Information Act is to empower the citizens, promote transparency and
accountability in the working of the Government, contain corruption, and make our democracy work for
the people in real sense. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT 2005
About ➢ Right to Information Act 2005 mandates timely response to citizen requests for
government information.
➢ It is an initiative taken by Department of Personnel and Training, Ministry of Personnel,
Public Grievances and Pensions to provide a– RTI Portal Gateway to the citizens for
quick search of information on the details of first Appellate Authorities, PIOs etc.
Public ➢ Public authorities have designated some of its officers as Public Information Officers.
Information They are responsible to give information to a person who seeks information under the
Officers RTI Act.
➢ Assistant Public Information Officer are the officers at sub-divisional level to whom a
person can give his RTI application or appeal. These officers send the application or
appeal to the Public Information Officer of the public authority or the concerned
appellate authority.
➢ An Assistant Public Information Officer is not responsible to supply the information.
➢ The Assistant Public Information Officers appointed by the Department of Posts in
various post offices are working as Assistant Public Information Officers for all the
public authorities under the Government of India.
Time Period ➢ Time to Receive Information:
for Supply • Normally, information is given within 30 days of applying.
of • If it concerns life or liberty, it must be given within 48 hours.
Information ➢ Filing an Appeal:
• If information is not received on time or is unsatisfactory, an appeal can be made
to the First Appellate Authority (a senior officer).
• The appeal must be filed within 30 days of the deadline or receiving the response.
➢ Disposal of First Appeal:
• The authority must decide the appeal within 30 days (or 45 days in special cases).
➢ Second Appeal:
• If the first appeal is not resolved or is unsatisfactory, a Second Appeal can be made
to the Information Commission.

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• This must be filed within 90 days of the first appeal’s decision or the expected
decision date.

23. Consider the following statements :

1. Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament
2. Disputes relating to the election of members of state legislatures
3. Contempt of court
4. Matters of admiralty
Which of the above matters fall under the original jurisdiction of the High Courts ?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) All four
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The High Court has significant powers, similar to the Supreme Court. It is the highest court of appeal in
a state. It protects citizens' Fundamental Rights, and interprets the Constitution. It also has supervisory
and consultative roles.
The Original jurisdiction means the power of a high court to hear disputes in the first instance, not by
way of appeal. It extends to the following:
➢ Matters of admiralty and contempt of court.
➢ Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures.
➢ Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection.
➢ Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens.
➢ Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation of the
Constitution to its own file.
➢ The four high courts (i.e., Calcutta, Bombay, Madras and Delhi High Courts) have original civil
jurisdiction in cases of higher value. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
JURISDICTION AND POWERS OF THE HIGH COURT
About Original Jurisdiction
The High Court has the power to hear certain cases directly, rather than through appeal. This
includes:
➢ Cases related to admiralty, wills, marriage, divorce, company law, and contempt of court.
➢ Election disputes concerning Parliament and state legislatures.
➢ Revenue matters and enforcement of fundamental rights.
➢ Cases transferred from subordinate courts involving constitutional interpretation.
➢ High-value civil cases in the Calcutta, Bombay, Madras, and Delhi High Courts.
Writ Jurisdiction
➢ Under Article 226, the High Court can issue writs (such as habeas corpus, mandamus,
certiorari, prohibition, and quo warranto) to protect fundamental rights and enforce legal
rights.
➢ Unlike the Supreme Court, which can issue writs only for fundamental rights, the High Court
can issue them for any legal right.
Appellate Jurisdiction
The High Court hears appeals from lower courts in both civil and criminal cases:
➢ Civil appeals: Includes first and second appeals from subordinate courts and tribunals. Some
High Courts (like Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras) allow intra-court appeals.
➢ Criminal appeals: Cases with severe sentences (more than seven years) or death penalties
must be reviewed by the High Court.

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Supervisory Jurisdiction
The High Court supervises all courts and tribunals within its state (except military courts). It can:
➢ Oversee judicial and administrative functions.
➢ Issue rules and guidelines for subordinate courts.
➢ Correct legal errors and ensure justice is served fairly.
Control Over Subordinate Courts
The High Court has administrative authority over lower courts, including:
➢ Advising the Governor on judicial appointments.
➢ Managing promotions, transfers, and discipline of judicial officers.
➢ Ensuring lower courts follow its rulings.
Court of Record
➢ The High Court's judgments are legally recognized as precedents.
➢ It has the power to punish for contempt of court, ensuring respect for the judiciary.
Judicial Review
➢ The High Court can review laws and government orders to check if they violate the
Constitution.
➢ If a law is unconstitutional, the High Court can declare it invalid.
➢ These powers ensure that the High Court plays a crucial role in upholding justice, protecting
rights, and maintaining law and order in the state.

24. With reference to Indian History during the British period, the term "Girmitiyas" referred to :
(a) A class of rich peasants who acquired vast areas of land
(b) An Indian soldiers employed by the British East India Company
(c) A paid servant to supervise weavers and examine the quality of cloth
(d) An indentured labourers sent from India to work in colonies such as Fiji and Mauritius
EXPLANATION:
At the end of the eighteenth century, many zamindars were facing a crisis since a group of rich peasants
were consolidating their position in the villages. In Francis Buchanan’s survey of the Dinajpur district in
North Bengal a class of rich peasants are known as Jotedars.
Jotedars had acquired vast areas of land sometimes as much as several thousand acres. They controlled
local trade as well as moneylending, exercising immense power over the poorer cultivators of the region.
They were located in the villages and exercised direct control over a considerable section of poor villagers.
So, Option (a) is not correct.
Sepoys were Indian soldiers recruited from the native population of India by the European colonial powers.
The sepoys were trained and armed in the European manner, and were organised into battalions led by
European officers. The units were called “native sepoys” up till 1885, after which the term "native" was
dropped.
The British established sepoy regiments in Madras and Bombay. The British army was made up of three
territorial divisions, and based in Madras, Bombay and Bengal. Soon, the sepoys outnumbered the British
soldiers in India – a pattern that continued until India’s independence in 1947. By 1856, sepoys
outnumbered European troops in the East India Company (EIC) at a ratio of 10 to 1. So, Option (b) is not
correct.
The consolidation of East India Company power after the 1760s did not initially lead to a decline in textile
exports from India. British cotton industries had not yet expanded and Indian fine textiles were in great
demand in Europe. So the company was keen on expanding textile exports from India. Once the East India
Company established political power, it could assert a monopoly right to trade. It proceeded to develop a
system of management and control that would eliminate competition, control costs, and ensure regular
supplies of cotton and silk goods. EIC did this through a series of steps.

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The Company tried to eliminate the existing traders and brokers connected with the cloth trade, and
establish a more direct control over the weaver. It appointed a paid servant called the gomastha to supervise
weavers, collect supplies, and examine the quality of cloth. So, Option (c) is not correct.
“Girmitiyas”, or Indentured Labourers, is the name given to the Indians who left India in the middle and
late 19th Century to serve as labourers in the British colonies, where the majority eventually settled.
GIRMIT is a corrupt form of the English word “Agreement”. Labour emigrating under the Agreement or
Girmit was a “Girmitiya”.
After the abolition of slavery, newly free men and women refused to work for the low wages on offer on the
sugar farms in British colonies in the West Indies. Indentured labour was a system of bonded labour that
was instituted following the abolition of slavery. Indentured labour were recruited to work on sugar, cotton
and tea plantations, and rail construction projects in British colonies in West Indies, Africa and South East
Asia. From 1834 to the end of the WWI, Britain had transported about 2 million Indian indentured workers
to 19 colonies including Fiji, Mauritius, Ceylon, Trinidad, Guyana, Malaysia, Uganda, Kenya and South
Africa. So, Option (d) is correct.

25. With respect to Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements :
1. It provides the basis for the doctrine of judicial review.
2. It declares that any law in contravention of the Constitution of India can be declared null and
void.
3. The term "law" in Article 13 includes constitutional amendments enacted by the central
legislatures.
How many of the above given statements are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Article 13 of the Indian Constitution declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in
Derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void. In other words, it expressively provides for the
doctrine of judicial review.
This power has been conferred on the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the high courts (Article 226) that can
declare a law unconstitutional and invalid on the grounds of contravention of any of the Fundamental
Rights. So, Statement 1 is correct.
According to Article 13 of the Indian constitution, if any law, rule, regulation, or executive order is found
to be in conflict with the fundamental rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution (not the constitution
of India) it will be declared null and void to the extent of the inconsistency. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The term "law" in Article 13 of the Constitution does not include a constitutional amendment enacted by
the central legislature.
According to Article 13, the term ‘law’ has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following: any
Ordinance, order, by-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the
force of law.
Thus, not only legislation but any of the above can be challenged in the courts as violating a Fundamental
Right and, hence, can be declared void.
Further, Article 13 declares that a constitutional amendment is not a law and hence cannot be challenged.
However, the Supreme Court held in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) that a Constitutional
amendment can be challenged on the ground that it violates a fundamental right that forms a part of the
'basic structure' of the Constitution and, hence, can be declared as void.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ARTICLE 13 OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION
About ➢ Article 13 gives teeth to the fundamental rights and makes them justiciable.
➢ It protects the people where fundamental rights cannot be violated either by passing on a
law or through administrative action.
➢ Article 13(1) declares that all pre-Constitution laws shall be void to the extent of their
inconsistency with the Fundamental Rights.
➢ This Article 13(1) gave rise to two doctrines called as:
• Doctrine of severability: According to this doctrine, only the invalid part of the law
shall be severed and declared invalid if it can be really separated (i.e) once the invalid
part is separated the valid part of law should be capable of giving the legislature's
intention otherwise the entire law will be invalid. This is known as Rule of Severability.
• Doctrine of eclipse: An existing law inconsistent with the fundamental rights
becomes inoperative but it's not dead all together.
So the laws made before the commencement of the Constitution remain eclipsed or
dormant.
It will be under the shadow of the Constitution. In case any amendment of the
Constitution removes the prohibition brought by fundamental rights, it becomes active
and effective again. This is known as the Doctrine of Eclipse.
Doctrine Judicial review is an important factor in protecting the constitutional rights and freedom
Of when the executive, judiciary, and legislature frame laws.
Judicial The three principles of judicial review are as follows:
Review ➢ The Constitution is the supreme law of the country.
➢ The Supreme Court has the ultimate authority in ruling on constitutional matters.
➢ The judiciary must rule against any law that conflicts with the Constitution.

26. Consider the following statements :

1. The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act granted the States two-thirds of voting rights in the GST
Council.
2. Income taxes are levied by the Centre and collected by both the Centre and the state.
3. Statutory grants given by the Centre to states in need of financial assistance proceeds under
Article 275 are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The 101st Constitution Amendment Act empowered both Parliament and state legislatures to make GST
laws and established the GST Council.
As per Article 279A (4), the GST Council advises the Union and States on GST-related matters. Decisions
are usually made by consensus, but if voting is required:
➢ The Central Government has one-third of the total votes.
➢ State Governments collectively have two-thirds of the votes.
➢ A proposal is approved if it gets at least three-fourths of the total weighted votes.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
In India, income tax is charged on the basis of the provisions and rules of the Income Tax Act of 1961.
Accordingly, the collection and administration of income tax are managed by the Central Board of Direct
Taxes (CBDT), a part of the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance.
While the central government is responsible for income tax, state governments have the authority to levy
and collect other types of taxes, such as sales tax (now subsumed under the Goods and Services Tax or
GST), stamp duties, and taxes on agricultural income.

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The income tax is levied and collected by the Centre, but its proceeds are distributed between the Centre
and the states. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance
and not to every state. Also, different sums may be fixed for different states. These sums are charged on
the Consolidated Fund of India every year.
Apart from this general provision, the Constitution also provides for specific grants for promoting the
welfare of the scheduled tribes in a state or for raising the level of administration of the scheduled areas in
a state including the State of Assam. The statutory grants under Article 275 (both general and specific) are
given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
THE 101st AMENDMENT ACT
About ➢ The 101st Amendment has paved the way for the introduction of a new tax regime (i.e.,
goods and services tax - GST) in the country.
➢ Accordingly, the Amendment conferred concurrent taxing powers upon the Parliament
and the State Legislatures to make laws for levying GST on every transaction of supply
of goods or services or both.
➢ The GST replaced a number of indirect taxes levied by the Union and the State
Governments and is intended to remove the cascading effect of taxes and provide for a
common national market for goods and services.
➢ The Amendment provided for the subsuming of various central indirect taxes and levies,
such as
• Central Excise Duty,
• Additional Excise Duties,
• Excise Duty levied under the Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act, 1955,
• Service Tax,
• Additional Customs Duty, commonly known as Countervailing Duty,
• Special Additional Duty of Customs, and
• Central Surcharges and Cesses so far as they related to the supply of goods and services.
➢ Similarly, the Amendment provided for subsuming of
• State Value Added Tax / Sales Tax,
• Entertainment Tax (other than the tax levied by the local bodies),
• Central Sales Tax (levied by the Centre and collected by the States),
• Octroi and Entry Tax,
• Purchase Tax,
• Luxury Tax,
• Taxes on lottery, betting and gambling, and
• State Surcharges and Cesses

27. Consider the following statements :

1. A bill that imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested.
2. A bill that changes the meaning of ‘agricultural income’ for the purposes of enactments relating
to Indian income tax
3. A bill that imposes a surcharge on any specified tax or duty for the purpose of the Centre.
How many of the above bills require the President’s recommendation before being introduced in
Parliament ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
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EXPLANATION:
To protect the interest of states in the financial matters, the Constitution under Article 274 lays down that
the following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President:
➢ A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested; Under Article 274(2) the
expression “tax or duty in which States are interested” means
• a tax or duty the whole or part of the net proceeds whereof are assigned to any State; or
• a tax or duty by reference to the net proceeds whereof sums are for the time being payable out of
the Consolidated Fund of India to any State. So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ A bill which varies the meaning of the expression ‘agricultural income’ as defined for the purposes of
the enactments relating to Indian income tax; So, Statement 2 is correct.
➢ A bill which affects the principles on which moneys are or may be distributable to states; and
➢ A bill which imposes any surcharge on any specified tax or duty for the purpose of the Centre. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
DISTRIBUTION OF TAX REVENUES BETWEEN THE CENTRE AND THE STATES
Article 268 Taxes Levied by the Centre but Collected and Appropriated by the States (Article 268):
• This category includes the stamp duties on bills of exchange, cheques, promissory
notes, policies of insurance, transfer of shares and others.
• The proceeds of these duties levied within any state do not form a part of the
Consolidated Fund of India, but are assigned to that state.
Article 269 Taxes Levied and Collected by the Centre but Assigned to the States (Article 269): The
following taxes fall under this category:
• Taxes on the sale or purchase of goods (other than newspapers) in the course of
inter-state trade or commerce.
• Taxes on the consignment of goods in the course of inter-state trade or commerce.
The net proceeds of these taxes do not form a part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
They are assigned to the concerned states in accordance with the principles laid down
by the Parliament.
Article 269-A Levy and Collection of Goods and Services Tax in Course of Inter-State Trade or
Commerce (Article 269-A):
• The Goods and Services Tax (GST) on supplies in the course of inter-state trade or
commerce are levied and collected by the Centre. But, this tax is divided between
the Centre and the States in the manner provided by Parliament on the
recommendations of the GST Council.
• Further, the Parliament is also authorized to formulate the principles for
determining the place of supply, and when a supply of goods or services or both
takes place in the course of inter-state trade or commerce.
Article 270 Taxes Levied and Collected by the Centre but Distributed between the Centre and the
States (Article 270):
This category includes all taxes and duties referred to in the Union List except the
following:
• Duties and taxes referred to in Articles 268, 269 and 269-A
• Surcharge on taxes and duties referred to in Article 271 and
• Any cess levied for specific purposes.
The manner of distribution of the net proceeds of these taxes and duties is prescribed
by the President on the recommendation of the Finance Commission.

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Article 271 Surcharge on Certain Taxes and Duties for Purposes of the Centre (Article 271):
• The Parliament can at any time levy the surcharges on taxes and duties referred
to in Articles 269 and 270. The proceeds of such surcharges go to the Centre
exclusively. In other words, the states have no share in these surcharges.
• However, the Goods and Services Tax (GST) is exempted from this surcharge. In
other words, this surcharge cannot be imposed on the GST.
Taxes Levied These are the taxes belonging to the states exclusively. They are enumerated in the
and Collected state list and are 18 in number. These are:
and Retained by • land revenue;
the States • taxes on agricultural income;
• duties in respect of succession to agricultural land;
• estate duty in respect of agricultural land;
• taxes on lands and buildings;
• taxes on mineral rights;
• Duties of excise on alcoholic liquors for human consumption; opium, Indian hemp
and other narcotic drugs and narcotics, but not including medicinal and toilet
preparations containing alcohol or narcotics;
• taxes on the consumption or sale or electricity;
• taxes on the sale of petroleum crude, high speeddiesel, motor spirit (commonly
known as petrol), natural gas, aviation turbine fuel and alcoholic liquor for human
consumption, but not including sale in the course of inter-state trade or commerce
or sale in the course of international trade or commerce of such goods;
• taxes on goods and passengers carried by road or inland waterways;
• taxes on vehicles;
• taxes on animals and boats;
• tolls;
• Taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments; (xv) capitation taxes;
• taxes on entertainments and amusements to the extent levied and collected by a
Panchayat or a Municipality or a Regional Council or a District Council;
• stamp duty on documents (except those specified in the Union List); and
• fees on the matters enumerated in the State List (except court fees).

28. Consider the following information :

Sl.
Platform Vessel Project
No.
1. Scorpene Class Submarine Vagsheer Project 15-B
2. Stealth destroyer Surat Project 75
3. Stealth frigate Nilgiri Project 17-A
How many of the above rows is/are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Vagsheer, the sixth and final Scorpene-class submarine under the Kalvari-class Project 75 (Not Project 15-
B), was ordered in 2005 and launched in April 2022. These submarines are being constructed by Mazagon
Dock Shipbuilders under a technology transfer agreement with France-based Naval Group.
While globally referred to as Scorpene-class submarines, the Indian Navy designates them as Kalvari-class
submarines. The Scorpenes are 2000-tonne conventional attack submarines designed for diverse missions,

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including anti-surface and anti-submarine warfare, long-range strikes, intelligence gathering, and special
operations.
Each submarine has six weapon-launching tubes and carries 18 weapons, including torpedoes and
missiles. INS Kalvari, the first in this series, was inducted into the Indian Navy in 2017. So, Row (1) is not
correct.
The fourth and final stealth-guided missile destroyer under Project 15B (Not Project 75) follows INS
Visakhapatnam, INS Mormugao, and INS Imphal, commissioned over the past three years.
INS Surat is the Indian Navy’s first Al (artificial intelligence) enabled warship, which will utilise indigenously
developed Al solutions to enhance its operational efficiency manifold. So, Row (2) is not correct.
The Nilgiri-class stealth frigate, built under the codename Project 17A, is a follow-on vessel of the Shivalik
class or Project 17 frigates currently in service. INS Nilgiri is the first of seven frigates in Project 17A, which
was built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai. This class of ships has an “integrated
construction” philosophy, which involves extensive pre-outfitting at the block stages to reduce overall
building periods.
The multi-mission frigates are capable of operating in a “blue water” environment — in the deep seas far
from the coast — and deal with both conventional and non-conventional threats. With their versatile
weapons and capabilities, these ships can play a crucial role in anti-surface, anti-air, and anti-submarine
warfare.
The ships are fitted with a supersonic surface-to-surface missile system, a medium-range surface-to-air
Missiles (MRSAM) system, a 76-millimetre upgraded gun, and a combination of rapid-fire close-in weapon
systems. So, Row (3) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
IMPORTANT STRATEGIC INDIAN NAVAL PROJECTS
Project 15-B ➢ Between 2014 and 2016, the Indian Navy commissioned three guided missile
destroyers of the Kolkata class under Project 15A. The Kolkata class included INS
Kolkata, INS Kochi and INS Chennai. These ships were a step ahead of their
precursor Delhi class of ships, which included INS Delhi, INS Mysore and INS
Mumbai, built under Project 15 and commissioned between 1997 and 2001.
➢ For building the advanced variants of the Kolkata class-guided missile destroyers,
a contract for construction under Project 15B was signed in January 2011.
➢ The lead ship of Project 15B, INS Visakhapatnam, was commissioned into the
Indian Navy in November 2021 and the second ship, INS Mormugao, in December
2022. The fourth ship, D69, which, when commissioned, will be christened INS
Surat, was launched in May 2022.
➢ Designed by the Indian Navy’s in-house warship design entity Warship Design
Bureau and built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) in Mumbai, the
four ships of Project 15B are christened after major cities from all four corners of
the country — Visakhapatnam, Mormugao, Imphal and Surat. The class is
identified by its lead ship, INS Visakhapatnam.
➢ The four ships of the class are 163 meters long and 17.4m wide, with a
displacement of 7,400 tonnes. The ship has a ‘combined gas and gas’ (COGAG)
configuration integrating four gas turbines. The propulsion system allows the ship
to reach a maximum speed of 30 knots and a maximum range of 4000 nautical
miles.
➢ The class also has a total atmospheric control system (TACS) that protects the
crew from chemical, biological and nuclear threats.
➢ The arsenal of the Visakhapatnam class has BrahMos surface-to-surface cruise
missiles and vertically launched Barak-8 surface-to-air missiles for long-range
engagement of shore and sea-based targets.
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Project-75 ➢ Project-75 was conceived in 1997 for the construction of two indigenous SSK
Submarines known as Type 1500.
➢ Project-75, also known as P-75(I), is a military acquisition initiative by the Ministry
of Defence (MoD). The initiative aims to procure diesel-electric attack submarines
with fuel cells and an Air-Independent Propulsion System (AIP) for the Indian Navy
to build India’s naval strength and develop indigenous submarine-building
capabilities.
➢ The conventional diesel-electric submarines such as the Scorpene, under Project
75, come with improved stealth features such as advanced acoustic absorption
techniques, low radiated noise levels, long-range guided torpedoes, tube-launched
anti-ship missiles, sonars and sensor suites.
➢ However, as electrical batteries power them, they need to surface every 48 hours
to be recharged.
➢ Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), which comes under MoD, was
contracted to build the submarines in collaboration with Thomson-CSF (TCSF),
France.
Project 17A ➢ Project 17A frigates are the follow-on Class of Project 17 ‘Shivalik Class’ frigates,
with improved stealth features, advanced weapons, sensors, and platform-
management systems.
➢ A total of 7 ships are developed. Four of the Project-17A class frigates are being
built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) in Mumbai and three by
Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Ltd. (GRSE) in Kolkata.
➢ Ships developed under Project-17A are also known as Nilgiri-class. Ships
developed under this Project are Nilgiri, Udaygiri, Taragiri, Mahendragiri, Himgiri,
Dunagiri and Vindhyagiri.
➢ Nilgiri was the lead ship of the class, launched in September 2019, while Udaygiri
and Taragiri launched in May 2022 and September 2022, respectively.
➢ Compared to Project-17 Shivalik-class frigates, the Nilgiri class has better stealth
features, indigenous weapons and sensors. The ships can accommodate 2
helicopters.
➢ The Nilgiri class is designed to feature the following armament: eight BrahMos
supersonic cruise missiles, 32 MRSAM torpedoes, AK-630, IRL, Kavach chaff
launchers and a 76mm gun. The sensor suite includes a hull-mounted sonar, Elta
MFSTAR AESA primary radar, Indra Lanza-N 3D surveillance radar, navigation
radar, EW suite and more. The class can be expected to be equipped with weapons
like the VL-SRSAM and LRLACM in the future.
➢ All seven ships are expected to be commissioned by 2027.

29. With reference to the National Emergency, consider the following statements :
1. The President must revoke the emergency if either house of the parliament passes a resolution
disapproving its continuation.
2. The President can proclaim a national emergency only receiving a written recommendation from
the Council of Ministers.
3. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act introduced the requirement of periodical parliamentary
approval every six months.
4. Proclamation of emergency must be passed by both house of Parliament by a special majority.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None

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EXPLANATION:
Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of
it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
➢ A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent
proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval. Further, the President
must revoke a proclamation if the LokSabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.
➢ This safeguard was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Before the amendment, a
proclamation could be revoked by the president on his own and the Lok Sabha had no control in this
regard.
➢ The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 also provided that, where one-tenth of the total number of members
of the Lok Sabha give a written notice to the Speaker (or to the president if the House is not in session),
a special sitting of the House should be held within 14 days for the purpose of considering a resolution
disapproving the continuation of the proclamation.
Therefore, the Rajya Sabha does not need to pass the resolution to revoke the emergency. So, Statement
1 is not correct.
The President, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the
cabinet. This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not
merely on the advice of the prime minister or Council of Ministers.
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced this safeguard to eliminate any possibility of the prime
minister alone taking a decision in this regard.
Therefore, President requires written recommendation from cabinet for proclaiming National emergency.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the
Parliament for every six months. This provision for periodical parliamentary approval was also added by
the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
Before that, the emergency, once approved by the Parliament, could remain in operation as long as the
Executive (cabinet) desired. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either
House of Parliament by a special majority that is, a majority of the total membership of that house, and a
majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting.
This special majority provision was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Previously, such
resolution could be passed by a simple majority of the Parliament. So, Statement 4 is correct.

