Aadil kha

siroli

Academic Session 2024-2025

Roll No........................ Date........................
preparation

Total Time: 0 Hrs 40 Mins Max Marks: 90

General Instructions
dd

Standard/Class: 12th Subject: BIOLOGY (NEET)

Objective(MCQ) - (1 Marks)
Section A

N K
1. Example of brood parasitism
(a) Cuckoo (koel) and Crow
(c) Parrot and Pigeon
(b) Crow and Parrot
(d) Koel and Parrot
O [1]

2.

M
Presently _________ % of all bird species, _________ % of all mammals species,
_________ % of all amphibian species and _________ % of all gymnosperm species in
the world face the threat of extinction.
(a) 23, 32, 12, 31
R
(b) 12, 23, 32, 31
[1]

3.
(c) 12, 23, 31, 32

(a) Birds (b) Mammals

P E
(d) 23, 12, 32, 81

Following breeds many times during their lifetime except

(c) Amphibians (d) Pacific salmon fish
[1]

A
4. Ecology is a subject which studies the interactions among organisms and __________. [1]
(a) Amongst the organism and its chemical environment
(b) Between the organism and its physical environment

5.
P
(c) Amongst the organism and its habitat
(d) Between the organism and its biosphere

Pollination is essential in angiosperm plants because

(a) It decreases the time required for fertilization
(b) Both of the male and female gametes are non-motile and they need to be brought
[1]

together for fertilization

(c) It is a useless process (d) Both (a) and (b)

6. The stalk attaching ovule to placenta is [1]

(a) Funiculus (b) Hilum (c) Raphe (d) Chalaza

7. Which oldest seed is excavated form Arctic Tundra? [1]

(a) Lupin arcticus (b) Phoenix dactylitera
(c) Solanum nigrum (d) Raphanus sativus

8. The spread of genes from one breeding population to another by migration which [1]
may result in change in gene frequency is:
PaperMonk By Invotech Labs Page 1 of 9
 (a) Gene flow (b) Genetic drift
(c) Gene frequency (d) None of these

9. Aquatic mammals in polar seas have a thick layer of fat known as __________ [1]
(a) Blubber (b) Flubber (c) Rubber (d) Stubber

10. Which of the following shows commensalism [1]

(a) Sea anemone and Clown fish (b) Lichens
(c) Lice and Human (d) Mycorrhizae

11. Organs which have the same fundamental structure but different in functions are [1]
called:
(a) Vestigial organs (b) Analogous organs
(c) Homoplastic organs (d) Homologous organs

12. Which of the following is a partial root parasite? [1]

(a) Sandal wood (b) Mistletoe (c) Orobanche (d) Ganoderma

13. Example of interspecifi c hybridization

(a) Hisardale (b) Mule

(a) Darwin’s fi nches

(c) Jersey

(b) Marsupials of Australia

(d) Leghorn

N K
14. The classical example of adaptive radiation in development of new species is:
[1]

[1]

O
(c) Both of these (d) None of these

15. Above diagram shows: [1]

R M
P E
P A
(a) Monohybrid cross (b) Dihydrid cross
(c) Trihydrid cross (d) All of the above

16. In Mendelism, linkage was not observed due to [1]

(a) Mutation (b) Independent assortment
(c) Synapsis (d) Crossing over

17. Cuscata, a parasitic plant that is commonly found growing on hedge plants has lost [1]
its __________ and __________ in the course of evolution
(a) Root and Stem (b) Leaves and Chlorophyll
(c) Root and Leaves (d) Leaves and Stem

PaperMonk By Invotech Labs Page 2 of 9

18. Which one of the following is correct for yucca plant? [1]
(a) Moth species and yucca plant cannot complete their life cycles without each other
(b) The moth deposits is egg in the locule of ovary of yucca plant
(c) The larva of the moth came out of the eggs as the seed starts developing of yucca
(d) All are correct

19. The homologous organs are wings of: [1]

(a) Pigeon and bat (b) Butterfl y and bat
(c) Sparrow and honeybee (d) Parrot and hands of man