30. Consider the following statements :

1. The advice tendered by the Council of Ministers to the President cannot be enquired in the court
except on the grounds of gross violation of the Indian Constitution.
2. A minister who is disqualified on the grounds of defection may remain in office for six months
before ceasing to be a minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
According to Article 74 of the Constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at
the head to aid and advise the President, who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with
such advice.
However, the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, and the President
shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. The advice tendered by

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Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court for any matter. So, Statement 1 is not
correct.
According to Article 75 of the Constitution, The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President, and
the President shall appoint the other Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. The ministers shall
hold office at the pleasure of the President. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the
Lok Sabha. The President shall administer the oaths of office and secrecy to a minister. A minister who is
not a member of the Parliament (either House) for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a
minister.
91st Amendment Act of 2003 added two important provisions to Article 75. They are
➢ The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed
15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
➢ A member of either House of Parliament belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the
ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS WITH RESPECT TO THE COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
Article 77– ➢ All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed and taken in the
Conduct of name of the President.
Business of ➢ Orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the President shall
the be authenticated in such manner as may be specified in rules to be made by the
Government President. Further, the validity of an order or instrument which is so authenticated
of India shall not be called into question on the ground that it is not an order or instrument
made or executed by the President.
➢ The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of
the Government of India and the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
Article 78– It shall be the duty of the Prime Minister:
Duties of ➢ To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to
Prime the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
Minister ➢ To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union
and proposals for legislation as the President may call for
➢ If the President so requires, submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers
any matter on which a Minister has made a decision but which has not been
considered by the Council.
Article 88– ➢ Every minister shall have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either
Rights of House, any joint sitting of the Houses and any Committee of Parliament of which he
Ministers as may be named a member. But he shall not be entitled to vote.
Respect the
Houses

31. With reference to the Supreme Court, consider the following statements :
1. Parliament must pass the constitutional amendment act with a special majority and ratification
of half the states to curtail the power of the Supreme Court as specified in the Constitution.
2. Part V of the constitution deals with the matters of the Supreme Court.
3. The Third Judge’s case introduced the collegium system where Chief Justice of India has to
consult two senior most judge before tendering advice to the President.
How many of the above statements is/are not correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
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EXPLANATION:
The Supreme Court has been assigned a very significant role in the Indian democratic political system. It
is a federal court, the highest Court of appeal, the guarantor of the fundamental rights of the citizens and
the guardian of the Constitution. Therefore, its independence becomes very essential for the effective
discharge of the duties assigned to it. It should be free from the encroachments, pressures and
interferences of the executive (council of ministers) and the Legislature (Parliament). It should be allowed
to do justice without fear or favour.
The Parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court. The
Constitution guarantees the Supreme Court jurisdiction of various kinds. However, the Parliament can
extend the same. The Constitution has made this provision to safeguard and ensure the independent and
impartial functioning of the Supreme Court. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on January 28, 1950. It succeeded the Federal Court of India,
established under the Government of India Act of 1935.
Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organisation, independence, jurisdiction,
powers, procedures and so on of the Supreme Court. The Parliament is also authorised to regulate them.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
In the case, Supreme Court Advocates-On-Record Association V. Union of India, popularly known as the
Third Judges case, the concept of the collegium system evolved.
In the Second Judges case (1993), the Chief Justice would tender his advice on the matter after consulting
two of his seniormost colleagues.
In the Third Judges case (1998), the Court opined that the consultation process to be adopted by the Chief
Justice of India requires ‘consultation of plurality judges’. The sole opinion of the Chief Justice of India
does not constitute the consultation process.
He should consult a collegium of four senior-most judges (not two seniormost judges) of the Supreme Court,
and even if two judges give an adverse opinion, he should not send the recommendation to the government.
The Court held that the recommendation made by the chief justice of India without complying with the
norms and requirements of the consultation process is not binding on the government. So, Statement 3
is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
THE COLLEGIUM SYSTEM
About The word Collegium is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution. It has come into force as
per Judicial Pronouncement. The origin of the concept for the establishment of the system
may be traced to the recommendations of the Bar Council of India made in 1981 during
a national seminar of the lawyers at Ahmedabad.
The Supreme ➢ In the First Judges case (1982), the Court held that consultation does not mean
Court over concurrence, and it only implies an exchange of views.
Consultation ➢ But, in the Second Judges case (1993), the Court reversed its earlier ruling and
changed the meaning of the word consultation to concurrence. Hence, it ruled that
the advice tendered by the Chief Justice of India is binding on the President in the
matters of appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court. But, the Chief Justice
would tender his advice on the matter after consulting two of his seniormost
colleagues.
➢ After the Third Judge’s case, the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2014 and the
National Judicial Appointments Commission Act of 2014 have replaced the collegium
system of appointing judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts with a new body
called the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC). However, in 2015, the
Supreme Court declared both the 99th Constitutional Amendment and the NJAC Act
unconstitutional and void. Consequently, the earlier collegium system became
operative again.

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➢ This verdict was delivered by the Supreme Court in the Fourth Judges case (2015).
The Court opined that the new system (i.e., NJAC) would affect the independence of
the judiciary.
Transfer of In the Third Judges case (1998), the Supreme Court opined that in case of the transfer of
high court high court judges, the Chief Justice of India should consult, in addition to the Collegium
judges of four seniormost judges of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of the two high courts
(one from which the judge is being transferred and the other receiving him). Thus, the
sole opinion of the chief justice of India does not constitute the ‘consultation’ process.
High Court In the Second Judges case (1993), the Supreme Court ruled that no appointment of a
Appointment judge of the High Court can be made unless it is in conformity with the opinion of the
of Judges chief justice of India.
In the Third Judges case (1998), the Supreme Court opined that in case of the
appointment of high court judges, the chief justice of India should consult a collegium of
two senior-most judges of the Supreme Court. Thus, the sole opinion of the chief justice
of India alone does not constitute the ‘consultation’ process.

32. With reference to Logistics Ease Across Different State (LEADS) 2024 report, which of the following
statements is/are correct ?
1. The LEADS ranking is released by NITI Aayog.
2. Tamil Nadu has been ranked in the topmost category consecutively for three years.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS), launched by the Ministry of Commerce and Industries (Not
by the Niti Ayog) from 2018, focused on assessing the performance of the logistics eco-system across States
and Union Territories (UTs). It provides valuable insights to States and UTs about key drivers of logistics
performance, which States / UTs can leverage for effective policy and decision-making. LEADS has also
become a one-of-a-kind platform, showcasing initiatives individual states and UTs take to improve logistics
performance. LEADS is thereby promoting a competitive federalism model for developing the logistics sector
across the country. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Tamil Nadu has bagged the “Achiever” award in the coastal states category of the Logistics Ease Across
Different States (LEADS) 2024 ranking for the third time in a row. Achiever status is awarded to states that
have shown exemplary performance.
In LEADS 2024, the report evaluates logistics performance across four key pillars: Logistics Infrastructure,
Logistics Services, Operating and Regulatory Environment, and the newly introduced Sustainable Logistics.
It further highlights initiatives undertaken by various States and UTs across these pillars and identifies
State/UT-specific opportunities to enable informed decision-making.
According to the ministry of commerce LEADS ranking, Gujarat (not Tamil nadu) has been ranked in the
topmost category consecutively for three years, i.e., 2022, 2023 and 2024. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
LOGISTICS EASE ACROSS DIFFERENT STATES (LEADS)
About ➢ LEADS was conceived on the lines of the Logistics Performance Index (LPI) of the World
Bank in 2018. While the LPI relies entirely on perception-based surveys, LEADS
incorporates perception and objectivity, thereby enhancing the robustness and
comprehensiveness of this exercise.

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➢ LEADS categorises states based on their geographic features - landlocked, coastal,

northeastern regions and union territories.
➢ So far, six editions of LEADS have been published.
Performance ➢ Coastal Group
Highlights • Achievers: Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Odisha, Tamil Nadu
of LEADS • Fast Movers: Andhra Pradesh, Goa
2024 • Aspirers: Kerala, West Bengal
➢ Landlocked Group
• Achievers: Haryana, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand
• Fast Movers: Bihar, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan
• Aspirers: Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand
➢ Northeastern Group
• Achievers: Assam, Arunachal Pradesh
• Fast Movers: Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura
• Aspirers: Manipur
➢ Union Territories
• Achievers: Chandigarh, Delhi
• Fast Movers: Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Jammu and Kashmir,
Lakshadweep, Puducherry
• Aspirers: Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Ladakh

33. Consider the following statements :

1. Ceding any territory of India
2. Settling boundary disputes
3. Admitting new state into Indian Union
4. Creating All India Judicial Service
5. Changes in the administration of schedules area
6. Representation of states in Parliament
Which of the above lies within the amending powers of the Parliament under Article 368 ?
(a) 1 and 6 only
(b) 1, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
EXPLANATION:
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution
and its procedure.
Provisions in the Constitution that can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament
outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:
➢ Admission or establishment of new states.
➢ Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
➢ Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
➢ Second Schedule–emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the
Speakers, judges, etc.
➢ Quorum in Parliament.
➢ Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
➢ Rules of procedure in Parliament.
➢ Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
➢ Use of English language in Parliament.
➢ Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
➢ Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
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➢ Use of official language.

➢ Citizenship–acquisition and termination.
➢ Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
➢ Delimitation of constituencies.
➢ Union territories.
➢ Fifth Schedule–administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
➢ Sixth Schedule–administration of tribal areas.
Therefore, Settling boundary disputes, Admitting new state into Indian Union and Changes in the
administration of schedules area can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament
outside the scope of Article 368. So, Statement 2 is not correct. Statement 3 is not correct and
Statement 5 is not correct.
The decision of the Central Government to cede part of a territory known as Berubari Union (West Bengal)
to Pakistan led to political agitation and controversy and thereby necessitated the Presidential reference.
The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under Article 3) does
not cover cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign
state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. Consequently, the 9 th Constitutional
Amendment Act (1960) was enacted to transfer the said territory to Pakistan.
➢ On the other hand, the Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that, settlement of a boundary dispute
between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment. It can be done
by executive action as it does not involve cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
The Part XX, Article 368(2) in the constitution of India states that an amendment of this Constitution may
be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament, and when the
Bill is passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not
less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting, it shall be presented to the President
who shall give his assent to the Bill and thereupon the Constitution shall stand amended in accordance
with the terms of the Bill, Provided that if such amendment seeks to make any change in—
➢ article 54, article 55, article 73, article 162, article 241 or article 279A; or
➢ Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI, or Chapter I of Part XI; or
➢ any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule; or
➢ the representation of States in Parliament; or
➢ the provisions of this article
the amendment shall also require to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States
by resolutions to that effect passed by those Legislatures before the Bill making provision for such
amendment is presented to the President for assent.
Therefore, Representation of the states in parliament, lies within the amending powers of the Parliament
under Article 368. So, Statement 6 is correct.
Under Article 312(4) in the Constitution of India states that the law providing for the creation of the All-
India Judicial Service aforesaid may contain such provisions for the amendment of Chapter VI of Part VI
as may be necessary for giving effect to the provisions of that law and no such law shall be deemed to be
an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of article 368. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

34. Consider the following statements :

1. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act provided for the continuation of English for all the official
purpose of the union.
2. The Constitution of India empowered the legislature of the state to adopt any one or more language
only from the 8th schedule of the Constitution as the official language of the state.
3. The Governor with the consent of president authorize the use of official language in orders,
ordinances, regulations passed by the state government.
4. The President can direct the recognition of any language as official language of the state if he/she
is satisfied that substantial proportion of people of the state desire the same.

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How many of the above provisions regarding the official language are enshrined in part XVII of the
Constitution ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Part XVII of the Constitution deals with the official Language in Articles 343 to 351. Its provisions are
divided into four heads–Language of the Union, Regional languages, Language of the judiciary and texts of
laws and Special directives.
The Official Languages Act of 1963 provides for the languages that may be used for the official purposes of
the Union, for the transaction of business in Parliament, for Central and State Acts, and for certain
purposes in High Courts. The act provides for the continued use of English (even after 1965), in addition
to Hindi, for all official purposes of the Union and also for the transaction of business in Parliament.
The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 did not provide for the continuation of English for all official
purposes of the Union. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
According to Article 345 of the Indian Constitution, the State legislature may by law adopt any one or more
of the languages in use in the State or Hindi as the Language or Languages to be used for all or any of the
official purposes of that State, which means it is not limited to only the languages listed in the 8th Schedule.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The governor of a state, with the previous consent of the president, can authorize the use of Hindi or any
other official language of the State in the proceedings in the high court of the State, but not with respect
to the judgements, decrees and orders passed by it.
In other words, the judgements, decrees, and orders of the high court must continue to be in English only
(until Parliament otherwise provides them).
Similarly, a state legislature can prescribe the use of any language (other than English) with respect to
bills, acts, ordinances, orders, rules, regulations or bylaws. Still, a translation of the same in English is to
be published. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Article 347 of the Indian Constitution, If the President on demand is satisfied that a substantial proportion
of the population of the State desires the Language spoken by them to be recognized by the State, he may
direct such Language to be a recognized language in the State. So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ARTICLES RELATED TO OFFICIAL LANGUAGE AT A GLANCE
About Language of the Union
➢ Article 343. Official Language of the Union
➢ Article 344. Commission and Committee of Parliament on Official Language.
Regional Languages
➢ Article 345. Official Language or languages of a state
➢ Article 346. Official Language for communication between one State and another or
between a state and the Union
➢ Article 347. Special provision relating to Language spoken by a section of the
population of a state
Language of the Supreme Court, High Courts, etc.
➢ Article 348. Language to be used in the Supreme Court and in the High Courts and
for Acts, Bills, etc.
➢ Article 349. Special procedure for enactment of certain laws relating to Language
Special Directives
➢ Article 350. Language to be used in representation for redress of grievances
➢ Article 350A. Facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage
➢ Article 350B. Special Officer for linguistic minorities
➢ Article 351. Directive for the development of the Hindi language

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35. Consider the following information :

Sl.
Act/Guidelines Provisions
No.
1. Representation of People Act 1950 - Allocation of seats in house of people
2. Representation of People Act 1951 - Preparation of electoral roll for
parliamentary election
3. Delimitation Commission Act - Fixing limits or boundaries of territorial
constituencies
4. Modal Code of conduct - Qualifications and disqualifications for
membership of Parliament
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
The Representation of People Act 1950 is an Act to provide the allocation of seats in and the delimitation
of constituencies for the purpose of election to the House of the People and the Legislatures of States, the
qualifications of voters at such elections, the preparation of electoral rolls, the manner of filling seats in
the Council of States to be filled by representatives of Union territories, and matters connected therewith.
So, Pair (1) is correct.
The Representation of The People Act, 1950 deals with Electoral rolls for parliamentary constituencies.
➢ For every constituency, there shall be an electoral roll which shall be prepared in accordance with the
provisions of this Act under the superintendence, direction and control of the Election Commission
➢ No person shall be entitled to be registered in the electoral roll for more than one constituency
➢ No person shall be entitled to be registered in the electoral roll for any constituency more than once
➢ Subject to the foregoing provisions of this Part, every person who — (a) is not less than 3 [eighteen
years] of age on the qualifying date and (b) is ordinarily resident in a constituency. So, Pair (2) is not
correct.
Delimitation literally means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in
a country or a province having a legislative body.
The job of delimitation is assigned to a high-power body. Such a body is known as the Delimitation
Commission or a Boundary Commission.
In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times –
➢ In 1952, under the Delimitation Commission Act 1952,
➢ In 1963, under the Delimitation Commission Act 1962,
➢ In 1973, under the Delimitation Act, 1972 and
➢ In 2002, under the Delimitation Act, 2002.
The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot
be called into question before any court.
These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India on this behalf. The copies
of its orders are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no
modifications are permissible therein by them. So, Pair (3) is correct.
The Representation of People Act (1951) (not the model code of conduct) provides for the disqualification of
members of the Parliament or a state legislature for indulging in corrupt practice, that is, soliciting votes
on the grounds of religion or promoting enmity between different sections of people on the grounds of caste,
race, language, religion and so on.
The Model Code of Conduct is a regulatory framework, though without legal backing in the strict sense,
designed to ensure a level playing field and uphold the principles of ethical campaigning. So, Pair (4) is
not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MEMBERSHIP OF PARLIAMENT
Qualifications According to the Constitution of India, a Person:
➢ Must be a citizen of India.
➢ Must take an oath of allegiance to the Constitution.
➢ Minimum age: 30 years (Rajya Sabha), 25 years (Lok Sabha).
➢ Must fulfill other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
As per the Representation of People Act (1951), a Person:
➢ Must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency.
➢ SC/ST candidates can contest reserved and general seats.
Disqualifications As per the Constitution a person will be disqualified if He/She:
➢ Holds an office of profit under the government (except ministers).
➢ Declared of unsound mind by a court.
➢ Is an undischarged insolvent.
➢ Is a non-citizen of India or has foreign allegiance.
➢ Disqualified under any law made by Parliament.
As per the Representation of People Act (1951), a person will be disqualified if
He/She :
➢ Convicted for election offences, corrupt practices, or serious crimes (2+ years
imprisonment).
➢ Fails to submit election expenses on time.
➢ Has financial interests in government contracts.
➢ Holds a key position in government-owned corporations (25%+
shareholding).
➢ Dismissed from government service for corruption/disloyalty.
➢ Convicted for promoting enmity, bribery, or social crimes (e.g.,
untouchability, dowry, sati).
On the question whether a member is subject to any of the above disqualifications,
the president’s decision is final. However, he should obtain the opinion of the
election commission and act accordingly.

36. With reference to Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD), consider the following statements :
1. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi to India from South Africa
in 1915.
2. The first convention was held in 2003.
3. Since 2015, PBD Conventions are held every year.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
EXPLANATION:
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) has been celebrated on January 9 every year since 2003 to mark the
contribution of the Overseas Indian community to the development of India. January 9 was chosen as the
day to celebrate this occasion since it was on this day in 1915 that Mahatma Gandhi, the greatest Pravasi,
returned to India from South Africa, led India's freedom struggle and changed the lives of Indians forever.
➢ To connect India to its vast overseas diaspora and bring their knowledge, expertise, and skills to a
common platform, the first PBD Convention - the Ministry of External Affairs flagship event- was

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organized from the 7th to the 9th of January in 2003. Seventeen PBDs have been held in various
places in India so far.
➢ Till 2015, PBD has been held every year. From 2015 onwards, the PBD convention has been held
Biennially (once every two years). So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, and Statement 3 is not
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PRAVASI BHARATIYA DIVAS (PBD)
About ➢ The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Convention was first established in 2003 under
the government of then Prime Minister Late Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee as a platform
to recognize and engage with the overseas Indian community.
➢ Since 2015, Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) format has been revised to celebrate
the PBD once every two years and to hold theme-based PBD Conferences during
the intervening period with participation from overseas diaspora experts,
policymakers and stakeholders.
➢ These conventions provide a platform for the overseas Indian community to engage
with the government and people of the land of their ancestors for mutually
beneficial activities.
➢ These conventions are also very useful in networking among the overseas Indian
community residing in various parts of the world and enable them to share their
experiences in various fields.
➢ The 18th PBD Convention is scheduled for January (8-10), 2025, in Bhubaneswar,
Odisha.
➢ The theme for this year is the "Diaspora's contribution to a Viksit Bharat"
(Developed India).
➢ This was the first PBD to be held in Eastern India.
➢ This approach is in line with the Government of India's focus on 'Purvodaya'.
Objectives ➢ To commemorate the contributions of the Indian diaspora to India's development
➢ To create a better understanding of India abroad
➢ To support India's causes and work for the welfare of local Indian communities
worldwide
➢ To provide a platform for overseas Indians to engage with the government and
people of their ancestral land.

37. With reference to summary procedure, consider the following statements :

(a) Procedure that is designed to quickly resolve a legal issue
(b) Procedure to dispose of similar cases in one go to save time
(c) Initiative under e-court to increase awareness among general public on the functioning of courts
(d) Procedure where courts mandatorily record oral evidence before judgment
EXPLANATION:
A summary procedure, also known as a show-cause proceeding, is a fast legal process that is initiated by
a show-cause order. It is designed to quickly resolve a legal issue or dispute. It may also be referred to as
a rule to show cause, summary process, or expedited proceeding.
The summary suit is elucidated in the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908. The objective of this provision
under CPC is to avoid unnecessarily extending the litigation process by the defendant in the class of cases
where speedy judgments are desirable, which could help the complainants save monetary expenses as well.
So, Option (a) is correct.

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38. Consider the following statements :

1. Removal of the Governor falls under the purview of judicial review, and the Supreme Court can
reinstate the governor on the grounds of a malefice decision
2. President can pardon death sentence by court martial or under any law while Governor can only
pardon death sentence under state law.
3. The question of whether a matter falls under the discretion of the Governor is decided by the
council of ministers.
How many of the above provisions related to the Governor are not correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
According to Article 156, a governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters
his office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President. Further, he can resign
at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the President. The Supreme Court held that the pleasure
of the President is not justifiable. The Governor has no security of tenure and no fixed term of office. The
President may remove him at any time. The Constitution does not lay down any grounds upon which the
President may remove a governor.
Supreme Court held that the pleasure of the President is not justifiable, and therefore, it was outside the
purview of judicial review. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
As per Article 72 in the Constitution of India, the President can grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension,
remission or commutation with respect to punishment or sentence by a court-martial (military court). But
the Governor cannot pardon a death sentence. Even if a state law prescribes a death sentence, the power
to grant a pardon lies with the President and not the Governor. However, the Governor can suspend, remit
or commute a death sentence. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Article 163(2) in the Constitution of India states the Constitution makes it clear that if any question arises
whether a matter falls within the Governor’s discretion or not, the decision of the Governor is final, and the
validity of anything done by him cannot be called in question on the grounds that he ought or ought not
to have acted at his discretion. Therefore, the discretion of the Governor is not decided by the council of
ministers. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

39. Consider the following statements :

1. The President can either give or withhold his assent, but cannot return the money bill or a
Constitution Amendment Bill.
2. The Finance Bill can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior permission of the
President.
3. The President is the crisis manager-in chief and the supreme commander of the Indian Armed
Forces.
How many of the above are powers of the President enshrined in the Constitution ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The president of India gets the Veto power under Article 111 in the constitution of India. The President
exercises suspensive veto when he returns a bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. However, if the bill
is passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments and again presented to the President, it
is obligatory for the President to give his assent to the bill. This means that the presidential veto is
overridden by a repassage of the bill by the same ordinary majority.

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The President does not possess this veto in the case of money bills. The President can either give his assent
to a money bill or withhold his assent to a money bill but cannot return it for the reconsideration of the
Parliament. Normally, the President gives his assent to money bill as it is introduced in the Parliament
with his previous permission.
For constitutional amendment bill, The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold
his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. So, Statement 1 is not
correct.
Financial bills are those bills that deal with fiscal matters, that is, revenue or expenditure.
According to the Constitution of India, the Finance Bill can only be introduced in Parliament with the prior
approval of the President. Article 117(1) of the Indian Constitution, states that a money bill, including the
Finance Bill, cannot be introduced without the President's consent. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The President is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India. In that capacity, he appoints the
chiefs of the Army, the Navy and the Air Force. He can declare war or conclude peace, subject to the
approval of the Parliament. Prime Minister is the crisis manager-in-chief at the political level during
emergencies. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
VETO POWER OF THE PRESIDENT
About ➢ A bill passed by the Parliament can become an act only if it receives the assent of the
President. When such a bill is presented to the President for his assent, he has three
alternatives (under Article 111 of the Constitution):
• He may give his assent to the bill, or
• He may withhold his assent to the bill, or
• He may return the bill (if it is not a Money bill) for reconsideration of the Parliament.
However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments and
again presented to the President, the President must give his assent to the bill.
➢ Thus, the President has the veto power over the bills passed by the
Parliament, that is, he can withhold his assent to the bills. The object of conferring this
power on the President is two-fold–(a) to prevent hasty and ill-considered legislation by the
Parliament; and (b) to prevent a legislation which may be unconstitutional.
Absolute It refers to the power of the President to withhold his assent to a bill passed by the
Veto Parliament. The bill then ends and does not become an act. Usually, this veto is exercised
in the following two cases:
➢ With respect to private members’ bills (ie, bills introduced by any member of Parliament
who is not a minister); and
➢ With respect to the government bills when the cabinet resigns (after the passage of the
bills but before the assent by the President) and the new cabinet advises the President
not to give his assent to such bills.
Pocket ➢ In this case, the President neither ratifies nor rejects nor returns the bill, but simply
Veto keeps the bill pending for an indefinite period.
➢ This power of the President not to take any action (either positive or negative) on the
bill is known as the pocket veto.
➢ The President can exercise this veto power as the Constitution does not prescribe any
time-limit within which he has to take the decision with respect to a bill presented to
him for his assent.
Presidential ➢ The President has veto power with respect to state legislation also. A bill passed by a
Veto over state legislature can become an act only if it receives the assent of the governor or the
State President (in case the bill is reserved for the consideration of the President).
Legislation ➢ When a bill, passed by a state legislature, is presented to the governor for his assent,
he has four alternatives (under Article 200 of the Constitution):
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• He may give his assent to the bill, or

• He may withhold his assent to the bill, or
• He may return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the state
legislature, or
• He may reserve the bill for the consideration of the President.

40. Consider the following pairs :

Sl.
India’s investment Country
No.
1. Zaranj- Delaram Highway - Iran
2. Agalega air strip - Maldives
3. Salma Dam - Afghanistan
4. Metro Express Project - Mauritius
How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Zaranj-Delaram highway in Nimroz, connects Afghanistan to the Chabahar port in Iran. The 2011 India-
Afghanistan Strategic Partnership Agreement recommitted Indian assistance to help rebuild Afghanistan’s
infrastructure and institutions; education and technical assistance for capacity-building in many areas;
encourage investment in Afghanistan; and provide duty-free access to the Indian market.
Zaranj-Delaram highway built by the Border Roads Organisation. Zaranj is located close to Afghanistan’s
border with Iran. The $150-million highway goes along the Khash Rud river to Delaram to the northeast of
Zaranj, where it connects to a ring road that links Kandahar in the south, Ghazni and Kabul in the east,
Mazar-i-Sharif in the north, and Herat in the west. With Pakistan denying India overland access for trade
with Afghanistan, the highway is of strategic importance to New Delhi, as it provides an alternative route
into landlocked Afghanistan through Iran’s Chabahar port.
Zaranj-Delaram highway is in Afghanistan. So, Pair 1 is not correct.
India signed a Memorandum of Understanding for the “improvement in sea and air transportation facilities”
at Agaléga island. The MOU provided for “setting up and upgradation of infrastructure for improving sea
and air connectivity at the outer Island of Mauritius which will go a long way in ameliorating the condition
of the inhabitants of this remote island and enhance the capabilities of the Mauritian Defence Forces in
safeguarding their interests in the Outer Island”.
Recently, India-built airstrip was inaugurated in Agaléga, Mauritius. So, Pair 2 is not correct.
Afghan-India Friendship Dam is a Multipurpose project planned for generating 42 MW of power, irrigating
75000 hectares of land, water supply and other benefits to the people of Afghanistan. Salma Dam is a
landmark infrastructure project undertaken by Government of India on river Hari Rud, in Herat province
of Afghanistan. The project was executed and implemented by WAPCOS Ltd., a Government of India
Undertaking under Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation. So, Pair 3
is correct.
India has close, longstanding relations with Mauritius, an island nation in the Western Indian Ocean,
owing to historic, demographic and cultural reasons. A key reason for the special ties is the fact that Indian
origin people comprise nearly 70% of the island’s population of 1.2 million.
In May 2016, India provided a grant of USD 353 million to Mauritius as a Special Economic Package for
five priority projects: (i) Metro Express Project; (ii) Supreme Court Building; (iii) New ENT Hospital; (iv)
Social Housing project; (v) Digital Tablets for school children. In October 2021, an LoC of USD 190 mn and
USD 10 mn grant was approved by India for Phase III of the Metro Project. So, Pair 4 is correct.

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41. Consider the following statements :

1. Part II of the Constitution has provisions related to citizenship of India.
2. The Constitution provides for the acquisition and loss of citizenship on and after its
commencement.
3. Section 6A of the Citizenship Act of 1955 provides citizenship to all immigrants from other
countries.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. However, it contains neither
any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard. It only identifies the persons who became
citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). It does not deal with the problem of
acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a
law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Constitution of India does not provide for the acquisition and loss of citizenship after its
commencement. Instead, the Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act of 1955, which provides for the
acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution. Thus, the Citizenship Act
of 1955 was passed to address these issues.
The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, viz, birth, descent, registration,
naturalization and incorporation of territory. It also prescribes three ways of losing citizenship, whether
acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution: It may happen in any of the three ways:
Renunciation, Termination and Deprivation. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Section 6A of the Citizenship Act of 1955 does not provide citizenship to all immigrants from other
countries. It only applies to immigrants from Bangladesh who entered Assam before January 1, 1966.
Section 6A, which was incorporated in the Citizenship Act 1955 following the signing of the 1985 Assam
Accord, was recently upheld by the Supreme Court. Section 6A was inserted to give statutory recognition
to the Assam Accord (1985), an agreement between the Union government, the All-Assam Students Union
(AASU) and the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad (AAGSP). It grants citizenship to all immigrants who
entered Assam from Bangladesh before January 1 1966 [Section 6A (2)]. Further, it states that immigrants
who entered Assam between January 1, 1966, and March 24 1971, were considered Indian citizens without
voting privileges for 10 years [Section 6A (3)]. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CITIZENSHIP
Recently in The Supreme Court validated Section 6A of the Citizenship Act 1955. This section
News concerns citizenship under the 1985 Assam Accord. Migrants entering Assam before
March 25, 1971, can register for citizenship, while those entering after must be deported.
Mixed reactions followed the decision, with some groups supporting it and others
expressing concerns.
Acquisition of The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways:
Citizenship ➢ Citizenship by birth.
➢ Citizenship by descent.
➢ Citizenship by registration.
➢ Citizenship by naturalization.
Other Ways of Acquisition of Citizenship
➢ 6A. Special provisions as to citizenship of persons covered by the Assam Accord.

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➢ 6B. Special provisions as to citizenship of person covered by proviso to clause (b) of

sub-section (1) of section 2. The Central Government or an authority specified by it
in this behalf may, subject to such conditions, restrictions and manner as may be
prescribed, on an application made in this behalf, grant a certificate of registration
or certificate of naturalisation to a person referred to in the proviso to clause (b) of
sub-section (1) of section 2.
➢ Citizenship by incorporation of territory.
Modes Of 1. By Renunciation
Losing Indian Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his
Citizenship Indian citizenship. Upon the registration of that declaration, that person ceases to be a
citizen of India. However, if such a declaration is made during a war in which India is
engaged, its registration shall be withheld by the Central Government. Further, when a
person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses
Indian citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he may
resume Indian citizenship.
2. By Termination
When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue
influence or compulsion) acquires citizenship in another country, his Indian citizenship
automatically terminates. This provision, however, does not apply during a war in which
India is engaged.
3. By Deprivation
It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government if:
➢ The citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud:
➢ The citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India:
➢ the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;
➢ the citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned
in any country for two years and
➢ the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years
➢ continuously.
Articles ➢ Article 5: Citizenship at the Commencement of the Constitution
Related to ➢ Article 6: Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from
Citizenship at Pakistan
a Glance ➢ Article 7: Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan
➢ Article 8: Rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside
India
➢ Article 9: Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign State not to be citizens
➢ Article 10: Continuance of the rights of citizenship
➢ Article 11: Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law

42. With reference to the Law Commission of India (LCI), consider the following statements :
1. LCI is a statutory body that functions under the Ministry of Law and Justice.
2. LCI is constituted by the President for a fixed term of three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government
of India (By the President), Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite term of

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reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the
Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference.
The Law Commission has taken up various subjects on references made by the Department of Legal Affairs,
Supreme Court and High Courts and submitted 277 reports. The Law Commission of India provides an
excellent, thought-provoking, and vital review of the laws in India. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The first Law Commission after independence was set up in the year 1955. Subsequent Commissions were
constituted from time to time. The 22nd Law Commission of India was constituted on 20th February, 2020
for a period of three years and was extended for a period of 1.5 years. The term of 22nd Law Commission
ended on 31st August 2024. Therefore, the Law Commission of India does not have a fixed tenure. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
23rd LAW COMMISSION OF INDIA (LCI)
Recently in The President of India has sanctioned the constitution of the 23rd Law Commission of
News India, which will serve from September 1, 2024, to August 31, 2027.
Composition The commission is usually chaired by a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a High
Court, and has legal scholars as members.
Serving judges can also be appointed to the commission, according to the notification
on the appointment of the new panel.
The Twenty-third Law Commission of India shall consist of:
➢ A full-time Chairperson;
➢ Four full-time Members (including Member-Secretary);
➢ Secretary, Department of Legal Affairs as ex officio Member;
➢ Secretary, Legislative Department as ex officio Member;
➢ Not more than five part-time Members.
The term of Review/ repeal of Obsolete Laws:
reference of the ➢ Identify laws for immediate repeal that are no longer needed or relevant.
Twenty-Third ➢ Develop a Standard Operating Procedure (SoP) for periodic reviews, including
Law simplifying language and processes.
Commission ➢ Identify laws that need amendments to align with current economic needs.
➢ Suggest amendments for laws requiring changes.
➢ Consider suggestions from Expert Groups across Ministries for harmonizing laws.
➢ Address references from Ministries/Departments via the Department of Legal Affairs
on multi-ministry/Department legislation.
➢ Propose measures for quick redressal of citizens' grievances.
Law and Poverty:
➢ Examine laws affecting the poor and conduct post-enactment audits of socio-
economic legislation.
➢ Utilize law and legal processes to benefit the poor.
Judicial Administration:
➢ Eliminate delays, clear arrears, and reduce costs for efficient case disposal while
ensuring fairness.
➢ Simplify court processes and harmonize High Court rules.
➢ Reduce technicalities and delay devices in procedures.
➢ Implement case management and case flow management frameworks.
Directive Principles and Constitutional Objectives:
➢ Review laws in light of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
➢ Suggest improvements. Reforms and new legislation to implement these principles
and achieve constitutional objectives
Gender Equality:
➢ Review existing laws to promote gender equality and suggest amendments.
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43. Which of the following acts made a beginning of the representative institutions by associating Indians
with the law-making process ?
(a) Indian Council Act of 1861
(b) The Charter Act of 1853
(c) Government of India Act of 1858
(d) Government of India Act of 1935
EXPLANATION:
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 is an important act in the political and constitutional history of India. It
began the creation of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It led
to the beginning of decentralization. A portfolio system was introduced, and the Viceroy was empowered to
issue ordinances. The Act also provided for the establishment of legislative councils in some provinces.
➢ It made the Viceroy nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. In
accordance with the Act, Lord Canning, the then Viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative
council: the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.
➢ It restored the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies that had been taken away by
the Regulating Act of 1773. It thus reversed the centralizing tendency that started from the Regulating
Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833. This policy of legislative devolution
resulted in the grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in 1937.
➢ It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier
Province (NWFP) and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866 and 1897, respectively.
➢ It empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of business in
the council.
➢ It also recognized the 'portfolio' system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of
the Viceroy's council was made in charge of one or more departments of the Government and was
authorized to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s)
➢ It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances without the concurrence of the legislative council during
an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months. So, Option (a) is correct.

44. With reference to Polar Vortex, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. The polar vortex is a large area of high-pressure and cold air around the Earth’s polar regions.
2. The US and Asia experience chilly winds when the polar vortex at the North Pole weakens.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles. It always
exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter. The term "vortex" refers to the
counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles. Many times during winter in the
northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream (see
graphic above). This occurs fairly regularly during wintertime and is often associated with large outbreaks
of Arctic air in the United States. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

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The US, parts of Europe, and Asia experience chilly winds when the polar vortex at the North Pole weakens
travel from its usual position. As this system weakens, some of the cold, arctic air can break off and migrate
south, bringing plenty of cold air with it. Areas as far south as Florida may experience arctic weather as a
result.
This happens because when the polar vortex is strong and stable, it keeps the jet stream travelling around
the planet in a circular path. The jet stream is a narrow band of strong wind in the upper levels of the
atmosphere which plays a key role in keeping cold air north and warm air south. So, Statement 2 is
Correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
POLAR VORTEX
About ➢ The stratospheric polar vortex is a large-scale region of air that is contained by a
strong west-to-east jet stream that circles the polar region.
➢ This jet stream is usually referred to as the polar night jet.
➢ The polar vortex extends from the tropopause (the dividing line between the
stratosphere and troposphere) through the stratosphere and into the mesosphere
(above 50 km).
➢ As with the northern hemisphere and the Arctic, there is also a southern
hemisphere polar vortex. This polar vortex also extends through the stratosphere
and into the mesosphere. In contrast to the northern vortex, the southern vortex is
stronger, larger, and longer-lasting. In addition, temperatures are colder and ozone
levels are lower than their northern counterpart.
➢ The southern vortex is much stronger and larger than the northern vortex (middle
image).Temperatures are also much colder (right image), with values below 190K
over a wide region. In contrast, northern temperatures only sporadically fall below
190K over small regions. Ozone levels (left image) are also much different, with low
values during the mid-winter period.
➢ The difference between the southern and northern polar vortices is caused by the
planetary wave effects. Large-amplitude planetary-scale wave events that
cause warmings are quite frequent in the northern hemisphere. In contrast to the
northern hemisphere, the southern hemisphere does not have major mountain
ranges (the Andes are tall, but very narrow in longitude) and is mainly a water
covered hemisphere. Hence, southern hemisphere forcing of planetary-scale wave
events in the troposphere is very weak, and there is an absence of wave events
to warm the polar region and erode the polar vortex.
Effect of Polar A weakened polar vortex can lead to disturbances in the west, bringing heavy snowfall
vortex in India to the western Himalayas and cooler temperatures to northern India. This shift in
weather patterns often results in colder conditions and significant snowfall in higher
altitudes.

45. With reference to rights under Article 22 of the Constitution, consider the following statements :
1. Protection against punitive detention applies only to criminal arrests and does not cover civil
arrests or court orders.
2. Article 22 empowers law enforcement agencies to detain a person beyond 24 hours unless the
magistrate authorizes the release.
3. Protection under preventive detention is provided to both citizens and foreigners, whereas
protections against punitive detention are available only to citizens.
How many of the above given statements are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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EXPLANATION:
Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained. Detention is of two types, namely,
punitive and preventive.
➢ Punitive detention is to punish a person for an offence committed by him after trial and conviction
in a court.
➢ Preventive detention, on the other hand, means detention of a person without trial and conviction
by a court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence but to prevent him from
committing an offence in the near future. Thus, preventive detention is only a precautionary
measure and based on suspicion.
The Supreme Court ruled that the arrest and detention in the first part of Article 22(Punitive detention) do
not cover arrest under the orders of a court, civil arrest, arrest on failure to pay the income tax, and
deportation of an alien. They apply only to an act of a criminal or quasi-criminal nature or some activity
prejudicial to public interest. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Article 22(2) provides that the person arrested or detained in custody must be produced before the nearest
Magistrate within 24 hours of his arrest or detention. This time period does not include the time taken to
travel from the place of arrest to the court of the Magistrate. Further, it provides that no person can be
detained in custody after the above-mentioned period has passed, without the permission of the Magistrate.
Therefore, law enforcement agencies cannot detain a person beyond 24 hours unless the magistrate
authorizes the release. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Article 22 of the Constitution is applicable to all citizens of India. However, it is not applicable to enemy
aliens or a person who has been arrested or detained under any preventive detention law.
The Safeguards under punitive and preventive detention are available to all people, irrespective of whether
they are citizens of India or not. However, it cannot be availed by an enemy alien, that is, a national of any
country with whom India does not have friendly relations. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

46. Consider the following statements with reference to the Fundamental Rights :
1. The State cannot discriminate against any person only on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex
and place of birth.
2. The Constitution empowers the Parliament and the State Legislature to enact penal provisions to
prohibit untouchability.
3. The citizens of India can accept any title from any foreign State.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Article 15 (1) of Part III of the Constitution is extremely significant as the State shall not discriminate
against any citizen (not any person) on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of
them.
However, unlike Article 14 that protects all persons whether they are citizens or aliens, the scope of Article
15 extends only to the citizens of India.
It is significant to note that this prohibition is against the state and not against private individuals. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolished 'untouchability', forbade its practice in any form and made
enforcement of any disability arising out of 'untouchability' an offence punishable in accordance with law.
Article 35 (2) empowers Parliament to have (and the legislature of a state shall not have) powers to make
laws for prescribing punishment for those acts that are declared to be offences under (fundamental rights)
Part III of the Constitution. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

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Article 18 of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of titles.

➢ Clause (1) prohibits the State from conferring titles, except military or academic distinctions, on any
person, whether a citizen or a non-citizen.
➢ Clause (2) prohibits a citizen of India from accepting any title from a foreign State.
➢ Clause (3) prohibits a person not being a citizen of India but holding any office or trust under the State
from accepting any title from any foreign State without the consent of the President.
➢ Clause (4) further prohibits such a person from accepting any present, emolument or office of any kind
from or under any foreign State without the consent of the President. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
THE FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
About The rights, which are enshrined in the Constitution, are called ‘Fundamental Rights’.
The importance of Fundamental rights is that it ,
• Protects the dignity and freedom of individuals.
• Promotes equality and justice in society.
• Safeguards democracy and prevent discrimination.
The list of Fundamental Rights are: -
➢ Right to Equality (Articles 14–18):
• All are equal before the law.
• No discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Abolishes untouchability and titles.
• Ensures equality in public employment and legal protection.
➢ Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22):
• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms.
• Freedom to form associations or unions.
• Freedom to move, reside, and settle anywhere in India.
• Freedom to practice any profession or trade.
• Protection of life and liberty, prevention of arbitrary arrest, and free education for
children aged 6–14 years.
➢ Right Against Exploitation (Articles 23–24):
• Prohibits human trafficking and forced labour.
• Bans the employment of children under 14 years in hazardous work.
➢ Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25–28):
• Freedom to profess, practice, and propagate any religion.
• The state has no official religion (secular state).
• No child can be forced to take religious instruction in a school against their
wishes.
➢ Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29–30):
• Protects the right of minorities to preserve their language, culture, and traditions.
• Minorities can establish and maintain their own educational institutions.
• The state must not discriminate while granting aid to institutions.
➢ Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32):
• Citizens can approach courts to enforce Fundamental Rights.
• Courts can issue writs to protect these rights:
✓ Habeas Corpus: Produce a detained person before the court.
✓ Mandamus: Order a public authority to perform its duty.
✓ Prohibition: Stop a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction.

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✓ Quo Warranto: Prevent someone from holding an office they are not entitled
to.
✓ Certiorari: Transfer a case from a lower court to a higher court.
Features of ➢ Fundamental rights are justiciable whereby the Supreme or High Court can repeal
Fundamental a law that violates fundamental rights.
Rights ➢ The Right to Equality before Law and Right to Freedom of Religion are for both,
citizens as well as foreigners.
➢ The Fundamental Rights though justiciable are not absolute.
➢ The Constitution empowers the government to impose restrictions on our ights in
the interest of public good.
➢ Originally, Seven Fundamental Rights were enshrined in the Constitution of India.
➢ The Right to Property was removed from the list of fundamental rights by 44 th
Amendment Act.

47. With reference to Article 19, consider the following statements :

1. Citizens have the right to join, not join as well as obtain recognition for an association or union.
2. Freedom of Assembly includes the right to hold public meetings, demonstrations and strikes, but
not to conduct violent, disorderly, or riotous assemblies.
3. Freedom of Movement provides citizens the right to move freely within and outside the territory of
India.
Which of the statements given above are not correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Article 19 (1)(c) of the Indian Constitution says that, Every citizen has the right to form associations,
unions, or cooperative societies. This includes forming political parties, companies, partnerships, societies,
clubs, trade unions, or any group of people.
Citizens also have the right not to form or join any association or union. However, the State can impose
reasonable restrictions on this right to ensure, Sovereignty and integrity of India, Public order and Morality.
Subject to these restrictions, the citizens have complete liberty to form associations or unions to pursue
lawful objectives and purposes. However, the right to obtain recognition of the association is not a
fundamental right. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Article 19(1)(b) ensures the right to peacefully assemble and hold public meetings or processions without
arms. This right allows citizens to come together for various purposes, such as protests, demonstrations,
or discussions.
This freedom can be exercised only on public land, and the assembly must be peaceful and unarmed. This
provision does not protect violent, disorderly, riotous assemblies, one that causes a breach of public peace
or one that involves arms. This right does not include the right to strike.
The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of right of assembly on two grounds, namely,
sovereignty and integrity of India and public order including the maintenance of traffic in the area
concerned. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Article 19(1)(d) of the Constitution entitles every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of the
country. He can move freely from one State to another or from one place to another within a state.
The grounds for imposing reasonable restrictions on this freedom are two, namely, the interests of the
general public and the protection of the interests of any scheduled tribe.
Freedom of movement has two dimensions: internal (right to move inside the country) and external (right
to move out of the country and right to come back to the country). Article 19 protects only the first
dimension. The second dimension is dealt with by Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty). So,
Statement 3 is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ARTICLE 19 OF THE CONSTITUTION
About Article 19 guarantees to all citizens the six rights. Originally, Article 19 contained seven
rights. But, the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property was deleted by the 44 th
Amendment Act of 1978.
The six Freedom of Speech and Expression
rights are ➢ Citizens have the right to express their opinions freely using speech, writing, publishing,
or other methods.
➢ It includes freedom of the press and the right to information.
➢ Restrictions: Freedom is limited in the following cases:
• Security of the State
• Friendly relations with foreign states
• Public order
• Decency or morality
• Contempt of court
• Defamation
• Incitement to an offence
• Sovereignty and integrity of India
Freedom of Assembly
➢ Citizens have the right to assemble peacefully without arms under Article 19(1)(b).
➢ Includes the right to hold meetings and processions.
➢ Conditions:
• The assembly must be peaceful and unarmed.
• Reasonable restrictions can be imposed in the interest of public order.
Freedom to Form Associations
➢ Article 19(1)(c) gives citizens the right to form associations, unions, or cooperative
societies.
➢ Includes forming companies, societies, trade unions, political parties, and more.
➢ Also includes the right not to join an association.
➢ Restrictions:
• Reasonable limits can be imposed for public order, morality, or national sovereignty.
• Existing laws are valid if they do not violate this right.
Freedom of Movement
➢ Article 19(1)(d) allows citizens to move freely within India.
➢ Restrictions:
• Can be limited for public interest or protecting the rights of Scheduled Tribes.
• Citizens can travel anywhere within the country without restrictions.
Freedom of Residence
➢ Article 19(1)(e) ensures every citizen can live and settle anywhere in India.
➢ Restrictions:
• The State can impose limits for public interest or the protection of Scheduled Tribes.
• Ensures the removal of internal barriers for movement across states.
Freedom of Profession, Occupation, Trade, or Business
➢ Citizens can pursue any profession or occupation of their choice.
➢ Restrictions:
• Reasonable restrictions can be imposed for public interest.
• The State can:
✓ Set qualifications for certain professions.
✓ Run businesses or industries as monopolies, even excluding citizens.
• Professions involving immoral or dangerous activities (e.g., trafficking, drugs) can be
prohibited or regulated.

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48. Consider the following pairs :

Sl.No. Places in news Country
1. Galkynysh gas field - Ukraine
2. Bekaa Valley - Turkmenistan
3. Donetsk - Lebanon
4. Novorossiisk port - Russia
How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Afghanistan Tapi pipeline running through Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India will see
around 33 billion cubic metres of natural gas each year extracted from the Galkynysh gas field in
southeast Turkmenistan. It will be pumped through a 1,800km (1,120-mile) pipeline traversing
Afghanistan, including Herat and Kandahar in the south, before crossing into restive Balochistan province
in Pakistan and ending in Fazilka in Punjab. Pakistan and India will each purchase 42% of the gas
deliveries, and Afghanistan 16%, while Kabul will also benefit from lucrative transit fees of around $500
million per year.
Galkynysh Gas Field - formerly known as Lolotan gas field or South Yoloten – Osman field, is a large natural
gas field near Yoloten in Mary Province of Turkmenistan. It is the world's second-largest gas field. It is
located 75km south-east of the provincial capital Mary in Turkmenistan and about 400km south-east of
the capital Ashgabat, and it is a subsidiary company controlled by State Consern (SC) Turkmengas, the
state-owned National Gas Company of Turkmenistan. So, Pair 1 is not correct.
Bekaa valley, broad valley of central Lebanon, extending in a northeast-southwest direction for 75 miles
(120 km) along the Litani and Orontes rivers, between the Lebanon Mountains to the west and Anti-
Lebanon Mountains to the east. The valley contains nearly half of Lebanon’s arable land but is not as
intensively farmed as the country’s coastal plain because of less rainfall and a wider variation in
temperature. Crops grown in that mostly dry-farmed area are grains, with fruits and vegetables of
secondary importance. Cannabis has also long been cultivated there, contributing to the valley’s reputation
as one of the largest drug-producing centres in the world.
Recently, 60 people have been killed in Israeli attacks on Lebanon's eastern Bekaa Valley. So, Pair 2 is
not correct.
Donetsk, city, southeastern Ukraine, on the headwaters of the Kalmius River. It is the capital of Donetsk
oblast (province) and the most prominent city in the Donets Basin (Donbas) industrial region. With the
collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991, Donetsk became a major industrial engine of the economy of
independent Ukraine. Coal has been Donetsk’s dominant industry, though it has undergone decline. The
centre of the iron and steel industry is the Donetsk Metallurgical Plant.
Recently, Russian forces took control of two more settlements in eastern Ukraine’s Donetsk region. So,
Pair 3 is not correct.
Novorossiysk, city, Krasnodar kray (territory), southwestern Russia. It lies at the head of Tsemes Bay on
the northeastern coast of the Black Sea. Founded as a fortress in 1838, it developed as a seaport, especially
after the coming of the railway in 1888. In pre-Revolutionary days Novorossiysk was the largest grain-
exporting port of Russia after Odessa. It is still a major Russian port on the Black Sea, with a naval base,
shipbuilding yards, a refrigeration plant, grain elevators, and an oil-pipeline terminal. Novorossiysk is now
one of the largest producers of cement in Russia.
Recently, Strike drones attacked the port in the city of Novorossiysk, where Russian Navy ships are
based. So, Pair 4 is correct.

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49. With reference to Indian Federalism, consider the following statements :

1. Indian federal polity divides the legislative, executive, and judicial power between the Centre and
the states.
2. It ensures regional autonomy to the states under normal circumstances but transitions to a
unitary structure during emergencies to safeguard national integrity.
3. Dual polity and a bicameral Union Parliament are considered federal features of the Indian
Constitution.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre and the states in terms of the Union List, State
List and Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule. The Union List consists of 98 subjects (originally 97), the
State List 59 subjects (originally 66) and the Concurrent List 52 subjects (originally 47). Both the Centre
and the states can make laws on the subjects of the concurrent list, but in case of a conflict, the Central
law prevails. The residuary subjects (ie, which are not mentioned in any of the three lists) are given to the
Centre.
The Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top
and the state high courts below it. This single system of courts enforces both the Central laws as well as
the state laws.
Therefore, the constitution has not divided the judicial power between the centre and the state. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government in the country. The framers adopted
the federal system due to two main reasons–the large size of the country and its sociocultural diversity.
They realised that the federal system not only ensures the efficient governance of the country but also
reconciles national unity with regional autonomy to the states.
But during an emergency, the Central government becomes all powerful and the states go into the total
control of the Centre. It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of
the Constitution. This kind of transformation is not found in any other federation. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting the Union at the Centre and the states at the periphery.
Each is endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the
Constitution. The Union government deals with the matters of national importance like defence, foreign
affairs, currency, communication and so on. The state governments, on the other hand, look after the
matters of regional and local importance like public order, agriculture, health, local government and so on.
The Constitution provides for a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Rajya Sabha) and a
Lower House (Lok Sabha). The Rajya Sabha represents the states of Indian Federation, while the Lok Sabha
represents the people of India as a whole. The Rajya Sabha (even though a less powerful chamber) is
required to maintain the federal equilibrium by protecting the interests of the states against the undue
interference of the Centre.
Therefore, dual polity and Bicameral union parliament are considered as federal features of the Indian
Constitution. So, Statement 3 is correct.

50. Consider the following statements :

Statement I :
The Centre can delegate its executive powers to states only with the consent of the state
government.
Statement II :
The delegation of functions avoids deadlock out of rigid division of power between the Centre and
the state.
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Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
EXPLANATION:
➢ The President may, with the consent of the state government, entrust to that government any of the
executive functions of the Centre. Conversely, the governor of a state may, with the consent of the
Central government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the state. This mutual
delegation of administrative functions may be conditional or unconditional.
➢ The Constitution also makes a provision under Article 258 for the entrustment of the executive
functions of the Centre to a state without the consent of that state. But, in this case, the delegation is
by the Parliament and not by the president.
➢ Thus, a law made by the Parliament on a subject of the Union List can confer powers and impose duties
on a state, or authorise the conferring of powers and imposition of duties by the Centre upon a state
(irrespective of the consent of the state concerned).
➢ Notably, the same thing cannot be done by the state legislature.
Therefore, Centre can delegate its executive powers to states without the consent of the state government
by constitutional provision. So, Statement I is not correct.
The distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the states is rigid. Consequently, the Centre
cannot delegate its legislative powers to the states and a single state cannot request the Parliament to make
a law on a state subject. The distribution of executive power in general follows the distribution of legislative
powers. But, such a rigid division in the executive sphere may lead to occasional conflicts between the two.
Hence, the Constitution provides for inter-government delegation of executive functions in order to mitigate
rigidity and avoid a situation of deadlock. So, Statement II is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
COORDINATION BETWEEN THE CENTRE AND THE STATES
About The Constitution contains the following provisions to secure cooperation and coordination between
the Centre and the states:
➢ The Parliament can provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to
the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley (Under Article
262).
➢ The President can establish (under Article 263) an Inter-State Council to investigate and
discuss subject of common interest between the Centre and the states. Such a council was set
up in 1990.
➢ Article 261 in the constitution of India provides full faith and credit is to be given throughout
the territory of India to public acts, records and judicial proceedings of the Centre and every
state.
➢ Under Article 307, The Parliament can appoint an appropriate authority to carry out the
purposes of the constitutional provisions relating to the interstate freedom of trade, commerce
and intercourse. But, no such authority has been appointed so far.

51. With reference to inter-governmental taxation immunity, consider the following statements :
1. Properties of the Centre used for both sovereign and commercial purposes are exempted from
state taxation.
2. The income of state and local bodies from sovereign functions or commercial functions is
exempted from central taxation.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
According to the Article 285 in the Constitution of India, the property of Centre is exempted from all taxes
imposed by a state or any authority within a state like municipalities, district boards, panchayats and so
on. But, the Parliament is empowered to remove this ban.
The word ‘property’ includes lands, buildings, chattels, shares, debts, everything that has a money value,
and every kind of property-movable or immovable and tangible or intangible. Further, the property may be
used for sovereign (like armed forces) or commercial purposes.
The corporations or the companies created by the Central government are not immune from state taxation
or local taxation. The reason is that a corporation or a company is a separate legal entity. So, Statement
1 is correct.
According to the Article 289 in the Constitution of India, the property and income of a state is exempted
from Central taxation. Such income may be derived from sovereign functions or commercial functions. But
the Centre can tax the commercial operations of a state if Parliament so provides. However, the Parliament
can declare any particular trade or business as incidental to the ordinary functions of the government and
it would then not be taxable.
Notably, the property and income of local authorities situated within a state are not exempted from the
Central taxation. Similarly, the property or income of corporations and companies owned by a state can be
taxed by the Centre.
Therefore, the income of local bodies from sovereign functions or commercial functions is not exempted
from central taxation. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

52. Consider the following statements :

1. Steel is a deregulated sector in India.
2. India is completely self-sufficient in steel production.
3. The Green Steel Mission mandates the purchase of green steel by government agencies.
4. The greening of the steel sector is a component of the National Green Hydrogen Mission.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Steel is a deregulated sector. The government of India acts as a facilitator by creating a conducive policy
environment for the development of the steel sector. Steel companies can select and acquire technologies
based on their techno-economic and techno-commercial parameters to produce the desired quality of steel.
Steel plants are set up by steel companies based on market dynamics, raw material logistics, and other
commercial considerations. So, Statement 1 is correct.
India has become the world's second-largest crude steel producer and is expected to become the second-
largest consumer soon; the nation is still far from being self-sufficient when it comes to the production of
high-grade steel.
The steel sector is marked by the limited availability of essential raw materials (such as high-grade lumpy
manganese ore and chromite, coking coal, steel-grade limestone, refractory raw materials, nickel, and
ferrous scrap).

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With this in perspective, the government has formulated the National Steel Policy 2017, with an aim to
create a technologically advanced and globally competitive steel industry that promotes economic growth.
And. achieve self-sufficiency in steel production So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Ministry of Steel is preparing a 'Green Steel Mission' with an estimated cost of Rs 15000 Crore for helping
the Steel Industry to reduce carbon emissions and progress towards the Net Zero Target. The Mission
includes the PLI Scheme for Green Steel, incentives for the use of renewable energy and mandates for
Government agencies to buy Green Steel. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has formulated a National Green Hydrogen Mission for
green hydrogen production and usage. Ministry of Steel is a stakeholder in the Mission and has awarded
two pilot projects to produce DRI using 100% Hydrogen in the vertical shaft and one pilot project to use
Hydrogen in the existing Blast Furnace to reduce coal/coke consumption under this Mission.
➢ The Ministry of Steel has taken steps to promote green steel in steel PSUs. The Ministry of Steel has
released a report titled "Greening the Steel Sector in India: Roadmap and Action Plan" in alignment
with the recommendations of the 14 Task Forces constituted by this Ministry for this purpose. This
report provides a comprehensive overview of the steel sector, discusses the various pathways for
the decarbonization of the steel sector and chalks out the strategy, action plan and roadmap for the
same. So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
NATIONAL GREEN HYDROGEN MISSION
Recently in The Union Cabinet approved the National Green Hydrogen Mission on 4th January
news 2023, with an outlay of ₹ 19,744 crore. The overarching objective of the Mission is to
make India a Global Hub for the production, usage and export of Green Hydrogen and
its derivatives by targeting the production of 5 MMT per annum of Green Hydrogen by
2030.
About The National Green Hydrogen Mission aims to provide a comprehensive action plan for
establishing a Green Hydrogen ecosystem and catalyzing a systemic response to the
opportunities and challenges in this sunrise sector.
➢ Green Hydrogen, produced using renewable energy, has the potential to play a key
role in such low-carbon and self-reliant economic pathways.
➢ Green Hydrogen can enable the utilization of domestically abundant renewable
energy resources across regions, seasons, and sectors, feeding multiple usage
streams, either as a fuel or as an industrial feedstock. It can directly replace fossil
fuel-derived feedstocks in petroleum refining, fertilizer production, steel
manufacturing, etc.
➢ Hydrogen-fueled long-haul automobiles and marine vessels can enable
decarbonization of the mobility sector.
➢ Green Hydrogen can be particularly useful as a versatile energy carrier for meeting
the energy requirements of remote geographies, including islands, in a sustainable
manner.
Objectives Export opportunity
➢ A global demand of over 100 MMT of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives, like Green
Ammonia, is expected to emerge by 2030. Aiming at about 10 per cent of the global
market, India can potentially export about 10 MMT of Green Hydrogen/Green
Ammonia per annum.
Expected investment & Clean jobs
➢ The production capacity targeted by 2030 is likely to leverage over ₹8 lakh crore in
total investments and create over 6 lakh jobs.
Emission Reduction Target

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➢ Nearly 50 MMT per annum of CO2 emissions are expected to be averted as a result
of the various Green Hydrogen initiatives under the Mission.
Fossil import reduction targets
➢ Achievement of Mission targets is expected to contribute to India's energy security
and reduce a cumulative ₹1 lakh crore worth of fossil fuel imports by 2030.
Indian steel ➢ India is the world's second-largest producer of crude steel, with an output of 125.32
industry MT of crude steel and finished steel production of 121.29 MT in FY23.
➢ India's domestic steel demand is estimated to grow by 9-10% in FY25, as per ICRA.
➢ India's steel production is estimated to grow 4-7% to 123-127 MT in FY24.
Green steel Green steel is the manufacturing of steel without the use of fossil fuels. However, there
are several proposed definitions and standards for green steel, which makes it difficult
to have a shared definition. "Green steel" can refer to low embodied carbon, near zero
embodied carbon, net zero embodied carbon, 100 per cent recycled content, ethically
sourced, or responsible steel.

53. With reference to impeachment of Judge, consider the following statements :

1. A removal motion must be supported by majority of the total membership and not less than two-
thirds majority of the members present and voting in the House.
2. A judge can only be removed only on the grounds of gross violation of constitution under the
Article 124.
3. The process of impeachment has never been initiated in India since the commencement of the
Constitution.
How many of the above statements is/are not correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Under Article 124, a judge of the Supreme Court and High Court (Article 217) can be removed from his
office by an order of the President. The President can issue the removal order after an address by the
Parliament. The motion to remove the Judge must be supported by a special majority of each House of
Parliament. A special majority is a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of at least
two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Articles 124 and 217 of the Constitution provide that a judge of the Supreme Court/High Court shall be
removed by the President on the grounds of ‘proved misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity’. The Constitution does
not define the terms ‘proved misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity.’ The Supreme Court has opined in various cases
that wilful misconduct in office, corruption, lack of integrity or any other offence involving moral turpitude
would constitute misbehaviour. Incapacity here means a medical condition that may include physical or
mental incapacity.
Thus, the President can be removed from office through a process of impeachment for ‘violation of the
Constitution’. However, the Constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase ‘violation of the
Constitution’. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Impeachment proceedings were initiated against a Supreme Court or High Court Judge 4 times in the
history of the Supreme Court of India.
It is interesting to know that no supreme court judge has been impeached so far. The first case of
impeachment is that of Justice V. Ramaswami of the Supreme Court (1991–1993). Though the enquiry
Committee found him guilty of misbehaviour, he could not be removed as the impeachment motion was
defeated in the Lok Sabha. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SUPREME COURT JUDGE
Tenure The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the Supreme Court. However, it
makes the following three provisions in this regard:
➢ He holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any question regarding his age
is to be determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by
Parliament.
➢ He can resign by writing to the President.
➢ He can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the
Parliament.
The Judges The Act regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court
Enquiry Act by the process of impeachment:
(1968) ➢ A removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members
(in the case of Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/ Chairman.
➢ The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it.
➢ If it is admitted, then the Speaker/ Chairman is to constitute a three-member
committee to investigate the charges.
➢ The committee should consist of (a) the chief justice or a judge of the Supreme Court,
(b) a chief justice of a high court, and (c) a distinguished jurist.
➢ If the committee finds the Judge to be guilty of misbehaviour or suffering from an
incapacity, the House can take up the consideration of the motion.
➢ After the motion is passed by each House of Parliament by a special majority, an
address is presented to the President for removal of the Judge.

54. Consider the following statements :

1. Dispute arising out of pre-Constitutional treaties, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanads, or
other similar instruments.
2. Ordinary dispute of commercial nature between the Centre and the States.
3. Inter-state water disputes.
4. Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the states.
The original jurisdiction of the supreme court does not extend to how many of the above statements?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) All four
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Article 141 declares that the law laid down by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the
territory of India. The jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court can be classified as Original
Jurisdiction, Writ Jurisdiction, Appellate Jurisdiction, Advisory Jurisdiction, A Court of Record, Power of
Judicial Review, Constitutional Interpretation, and other Powers.
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following:
➢ A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other
similar instrument.
➢ A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which specifically provides that the said jurisdiction
does not extend to such a dispute.
➢ Inter-state water disputes.
➢ Matters referred to the Finance commission.
➢ Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the states.
➢ Ordinary dispute of a commercial nature between the Centre and the states.
➢ Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre. So, Option (c) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
JURISDICTION OF THE SUPREME COURT
About The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction.
➢ Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of
India and one or more States or between the Government of India and any State or
States on one side and one or more States on the other or between two or more States,
if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or fact) on which the
existence or extent of a legal right depends.
➢ The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be invoked by a certificate granted
by the High Court concerned under Article 132(1), 133(1) or 134 of the Constitution in
respect of any judgement, decree or final order of a High Court in both civil and criminal
cases, involving substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
➢ The Supreme Court also has a very wide appellate jurisdiction over all Courts and
Tribunals in India in as much as it may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal
under Article 136 of the Constitution from any judgment, decree, determination,
sentence or order in any cause or matter passed or made by any Court or Tribunal in
the territory of India.
➢ The Supreme Court has special advisory jurisdiction in matters which may specifically
be referred to it by the President of India under Article 143 of the Constitution. There
are provisions for reference or appeal to this Court under Article 317(1) of the
Constitution and other statutes. Election Petitions under Part III of the Presidential and
Vice Presidential Elections Act, 1952, are also filed directly in the Supreme Court.

55. With reference to the High Courts, consider the following statements :
1. The power of superintendence of a high court includes both administrative and judicial
superintendence
2. In the Chandan Kumar case (1997), the Supreme Court ruled that the writ jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court and High court are part of the basic structure.
3. Second appeals from the orders and judgements of district court or other subordinate courts lie
to the High court in cases involving questions of law and fact.
4. Only a few High courts in India have the provision for intra-court appeals.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) All four
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
A high court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial
jurisdiction (except military courts or tribunals). This power of superintendence of a high court is very broad
because,
➢ it extends to all courts and tribunals whether they are subject to the appellate jurisdiction of the high
court or not;
➢ it covers not only administrative superintendence but also judicial superintendence;
➢ it is a revisional jurisdiction; and
➢ it can be suo-motu (on its own) and not necessarily on the application of a party.
However, this power does not vest the high court with any unlimited authority over the subordinate courts
and tribunals. It is an extraordinary power and hence has to be used most sparingly and only in appropriate
cases.
Therefore, the power of superintendence of a high court includes both administrative and judicial
superintendence. So, Statement 1 is correct.

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The writ jurisdiction of the high court (under Article 226) is not exclusive but concurrent with the writ
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (under Article 32). It means, when the fundamental rights of a citizen are
violated, the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the high court or the Supreme Court directly.
However, the writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. This is because,
the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for any other
purpose, that is, it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged.
In the Chandra Kumar case9 (1997), the Supreme Court ruled that the writ jurisdiction of both the high
court and the Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot
be ousted or excluded even by way of an amendment to the Constitution. So, Statement 2 is correct.
A high court is primarily a court of appeal. It hears appeals against the judgements of subordinate courts
functioning in its territorial jurisdiction. It has appellate jurisdiction in both civil and criminal matters.
The civil appellate jurisdiction of a high court is as follows
➢ First appeals from the orders and judgements of the district courts, additional district courts and other
subordinate courts lie directly to the high court, on both questions of law and fact, if the amount exceeds
the stipulated limit.
➢ Second appeals from the orders and judgements of the district court or other subordinate courts lie to
the high court in the cases involving questions of law only (and not questions of fact). So, Statement 3
is not correct.
The Calcutta, Bombay and Madras High Courts have provision for intra-court appeals. When a single judge
of the high court has decided a case (either under the original or appellate jurisdiction of the high court),
an appeal from such a decision lies to the division bench of the same high court.
Thus, only few high courts have the provision for intra-court appeals. So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
JURISDICTION AND POWERS OF HIGH COURT
Original It means the power of a high court to hear disputes in the first instance, not by way of
jurisdiction appeal. It extends to the following:
➢ Matters of admirality and contempt of court.
➢ Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures.
➢ Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection.
➢ Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens.
➢ Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation
of the Constitution to its own file.
➢ The four high courts (i.e., Calcutta, Bombay, Madras and Delhi High Courts) have
original civil jurisdiction in cases of higher value.
Before 1973, the Calcutta, Bombay and Madras High Courts also had original criminal
jurisdiction. This was fully abolished by the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.
Writ ➢ Article 226 of the Constitution empowers a high court to issue writs including habeas
Jurisdiction corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo warranto for the enforcement of
the fundamental rights of the citizens and for any other purpose.
➢ The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ refers to the enforcement of an ordinary legal right.
➢ The high court can issue writs to any person, authority and government not only
within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause
of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.
➢ The writ jurisdiction of the high court (under Article 226) is not exclusive but
concurrent with the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (under Article 32).
Control over ➢ In addition to its appellate jurisdiction and supervisory jurisdiction over the
Subordinate subordinate courts as mentioned above, a high court has
Courts an administrative control and other powers over them. These include the following:

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• It is consulted by the governor in the matters of appointment, posting and promotion

of district judges and in the appointments of persons to the judicial service of the
state (other than district judges).
• It deals with the matters of posting, promotion, grant of leave, transfers and discipline
of the members of the judicial service of the state (other than district judges).
• It can withdraw a case pending in a subordinate court if it involves a substantial
question of law that require the interpretation of the Constitution. It can then either
dispose of the case itself or determine the question of law and return the case to the
subordinate court with its judgement.
• Its law is binding on all subordinate courts functioning within its territorial
jurisdiction in the same sense as the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding
on all courts in India.

56. With reference to bio-bitumen, consider the following statements :

1. It can be used in construction of roads.
2. Its use can increase air pollution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Bio-bitumen is a petroleum-free alternative to bitumen or asphalt. It’s made using non-petroleum-based
renewable resources and can be made from vegetable oils, synthetic polymers, or both, making it a more
sustainable model in the long term. Bio-bitumen has many benefits compared to traditional asphalt. For
example, it doesn’t use any petroleum products in its production, so it’s more environmentally friendly
than traditional asphalt. It also doesn’t contain any toxic chemicals, so it’s safer for workers and the
environment.
Bio-bitumen can be used in road construction. It’s made from waste materials and other natural products
and designed to lower the carbon footprint of road construction. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Lignin is a structural polymer in plants and trees that is released as a waste product from a number of
industrial processes.
The use of lignin in bio-bitumen results in a significant reduction in carbon emissions. When crop residues
like rice straw or wheat husk are converted into bio-bitumen, they help mitigate the environmental impacts
associated with agricultural waste burning, which contributes to air pollution and greenhouse gas
emissions. Studies suggest that lignin-based bio-bitumen can reduce emissions by at least 70% compared
to traditional petroleum-based bitumen. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
BIO-BITUMEN
Recently in Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways inaugurated India’s first bio-bitumen-
news based National Highway stretch.
The highway, located on NH-44 in Mansar, Nagpur, Maharashtra, marks a significant
milestone in sustainable road infrastructure. This pioneering project uses bio-bitumen,
an eco-friendly alternative to traditional bitumen, enhancing the durability and
sustainability of the highway.
About ➢ Bio-bitumen is a type of asphalt mixture that is made with lignins from various waste
streams.
➢ Lignins are polymeric biopolymers that can be found in the cell walls of plants.

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➢ They provide structure to the plant and help it grow. When these lignins are blended
with other polymers, such as bitumen and sulfur, they form a binding agent that
can be used in asphalt.
➢ This is called bio-asphalt or bio-bitumen, and it has many benefits over conventional
asphalt.
➢ Bio-bitumen is created from waste by heating waste mixtures at around 500°C
without oxygen. In the production of biofuels, this process is called pyrolysis, which
is the same as making charcoal and biochar.
➢ lignin-based bio-bitumen is poised to transform the road construction sector by
replacing petroleum-based bitumen with a greener alternative.
➢ Complex organic polymer lignin is found in the cell walls of plants, primarily in
agricultural residues such as wheat straw, rice husk, and corn stalks.
➢ Traditionally, bitumen used in road construction is derived from petroleum, a non-
renewable resource. However, lignin-based bio-bitumen is produced by extracting
lignin from these agricultural residues and refining it into a sustainable binder for
asphalt.
➢ This bio-bitumen serves as a direct replacement for petroleum-based bitumen,
blending well with conventional asphalt to improve its properties while reducing
reliance on fossil fuels.
Benefits ➢ Sustainable and Renewable: Unlike petroleum-based bitumen, which is sourced
from fossil fuels, lignin-based bio-bitumen is derived from agricultural by-products,
making it a renewable resource. Its production helps reduce waste from farming,
addressing environmental concerns like stubble burning.
➢ Enhanced Road Durability and Strength: Bio-bitumen is known for its superior
bonding properties and resistance to cracking, making it ideal for high-traffic roads
that require long- term durability. It has also shown resistance to aging, meaning
roads constructed with it will require less maintenance over time, reducing long-
term upkeep costs. Studies have shown that roads constructed with lignin-based
bio-bitumen can be up to 40% stronger than traditional asphalt roads, offering better
resistance to wear and tear.
➢ Cost-Effective: As bio-bitumen reduces dependence on expensive imported
petroleum-based bitumen, it offers potential cost savings for road construction. The
use of locally available agricultural residues as raw materials can lower the overall
production cost, making it a more affordable option for large-scale infrastructure
projects. By replacing even a small percentage of conventional bitumen with lignin-
based bio-bitumen, India could save substantial amounts on import costs.
➢ Improved Performance in Extreme Weather Conditions: Lignin-based bio-
bitumen has been shown to perform better than conventional bitumen in extreme
weather conditions, such as heavy rainfall or intense heat, making it particularly
effective for regions that experience harsh climate conditions.
➢ Waste-to-Wealth: Agricultural residues, which would otherwise be discarded or
burned, are transformed into valuable bio-bitumen, promoting a circular economy
that supports both sustainable agriculture and infrastructure development.
➢ Energy Independence: By leveraging locally sourced biomass to produce bio-
bitumen, countries can reduce their dependence on petroleum, making their
infrastructure development more energy-independent and resilient to fluctuations
in global oil prices.

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57. Consider the following statements:

1. Zero hour
2. Half-an-Hour Discussion
3. Question Hour
4. Short Duration Discussion
5. Calling Attention motion
How many of the above were introduced in the Parliamentary process after the first general assembly
election in 1952 ?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
EXPLANATION:
Zero Hour is an Indian parliamentary innovation. The phrase is not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
The concept of Zero Hour started organically in the first decade of the Indian Parliament. It is an Indian
innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962. Unlike the
question hour, the zero Hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Thus, it is an informal device
available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice, which was introduced
in 1962. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Half an hour discussion is meant for discussing a matter of sufficient public importance, which has been
subjected to a lot of debate and the answer to which needs elucidation on a matter of fact. The Speaker
can allot three days a week for such discussions. There is no formal motion or voting before the House. It
was introduced in 1952 after the first general election. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Question Hour is the liveliest Hour in Parliament. It is during this one Hour that members of Parliament
ask ministers questions and hold them accountable for the functioning of their ministries. The questions
that MPs ask are designed to elicit information and trigger suitable action by ministries.
Question hour was introduced in the Parliamentary process on 14 July 1952, after the first general
election. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Short Duration Discussion is also known as a two-hour discussion, as the time allotted for such a
discussion should not exceed two hours. The members of the Parliament can hold such discussions on
matters of urgent public importance. The Speaker can allot two days a week for such discussions. There is
neither a formal motion before the House nor voting. This device has been in existence since 1953.
Therefore, a short-duration discussion was introduced after the first general assembly election. So,
Statement 4 is correct.
A calling Attention motion is introduced in Parliament by a member to call the attention of a minister to a
matter of urgent public importance and seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter. Like the
zero Hour, it is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and has been in existence since
1954. However, unlike the zero Hour, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. So, Statement 5 is
correct.

58. Consider the following statements :

Statement I :
The Constitution of India under Article 244 envisages a special system of administration for
scheduled areas.
Statement II :
These areas are inhabited by tribals who have not assimilated much into the life of the mainstream
population and have their roots in their own culture and civilizations.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I.

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(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
EXPLANATION:
Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain areas
designated as 'scheduled areas' and 'tribal areas'. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the
administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on the other hand, deals
with the administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
and Mizoram.
The areas inhabited by tribal people have been treated differently from the other areas in the country
because they are inhabited by 'aboriginals' who are socially and economically rather backwards, and
special efforts need to be made to improve their condition. They have not assimilated much into the lives
and ways of the other people in the country. These areas have hitherto been anthropological specimens.
The tribal people still have their roots in their own culture, customs and civilization. These areas are,
therefore, treated differently by the Constitution, and a sizeable amount of autonomy has been given to
these people for self-government. This special system of administration is designed to protect their unique
cultural identity and ensure their welfare.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement I.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SCHEDULED AND TRIBAL AREAS
Recently in The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes has issued notices to the Centre and the
News West Bengal government, seeking factual and action-taken reports on the issues of child
marriage, human trafficking, human-wildlife conflict and corruption plaguing the state's
Sundarbans region.
The tribal population (2,11,927) in the region, comprising primarily the Munda, Santhal,
Bhumij and Oraon tribes, remains marginalized despite being the earliest settlers.
About Part X of the Constitution lays down special provisions for the administration of
Scheduled and Tribal Areas, such as the setting up of Tribes Advisory Councils and
Autonomous District Councils.
➢ Article 244 (1): The provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the administration
and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any State other than
the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
➢ Article 244 (2): The provisions of the Sixth Schedule shall apply to the administration
of the tribal areas in the States of Assam Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Fifth Schedule ➢ About: It shall apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and
Scheduled Tribes in any State other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
➢ Purpose: To protect the interests and rights of the tribals in their land, habitat and
economy. To preserve the communities' customs and traditions and to ensure a
faster socio-economic development in the "Scheduled Areas".
➢ Application: Scheduled areas are predominantly inhabited by tribes specified as
"Scheduled Tribes" and located in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Bihar,
Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand,
Maharashtra, Orissa and Rajasthan
➢ Power: The President has the authority to declare any area as a Scheduled Area or
renounce a Scheduled Area or part of a Scheduled Area as a non-scheduled Area in
consultation with the Governor of the concerned State

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➢ Special mechanism: The Tribal Advisory Council is constituted by the Governor of

a State, which has Scheduled Areas to deal with the welfare and advancement of
Scheduled tribes in states.
Sixth Schedule ➢ About: It shall apply to the administration of the tribal areas in Assam Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram.
➢ Purpose: Considering the distinct life and outlook of the tribals in the Northeast
(erstwhile State of Assam), the Constituent Assembly recognized the necessity of a
separate administrative structure for the tribals in the region.
➢ Application: Currently, there are 10 Autonomous District Councils in North East
➢ Power: The Governor of the State is empowered to determine the area or areas as
administrative units of the Autonomous Districts and Autonomous Regions.
➢ Special mechanism: Autonomous District Councils and Regional Councils
endowed with certain legislative, executive, judicial and financial powers
Scheduled The criteria followed for declaring any area as a "Scheduled Area" under the Fifth
Area Schedule are as follows:
➢ The preponderance of the tribal population,
➢ The compactness and reasonable size of the area,
➢ A viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk and
➢ Economic backwardness of the area as compared to the neighbouring areas.

59. With respect to Autonomous District Councils (ADC), consider the following statements :
1. The members of the ADC are partially nominated and partially elected from the members of the
State Legislative Assembly.
2. The State Legislative Assembly can empower the ADCs to constitute village council for the trial of
suits and cases between tribes.
3. The laws made by the ADCs on specific subjects, such as forest and marriage, require the assent
of the Governor in Assam and the President in Mizoram, Tripura and Meghalaya.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Autonomous District Councils are constitutional devices that cover an entire tribal district, which may
consist of more tribes than one. An Autonomous Regional Council covers a specific tribe within (a region)
of such a district. An Autonomous Regional Council within a District can be elevated to an Autonomous
District Council.
Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, of whom four are nominated by
the Governor, and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise. The elected members hold
office for a term of five years (unless the council is dissolved earlier), and nominated members hold office
at the pleasure of the Governor. Therefore, the state legislature has no role in the election of the members
to the autonomous district council. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can constitute village councils or
courts for the trial of suits and cases between the tribes. They hear appeals from them. The Governor
specifies the jurisdiction of the high court over these suits and cases.
Therefore, the State Legislative Assembly has no role in constituting a village council for the trial of suits
and cases between tribes. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Sixth Schedule in the constitution deals with the Provisions for the Administration of Tribal Areas in
the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

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The district and regional councils administer the areas under their jurisdiction. They can make laws on
certain specified matters like land, forests, canal water, shifting cultivation, village administration,
inheritance of property, marriage and divorce, social customs and so on. But all such laws require the
assent of the Governor.
Therefore, all four states, Mizoram, Assam, Tripura and Meghalaya, require the assent of the Governor for
the laws made by the ADCs on specific subjects, such as land, forest and marriage. So, Statement 3 is
not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ADMINISTRATIVE FEATURES IN THE SIXTH SCHEDULE
About Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution envisages a special system of administration for
certain areas designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’. The Sixth Schedule of
the Constitution, on the other hand, deals with the administration of the tribal areas in
the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Features ➢ The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have
been constituted as autonomous districts. But, they do not fall outside the executive
authority of the state concerned.
➢ The Governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the autonomous districts.
Thus, he can increase or decrease their areas, change their names, define their
boundaries and so on.
➢ If there are different tribes in an autonomous district, the Governor can divide the
district into several autonomous regions.
➢ The district council can establish, construct or manage primary schools,
dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the district. It can also
make regulations for the control of money lending and trading by non-tribals. But,
such regulations require the assent of the Governor.
➢ The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue
and to impose certain specified taxes.
➢ The acts of Parliament or the state legislature do not apply to autonomous districts
and autonomous regions or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
➢ The Governor can appoint a commission to examine and report on any matter relating
to the administration of the autonomous districts or regions. He may dissolve a
district or regional council on the recommendation of the commission.

60. With reference to Ken-Betwa Link Project, consider the following :

1. Enhanced irrigation facilities
2. Creation of employment
3. Additional green energy generation
4. Better drinking water facilities
How many of the above is/are benefits of the project ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Recently, the Prime Minister of India laid the foundation stone of the Ken- Betwa River Linking National
Project on (December 25), 2024, on the 100th birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari
Vajpayee.

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The KBLP envisages transferring water from the Ken River to the Betwa River, both tributaries of the
Yamuna. The Ken-Betwa Link Canal will be 221 km in length, including a 2-km tunnel. It is the first project
under the National Perspective Plan for the interlinking of rivers, which was prepared in 1980.
The benefits of the Ken-Betwa Link Project are as follows:
➢ This project will provide irrigation facilities to various districts in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh,
benefitting lakhs of farmer families.
➢ The project will also provide drinking water facilities to the people of the region.
➢ Along with this, hydropower projects will contribute more than 100 MW of green energy.
➢ The project will also create many employment opportunities and strengthen the rural economy. So,
Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
KEN-BETWA LINK PROJECT
About The idea of linking the Ken with the Betwa got a major push in August 2005, when a
tripartite memorandum of understanding for the preparation of a detailed project report
(DPR) was signed between the Centre and the two states. In 2008, the Centre declared
the KBLP a National Project.
➢ Later, it was included as part of the Prime Minister’s package for the development of
the drought-prone Bundelkhand region.
➢ Eventually, on March 22, 2021, a memorandum of agreement was signed between
the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the governments of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar
Pradesh to implement the Ken-Betwa Link Project.
History The original idea to interlink the rivers of India dates back to the 19th century. Arthur
Cotton, a British general and irrigation engineer, suggested interlinking the rivers for
improved irrigation and navigation. The intent was to solve the problem on a larger scale
in a country where flooding occurred in one region and droughts in another.
Based on Cotton’s idea, the Ministry of Jal Shakti (then the Ministry of Irrigation)
prepared a National Perspective Plan in 1980 for transferring water from surplus basins
to deficit basins.

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Yamuna Yamuna is a tributary of River Ganga. It has four main tributaries in the Himalayan
region: Rishi Ganga, Hanuman Ganga, Tons, and Giri. In the plains, the main tributaries
are Hindon, Chambal, Sind, Betwa and Ken. Tons is the largest tributary of Yamuna.
Other small tributaries of the Yamuna River include the Uttangan, Sengar and the Rind.
Phases of The Ken-Betwa Link Project has two phases. Phase I will involve building the Daudhan
Ken-Betwa Dam complex and its subsidiary units, such as the Low-Level Tunnel, High-Level
Link Project Tunnel, Ken-Betwa Link Canal, and powerhouses. Phase II will involve three
components: Lower Orr Dam, Bina Complex Project, and Kotha Barrage.
Interlinking The Government of India formulated a National Perspective Plan (NPP) in 1980 to
Projects under transfer water from water surplus basins to water deficit basins/areas.
the National Name State benefitted
Perspective ➢ Mahanadi (Manibhadra) – Godavari (Dowlaiswaram) link Andhra Pradesh and
Plan Odisha
➢ Godavari (Polavaram) – Krishna (Vijayawada) link Andhra Pradesh
➢ Godavari (Inchampalli) –Krishna (Nagarjunasagar) link Telangana
➢ Krishna (Almatti) – Pennar link Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
➢ Par-Tapi-Narmada link Maharashtra and Gujarat
➢ Bedti – Varda link Karnataka

61. Consider the following information :

Sl. Requirement for passing the
Process
No. motion
1. Impeachment of President - Majority of two-third of total
membership of both houses of the
parliament
2. Impeachment of Vice President - Majority of all the then members of
Rajya Sabha and simple majority in
Lok Sabha
3. Removal of Governor - Majority of two-third of total members
of State Legislative Assembly
4. No Confidence Motion - Majority of members of both houses of
the parliament
In how many of the above rows the given information is correctly matched ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Article 61 in the Constitution of India deals with the Procedure for impeachment of the President. As per
the article, the impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should
be signed by one-fourth of the members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14-day notice should
be given to the President.
After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of that
House, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges. The President has the right to
appear and to be represented in such an investigation. If the other House also sustains the charges and
passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the President
stands removed from his office from the date on which the resolution is so passed.
Therefore, a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of the houses is required for the removal of the
President. So, Pair (1) is correct.

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Article 67(b) in the Constitution of India deals with the removal of the vice president. According to the
article, the vice president is removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority
(i.e., the majority of all the then-members of the House) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple
majority. So, Pair (2) is correct.
The Constitution does not lay down any procedure for the removal of the Governor. The President appoints
the Governor and holds office “during the pleasure of the President”. If this pleasure is withdrawn before
the completion of the five-year term, the Governor has to step down. As the President works with the aid
and advice of the Prime Minister and the council of ministers, the Governor can be appointed and removed
by the central government. So, Pair 3 is not correct.
No-confidence motions and confidence motions are trust votes used to test or demonstrate the support of
Lok Sabha for the government in power. Article 75(3) of the Constitution states that the government is
collectively responsible to Lok Sabha. This means that the government must always enjoy the support of
a majority of the members of Lok Sabha. Trust votes are used to examine this support. The government
resigns if a majority of members support a no-confidence motion or reject a confidence motion.
Therefore, a No-confidence motion needs the support of the majority of the members of Lok Sabha. So,
Pair 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MOTIONS
About No discussion on a matter of general public importance can take place except on a motion
made with the consent of the presiding officer.
The House expresses its decisions or opinions on various issues through the adoption or
rejection of motions moved by either ministers or private members.
Categories The motions moved by the members to raise discussions on various matters fall into three
principal categories:
➢ Substantive Motion: It is a self-contained, independent proposal dealing with a very
important matter like impeachment of the President or removal of Chief Election
Commissioner.
➢ Substitute Motion: It is a motion that is moved in substitution of an original motion and
proposes an alternative to it. If adopted by the House, it supersedes the original motion.
➢ Subsidiary Motion: It is a motion that, by itself, has no meaning and cannot state the
decision of the House without reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House.
It is divided into three sub-categories:
• Ancillary Motion: It is used as the regular way of
proceeding with various kinds of business.
• Superseding Motion: It is moved in the course of debate on another issue, and it seeks
to supersede that issue.
• Amendment: It seeks to modify or substitute only a part of the original motion.

62. Consider the following statements :

1. It should raise matter of public importance.
2. It should not cover more than one matter.
3. It should not raise a question of privilege.
4. It should not deal with any matter that is under adjudication by a court.
5. Matters of recent occurrence should be stated in general terms.
How many of the above are mandatory features of the Adjournment motion ?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
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EXPLANATION:
Adjournment Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of
urgent public importance, and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. As it interrupts the normal
business of the House, it is regarded as an extraordinary device.
It involves an element of censure against the government and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make
use of this device. The discussion on an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and
thirty minutes.
The right to move a motion for an adjournment of the business of the House is subject to the following
restrictions:
➢ It should raise a matter which is definite, factual, urgent and of public importance. So, Statement 1
is correct.
➢ It should not cover more than one matter. So, Statement 2 is correct.
➢ It should be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence and should not be framed in general
terms. So, Statement 5 is not correct.
➢ It should not raise a question of privilege. So, Statement 3 is correct.
➢ It should not revive discussion on a matter that has been discussed in the same session
➢ It should not deal with any matter that is under adjudication by court. So, Statement 4 is correct.
➢ It should not raise any question that can be raised on a distinct motion.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MOTIONS IN PARLIAMENT
About Motions in Parliamentary Discussions:
➢ No discussion on matters of public importance can occur without the presiding officer’s
consent.
➢ The House makes decisions or expresses opinions through motions moved by ministers or
private members.
Categories of Motions:
➢ Substantive Motion: Independent proposals on significant matters like impeachment or
removal of officials.
➢ Substitute Motion: Replaces an original motion with an alternative, which, if adopted,
supersedes the original motion.
➢ Subsidiary Motion: Dependent on an original motion, further divided into:
• Ancillary Motion: Routine procedural motion.
• Superseding Motion: Interrupts ongoing debates to address a new issue.
• Amendment: Modifies or partially replaces an original motion.
Types ➢ Closure Motion – Used to cut short a debate in the House and put the matter to vote. The
of Types:
Motion • Simple Closure: Debate ends, and the matter is put to vote.
• Closure by Compartments: Clauses of a bill are grouped and voted on together.
• Kangaroo Closure: Only important clauses are debated; others are skipped and
considered passed.
• Guillotine Closure: All remaining clauses (discussed or not) are put to vote due to
lack of time.
➢ Privilege Motion – Used when a minister is accused of misleading the House by
withholding or distorting facts. It is meant to censure the minister.
➢ Calling Attention Motion – Allows a member to draw a minister’s attention to an urgent
public issue and seek a statement. Unique to Indian Parliament (since 1954).
➢ No-Confidence Motion – Under Article 75, the Lok Sabha can remove the government by
passing this motion. It requires the support of 50 members to be admitted.

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➢ Motion of Thanks – The President addresses Parliament at the start of each new session.
The government’s policies are discussed, and a Motion of Thanks is voted on.
• If the motion is not passed, it signifies defeat of the government.
• Members can debate and criticize government policies during this discussion.
These motions play a crucial role in ensuring accountability and smooth functioning of the
parliamentary system.

63. With reference to plea bargaining, consider the following statements :

1. It is a deal between the prosecutor and the accused by which the accused agrees to plead guilty
in exchange for a reduced sentence.
2. It is banned in India to protect natural justice and to ensure complete justice for the victim.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Plea bargaining is an agreement in a criminal case in which a prosecutor and an accused arrange to settle
the case against the accused. The accused agrees to plead guilty or no contest in exchange for some
concession from the prosecutor, such as a reduced or lesser category of charge or a reduced sentence. The
Law Commission of India advocated the introduction of plea bargaining.
For example, if Mr. X was accused of an offence for which the minimum punishment was, say, 6 years so
in such cases the court can reduce the offence to 3 years, i.e., half of such minimum punishment. The
notion of plea bargaining was first introduced in India in 2006. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Plea bargaining was incorporated into the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) in 2005 with the expectation
that it would streamline the judicial process by allowing accused persons to admit guilt in exchange for
leniency in sentencing.
The procedure, outlined in Chapter XXIA of the CrPC, applies only to offences punishable by up to seven
years of imprisonment, with further restrictions excluding cases involving crimes against women, children,
or socio-economic offences. Therefore, Plea bargaining is practiced in India. So, Statement 2 is not
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PLEA BARGAINING
About ➢ By breaking this term into two parts, we can more easily understand the meaning
of the term plea bargaining.
➢ In the context of this concept, the word 'plea' means "request" and the word
'bargaining' means "negotiation".
➢ It is based on the principle of 'Nolo Contendere, literally meaning 'I do not wish to
contend'.
➢ This explanation contains in itself various elements, like, firstly, that this concept
can only be used in the case of a criminal offence.
➢ In civil cases, the victim cannot make use of this tool.
➢ Secondly, the accused or defendant in this concept negotiates with the prosecutor.
➢ Thirdly, here, both parties make an agreement where the defendant promises that
he will plead his guilt in front of the court, and in return, the prosecutor makes
some concessions in his punishment and lessens his punishment to some extent.
➢ One thing that is to be noted is that in all this process, there is no active role for
the judge. He only has a supervisory role to play.

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Exceptions to ➢ Offences that are punishable with death, imprisonment of life, a term exceeding 7
plea bargaining years of imprisonment,
➢ Offences against women (like stalking or rape),
➢ Offences against children under the age of 14
➢ Offences that affect the socio-economic condition of a country (like food
adulteration or money laundering)
➢ Apart from this, where the court finds that a person has been convicted under the
same offence previously or that he (accused) has involuntarily filed the application
under this concept, the court can proceed further in accordance with the law from
the stage where such an application has been filed.

64. With reference to SVAGRIHA rating, consider the following statements :

1. It is an initiative by the Ministry of Power to promote sustainability among the masses.
2. The Kalughat Intermodal Terminal of Inland Waterways Authority of India has received a five star
SVAGRIHA rating.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
SVAGRIHA rating, which stands for Simple Versatile Affordable GRIHA, supports the concept of green
buildings and sustainability under Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA), a joint venture
of the Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (not the Ministry of Power) and Delhi-based The Energy
and Resources Institute (TERI).
➢ SVAGRIHA was conceived to spread the concept of green buildings and sustainability to small-scale
stakeholders, that is, owners of projects such as bungalows and small offices. It was developed as a
simple guidance-cum-rating tool to ramp up its adoption by the general masses and further minimize
the GHG emissions caused by small-scale constructions. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Intermodal Terminal (IMT) at Kalughat, Bihar, developed by the Inland Waterways Authority of India
(IWAI) under the Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP), has earned a prestigious five-star SVAGRIHA rating from
the GRIHA Council. This recognition highlights the terminal's environmentally sustainable design and
construction practices.
➢ The IMT at Kalughat stood out for its use of recyclable materials, such as fibre, glass, paints, and
sanitary fixtures, and its adherence to energy and waste management standards set by the GRIHA
Council. The terminal's construction incorporated sustainable site planning, optimized energy use,
water conservation measures, and solid waste management.
➢ This project, part of the World Bank-funded JMVP, is a significant step in IWAI's efforts to enhance
infrastructure along National Waterway 1 (River Ganga) for improved cargo and passenger movement
while ensuring environmental sustainability. So, Statement 2 is correct.

65. With reference to Scheduled Caste, consider the following statements :

1. Scheduled Caste form one homogeneous group and cannot be sub-categorized to prevent
weakening of their collective voice.
2. Article 341 of the Constitution empowers the President to include or exclude any caste from the
list of Scheduled Caste.
3. The proposal of State Government to add a community in the Scheduled Caste list must be
accepted by the Registrar General of India (RGI) and National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(NCSC).

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How many of the above statements are not correct ?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Recently, the Supreme Court ruled that states are empowered to make sub-classifications of Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes for granting quotas inside the reserved category to uplift more underprivileged
castes.
A seven-judge constitution bench headed by Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud held by a 6:1 majority that
the further sub-classification of SCs and STs by states can be permitted to ensure the grant of quota to
more backward castes inside these groups.
The court ruled that "Scheduled Castes are not a homogenous group and governments can sub-classify
them to give more weightage in 15% reservation to those who suffered more discrimination among SCs.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
According to Clause 1 of Article 341, The President, after consultation with the Governor, may, by public
notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or groups within castes, races or tribes which
shall for this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory,
as the case may be.
Clause 2 of Article 341 states that it is the Parliament (not the president) that includes or excludes any
caste from the list of Scheduled Castes, as mentioned in Clause 1.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
SCs and STs are specified under the provisions of Articles 341 & 342 of the Constitution of India,
respectively.
Further, the government laid down Modalities in June 1999, as amended in June 2002, to process
modifications in the lists of SCs and STs.
The Modalities envisage that only such proposals of the concerned State Governments/ Union Territory
Administrations, which have been agreed to by the Registrar General of India (RGI) and National
Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), in the case of SCs and RGI & National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes (NCST) in the case of STs, are further processed in accordance with provisions of clause
(2) of Articles 341 and 342 respectively.
The inclusion of communities/ castes in the Central List of OBCs is done on the advice of the National
Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) as envisaged in Section (9) of the NCBC Act, 1993. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SCHEDULED TRIBES IN INDIA
About ➢ The Constitution of India in Article 366 (25) prescribes that the Scheduled Tribes
means such tribes or tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 of the
Constitution to be Scheduled Tribes.
➢ There are over 700 tribes (with overlapping communities in more than one State)
which have been notified under Article 342 of the Constitution of India, spread
over different States and Union Territories of the country. The most significant
number of main tribal communities (62) has been specified in relation to the State
of Orissa.
➢ The Scheduled Tribes have been specified in relation to all the States and Union
Territories except Haryana, Punjab, Chandigarh, Delhi, and Pondicherry.
Constitutional ➢ Article 164(1) provides that in the States of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya
provisions for Pradesh and Orissa, there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may,

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the development in addition, be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and backward
of STs classes or any other work.
➢ Article 243D provides reservation of Seats for Scheduled Tribes in Panchayats.
➢ Article 330 provides reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in the House of the
People.
➢ Article 332 provides reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in Legislative
Assemblies of the States.
➢ Article 334 provides that reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes in the Lok Sabha and the State Vidhan Sabhas (and the representation of
the Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha and the State Vidhan Sabhas by
nomination) would continue up to January, 2020.
➢ Article 371A has special provisions with respect to the State of Nagaland.
➢ Article 371B has special provisions with respect to the State of Assam.
➢ Article 371C has special provisions with respect to the State of Manipur.
➢ Article 371F has special provisions with respect to Sikkim.
Rights of ➢ The Constitution of India seeks to secure for all its citizens, among other things,
Scheduled Tribes social and economic justice, equality of status and opportunity and assures the
dignity of the individual.
➢ All Rights available to the Citizens of India, enshrined in the Constitution or any
law of the land or any order of the Government are equally available to the
Scheduled Tribes also.

66. Which among the given statements best explains Constitutional Morality ?
(a) Values held by the members of the constituent assembly that got imbibed in the Constitution
(b) Adhering to the principles enshrined in the constitution.
(c) Advocating using the Constitution to bring about progressive social change, fostering inclusivity
and equality.
(d) Emphasizing loyalty to constitutional values over identity-based nationalism
EXPLANATION:
The concept of constitutional morality is not limited to the mere observance of the core principles of
constitutionalism as the magnitude and sweep of constitutional morality is not confined to the provisions
and literal text which a constitution contains instead it embraces within itself the virtues of a wide
magnitude such as that of ushering a pluralistic and inclusive society, while at the same time adhering to
the other principles of constitutionalism.
It is further the result of embodying constitutional morality that the values of constitutionalism trickle
down and percolate through the apparatus of the State for the betterment of each and every individual
citizen of the State. So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CONSTITUTIONAL MORALITY
About ➢ Constitutional morality entails the adherence to constitutional norms within a
democratic system. It goes beyond the literal interpretation to encompass a
commitment to values such as sovereignty, social justice, and equality in
constitutional adjudication.
➢ British historian George Grote first coined the term in his twelve-volume work, A
History of Greece.
➢ Grote discussed the reforms of the Athenian Constitution by Cleisthenes – a
statesman regarded as the founder of Athenian democracy.
➢ In essence, constitutional morality embodies the balance between freedom and
restraint.
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➢ That is, citizens submit to constitutional authorities and, at the same time, have
the freedom to criticise those in power.
Elements of ➢ Rule of Law
Constitutional ➢ Individual liberty
Morality ➢ Right to Equality
➢ Freedom of choice expression
➢ Preamble
➢ social justice
➢ Due process of law
Salient features The salient features of the doctrine of constitutional morality can be stated as follow:
➢ Commitment to liberty
➢ Constitutional supremacy and equality.
➢ It is a synonym for the Rule of Law.
➢ It relates to a parliamentary form of government, which is self-restraint by
providing limitations on the functioning of the state to curtail the liberty of citizens.
➢ It is the soul and spirit of the Constitution; it assures that all inequality is
eliminated by from the social milieu.
➢ It empowers the judiciary to take a step ahead for purposive interpretation, as we
have a written constitution that allows room, space and flexibility.
➢ It always supersedes majoritarian morality or public morality for the betterment
of society.
➢ It is not limited by provisions of the constitution, but it is mandated to accomplish
the aim of the constitution.
➢ It is akin to doctrine of basic structure and perfect remedy what is
called constitutional silence.

67. With reference to the writ of Certiorari, consider the following statements :
1. It can be issued to transfer a case pending with lower courts.
2. It can be issued only against judicial authorities.
3. It cannot be issued against private individuals.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Writ is an order issued to a lower Court or a functionary of the State to take steps to restore rights of the
people. In the literal sense, The term certiorari means “to be informed of what is going on”. It is an order to
a lower court from a superior court to transfer the matter to it or to any other court toddecide
➢ It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the
latter to it or to squash the order of the latter in a case. So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ Certiorari is always available against inferior courts and not against equal or higher courts, i.e., it
cannot be issued by a High Court against any High Court or benches, much less to the Supreme Court
and any of its benches.
➢ It is issued on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction or, lack of jurisdiction or error of law. Thus, unlike
prohibition, which is only preventive, certiorari is both preventive as well as curative.
➢ Previously, the writ of certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and
not against administrative authorities. However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari
can be issued even against administrative authorities affecting the rights of individuals. So, Statement
2 is not correct.

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➢ Like prohibition, certiorari is also not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or
bodies. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
About ➢ Part III of our Constitution provides for legal remedies for the protection of these rights
against their violation by the State or other institutions/individuals.
➢ It entitles the citizens of India to move the Supreme Court or High Courts for the
enforcement of these rights.
➢ The State is forbidden from making any law that may be in conflict with the
Fundamentals Rights.
➢ The Supreme Court (under Article 32) and the high courts (under Article 226) can
issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto.
➢ Further, the Parliament (under Article 32) can empower any other court to issue these
writs.
➢ Since no such provision has been made so far, only the Supreme Court and the high
courts can issue the writs and not any other court. Before 1950, only the High Courts
of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras had the power to issue the writs. Article 226 now
empowers all the high courts to issue the writs.
➢ These writs are borrowed from English law where they are known as ‘prerogative writs’.
They are so called in England as they were issued in the exercise of the prerogative of
the King who was, and is still, described as the ‘fountain of justice’.
➢ Later, the high court started issuing these writs as extraordinary remedies to uphold
the rights and liberties of the British people.
Habeas ➢ It is a Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by
Corpus the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the
latter before it.
➢ The court then examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained
person free, if the detention is found to be illegal.
➢ Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention.
➢ The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as
private individuals.
➢ The writ, on the other hand, is not issued where the
(a) detention is lawful,
(b) the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court,
(c) detention is by a competent court, and
(d) detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court.
Mandamus ➢ It literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official
asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform.
➢ It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a
tribunal or government for the same purpose.
➢ The writ of mandamus cannot be issued
(a) against a private individual or body;
(b) to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force;
(c) when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory;
(d) to enforce a contractual obligation;
(e) against the president of India or the state governors; and
(f) against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity.

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Prohibition ➢ Literally, it means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal
to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it
does not possess.
➢ Thus, unlike mandamus that directs activity, the prohibition directs inactivity.
➢ The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial
authorities.
➢ It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private
individuals or bodies.
Quo- ➢ In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court
Warranto to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office.
➢ Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
➢ The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent
character created by a statute or by the Constitution.
➢ It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office.
➢ Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not
necessarily by the aggrieved person.

68. Consider the following information :

Sl.No. Site in news Country Issue
1. Atacama salt flat Chile Sinking due to lithium mining
2. Hokersar wetland Bangladesh Decline in arrival of migratory birds
3. Lake Kariba Sudan Low water levels due to El Nino drought
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Atacama Salt Flat is the biggest salt deposit in Chile. It has a rough white surface below which there is a
large salt lake. The lake under the salt flat has one of the largest lithium reserves in the world.
➢ According to a new study, Chile’s Atacama salt flat is sinking at a rate of 1 to 2 centimetres per year
due to lithium brine extraction, a process in which salt-rich water is pumped to the surface and into a
series of evaporation ponds to eventually obtain lithium. It was found that lithium mining has led to a
decline in the number of flamingos in the area due to a drop in water levels in the Atacama, and fewer
flamingos are reproducing.
➢ Lithium, also known as “white gold”, is one of the most sought-after metals on Earth. It is used in
rechargeable batteries, which power not only laptops and mobile phones but also electric vehicles,
which are a crucial part of the world’s plan to tackle climate change. So, Pair 1 is correct.

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The Hokersar wetland is a Ramsar site located in the northwest Himalayan of Jammu and Kashmir, India
(not Bangladesh).
➢ It is spread across nearly 13.75 square kilometres (sq km), down from 18.13 sq km recorded in 1969.
The wetland is the only site with the remaining reedbeds of Kashmir. It serves as a pathway to 68
waterfowl species, such as little cormorant, common shelduck, large egret, great crested grebe, and
other birds migrating from Siberia, China, Central Asia and Europe.
➢ According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), Kashmir is facing a rainfall deficit of 81 per
cent. Lack of water due to excess deficit rainfall at the Hokersar wetland in the Kashmir Valley in recent
years has impacted the arrival of migratory bird populations in the region. So, Pair 2 is not correct.
Lake Kariba is located between Zambia and Zimbabwe. It is a 280-kilometre-long, human-made Lake
Kariba is part of the Kariba Dam, which was built between 1955 and 1959 in the Zambezi River basin
between Zambia and Zimbabwe.
The dam provides hydroelectric power to the Kariba North power station on the Zambian side and the
Kariba South power station on the Zimbabwean side. These provide most of the electricity for the two
nations.
➢ Water levels at Lake Kariba in Zimbabwe have dropped dramatically because of the latest El Nino
drought. The country’s president, Emmerson Mnangagwa, has declared a national disaster. EL Nino is
an unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean that brings hotter
temperatures and much lower rainfall to southern Africa for five months at a time. So, Pair 3 is not
correct.

69. With reference to the Joint Parliamentary Committee, consider the following statements :
1. It can be formed by a motion passed in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
2. It has an equal number of members from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
3. It can be set up to examine a specific bill.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is set up by the Parliament for a special purpose, like the detailed
scrutiny of a subject or Bill. So, Statement 3 is correct.

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➢ As the name suggests, it has members from both the Houses and from the ruling parties and the
opposition. Its composition, duration, and terms of reference are decided by Parliament.
➢ A Joint Parliamentary Committee is set up after one House of Parliament (either Lok Sabha or Rajya
Sabha) has passed a motion and the other (either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) has agreed to it. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
➢ Members of the Joint Parliamentary Committee are decided by the Parliament. The number of members
can vary. Typically, JPCs have 31 members, with 21 from the Lok Sabha and the remainder from the
Rajya Sabha. They are expected to submit a report within 90 days, though extensions are possible. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
JOINT PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEE
Recently in Joint committee of Parliament, set-up for ‘One Nation, One Election’ Bills
News
About ➢ A 39-member Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC), chaired by, has been tasked
with examining the 129th Constitution Amendment Bill, popularly known as the
‘One Nation, One Election’ bill.
➢ This legislation aims to amend the Constitution to synchronize elections for the Lok
Sabha and State Assemblies.
➢ Joint Parliamentary Committees have historically investigated critical and
controversial issues.
➢ In 2024, a similar 31-member committee was formed to review the Waqf
(Amendment) Bill.
➢ According to an article on PRS Legislative Research, the mandate of a JPC depends
on the motion constituting it.
➢ To fulfil its mandate in investigating an issue, a JPC can scrutinise documents and
summon people for questioning. It then submits a report and makes
recommendations to the government.
➢ The proceedings and findings of the committee are confidential, except in matters of
public interest.
➢ The government can decide to withhold a document if it is considered prejudicial to
the safety or interest of the State.
➢ The Speaker has the final word in case of a dispute over calling for evidence.
How powerful ➢ While the recommendations of a JPC have persuasive value, they are not binding on
is a JPC? the government.
➢ The government can choose to launch further investigations based on what the JPC
has said, but it can’t be forced to do so.
➢ “The government is required to report on the follow-up action taken on the basis of
the recommendations of the JPC and other committees. The committees then submit
‘Action Taken Reports’ in Parliament on the basis of the government’s reply,”
JPCs have A few JPCs have earlier been set-up, having investigative powers:
been set up so ➢ To examine matters relating to Allocation and Pricing of Telecom Licenses and
far Spectrum
➢ On Pesticide Residues in and Safety Standard for Soft Drinks, Fruit Juice and other
Beverages
➢ On Stock Market Scam and Matters Relating thereto
➢ To enquire into irregularities in Securities and Banking Transactions
➢ To enquire into Bofors Contract
➢ To examine the Constitutional and Legal Position Relating to Office of Profit.”

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70. Consider the following statements :

1. The number of representatives from states to the Rajya Sabha is determined based on the
population.
2. All union territories have at least one member in Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative
assemblies. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of
the single transferable vote. The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of
population. Hence, the number of representatives varies from state to state. For example, Uttar Pradesh
has 31 members, while Tripura only has 1 member. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives
of the union territories in the Lok Sabha. Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the Union Territories (Direct
Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from the union
territories were also chosen by direct election. All union territories have at least one member in the Lok
Sabha. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
RAJYA SABHA
Composition ➢ The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250, out of which 238 are to
be the representatives of the states and union territories (elected indirectly), and
the President nominates 12.
➢ At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members. Of these, 229 members represent
the states, 4 members represent the union territories, and the President nominates
12 members.
➢ The fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the
Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.
Nominated The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have
Members special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science and social service.
The rationale behind this principle of nomination is to provide eminent persons with
a place in the Rajya Sabha without going through the process of election. It should be
noted here that the American Senate has no nominated members.
Duration ➢ The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is a continuing chamber; that is, it is
a permanent body and not subject to dissolution.
➢ However, one-third of its members retire every second year. Their seats are filled
up by fresh elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third
year.
➢ The retiring members are eligible for re-election and renomination any number of
times.
➢ The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha
and left it to the Parliament.
➢ Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951)
provided that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years.
➢ The act also empowered the President of India to curtail the term of members
chosen in the first Rajya Sabha. In the first batch, it was decided by lottery as to
who should retire.
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➢ Further, the act also authorised the President to make provisions to govern the
order of retirement of the members of the Rajya Sabha

71. Consider the following statements :

1. The chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the member of that house.
2. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend a Money Bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is the Upper House of the Indian Parliament. It comprises
representatives from the States and Union Territories, along with individuals nominated by the President
of India.
According to Article 89 of the Constitution, the presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha is known as the
Chairman. The vice-president of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Unlike the Speaker
(who is a member of the House), the Chairman is not a member of the House. However, like the Speaker,
the Chairman also cannot vote in the first instance. He, too, can cast a vote in the case of an equality of
votes. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Constitution lays down a special procedure for the passing of money bills in the Parliament. A money
bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and that too is on the recommendation of the President.
Every such Bill is considered to be a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister.
➢ After the Lok Sabha passes a money bill, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its consideration.
➢ The Rajya Sabha has restricted powers regarding money bills. It cannot reject or amend a money bill.
It can only make the recommendations. It must return the Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, whether
with or without recommendations.
➢ The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of Rajya Sabha's recommendations.
➢ If the Lok Sabha accepts any recommendation, the Bill is then deemed to have been passed by both
the Houses in the modified form. If the Lok Sabha does not accept any recommendation, the Bill is then
deemed to have passed by both the Houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha without any
change. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
THE RAJYA SABHA
About The Rajya Sabha should consist of not more than 250 members - 238 members
representing the States and Union Territories and 12 members nominated by the
President. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution.
➢ However, one-third of the members retire every second year and are replaced by
newly elected members. Each member is elected for a term of six years.
➢ The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
➢ The House also elects a Deputy Chairman from among its members. Besides, there
is also a panel of "Vice Chairmen" in the Rajya Sabha.
➢ The senior minister, who is a member of the Rajya Sabha, is appointed by the Prime
Minister as Leader of the House.
Presiding Chairman and Deputy Chairman
Officers ➢ The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is responsible for conducting the
proceedings of the House. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of
the Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha also chooses a deputy chairman amongst its
members.

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➢ There is also a Panel of Vice-Chairmen in Rajya Sabha, who are nominated by the
Chairman, Rajya Sabha, from amongst the members of Rajya Sabha. In the absence
of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman, a member from the Panel of Vice-Chairmen
presides over the proceedings of the House.
Secretary-General
➢ The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha appoints the Secretary-General and holds the
rank equivalent to the highest civil servant of the Union. The Secretary-General
works with anonymity and is readily available to the Presiding Officers to render
advice on parliamentary matters.
➢ The Secretary-General is also the administrative head of the Rajya Sabha Secretariat
and the custodian of the House's records. He works under the direction and control
of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Restriction on ➢ A Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament. However, a Money Bill cannot
Introduction of be introduced in Rajya Sabha. It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha with the prior
Certain recommendation of the President. If any question arises about whether a Bill is a
Categories of Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker thereon is final.
Bills in Rajya ➢ Rajya Sabha is required to return a Money Bill passed and transmitted by Lok Sabha
Sabha within a period of 14 days from the date of its receipt.
➢ Rajya Sabha may return a Money Bill transmitted to it with or without
recommendations. Lok Sabha is open to accepting or rejecting all or any of Rajya
Sabha's recommendations.
➢ However, suppose Rajya Sabha does not return a Money Bill within the prescribed
period of 14 days. In that case, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both
Houses of Parliament at the expiry of the said period of 14 days in the form in which
Lok Sabha passed it.
➢ Like Money Bills, Bills which, inter alia, contain provisions for any of the matters
attracting sub-clauses (a) to (f) of clause (1) of article 110 can also not be introduced
in Rajya Sabha. They can be introduced only in Lok Sabha on the recommendation
of the President. However, other restrictions in regard to Money Bills do not apply to
such Bills.
Constitution The Constitution vests in Parliament the power to amend the Constitution. Constitution
Amendment Amendment Bills can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
Bills ➢ While motions for the introduction of Constitution Amendment Bills are adopted by
a simple majority, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of
not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting is required for the
adoption of effective clauses and motions for consideration and passing of these
Bills.
➢ Constitution Amendment Bills affecting vital issues as enlisted in the proviso to
Article 368(2) of the Constitution, after having been passed by the Houses of
Parliament, have also to be ratified by not less than one-half of the State
Legislatures.

72. With reference to teal carbon, consider the following statements :

1. Teal Carbon refers to carbon emitted by marine ecosystems.
2. It contributes to global warming like black carbon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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EXPLANATION:
Teal carbon refers to carbon stored in non-tidal freshwater wetlands, encompassing carbon sequestered in
vegetation, microbial biomass, and dissolved and particulate organic matter. Teal carbon, in particular,
highlights the importance of inland, non-tidal freshwater ecosystems in capturing and storing atmospheric
carbon. Though these wetlands play a crucial role in regulating greenhouse gases, they are vulnerable to
degradation from pollution, land use changes, water extraction, and landscape modifications. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
Unlike black carbon and brown carbon, which are primarily produced through incomplete combustion of
organic matter (from sources like wildfires, fossil fuels, and industrial processes), teal carbon represents a
more natural form of carbon storage. While black and brown carbon contributes to global warming, teal
carbon offers a unique solution in the fight against climate change by acting as a carbon sink, helping to
mitigate greenhouse gas emissions. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
TYPES OF CARBON
Recently in India’s first study on ‘teal carbon’, undertaken at Keoladeo National Park (KNP) in
news Rajasthan’s Bharatpur district, has highlighted the significance of wetland conservation
to address the challenges of climate adaptation and resilience.
Blue carbon Blue carbon is the term for carbon captured by the world's ocean and coastal ecosystems.
Sea grasses, mangroves, and salt marshes along our coast "capture and hold" carbon,
acting as something called a carbon sink. These coastal systems, though much smaller
in size than the planet's forests, sequester this carbon at a much faster rate, and can
continue to do so for millions of years. Most of the carbon taken up by these ecosystems
is stored below ground where we can't see it, but it is still there. The carbon found in
coastal soil is often thousands of years old.
Brown carbon ➢ Brown carbon (BrC) constitutes a significant portion of organic carbon (OC) and
exerts a substantial influence on air quality, atmospheric chemical processes, and
the impact on climate dynamics.
➢ This class of organic carbon, known for its light brownish color, absorbs strongly in
the ultraviolet wavelengths and less significantly going into the visible.
➢ Types of brown carbon include tar materials from smoldering fires or coal
combustion, breakdown products from biomass burning, a mixture of organic
compounds emitted from soil, and volatile organic compounds given off by vegetation.
Black carbon ➢ Black carbon, commonly known as soot, is a component of fine particulate air
pollution (PM2.5). It is formed by the incomplete combustion of wood and fossil fuels,
a process which also creates carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide, and volatile
organic compounds.
➢ Black carbon warms the atmosphere because it is very effective at absorbing light. It
exacerbates warming of the air and surfaces in regions where it is concentrated,
altering weather patterns and ecosystem cycles.
➢ Black carbon lasts only days to weeks in the atmosphere but has significant direct
and indirect impacts on the climate, snow and ice, agriculture, and human health.

73. Consider the following :

1. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992
2. MyGov platform
3. Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act of 1996
How many of the above enhance participatory democracy in India ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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EXPLANATION:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 is a significant landmark in the evolution of grassroot
democratic institutions in the country. It transfers representative democracy into participatory democracy.
It is a revolutionary concept to build democracy at the grassroot level in the country.
The 73rd Amendment Act has added Part-IX to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled 'The
Panchayats' and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O.
The act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution, which says that, "The State shall take
steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary
to enable them to function as units of self-government."
The act provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the panchayati raj system.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Ministry of electronics and information technology has established a platform – MyGov, to facilitate
participatory governance amongst citizens. The MyGov platform is a citizen-centric platform that empowers
people to connect with the Government & contribute towards good governance. It aims to enhance
participatory democracy in India by fostering direct citizen engagement in governance. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
The provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats are not applicable to the Fifth
Schedule areas. However, the Parliament may extend these provisions to such areas, subject to such
exceptions and modifications as it may specify.
Under this provision, the Parliament enacted the "Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled
Areas) Act", 1996, popularly known as the PESA Act or the Extension Act.
One of the objectives of the PESA Act is to have village governance with participatory democracy and to
make the gram sabha a nucleus of all activities.
According to the PESA Act. State legislation on the Panchayats in the Scheduled Areas shall be in
consonance with the customary law, social and religious practices and traditional management practices
of community resources.
Every village shall have a Gram Sabha consisting of persons whose names are included in the electoral
rolls for the Panchayat at the village level.
Gram Sabha will approve the plans, programmes, and projects for social and economic development before
they are implemented by the Panchayat at the village level.
Therefore, the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act of 1996 enhanced Participatory
democracy through Gram Sabha in Scheduled Areas. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
UNIVERSAL ADULT FRANCHISE IN ENHANCING PARTICIPATORY DEMOCRACY
About ➢ The Indian Constitution adopts universal adult franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok
Sabha and the state legislative assemblies.
➢ Every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age has a right to vote without any
discrimination of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, wealth and so on.
➢ The voting age was reduced to 18 years from 21 years in 1989 by the 61st Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1988.
➢ The introduction of the universal adult franchise by the Constitution-makers was a bold
experiment and highly remarkable in view of the vast size of the country, its huge population,
high poverty, social inequality and overwhelming illiteracy.
➢ The universal adult franchise makes democracy broad-based, enhances the self-respect and
prestige of the common people, upholds the principle of equality, enables minorities to
protect their interests and opens up new hopes and vistas for weaker sections.

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74. Consider the following :

1. The Uniform Civil Code(UCC) is a provision of the Constitution that reflects the secular character
of India.
2. Uttarakhand is the only Indian state that has implemented the UCC post-independence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Constitution of India stands for a Secular State. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as
the official religion of the Indian State. The provisions under Article 44 of the Directive Principle of the
Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State.
Article 44 states that the State shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens. "Uniform
Civil Code" means the common civil code or common law for every citizen residing in India irrespective of
religion and caste.
The decision to enact a UCC is left to the discretion of the government, recognizing the intricate nature of
the issue. Despite numerous discussions over the years, successive governments have grappled with the
challenge of implementing a UCC due to its contentious and politically sensitive nature. So, Statement 1
is correct.
Uttarakhand has become the first State in post-independence India to implement the Uniform Civil Code
(UCC). The UCC seeks to standardize personal laws across various religious communities, a move that has
stirred both support and dissent. The UCC applies to all residents of Uttarakhand, including those living
outside the State. However, Scheduled Tribes and individuals under the protection of specific authorities
are exempt from its provisions. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
UNIFORM CIVIL CODE (UCC)
Recently in The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) was implemented in the State on January 27, 2025,
news making Uttarakhand the first State in independent India where this law will come into
effect.
About The Uniform Civil Code aims to create uniformity in personal laws across all religions.
While its proponents advocate for equality, critics fear it could lead to societal divisions.
The UCC addresses critical aspects of personal law, including marriage, divorce,
inheritance, and live-in relationships, and includes provisions for the registration of
these relationships.
Goa The Uttarakhand became the second State in the country and the first to do so in
independent India, implementing a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) and rolling out the manual
of rules for the legislation.
➢ Goa continued with its colonial-era UCC when it became part of India in 1961. Then,
it was a Union Territory.
➢ Goa follows a UCC based on the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867. The Goa, Daman
and Diu Administration Act of 1962 permitted it to retain the colonial-era civil code.
Article 44 of the Constitution mandated and ordained that the State shall endeavour to
secure a uniform civil code for the citizens throughout India.
Uttarakhand ➢ The Uttarakhand UCC will address issues related to marriage, divorce, succession,
and live-in relationships, establishing a uniform set of laws applicable to all citizens,
regardless of their religion.

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➢ Among the provisions, the UCC mandates equal marriageable ages for men and
women, sets uniform divorce grounds, and prohibits practices like polygamy and
'halala'.

75. With reference to anticipatory bail, consider the following statements :

1. Anticipatory bail directs the release of a person on bail even before the arrest of the person.
2. Only the Supreme Court can grant such bail.
3. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita provides direction for granting anticipatory bail.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita BNSS, a comprehensive update to the Criminal Procedure Code
(CrPC), introduces new procedures and criteria for granting both anticipatory and regular bail.
Anticipatory bail is a pre-arrest legal provision that enables individuals to seek bail for non-bailable offences
before the arrest, with conditions imposed by the court.
The landmark case of Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia & Ors. v. State of Punjab (1980) highlighted the need for
reasonable grounds to apply for anticipatory bail. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Section 482 of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (Not the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita), 2023 (BNSS) deals
with the concept of anticipatory bail.
➢ Section 482 (1): When any person has reason to believe that he may be arrested on an accusation of
having committed a non-bailable offence, he may apply to the High Court or the Court of Session (Not
Supreme Court) for Anticipatory Bail. The Court may if it thinks fit, direct that in the event of such
arrest, he shall be released on Anticipatory bail.
➢ BNSS eliminates the requirement for the applicant to be present at the final hearing and issuance of
the order, making the process for obtaining anticipatory bail simpler and more efficient. So,
Statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
BAIL PROVISIONS UNDER BNSS, 2023
About The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) introduces a new legal framework
for bail, revising the processes of granting and cancelling bail to address modern criminal
justice concerns. BNSS continues the classification of bail into three broad categories:
➢ Regular Bail: Granted to an accused after arrest and during the pendency of the trial.
➢ Anticipatory Bail: Granted to a person who apprehends arrest on an accusation of a
non-bailable offence.
➢ Interim Bail: Temporary bail granted for a short period until the regular or anticipatory
bail application is decided.
Exception Section 482 (4): This section broadens the criteria under which anticipatory bail is not
permissible. Specifically, it disallows anticipatory bail for individuals accused of gang rape
of women under eighteen years of age.
Regular Bail Sections 479, 480 and 483 of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) deal with
the concept of Regular bail.
➢ Section 479 (1): This section introduces the possibility of early release for first-time
offenders who have served up to one-third of their maximum sentence as undertrial
prisoners. This aims to reduce unnecessary detention for individuals without prior
convictions.

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➢ Section 479 (2): Bail is restricted for individuals facing investigation, inquiry, or trial
in multiple cases, thereby preventing habitual offenders from exploiting bail
provisions.
➢ Section 479 (3): The jail superintendent is required to submit a written application to
the Court for the release of undertrial prisoners who have served either one-third or
one-half of their sentence. This ensures that eligible prisoners are not overlooked for
bail.
➢ Section 480 (2): If it appears to such officer or Court at any stage of the investigation,
inquiry or trial, as the case may be, that there are no reasonable grounds for believing
that the accused has committed a non-bailable offence but that there are sufficient
grounds for further inquiry into his guilt, the accused shall, subject to the provisions
of section 494 and pending such inquiry, be released on bail, or, at the discretion of
such officer or Court, on the execution by him of a bond for his appearance as
hereinafter provided.
➢ Section 480 (5) & 483: These sections give the High Court and the Sessions Court the
authority to cancel bail, maintaining judicial discretion over the revocation of bail
under specific conditions.

76. With reference to the Mankidia tribe, which one of the following denotes ‘Kumbha’ ?
(a) Harvest festival
(b) Temporary hut
(c) Hunting practice
(d) Language
EXPLANATION:
The Mankidia community is an Austro-Asiatic community that ekes out a living mainly from the forests.
The Mankidia constitute a semi-nomadic section of the Birhor tribe. They are primarily a food gathering
and hunting community. For their traditional skill of rope making, trapping and eating monkeys, their
neighbours call them ‘Mankidi’ or ‘Mankidia’.
They are one of the most little-known forest dwelling and wandering communities of the Odisha. They
wander inside forests in small bands and stay at different tandas — the temporary makeshift settlements
comprising of temporary dome-shaped leaf huts known as Kumbhas. They speak a form of Munda
language and some of them are also conversant in Odia.
Therefore, the term Kumbha denotes temporary dome-shaped leaf huts. So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PARTICULARLY VULNERABLE TRIBAL GROUPS
Recently in Mankidia community becomes 6th PVTG to get habitat rights over forests in Odisha.
news
About ➢ Tribal communities are often identified by specific signs such as primitive traits,
distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness to contact with the community
at large, and backwardness.
➢ Along with these, some tribal groups have some specific features such as
dependency on hunting, gathering for food, having a pre-agriculture level of
technology, zero or negative growth of population and extremely low level of literacy.
These groups are called Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
➢ PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups. Due to this factor, more
developed and assertive tribal groups take a significant chunk of the tribal
development funds, which is why PVTGs need more funds directed toward their
development.

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➢ In this context, in 1975, the Government of India initiated the identification of the
most vulnerable tribal groups as a separate category called PVTGs.
➢ It declared 52 such groups, while in 1993, an additional 23 groups were added to
the category, making it a total of 75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes, spread
over 18 states and one Union Territory (UT), in the country (2011 census).
➢ There are 12 PVTGs in India, each with a population above 50,000, and the
remaining groups have a population of 1000 or less.
➢ The PVTG of Sahariyas has the highest population of 4,50,217, while the PVTGs of
Sentinelets and Andamanese have a very small population of 39 and 43,
respectively.
➢ The recognised PVTGs in Odisha are: Birhor, Bondo, Chuktia Bhunjia, Didayi,
Juang, Kharia, Dongria Khond, Kutia Khond, Lanjia Saora, Lodha, Mankidia, Paudi
Bhuyan, and Saora.
Criteria for The government of India follows the following criteria for the identification of PVTGs.
identification ➢ Pre-agricultural level of technology
of PVTGs ➢ Low level of literacy
➢ Economic backwardness
➢ A declining or stagnant population.
Pradhan Mantri ➢ The mission is aimed to improve socio-economic conditions of the particularly
Particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs) by saturating PVTG families and habitations with
Vulnerable basic facilities such as safe housing, clean drinking water and sanitation, improved
Tribal Groups access to education, health and nutrition, road and telecom connectivity, and
Mission sustainable livelihood opportunities.
➢ The mission envisages the availability of Rs.15,000 crore from the Development
Action Plan for the Scheduled Tribes for activities to be undertaken in the next three
years under the Mission.

77. Consider the following statements :

1. The Supreme Court can punish both civil and criminal contempt of court.
2. Contempt of the Supreme Court is a part of the Concurrent List of seventh schedule .
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Under Articles 129 and 142 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has been vested with power to punish
for contempt of Court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
The supreme court has power to punish for contempt of court, either with simple imprisonment for a term
up to six months or with fine up to ₹2,000 or with both.
In 1991, the Supreme Court has ruled that it has power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also
of high courts, subordinate courts and tribunals functioning in the entire country.
Contempt of court may be civil or criminal. Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement,
order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal contempt
means the publication of any matter or doing an act which–
➢ scandalises or lowers the authority of a court; or
➢ prejudices or interferes with the due course of a judicial proceeding; or
➢ interferes or obstructs the administration of justice in any other manner.
So, Statement 1 is correct.

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According to the Article 246, Contempt of the Supreme Court is a part of the Union List of Schedule 7. As
per the 7th schedule, Constitution, organisation, jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court (including
contempt of such Court), and the fees taken therein; persons entitled to practise before the Supreme Court
are in the Union List. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OTHER POWERS OF THE SUPREME COURT
About ➢ The supreme court decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the vice
president. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.
➢ It enquires into the conduct and behaviour of the chairman and members of the Union Public
Service Commission on a reference made by the president.
➢ If it finds them guilty of misbehaviour, it can recommend to the president for their removal.
➢ The advice tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President.
➢ It has power to review its own judgement or order. Thus, it is not bound by its previous
decision and can depart from it in the interest of justice or community welfare.
➢ In brief, the Supreme Court is a self-correcting agency. For example, in the Kesavananda
Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court departed from its previous judgement in the Golak
Nath case (1967).
➢ It is authorised to withdraw the cases pending before the high courts and dispose them by
itself. It can also transfer a case or appeal pending before one high court to another high
court.
➢ Its law is binding on all courts in India. Its decree or order is enforceable throughout the
country. All authorities (civil and judicial) in the country should act in aid of the Supreme
Court.
➢ It has power of judicial superintendence and control over all the courts and tribunals
functioning in the entire territory of the country.

78. Which of the following commission/committee was formed to make recommendations of fundamental
duties?
(a) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Dhebar Commission
(c) Rajamannar Committee
(d) Swaran Singh Committee
EXPLANATION:
In 1976, the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about
fundamental duties, the need and necessity of which was felt during the operation of the internal emergency
(1975–1977).
The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the
Constitution.
It stressed that the citizens should become conscious that in addition to the enjoyment of rights, they also
have certain duties to perform as well.
The Congress Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act in 1976.
This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution. This new part consists of only
one Article, that is, Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the
citizens. So, Option (d) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OTHER COMMITTEE RECOMMENDATION
Sarkaria ➢ The Central government appointed a three-member commission, chaired by R.S.
Commission Sarkaria, a retired Supreme Court judge, to review Centre-state relations.
(1983) on ➢ The commission was asked to examine how the current arrangements between the
Centre-State Centre and states were functioning and suggest necessary improvements.
Relations ➢ The commission did not suggest major structural changes but emphasized improving
the way the system operates.
➢ It stated that federalism in India is more about cooperation between the Centre and
states rather than a rigid division of powers.
➢ It rejected demands to reduce the Centre’s powers, arguing that a strong Central
government was necessary to maintain national unity and counter internal divisions.
U.N. Dhebar ➢ The President is required to appoint a commission to review the administration of
Commission Scheduled Areas and the welfare of Scheduled Tribes (STs).
(1960) on ➢ The first such commission was appointed in 1960 under the chairmanship of U.N.
Scheduled Dhebar.
Areas & Tribes ➢ It submitted its report in 1961, highlighting issues faced by tribal communities and
suggesting welfare measures.
Rajamannar ➢ The Tamil Nadu Government (DMK) appointed a three-member committee, chaired
Committee by Dr. P.V. Rajamannar, to study Centre-state relations and recommend
(1969) on constitutional amendments to grant maximum autonomy to states.
Centre-State ➢ The committee submitted its report in 1971 to the Tamil Nadu government.
Relations Findings of the Rajamannar Committee:
The committee identified four main reasons for increasing Central control over states:
• Certain constitutional provisions gave special powers to the Centre.
• One-party rule at both the Centre and state levels led to excessive Central
influence.
• States lacked financial resources, making them dependent on the Centre for
funding.
• The Planning Commission's role in economic policy led to more centralization.
Key Recommendations of the Rajamannar Committee:
➢ Set up an Inter-State Council immediately to improve Centre-state cooperation.
➢ Make the Finance Commission a permanent body to ensure fair financial distribution.
➢ Dissolve the Planning Commission and replace it with a statutory body.
➢ Remove Articles 356, 357, and 365, which allow the Centre to impose President’s
Rule in states.
➢ Take away the governor’s power to dismiss state governments at the Centre’s
pleasure.
➢ Transfer certain subjects from the Union List and Concurrent List to the State List,
giving states more control.
➢ Give residuary powers (powers not specifically mentioned in the Constitution) to the
states instead of the Centre.
➢ Abolish All-India Services (IAS, IPS, IFS) to reduce Central interference in state
administration.
The Central government ignored the Rajamannar Committee’s recommendations, and no
changes were made.

79. Consider the following statements :

1. The Parliament gives the power of original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court.
2. The Supreme Court has the power to decide disputes between the Union and one or more states.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Constitution has conferred a very extensive jurisdiction and vast powers on the Supreme Court.
It is also the final interpreter and guardian of the Constitution and guarantor of the fundamental rights of
the citizens. Further, it has advisory and supervisory powers.
According to Article 131 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court shall, to the exclusion of any other court,
have original jurisdiction in any dispute.
➢ Between the Government of India and one or more States;
➢ Between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on
the other; or
➢ Between two or more States, if and in so far as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or
fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive means no
other court can decide such disputes, and original means the power to hear such disputes in the first
instance, not by way of appeal.
According to Article 138, The Supreme Court shall have further jurisdiction and powers with respect to
any of the matters in the Union List as Parliament may by law confer.
Therefore, the Constitution (Not Parliament) gives the power of ‘original jurisdiction’ to the Supreme Court.
So, Statement 1 is not correct, and Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
JURISDICTION AND POWERS OF SUPREME COURT
About The Supreme Court of India has more powers than any other Supreme Court in any part of
the world. The jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court can be classified into the
following:
➢ Original Jurisdiction.
➢ Writ Jurisdiction.
➢ Appellate Jurisdiction.
➢ Advisory Jurisdiction.
➢ A Court of Record.
➢ Power of Judicial Review.
➢ Constitutional Interpretation
➢ Other Powers
Original With regard to the exclusive original jurisdiction (Dispute between the Centre and States)
Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, two points should be noted.
➢ The dispute must involve a question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or
extent of a legal right depends. Thus, the questions of political nature are excluded from
it.
➢ Any suit brought before the Supreme Court by a private citizen against the Centre or a
state cannot be entertained under this.
Further, this jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following:
➢ A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement,
sanad or other similar instrument.
➢ A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which specifically provides that the
said jurisdiction does not extend to such a dispute.
➢ Inter-state water disputes.
➢ Matters referred to the Finance Commission.
➢ Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the states.
➢ Ordinary dispute of a Commercial nature between the Centre and the states.
➢ Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre.
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In 1961, the first suit, under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, was brought
by West Bengal against the Centre. The State Government challenged the Constitutional
validity of the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957, passed by the
Parliament. However, the Supreme Court dismissed the suit by upholding the validity of the
Act.

80. Consider the following :

1. Harshavardhan
2. Ashoka
3. Raja Raja Chola
How many of the above are names of underwater geographical structures located in the Indian Ocean?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Prime Minister highlighted the focus of the Government on remote islands over the past decade,
including regular monitoring and naming of uninhabited islands.
He also mentioned the naming of underwater seamounts in the Indian Ocean, with five such locations
named last year by an international organization at India’s initiative.
The International Hydrographic Organization (IHO) and UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Oceanographic
Commission (IOC) have recently awarded names originally proposed by India. These include Ashoka
Seamount, Harshavardhan Seamount, Raja Raja Chola Seamount, Kalpataru Ridge, and Chandragupta
Ridge in the Indian Ocean, enhancing India's pride.
There are seven structures in the Indian Ocean named mainly after Indian scientists or bear names
proposed by India in this region of the Indian Ocean.
Oceanographers from the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) in Goa discovered all
three recently named structures. So, Option (c) is correct.

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81. With reference to the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities, consider the following statements :
1. It is a constitutional office.
2. The Prime Minister appoints the Commissioner.
3. The Commissioner submits the annual reports to the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Constitution of India, under Article 350B (1) and (2), provides for a Special Officer for linguistic
minorities, formally designated as the Commissioner for linguistic minorities in India (CLM).
Article 350(B) was inserted in the Constitution of India as a result of the Constitution (7th Amendment)Act,
1956, consequent to the Government of India's acceptance of the recommendations of the States
Reorganization Commission (SRC) in 1956.
➢ The CLM looks after the interests of the Linguistic minorities, as distinct from Religious
Minorities/SCs/STs/OBCs.
➢ According to Article 350B , the Office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in
1957. He is designated as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities. Hence, it is a constitutional
body. So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ According to Article 350B, a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities should be appointed by the
President of India (not by the Prime Minister). So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities' headquarters is in Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh). He has three
regional offices in Belgaum (Karnataka), Chennai (Tamil Nadu), and Kolkata (West Bengal), each headed
by an Assistant Commissioner.
He maintains liaisons with the state governments and union territories through nodal officers they have
appointed.
At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Hence, he submits the
annual reports or other reports to the President through the Union Minority Affairs Minister. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SPECIAL OFFICER FOR LINGUISTIC MINORITIES
About In pursuance of the provision of Article 350-B of the Constitution, the office of the
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in 1957. He is designated as the
Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities.
➢ Article 350-B into Part XVII of the Constitution created the position of Special
Officer for Linguistic Minorities (appointed by the President of India).
➢ The Special Officer's duty is to Investigate and report on matters related to
safeguards for linguistic minorities.
➢ The Reports will be submitted to the President, who places them before Parliament
and concerned State Governments.
➢ The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salary, service
conditions, or removal procedure of the Special Officer.
Role of the ➢ The Commissioner takes up all the matters pertaining to the grievances arising out
Commissioner of the non-implementation of the Constitutional and Nationally Agreed Scheme of
Safeguards provided to linguistic minorities that come to its notice or are brought to
its knowledge by the linguistic minority individuals, groups, associations or
organizations at the highest political and administrative levels of the state
governments and UT administrations and recommends remedial actions to be taken.

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➢ To promote and preserve linguistic minority groups, the Ministry of Minority Affairs
has requested the State Governments / Union Territories to give wide publicity to the
constitutional safeguards provided to linguistic minorities and to take necessary
administrative measures.
➢ The state governments and UT Administrations were urged to prioritize the
implementation of the scheme of safeguards for linguistic minorities.
Functions & ➢ Investigates issues concerning linguistic minority rights.
Objectives ➢ Submits reports to the President of India on the implementation of safeguards.
of the ➢ Monitors implementation through questionnaires, visits, conferences, and review
Commissioner mechanisms.
➢ Ensure equal opportunities for linguistic minorities.
➢ Spread awareness about constitutional safeguards available to them.
➢ Promote effective implementation of safeguards across States/UTs.
➢ Address grievances related to linguistic minority rights

82. Consider the following statements :

1. Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana provides health coverage to all the senior
citizens aged 70 years and above.
2. Under the scheme, senior citizens can avail a benefit of upto ₹5 lakh annually on a family basis.
3. Providing public assistance in case of old age comes under Directive Principles of State Policy.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Ayushman Bharat, a flagship scheme of the Government of India, was launched as recommended by the
National Health Policy 2017 to achieve the vision of Universal Health Coverage (UHC).
An important component under Ayushman Bharat is the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana or PM-JAY.
Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY is the largest health assurance scheme in the world.
➢ It aims to provide health coverage of Rs. 5 lakhs per family per year for secondary and tertiary care
hospitalization to over 12 crore poor and vulnerable families (approximately 55 crore beneficiaries)
that form the bottom 40% of the Indian population.
Under the expansion, all senior citizens aged 70 or above, regardless of economic status, are eligible for
free medical treatment up to Rs 5 lakh under this scheme. The Rs 5 lakh coverage is provided on a family
basis annually. So, Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 2 is correct.
According to Article 41 of Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV, The State shall, within the limits
of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to
education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in
other cases of undeserved want. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PRADHAN MANTRI JAN AROGYA YOJANA (PM-JAY)
About ➢ PM-JAY is the world's largest health insurance/ assurance scheme, which is fully
financed by the government.
➢ It provides a cover of Rs. 5 lakhs per family per year for secondary and tertiary care
hospitalization across public and private empanelled hospitals in India.
➢ PM-JAY provides cashless access to health care services for the beneficiary at the point
of service, that is, the hospital.

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➢ It covers up to 3 days of pre-hospitalization and 15 days of post-hospitalization expenses

such as diagnostics and medicines.
➢ There is no restriction on the family size, age or gender.
➢ All pre-existing conditions are covered from day one.
➢ The benefits of the scheme are portable across the country, i.e., a beneficiary can visit
any empanelled public or private hospital in India to receive cashless treatment.
➢ Services include approximately 1,929 procedures covering all the costs related to
treatment, including but not limited to drugs, supplies, diagnostic services, physician's
fees, room charges, surgeon charges, OT and ICU charges, etc.
➢ Public hospitals are reimbursed for the healthcare services at par with the private
hospitals.
PMJAY ➢ Eligibility: The only eligibility criterion is that the individual must be aged 70 years or
Senior above, as determined by the age recorded in their Aadhaar card, regardless of economic
Citizen status.
Scheme ➢ New Distinct Card: Eligible senior citizens aged 70 and above will receive a new, distinct
(Expansion) card under the AB PM-JAY scheme
➢ Top-Up Coverage: Senior citizens within families already covered by AB PM-JAY will
receive an additional top-up cover of up to Rs 5 lakh per year. This top-up will be for
them, and they will not have to share it with other family members under the age of 70
➢ Family Coverage: Senior citizens who are not part of an existing AB PM-JAY family
coverage will be provided with a cover of up to Rs 5 lakh per year on a family basis
➢ Choice of Schemes: Senior citizens who are already benefiting from other public health
insurance schemes like the Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS), Ex-Servicemen
Contributory Health Scheme (ECHS), or Ayushman Central Armed Police Force (CAPF)
have the option to either continue with their current scheme or opt for AB PM-JAY
➢ Eligibility with Private Insurance: Senior citizens who are covered by private health
insurance policies or the Employees' State Insurance scheme are also eligible to benefit
from AB PM-JAY

83. Consider the following statements :

1. The Government of India Act of 1858 introduced the local representation in the Indian Legislative
Council.
2. The Indian Council Act of 1909 introduced the system of communal representation for Muslims.
3. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced bicameralism among the provinces.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The Charter Act of 1853 introduced, for the first time, local representation in the Indian (Central) Legislative
Council. It provided for the addition of six new members called legislative councillors to the council. Of the
six new legislative members of the governor-general's council, four members were appointed by the local
(provincial) governments of Madras, Bombay, Bengal and Agra. The Government of India Act of 1858 did
not introduce local representation in the Indian Legislative Council. Instead, it transferred the powers of
Government, territories and revenues from the East India Company to the British Crown. So, Statement
1 is not correct.
Indian Councils Act of 1909, also known as Morley-Minto Reforms, introduced a system of communal
representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of a 'separate electorate'. Under this, the Muslim

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members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus, the Act 'legalized communalism', and Lord Minto
came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces. Thus, the
legislatures of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United Provinces were made bicameral,
consisting of a legislative council (upper House) and a legislative assembly (lower House). However, many
restrictions were placed on them.
Government of India Act of 1919 introduced, for the first time, bicameralism at the central level. Thus, the
Indian legislative council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of
State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly). So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
HISTORICAL BACKGROUND
The Charter ➢ Separated legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s council,
Act of 1853 creating the Indian (Central) Legislative Council.
➢ The Indian Legislative Council functioned like a mini-parliament, adopting the same
procedures as the British Parliament, making legislation a special government
function.
➢ Introduced an open competition system for recruiting civil servants, making it
accessible to Indians, leading to the formation of the Macaulay Committee in 1854.
➢ Extended the East India Company’s rule over India, with territories held in trust for
the British Crown, but without specifying a time period.
Government of ➢ Transferred the powers, territories, and revenues from the East India Company to
India Act of the British Crown.
1858: ➢ Changed the title of the Governor-General of India to Viceroy, the direct
representative of the British Crown in India.
➢ Abolished the Board of Control and Court of Directors, ending the system of double
government.
➢ Established the Secretary of State for India, who had full control over Indian
administration and was responsible to the British Parliament.
➢ Created a 15-member council to assist the Secretary of State.
Indian ➢ Increased the size of the legislative councils, raising the Central Legislative Council
Councils Act of from 16 to 60 members.
1909: ➢ Allowed non-official majorities in provincial legislative councils, but the Central
Legislative Council retained an official majority.
➢ Expanded the deliberative functions of councils, such as allowing supplementary
questions and budget resolutions.
➢ For the first time, allowed Indians to be part of the executive councils of the Viceroy
and Governors, with Satyendra Prasad Sinha being the first Indian appointed as the
Law Member of the Viceroy’s executive council.
➢ Provided separate representation for corporations, chambers of commerce,
universities, and zamindars.
Government of ➢ Proposed an All-India Federation with provinces and princely states as units,
India Act of dividing powers between the Centre and units into three lists: Federal (59 items),
1935: Provincial (54 items), and Concurrent (36 items).
➢ Residuary powers remained with the Viceroy, but the federation did not materialize
as princely states did not join.
➢ Abolished dyarchy in provinces, replacing it with provincial autonomy, allowing
provinces to function autonomously in certain areas and introducing responsible
governments where governors acted on the advice of ministers. This came into effect
in 1937 but was discontinued in 1939.

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➢ Introduced dyarchy at the Centre, dividing federal subjects into reserved and
transferred subjects, but this provision was not implemented.
➢ Established bicameral legislatures in six provinces (Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar,
Assam, and the United Provinces), though with many restrictions.
➢ Expanded communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed
classes, women, and labor (workers).
➢ Abolished the Council of India and replaced it with a team of advisors to assist the
Secretary of State for India.
➢ Established the Reserve Bank of India to control currency and credit.
➢ Set up both Federal and Provincial Public Service Commissions and a Joint Public
Service Commission for two or more provinces.
➢ Created a Federal Court, which was set up in 1937.

84. Which one of the following denotes the ‘Human Rated Launch Vehicle Mark-3’ ?
(a) It is Russia’s satellite for their own space station.
(b) It is NASA’s launch vehicle for manned moon missions.
(c) It was used to launch the Tiangong space station by China.
(d) It is a part of the Indian Space Research Organisation’s Gaganyaan mission.
EXPLANATION:
Recently, The Indian Space Research Organisation commenced the assembly of the Human Rated Launch
Vehicle Mark-3 (HLVM3) for the Gaganyaan mission’s maiden uncrewed flight. HLVM3 is a three-stage
vehicle with a payload capacity of about 10 tonnes to Low Earth orbit (LEO). The vehicle is 53 meters tall
and weighs 640 tonnes. The Crew Module designed with enhanced safety margins and multiple
redundancies, will fly aboard the Human-rated LVM3, ensuring the safety of the Gaganyatris. So, Option
(d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
GAGANYAAN
About ➢ Gaganyaan project envisages demonstration of human spaceflight capability by
launching crew of 3 members to an orbit of 400 km for a 3 days mission and bring
them back safely to earth, by landing in Indian sea waters.
➢ Various precursor missions are planned for demonstrating the Technology
Preparedness Levels before carrying out the actual Human Space Flight mission.
➢ These demonstrator missions include Integrated Air Drop Test (IADT), Pad Abort Test
(PAT) and Test Vehicle (TV) flights.
Gaganyaan ➢ TV D1 Test Flight is accomplished. “In-flight Abort Demonstration of Crew Escape
TV-D1 System (CES)” at Mach number 1.2 with the newly developed Test Vehicle followed by
Mission Crew Module separation & safe recovery.
Human ➢ LVM3 rocket - The well proven and reliable heavy lift launcher of ISRO, is identified as
rated LVM3 the launch vehicle for Gaganyaan mission.
- HLVM3 ➢ It consists of solid stage, liquid stage and cryogenic stage. All systems in LVM3 launch
vehicle are re-configured to meet human rating requirements and christened Human
Rated LVM3. HLVM3 will be capable of launching the Orbital Module to an intended
Low Earth Orbit of 400 km.
➢ HLVM3 consists of Crew Escape System (CES) powered by a set of quick acting, high
burn rate solid motors which ensures that Crew Module along with crew is taken to a
safe distance in case of any emergency either at launch pad or during ascent phase.

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85. Which of the following rights is not explicitly mentioned in the Fundamental Rights but has been
upheld as so by several pronouncements of the Supreme Court ?
1. Freedom of trade, occupation and business
2. Right Against Sexual Harassment at Workplace
3. Right to Privacy
4. Right to freedom of the press
5. Right to form associations or unions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 4 and 5 only
EXPLANATION:
Freedom of trade, occupation and business and the Right to form associations or unions are explicitly
mentioned under Article 19(1)(g) and Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution, respectively, as part of the
Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III. So, Statements 1 and 5 are not correct.
Sexual harassment of women has been held by the Supreme Court to be violative of the most cherished of
fundamental rights, namely, the Right to Life contained in Article 21. The "Right Against Sexual
Harassment at Workplace" in India is considered a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution,
which guarantees the "right to life and personal liberty". Sexual harassment results in violation of the
fundamental rights of a woman to equality under articles 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India, her right
to life and to live with dignity under article 21 of the Constitution and her right to practice any profession
or to carry on any occupation, trade or business with includes a right to a safe environment free from
sexual harassment.
Therefore, the Right Against Sexual Harassment in the Workplace is implicitly enshrined under various
Fundamental Rights. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The right to Privacy, although not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, was considered a 'penumbral
right' under the Constitution, i.e., a right declared by the Supreme Court as integral to the fundamental
right to life and liberty. After the KS Puttuswamy judgment, the Court read and understood the right to
Privacy in various landmark judgments. The Supreme Court has culled the right to Privacy from Article 21
and other provisions of the Constitution, read with the Directive Principles of State Policy. So, Statement
3 is correct.
The freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution includes the right to express oneself
through any medium, such as in words of writing, printing, gesture, etc.
Although freedom of the press is not mentioned in Article 19 of the Indian Constitution, it has been a part
of freedom of speech and expression as considered by judges of the Supreme Court through decided cases.
In the leading case of Romesh Thapar v. The State of Madras, the Supreme Court decided that freedom of
the press is an intrinsic part of freedom of speech and expression. So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
Article 19 Article 19 guarantees all citizens six rights. These are:
➢ Right to freedom of speech and expression.
➢ Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
➢ Right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies.10a
➢ Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
➢ Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
➢ Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Originally, Article 19 contained seven rights. But, the right to acquire, hold and dispose
of property was deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

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Right To Freedom of speech and expression is indispensable in a democracy. This means the
Freedom of right to express one's own convictions and opinions freely by writing, printing, word of
Speech and mouth, pictures or any other mode.
Expression The expression also connotes publication, and thus, freedom of the press is included in
this category. In sum, the fundamental principle involved here is the people's right to
know. As of now, there are 8 restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression.
These are with respect to the sovereignty and integrity of the country. These 8
restrictions were:
➢ The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the freedom of speech
and expression on the grounds of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the
State, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality,
contempt of Court, defamation, and incitement to an offence.
Freedom of The right to assembly is implied in the very idea of the democratic Government. Article
Assembly 19(1) (b) guarantees to all citizens of India the right to assemble peaceably without arms.
This includes the right to hold meetings and to take out processions. The right is subject
to the following restrictions;
➢ The assembly must be peaceful
➢ It must be unarmed.
➢ Reasonable restrictions can be imposed under Article 19 (3).
The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right of assembly on
two grounds, namely, sovereignty and integrity of India and public order, including the
maintenance of traffic in the area concerned.
Freedom to Article 19(1) (c) guarantees to all its citizens the right to form associations or unions or
Form Co-operative societies. Under clause (4) or Article 19, however, the State may by law
Association impose reasonable restrictions on this right in the interest of public order or morality or
the sovereignty and integrity of India.
➢ The right of association pre-supposes organization. It is an organization or
permanent relationship between its members in matters of common concern.
➢ It thus includes the right to form companies, societies, partnerships, trade unions
and political parties. The right guaranteed is not merely the right to form an
association but also to continue with the association as such.
➢ The freedom to form an association also implies the freedom to form, to join or not
to join an association or Union.
Freedom of Article 19(1) (d) guarantees all citizens of India the right ―to move freely throughout the
Movement territory of India‖. This right is, however, subject to reasonable restrictions mentioned
in clause (5) of Article 19, i.e., in the interest of the general public or (2) for the protection
of the interest of any Scheduled Tribe.
Freedom of movement has two dimensions: internal (right to move inside the country)
and external (right to move out of the country and right to come back to the country).
Article 19 protects only the first dimension. The second dimension is dealt with by Article
21 (right to life and personal liberty).
Freedom of Every citizen has the right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of the country.
Residence This right has two parts: (a) the right to reside in any part of the country, which means
to stay at any place temporarily, and (b) the right to settle in any part of the country,
which means to set up a home or domicile at any place permanently.
This right is intended to remove internal barriers within the country or between any of
its parts. This promotes nationalism and avoids narrow-mindedness.
Article 21 Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except
according to procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and
non-citizens.

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The Supreme Court has reaffirmed its judgement in the Menaka case in the subsequent
cases. It has declared the following rights as part of Article 21:
➢ Right to live with human dignity.
➢ Right to a decent environment, including pollution-free water and air and protection
against hazardous industries.
➢ Right to livelihood.
➢ Right to Privacy.
➢ Right to shelter.
➢ Right to health.
➢ Right to free education up to 14 years of age.
➢ Right to free legal aid.
➢ Right against solitary confinement.
➢ Right to a speedy trial.
➢ Right against handcuffing.
➢ Right against inhuman treatment.
➢ Right against delayed execution.
➢ Right to travel abroad.
➢ Right against bonded labour.
➢ Right against custodial harassment.
➢ Right to emergency medical aid.
➢ Right to timely medical treatment in government hospitals.
➢ Right not to be driven out of a state.
➢ Right to a fair trial.
➢ Right of a prisoner to have necessities of life.
➢ Right of women to be treated with decency and dignity.
➢ Right against public hanging.
➢ Right to the road in hilly areas.
➢ Right to information.
➢ Right to reputation.
➢ Right of appeal from a judgement of conviction
➢ Right to family pension
➢ Right to social and economic justice and empowerment
➢ Right against bar fetters
➢ Right to appropriate life insurance policy
➢ Right to sleep
➢ Right to freedom from noise pollution
➢ Right to sustainable development
➢ Right to opportunity.

86. Consider the following provisions mentioned in the Indian Constitution :

1. Rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India.
2. Continuance of the rights of citizenship
3. Power of Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship
Which of the above-mentioned provisions came into force on the day the Constituent Assembly of
India adopted the Constitution of India ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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EXPLANATION:
The provisions of the Constitution pertaining to citizenship, elections, provisional Parliament, temporary
and transitional provisions, and short titles contained in Articles 5, 6, 7,8,9, 60, 324, 366,367, 379, 380,
388,391, 392 and 393 were given immediate effect, i.e., from November 26, 1949. The rest of the
Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950. This day is referred to in the Constitution as the 'date
of its commencement' and celebrated as Republic Day.
➢ Article 8 of the Indian Constitution deals with the rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian
origin who reside outside India.
➢ Any person of Indian origin who is not a citizen of any other country shall be eligible for registration
as an Overseas Citizen of India (OCI). This provision allows individuals who have Indian ancestry
to have a special status and certain rights in India.
➢ The OCI status provides individuals with various benefits, including the right to travel to India
without a visa, the right to work and study in India, and the right to own property in the country.
Thus, Article 8 came into force on the day the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of
India. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Article 10 states that every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India under any of the foregoing
provisions of this part shall, subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament, continue
to be such citizen. Accordingly, Parliament passed the Citizenship Act of 1955, which states every person
who is a citizen of India shall continue to be a citizen of India under the provisions of the Citizenship Act
of 1955.
Thus, Article 10 of the Constitution came into force on the Commencement of the Constitution (January
26, 1950). So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Article 11 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to enact laws pertaining to citizenship,
including the acquisition and termination of citizenship rights. It grants the Parliament the authority to lay
down the criteria and procedures for acquiring or losing Indian citizenship. It is important to note that
Article 11 is a standalone provision and does not explicitly define the concept of citizenship. The definition
of citizenship, along with the modes of acquisition and termination, is primarily governed by the Citizenship
Act of 1955, which the Parliament enacted in the exercise of its powers under Article 11.
Article 11 of the Constitution came into force on the Commencement of the Constitution (January 26,
1950). So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CITIZENSHIP
About Articles 5 to 11
➢ Article 5: Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution
➢ Article 6: Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from
Pakistan
➢ Article 7: Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan
➢ Article 8: Rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside
India
➢ Article 9: Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign State not to be citizens
➢ Article 10: Continuance of the rights of citizenship
➢ Article 11: Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law
Overseas To be eligible for OCI registration under Article 8, the person must meet certain criteria:
Citizen of ➢ The person must be of Indian origin or the spouse of a person of Indian origin.
India (OCI) ➢ The person must not be a citizen of any other country.
Cardholder ➢ The person must not have been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh at any time.
➢ The person must not be a minor child of a person who is ineligible for OCI
registration.

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It is important to note that individuals who have acquired citizenship from another
country, except for those from Pakistan and Bangladesh, are not eligible for OCI
registration under Article 8.
Benefits of OCI ➢ Visa-Free Travel: OCI cardholders can travel to India without a visa. They are
Status granted a multiple-entry, lifelong visa.
➢ Residence and Work: OCI cardholders have the right to live and work in India
indefinitely. They are not subject to any visa-related restrictions.
➢ Property Ownership: OCI cardholders can own residential and commercial
properties in India, except for agricultural and plantation properties.
➢ Education and Research: OCI cardholders have access to educational institutions
in India and can pursue higher education or research without any limitations.
➢ Financial and Economic Rights: OCI cardholders are treated at par with Non-
Resident Indians (NRIs) in matters of financial, economic, and educational
opportunities.
Non- An Indian citizen who ordinarily resides outside India and holds an Indian Passport.
Resident
Indian (NRI)
Person of A person whose ancestors were an Indian national and who is presently holding another
Indian country's citizenship nationality, i.e. he/she is holding a foreign passport.
Origin (PIO)

87. Consider the following statements :

Statement 1 :
The members of the Constituent Assembly were partly elected and partly nominated.
Statement 2 :
The representatives of each community were elected by members of the community in the
provincial legislative assembly and the representatives of the princely states were nominated by
the heads of the princely states.
Statement 3 :
The Constituent Assembly includes representation from both the British Indian provinces and the
princely states to ensure a balance of power while drafting the Indian constitution under the
Cabinet Mission Plan.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct and both of them explain Statement 1
(b) Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct, but only one of them explains Statement 1
(c) Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct, but none of them explains Statement 1
(d) Neither Statement 2 nor Statement 3 is correct.
EXPLANATION:
The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet
Mission Plan.
➢ The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389. Of these, 296 seats were to be allotted
to British India and 93 seats to the princely states.
➢ Out of 296 seats allotted to British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the eleven governors’
provinces and four from the four Chief Commissioners’ provinces, one from each.
➢ Each province and princely state (or group of states in the case of small states) were to be allotted seats
in proportion to their respective population. Roughly one seat was to be allotted for every million
population.
➢ Seats allocated to each British province were to be divided among the three principal communities–
Muslims, Sikhs and General (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population.

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➢ The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the
provincial legislative assembly, and voting was to be done by proportional representation by means of
a single transferable vote.
➢ The representatives of the princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.
It is, thus, clear that the Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body.
Moreover, the members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who
themselves were elected on a limited franchise.
The Constituent Assembly includes representation from both the British Indian provinces and the princely
states to ensure a balance of power while drafting the Indian constitution under the Cabinet Mission Plan.
So, Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct, but only one (statement 2) of them explains
Statement 1.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
COMMITTEES OF THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY
About The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks
of constitution-making. Out of these, eight were major committees, and the others were
minor committees.
Major ➢ Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru
Committees ➢ Union Constitution Committee -Jawaharlal Nehru
➢ Provincial Constitution Committee -Sardar Patel
➢ Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
➢ Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded
Areas - Sardar Patel. This committee had the following five sub-committees:
• Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee - J.B. Kripalani
• Minorities Sub-Committee - H.C. Mukherjee
• North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas
Sub-Committee -Gopinath Bardoloi
• Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (other than those in Assam) Sub-
Committee - A.V. Thakkar
• North-West Frontier Tribal Areas Sub-Committee
➢ Rules of Procedure Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
➢ States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) Jawaharlal Nehru
➢ Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Minor ➢ Finance and Staff Committee - Dr Rajendra Prasad
Committees ➢ Credentials Committee - Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
➢ House Committee - B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
➢ Order of Business Committee - Dr. K.M. Munshi
➢ Ad-hoc Committee on the National Flag - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
➢ Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly G.V. Mavalankar
➢ Ad-hoc Committee on the Supreme Court - S. Varadachari (Not an Assembly Member)
➢ Committee on Chief Commissioners’ Provinces - B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
➢ Expert Committee on the Financial Provisions of the Union Constitution -Nalini
Ranjan Sarkar (Not an Assembly Member)
➢ Linguistic Provinces Commission - S.K. Dar (Not an Assembly Member)
➢ Special Committee to Examine the Draft Constitution Jawaharlal Nehru
➢ Press Gallery Committee - Usha Nath Sen
➢ Ad-hoc Committee on Citizenship - S. Varadachari (Not an Assembly Member)

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88. Consider the following :

1. Cas9
2. ISDra2TnpB
3. Cas12a
How many of the above is/are genome-editing tools for plants ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Gene editing involves changing the sequence of DNA using specific enzymes which can cut DNA at a precise
location, thus permitting the removal, addition, or replacement of genetic information within a gene. In
organisms, this modification directly alters the genetic instructions encoded in the DNA.
CRISPR stands for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats, and Cas9 (which stands for
CRISPR- associated Protein cuts DNA strands at a specific location, creating a gap that can be filled with
new DNA.The double action gene modification method, called CRISRP-Cas9 is a mechanism that can edit
the genomes of humans, pathogens, and plants. Thus, Cas9 is used as a genome-editing tool for plants.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
ISDra2TnpB is a plant genome editor consisting of a protein derived from bacteria called Deinococcus
radiodurans (famous for being able to survive extreme environmental conditions). ISDra2TnpB is less than
half the size of Cas9 and Cas12. TnpB is a protein made up of around 400 amino acid units (different
combinations of the 20 amino acids make up all proteins). It belongs to a family of transposable elements,
or transposons. Sometimes called “jumping genes”, transposons are parts of a genome that can move from
one location to another. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Cas12a, also known as Cpf1, is a Versatile Tool in the Plant Genome Editing Tool. It is a highly versatile
CRISPR-Cas enzyme that has been widely used in genome editing. Unlike its well-known counterpart,
Cas9, Cas12a has unique features that make it a highly efficient genome editing tool in AT-rich genomic
regions. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
GENOME EDITING AND CRISPR-Cas9
Recently ICAR team makes a tool small enough to edit plant genomes. ICAR reported developing a
in news plant genome editor consisting of a protein called ISDra2TnpB.
The study claims the new TnpB-based system achieves an editing efficiency of 33.58% in an
average plant genome and can target regions of the genome that are inaccessible to Cas9 or
Cas12.
➢ The study also shows the new genome editor works in both types of flowering plant
species—those with one or two “seed leaves” or cotyledons (monocots and dicots),
establishing ISDra2TnpB as a versatile and promising tool for plant genome
engineering.
About ➢ Genome editing is a technology that allows scientists to modify DNA by adding, removing,
or altering genetic material. It is widely used in research to study and potentially treat
diseases.
➢ CRISPR-Cas9 is a popular genome-editing method because it is faster, cheaper, more
accurate, and more efficient than older techniques.
➢ CRISPR-Cas9 is based on a natural defense system found in bacteria, which helps them
fight viruses by cutting their DNA.
➢ Scientists have adapted this system to edit genes by designing guide RNA that directs the
Cas9 enzyme to a specific DNA sequence, where it makes a cut.

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➢ Once the DNA is cut, researchers use the cell’s natural repair system to add, delete, or
modify genetic material.
➢ Other enzymes like Cpf1 can also be used for gene editing, offering additional options for
precise genetic modifications.

89. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution does not reveal the secular character of the
Indian state ?
(a) Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment
(b) Any section of the citizen residing in India having a distinct language and script
(c) All persons have the right to freely profess and practice any religion
(d) Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in hazardous activities
EXPLANATION:
The Constitution of India stands for a Secular State. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as
the official religion of the Indian State.
Article 16 provides for equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of employment or appointment to
any office under the State. No citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or
office under the State on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or residence.
Therefore, Article 16 is secular in character as it provides for equality of opportunity for all citizens without
any form of discrimination based on religion. So, Option (a) is not correct.
Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of India having a distinct language,
script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same. Therefore, Article 29 grants the right
to conserve their distinct language and script and safeguards them from any form of discrimination. It
clearly reveals the secular character of the Indian State. So, Option (b) is not correct.
Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess,
practice and propagate religion. Article 25 covers both religious beliefs (doctrines) and religious practices
(rituals). Moreover, these rights are available to all persons–citizens as well as non-citizens. Therefore,
Article 25 reveals the secular character of the Indian State by treating every religion equally. So, Option (c)
is not correct.
Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other
hazardous activities like construction work or railway. But it does not prohibit their employment in any
harmless or innocent work. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986 is the most important
law in this direction.
Article 24 of the Constitution does not reveal secular character but rather the humane value it enshrines.
So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SECULAR CHARACTER OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION
About The Constitution of India stands for a Secular State. Hence, it does not uphold any particular
religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution
reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
➢ The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
➢ The Preamble secures liberty of belief, faith, and worship for all citizens of India.
➢ The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the
laws (Article 14).
➢ The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the grounds of religion (Article 15).
➢ Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
➢ All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess,
practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).

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➢ Every religious denomination or any of its sections shall have the right to manage its
religious affairs (Article 26).
➢ No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion
(Article 27).
➢ No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by
the State (Article 28).
➢ Any section of the citizens shall have the right to conserve its distinct language, script or
culture (Article 29).
➢ All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of
their choice (Article 30).
➢ The State shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens (Article 44).
Western vs ➢ The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between religion (the
Indian church) and the State (the politics).
Secularism ➢ This negative concept of secularism is inapplicable in the Indian situation where the
society is multireligious.
➢ Hence, the Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism, i.e., giving
equal respect to all religions or protecting all religions equally.

90. Consider the following statements :

1. In the First Past the Post (FPTP) system, the candidate is declared elected by securing the highest
number of votes.
2. In the Proportional Representation system, every party gets seats in the legislature in proportion
to the percentage of votes.
3. In India, the President and vice-presidential elections are held based on the FPTP system, whereas
members of the Rajya Sabha are elected based on the Proportional Representation system.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The first-past-the-post (FPTP) system is also known as the simple majority system. In this voting method,
the candidate with the highest number of votes in a constituency is declared the winner. The system of
territorial representation system is adopted in India in direct elections to the Lok Sabha and State
Legislative Assemblies.
Under territorial representation (First-past-the-post system), every member of the legislature represents a
geographical area known as a constituency.
From each constituency, only one representative is elected. Hence, such a constituency is known as a
single-member constituency.
In this system, a candidate who secures the majority of votes is declared elected. This simple majority
system of representation does not represent the whole electorate. In other words, it does not secure due
representation to minorities (small groups). So, Statement 1 is correct.
The system of proportional representation (first-past-the-post system) aims to remove the defects of
territorial representation. Under this system, all sections of the people get representation in proportion to
their number. Even the smallest section of the population gets its due share of representation in the
legislature.
Each party is allotted a share of seats in the parliament in proportion to its share of votes. Each party fills
its quota of seats by picking many of its nominees from a preference list that has been declared before the
elections. So, Statement 2 is correct.

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In India, the President, Vice-presidential elections and members of the Rajya Sabha and state legislative
council were elected based on the Proportional Representation system, while members of the Lok Sabha
and state legislative assembly were elected based on First-past the post (FPTP) System (Territorial
representation). So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
REASON FOR ADOPTION OF FIRST-PAST-THE-POST SYSTEM
About Though some members of the Constituent Assembly advocated the system of proportional
representation for the election of members to the Lok Sabha, the Constitution has not adopted
the First-past-the-post system for two reasons.
➢ Difficult for the voters to understand the system (which is complicated) due to the low
literacy scale in the country.
➢ Unsuitability to the parliamentary government due to the tendency of the system to multiply
political parties, leading to instability in government.
Demerits The system of proportional representation has the following demerits:
➢ It is highly expensive.
➢ It does not give any scope for organising by-elections.
➢ It eliminates intimate contact between voters and representatives.
➢ It promotes minority thinking and group interests.
➢ It increases the significance of the party system and decreases that of the voter.

91. How can an amendment be made related to the distribution of Legislative powers between the Union
and states mentioned in the Indian Constitution ?
If the bill seeking amendment is passed in either House of Parliament by,
(a) A majority of the total membership of that house
(b) A majority of the total membership of that house and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of
the members of that house present and voting
(c) Option (b) above and the amendment shall require to be ratified by the Legislatures of States
not less than one-half of the States.
(d) Option (b) above and the amendment shall require to be ratified by the Legislatures of States not
less than two-thirds of the States.
EXPLANATION:
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution
and its procedure.
It states that the Parliament may, in the exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition,
variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down for the
purpose.
However, the Parliament cannot amend those provisions that form the Constitution's ‘basic structure’, as
the Supreme Court ruled in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
An amendment to the Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in
either House of Parliament, and when the Bill is passed in each House by a majority of the total membership
of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and
voting, it shall be presented to the President who shall give his assent to the Bill and thereupon the
Constitution shall stand amended in accordance with the terms of the Bill:
Provided that if such amendment seeks to make any change in:
➢ Article 54, article 55, article 73, article 162 or article 241,
➢ Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI, or Chapter I of Part XI,
➢ any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule, or
➢ the representation of States in Parliament, or
➢ the provisions of this article.
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The amendment shall also require to be ratified by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states by
resolution to that effect passed by those Legislators before the Bill making provision for such amendment
is presented to the President for assent.
Chapter I of Part XI deals with the Legislative relations between the Union and the States.
Therefore, amendments to the Legislative relations of the Union and states require a majority of the total
membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that house
present, followed by ratification of the Legislatures of States not less than one-half of the States. So, Option
(c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PROCEDURE FOR AMENDMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION
About The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution, as laid down in Article 368, is as follows:
➢ An amendment to the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the
purpose of either the House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
➢ The Bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require
prior permission of the President.
➢ The Bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total
membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present
and voting.
➢ Each House must pass the Bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses,
there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation
and passage of the Bill.
➢ If the Bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by
the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of
the House present and voting.
➢ After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where
necessary, the Bill is presented to the President for assent.
➢ The President must give his assent to the Bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the Bill
nor return the Bill for reconsideration by the Parliament.
➢ After the President’s assent, the Bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act), and
the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

92. With reference to bomb cyclones, consider the following statements :

1. Bomb cyclones generally occur in the equatorial regions during summer.
2. They can result in frigid temperatures and flooding.
3. Intense bomb cyclones can form over oceans.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
A bomb cyclone, also referred to as explosive cyclogenesis or bombogenesis, is a mid-latitude cyclone that
has rapidly intensified.
A cyclone is a low-pressure weather system one where the atmospheric pressure is lower at its center than
in surrounding areas with winds rotating inward. It circulates in a counterclockwise direction in the
northern hemisphere and a clockwise direction in the southern hemisphere. A bomb cyclone's winds can
reach hurricane force 74 miles (119 km) per hour and stronger. These storms tend to form during winter
and can spawn copious amounts of precipitation. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

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A dangerous weather phenomenon called a bomb cyclone that occurs in mid-latitudes between Earth's
tropics and the polar regions can bring strong and damaging winds, torrential rains, heavy snowfall,
flooding and frigid temperatures. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Many of the most intense bomb cyclones form over oceans. Precipitation can be prodigious. When water
vapour changes into liquid and ice, as it does in these storms, enormous amounts of energy - called latent
heat energy - are released. Some of that energy further intensifies the storm. By virtue of the atmospheric
pressure getting so low, differences in pressure across the storm can become very large, powering strong
winds that can have devastating effects. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
BOMB CYCLONES

About ➢ Bomb cyclones form when surface conditions and the jet stream create ideal conditions
for rapid storm intensification.
➢ These storms develop from disturbances in mid-troposphere winds (3-5 miles above the
surface) and are often fuelled by warm ocean waters.
➢ They mostly occur over oceans during cold seasons—November to March in the Northern
Hemisphere and May to August in the Southern Hemisphere.
➢ Storm tracks along east coasts, like near the Gulf Stream (North America) and Kuroshio
Current (Japan), are particularly prone to bomb cyclones.
➢ They can be highly destructive, especially to ships, as they bring intense winds and rapid
pressure drops, sometimes below 950 mb.
➢ Though they can produce hurricane-force winds and sometimes have an "eye," bomb
cyclones are not hurricanes; they form differently and are linked to weather fronts and the
jet stream.

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93. 125th Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with which of the following ?
(a) Granting more financial and administrative powers to tribal autonomous councils under
the Sixth Schedule.
(b) Addition of Gorkha Hill Council, Darjeeling to the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
(c) Reserving one-third of seats for women in India's legislative bodies.
(d) Restored the power of state governments to identify socially and educationally backward classes.
EXPLANATION:
The 125th Constitution Amendment Bill, 2019, was introduced in Rajya Sabha.
➢ The Bill amends provisions related to the Finance Commission and the Sixth Schedule
(administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram).
➢ The Bill aims to amend Article 280 of the Constitution of India to give the councils more financial,
executive, and administrative powers.
➢ The Bill aims to enable the Finance Commission to recommend measures needed to augment the
Consolidated Fund of the Sixth Schedule States, with the goal of supplementing resources of Sixth
Scheduled Autonomous Councils, Village Councils, and Municipal Councils. So, Option (a) is
correct.
The 107th Constitution Amendment Bill, 2007 and the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment)
Bill, 2007 aims to amend the Constitution to include Gorkha Hill Council, Darjeeling in the Sixth Schedule.
➢ The Sixth Schedule provides for the creation of autonomous District Councils in certain tribal areas
of the North-Eastern states. The Bill seeks to form a District Council for the hill areas of Darjeeling
in West Bengal called the Gorkha Hill Council, Darjeeling (GHC).
All District Councils have the power to make laws on a range of subjects such as the allotment of land, use
of water course, and inheritance of property. The GHC has the power to make laws on 45 additional
subjects such as agriculture, education and transport.
The laws made by GHC cannot nullify the existing rights and privileges of any Indian citizen, including
land rights, if such citizen is otherwise eligible to acquire land within that area. So, Option (b) is not
correct.
The 128th Constitution Amendment Bill 2023 was introduced in the Lok Sabha.
➢ Reservation for women: The Bill reserves, as nearly as may be, one-third of all seats for women in
Lok Sabha, state legislative assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital
Territory of Delhi. This will also apply to the seats reserved for SCs and STs in Lok Sabha and
state legislatures.
➢ Commencement of reservation: The reservation will be effective after the census conducted after
the commencement of this Bill has been published. Based on the census, delimitation will be
undertaken to reserve seats for women. The reservation will be provided for a period of 15
years. However, it shall continue to this date as determined by a law made by Parliament.
➢ Rotation of seats: Seats reserved for women will be rotated after each delimitation, as determined
by a law made by Parliament. So, Option (c) is not correct.
The 127th Constitution Amendment Bill, 2021, was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Social
Justice and Empowerment.
➢ The Bill amends the Constitution to allow states and union territories to prepare their own list of
socially and educationally backward classes.
The 102nd Constitution Amendment Act 2018 has inserted Article 342-A in the Constitution of India
pertaining to the Central List of Socially and Educationally backward Classes (SEBCs - commonly known
as other backward classes - OBCs), which had authorized the President to specify the Central list of the
SEBCs, in relation to a particular State or Union Territory. Further, any modification to the central list of
the SEBCs (OBCs) can only be made by Parliament. So, Option (d) is not correct.

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94. Which of the following features is/are borrowed from the Canadian Constitution ?
1. Judiciary
2. Independence of judiciary
3. Judicial Review
4. Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
Features borrowed from the Canadian constitution:
➢ Federation with a strong Centre
➢ Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre
➢ Appointment of state governors by the Centre
➢ Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. So, Statement 4 is correct.
Features borrowed from the Government of India Act of 1935:
➢ Federal Scheme
➢ Office of governor
➢ Judiciary
➢ Public Service Commissions
➢ Emergency provisions and administrative details.
Thus, the Judiciary is borrowed from the Government of India Act of 1935. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Features borrowed from US Constitution:
➢ Fundamental rights
➢ independence of judiciary
➢ judicial review
➢ impeachment of the president
➢ removal of Supreme Court and high court judges
➢ Post of vice-president.
Thus, both independence of judiciary and judicial review are borrowed from US constitution. So,
Statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SOURCES OF THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
About ➢ The Constitution of India has borrowed most of its provisions from the
Constitutions of various other countries as well as from the Government of India
Act of 1935.
➢ Dr. B.R. Ambedkar proudly acclaimed that the Constitution of India has been
framed after ‘ransacking all the known Constitutions of the World.
➢ The structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the
Government of India Act of 1935.
➢ The philosophical part of the Constitution (the Fundamental Rights and the
Directive Principles of State Policy) derives their inspiration from the American
and Irish Constitutions, respectively.
➢ The political part of the Constitution (the principle of Cabinet Government and
the relations between the Executive and the Legislature) has been largely drawn
from the British Constitution.

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➢ The other provisions of the Constitution have been drawn from the Constitutions
of Canada, Australia, Germany, USSR (now Russia), France, South Africa, Japan
and so on.
➢ The most profound influence and material source of the Constitution is the
Government of India Act, 1935.
➢ The Federal Scheme, Judiciary, Governors, Emergency Powers, the Public Service
Commissions and most of the administrative details are drawn from this Act. More
than half of the provisions of Constitution are identical to or bear a close
resemblance to the Act of 1935.
British ➢ Parliamentary government,
Constitution ➢ Rule of Law,
➢ legislative procedure,
➢ single citizenship,
➢ cabinet system,
➢ prerogative writs,
➢ parliamentary privileges and
➢ bicameralism.
Irish ➢ Directive Principles of State Policy,
Constitution ➢ nomination of members to Rajya Sabha and method of election of president
Australian ➢ Concurrent List,
Constitution ➢ freedom of trade, commerce and inter-course, and
➢ joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
Weimar ➢ Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.
Constitution of
Germany
Soviet ➢ Fundamental duties and
Constitution ➢ The ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in the Preamble.
(USSR, now
Russia)
French ➢ Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble.
Constitution
South African ➢ Procedure for amendment of the Constitution and election of members of Rajya
Constitution Sabha.
Japanese ➢ The procedure established by Law.
Constitution

95. Consider the following :

1. Chief Election Commissioner
2. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
3. Chief Ministers of States within their respective States
4. Cabinet Secretary
Which of the following is the correct order of warrant of precedence ?
(a) 3-2-1-4
(b) 1-3-2-4
(c) 3-1-4-2
(d) 1-3-4-2
EXPLANATION:
The Table of Precedence is related to the rank and order of the officials of the Union and State Governments.
But, the order in this Table is meant for state and ceremonial occasions and has no application in the day-
to-day business of Government.

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The present notification on this subject was issued on 26 July, 1979. This notification superseded all the
previous notifications and was also amended many times.
The updated version of the Table, containing a total of 26 Precedence and all the amendments made therein
so far (2019), in that Top 11 are given below:
1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Prime Minister
4. Governors of states within their respective states
5. Former presidents
5A. Deputy Prime Minister
6. Chief Justice of India, Speaker of Lok Sabha
7. Cabinet Ministers of the Union, Chief Ministers of States within their respective States Vice-Chairperson
NITI Aayog, Former Prime Ministers, Leaders of Opposition in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.
7A. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
8. Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners of Commonwealth countries
accredited to India, Chief Ministers of States outside their respective States, Governors of States outside
their respective States
9. Judges of the Supreme Court
9A. Chairperson, Union Public Service Commission, Chief Election Commissioner Comptroller & Auditor
General of India.
10. Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha Deputy Chief Ministers of States Deputy Speaker, LokSabha, Members
of the NITI Aayog, Ministers of State of the Union (and any other Minister in the Ministry of Defence for
defence matters)
11. The Attorney General of India, Cabinet Secretary, and Lieutenant Governors within their respective
Union Territories
Thus, the correct order of warrant of precedence is (3-2-1-4), i.e.
The Chief Ministers of States within their respective States (7 th rank) > Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
(7A rank) > Chief Election Commissioner (9A rank) > Cabinet Secretary (11th rank). So, Option (a) is
correct.

96. With reference to the Central Silk Board, consider the following statements :
1. It is an autonomous body.
2. It is attached to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
3. It has representation at the International Sericulture Commission.
4. The Central Silk Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
How many of the above statements is/are not correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
The Central Silk Board is an autonomous statutory body established by the Parliament in 1948 under the
Central Silk Board Act.
➢ It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Textiles (not the Ministry of Commerce
and Industry), with its headquarters located in Bengaluru.
➢ The Board comprises 39 members, appointed for a period not exceeding 3 years as per the powers and
provisions under Sub-Section 3 of Section 4 of the CSB Act 1948.
The Chairperson of the Board is to be appointed by the Central Government, and two officials are to be
nominated by the Central Government. One of whom shall be the head of the Silk Division in the Ministry

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of Textiles as the Vice-Chairperson, and another shall be the Secretary of the Board, both being officers
not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government.
So, Statements 1 and 4 are correct, and Statements 2 is not correct.
The International Sericultural Commission (ISC) is a UN-registered inter-governmental organisation
engaged in the development of the sericulture and silk industry in the world. The formulation of ISC was
initiated with the gathering of global scientists led by Sir Louis Pasteur in 1870. This gathering was later
institutionalised as an inter-governmental organisation for silk.
➢ ISC has been headquartered in Bengaluru since 2013 and is headed by the elected Secretary General,
who is also the Member Secretary of the Central Silk Board.
➢ After coming to India, ISC's country membership base increased from 13 to 23. Further, ISC has around
50 associate members, including individuals, organisations, etc., from across the world.
➢ India is one of the founding member countries of ISC, which has 23 countries.
➢ The member countries of ISC are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Brazil, Cuba, DPR Korea, Egypt, Ghana,
Greece, India, Indonesia, Iran, Japan, Kenya, Madagascar, Nepal, Romania, Syria, Thailand, Tunisia,
Uganda, Uzbekistan and Zimbabwe.
➢ India has been heading the country since 2013. Earlier, the elections were held during 2012, 2015,
2018, 2021 and the present 2024.
➢ India retained the chair, fostering its significant contributions and efforts to grow the sericulture
industry. Shri P. Sivakumar, IFS, Member Secretary, Central Silk Board, Ministry of Textiles, was
elected as the Secretary General of the International Sericulture Commission (ISC) for the tenure 2025-
27. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CENTRAL SILK BOARD
About ➢ The Central Silk Board (CSB), (under the Ministry of Textiles), is the only organization in
India dedicated to the development of sericulture.
➢ It focuses on research and development (R&D) in sericulture, a village-based agro-industry
that provides livelihoods to around 95 lakh rural families, including women and tribal
communities.
➢ CSB operates in 27 states and has 159 offices across India, promoting eco-friendly silk
production that supports plantations and sustainable development.
➢ Its vision is to make India a global leader in silk production, with a mission to improve R&D,
technology transfer, employment opportunities, and income levels in sericulture.
➢ CSB works to enhance productivity, efficiency, and quality at all stages of silk production,
from mulberry cultivation to silk reeling and spinning.
➢ It ensures quality control by mandating that all raw silk is tested and graded before
marketing.
➢ CSB also advises the Central Government on silk industry policies, including import, export,
and market development, while collecting industry-related statistics.

97. If a person files a Public Interest Litigation (PIL), then which of the following type of petitions are
entertained as Public Interest Litigation as per the Supreme Court guidelines?
1. Petitions related to Landlord-tenant matters
2. Petitions related to Bonded Labour matters
3. Petitions related to admission to educational institutions
4. Petitions against police for refusing to register a case
5. Petitions related to Environmental pollution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3, 4 and 5 only

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EXPLANATION:
The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated and developed in the USA in the 1960s. The
Supreme Court has defined the PIL as “a legal action initiated in a court of law for the enforcement of public
interest or general interest in which the public or a class of the community have pecuniary interest or some
interest by which their legal rights or liabilities are affected.”
➢ In S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India Case, 1981—Justice P.N. Bhagawati presided over this case, which led
to a new era for PIL. The decision held that any individual member of the public or a social action group
can invoke the jurisdiction of the High Courts (Article 226) or the Supreme Court (Article 32) and seek
remedies for violations of legal or constitutional rights for those who are unable to do so due to social,
economic, or other disabilities.

The Supreme Court formulated a set of guidelines to be followed for entertaining letters or petitions received
by it as PIL. According to them, the letters or petitions falling under the following categories alone will
ordinarily be entertained as PIL:
➢ Bonded labour matters. So, Statement 2 is correct.
➢ Neglected children
➢ Non-payment of minimum wages to workers and exploitation of casual workers, and complaints of
violation of Labour Laws (except in individual cases)
➢ Petitions from jails complaining of harassment, for premature release and seeking release after having
completed 14 years in jail, death in jail, transfer, release on personal bond, speedy trial as a fundamental
right
➢ Petitions against police for refusing to register a case, harassment by police and death in police custody.
So, Statement 4 is correct.
➢ Petitions against atrocities on women, in particular harassment of bride, bride burning, rape, murder,
kidnapping, etc.
➢ Petitions complaining of harassment or torture of villagers by co-villagers or by police from persons
belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes and economically
backward classes
➢ Petitions pertaining to environmental pollution, disturbance of ecological balance, drugs, food
adulteration, maintenance of heritage and culture, antiques, forest and wildlife and other matters of
public importance. So, Statement 5 is correct.
➢ Petitions from riot victims.
➢ Family pension
The cases falling under the following categories will not be entertained as PIL:
➢ Landlord-tenant matters. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
➢ Service matters and those pertaining to pension and gratuity.
➢ Complaints against Central/ State Government departments and Local Bodies, except those relating
items mentioned in the category that will be entertained as PIL.
➢ Admission to medical and other educational institutions. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
➢ Petitions for early hearing of cases pending in High Courts and Subordinate Courts.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION
About ➢ A Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is not defined in any law, statute or act. It is filed before
the courts under the Constitution of India to protect public rights and promote general
welfare.
➢ The concept of PIL originated in India from the power of judicial review.
➢ The introduction of PIL in India was facilitated by the relaxation of the traditional rule of
‘locus standi’.

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➢ According to this rule, only that person whose rights are infringed alone can move the
court for the remedies, whereas, the PIL is an exception to this traditional rule.
➢ Under the PIL, any public-spirited citizen or a social organisation can move the court for
the enforcement of the rights of any person or group of persons who because of their
poverty or ignorance or socially or economically disadvantaged position are themselves
unable to approach the court for the remedies.
➢ Thus, in a PIL, any member of the public having ‘sufficient interest can approach the
court for enforcing the rights of other persons and redressal of a common grievance.
➢ The real purposes of PIL are:
• vindication of the rule of law,
• facilitating effective access to justice to the socially and economically weaker sections
of the society, and
• meaningful realisation of the fundamental rights.

98. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act gave the constitutional status to the Municipalities. Though
this act does not apply to scheduled areas and tribal areas, who/which of the following has power to
extend the provisions of the act to these areas subject to the modifications ?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament
(c) The State Legislature
(d) The Governor of the concerned state
EXPLANATION:
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act has added a new Part IX-A to the Constitution of India.
➢ This part is entitled as ‘The Municipalities’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
➢ In addition, the act has also added a new Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains
eighteen functional items of municipalities. It deals with Article 243-W.
➢ The act gave constitutional status to the municipalities. It has brought them under the purview of
justiciable part of the Constitution. In other words, state governments are under constitutional
obligation to adopt the new system of municipalities in accordance with the provisions of the act.
➢ The act aims at revitalising and strengthening the urban governments so that they function effectively
as units of local government.
According to Article 243ZC that this act does not apply to the scheduled areas and tribal areas in the
states. It shall also not affect the functions and powers of the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council of the West
Bengal.
However, the Parliament may extend the provisions of this part to the scheduled areas and tribal areas
subject to such exceptions and modifications as it may be specified in such law, and no such law shall be
deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of article 368. So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SALIENT FEATURES OF THE 74th CAA
Duration of ➢ The act provides for a five-year term of office for every municipality. However, it
Municipalities can be dissolved before the completion of its term.
➢ Further, the fresh elections to constitute a municipality shall be completed
• before the expiry of its duration of five years; or
• in case of dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months from the date
of its dissolution.
➢ But, where the remainder of the period (for which the dissolved municipality would
have continued) is less than six months, it shall not be necessary to hold any
election for constituting the new municipality for such period.

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➢ Moreover, a municipality constituted upon the dissolution of a municipality before

the expiration of its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period
for which the dissolved municipality would have continued had it not been so
dissolved.
➢ In other words, a municipality reconstituted after premature dissolution does not
enjoy the full period of five years but remains in office only for the remainder of
the period.
➢ The act also makes two more provisions with respect to dissolution:
• a municipality must be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard
before its dissolution; and
• no amendment of any law for the time being in force shall cause dissolution
of a municipality before the expiry of the five years term.
State Election ➢ The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and
Commission the conduct of all elections to the municipalities shall be vested in the state
election commission.
➢ The state legislature may make provision with respect to all matters relating to
elections to the municipalities
Finances The state legislature may
➢ Authorise a municipality to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and
fees;
➢ Assign to a municipality taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by state
government;
➢ Provide for making grants-in-aid to the municipalities from the consolidated fund
of the state; and (d) provide for constitution of funds for crediting all moneys of the
municipalities.

99. Consider the following statements :

1. A Candidate shall be deemed to be nominated for election though he has not deposited the
security deposit.
2. A person must be registered as a voter for contesting an election as a candidate.
3. Elections will be revoked on the death of the contesting candidate set up by the recognized political
party.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
As per Section 34 1 (a) of the Representation of the People Act,1951; it is mandatory for the general
candidates to deposit security amount of Rs.25000 in case of Parliamentary constituency and Rs. 10, 000
to fight an election in Assembly Constituency.
As per Sec. 34 (1) (b), candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe have to deposit only half
of the amount for these two elections. Therefore, this amount deposited with the Election Commission is
called a security deposit in the election. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
For contesting an election as a candidate a person must be registered as a voter. Sec 4 (d) of Representation
People Act, 1951 precludes a person from contesting unless he is an elector in any parliamentary
constituency. Section 5 (c) of R. P. Act, 1951 has a similar provision for Assembly Constituencies. So,
Statement 2 is correct.
As per Section 52(1) in the Representation of the People Act, 1951, If a candidate from a recognized political
party dies before polling starts, and the returning officer confirms the death, the election will be postponed
(not revoked). The officer will report the incident to the Election Commission and relevant authorities.
However, the postponement will only be decided after reviewing all nominations, including that of the
deceased candidate. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
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100. Which one of the following is responsible for developing the National Agriculture Code ?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(b) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(c) Agrinnovate India
(d) Bureau of Indian Standards
EXPLANATION:
➢ The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has begun the process of formulating a National Agriculture Code
(NAC), on the lines of the existing National Building Code and National Electrical Code.
➢ The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS is the national body which sets standards for different products
across various economic sectors.
➢ In agriculture, it has already set standards for machinery (tractors, harvesters, etc.) and various inputs
(fertilisers, pesticides, etc.). However, there are still many areas not covered by the BIS standards.
• For example, there is no standard for agriculture practices like preparation of fields, micro irrigation
and water use. Thus, for a long time, policymakers have felt a need for a comprehensive standards
framework, like the one now being formulated by the BIS.
➢ The National Agriculture Code (NAC) will cover the entire agriculture cycle, and will also contain a
guidance note for future standardisation.
➢ The code will have two parts. The first will contain general principles for all crops, and the second will
deal with crop-specific standards for the likes of paddy, wheat, oilseeds, and pulses.
➢ The NAC will serve as a guide for farmers, agriculture universities, and officials involved in the field.
So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
NATIONAL AGRICULTURE CODE
About In addition to standards for agriculture machinery, the NAC will cover all agriculture
processes and post-harvest operations, such as crop selection, land preparation,
sowing/transplanting, irrigation/drainage, soil health management, plant health
management, harvesting/threshing, primary processing, post-harvest, sustainability, and
record maintenance.
It will also include standards for input management, like use of chemical fertilisers,
pesticides, and weedicides, as well as standards for crop storage and traceability.
Crucially, the NAC will cover all new and emerging areas like natural farming and organic
farming, as well as the use of Internet-of-Things in the field of agriculture.
Objectives ➢ To create an implementable national code covering recommendations for agriculture
of the practices taking agroclimatic zones, crop type, socio economic diversity of the country and
NAC all aspects of agrifood value chain into consideration;
➢ To act as an enabler of quality culture in Indian agriculture by providing the required
reference to policy makers, agriculture departments and regulators for incorporating the
provisions of NAC in their schemes, policies, or regulations;
➢ To create a comprehensive guide for the farming community to ensure effective decision
making in agricultural practices;
➢ To integrate relevant Indian Standards with recommended agricultural practices.
➢ To address the horizontal aspects of agriculture such as SMART farming, sustainability,
traceability and documentation; and
➢ To aid in the capacity building program organized by agriculture extension services and
civil society organisations.
Proposed The BIS has already formulated a strategy to standardise practices.
Timeline It has formed working panels for 12-14 specifically identified areas, which will include
university professors and R&D organisations.
These panels will draft the code, with a tentative deadline for the NAC set as October 2025.

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