20. Lederberg replica experiment explains: [1]

(a) Mutation theory (b) Darwin’s theory
(c) Lamarck’s theory (d) None of these

21. How much pressure is experienced by marine invertebrates and fishes living at the [1]
great depths in oceans?

K
(a) < 100 times that of normal atmospheric pressure
(b) < 100 times that of hydrostatic pressure
(c) > 100 times that of hydrostatic pressure
(d) > 100 times that of normal atmospheric pressure

evolution thus pioneering the theory of mutations was:

(a) Fruitfly
(c) Garden pea
(b) China rose
(d) Evening primrose
N
22. The material on which Hugo de Vries experimented to explain the mechanism of

O
[1]

Reasons could be

R M
23. A bacterial cell was transformed with a recombinant DNA that was generated using a [1]
human gene. However, the transformed cells did not produce the desired protein.

(a) human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot process.

(d) all of the above

24. Abiogenesis means:

P E
(b) amino acid codons for humans and bacteria are different.
(c) human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria.

[1]

A
(a) Spontaneous generation
(c) Origin of life from living organisms

P
(b) Origin of viruses and microbes

(d) Origin of life from nonliving organisms

25. The first experiment on chemical evolution and origin of life was carried out by:
(a) Watson and Crick (b) Miller and Urey
[1]

(c) Beadle and Tatum (d) Darwin and Wallace

26. Bryophytes evolved in which of these periods? [1]

(a) Carboniferous (b) Permian (c) Triassic (d) Cretaceous

27. The early belief of the spontaneous origin of life was disproved by: [1]
(a) Lederberg (b) Robert Koch
(c) Louis Pasteur (d) Charles Darwin

28. Zygote divides after formation of endosperm [1]

(a) To provide assured nutrition to developing endosperm
(b) To provide assured nutrition to developing embryo
(c) None of them (d) Both are correct

PaperMonk By Invotech Labs Page 3 of 9

29. Select incorrect matching [1]

N K
30. Loss of biodiversity in a region leads to increase in variability in certain ecosystem [1]

O
processes like
(a) Plant productivity (b) Water use
(c) Pest and disease cycle (d) All of these

31. Hotspot is a region of

(a) Endemism
(c) Low level of species richness

32. Hotspots are characterized by

R M
(b) Accelerated habitat loss
(d) Both (a) and (b)
[1]

[1]

33. Galaxies contain:

(a) Stars
E
(a) Very high species richness
(c) Region of accelerated habitat loss

P
(b) High degree of endemism

(b) Clouds of gas and dust

(d) All of the above

(c) Both (d) None

[1]

(a) Plasmids

P A
34. Engineered bacterium carries
(b) r-DNA (c) c-DNA

35. Semi-dwarf varieties of rice developed in India are

(a) Sonalika and Kalyan sona
(c) Jaya and Ratna
(d) ss-DNA

(b) IR–8 and Taichung Native–I

(d) Altas 66 and Himgiri
[1]

[1]

36. The organisms which are restricted to a narrow range of salinity are known as [1]
(a) Salinosomes (b) Salinotolerants
(c) Duryhaline (d) Stenohaline

37. Mendel was the native of [1]

(a) France (b) Sweden (c) India (d) Austria

38. Any species growing exponentially under __________ resource conditions can reach [1]
massive population densities in a short time span
(a) Limited (b) Unlimited (c) Essential (d) Non-essential

39. Genotype of blood group ‘A’ will be [1]

(a) IAIA (b) IBIB (c) IAIA or IAIO (d) IAIO

PaperMonk By Invotech Labs Page 4 of 9

40. Which of these features belong/s to mammals? [1]
(a) Viviparous, avoid danger (b) More intelligent in sensing
(c) Both (d) None

41. In human beings, the colour of skin is controlled by [1]

(a) Multiple alleles (b) Lethal genes
(c) Polygenic effect (d) None of these

42. The factors which affect percolation and water holding capacity of soil are [1]
(a) Soil composition (b) Grain size
(c) Aggregation (d) All of the above

43. Nearly __________% of all insects are known to be phytophagous [1]

(a) 25% (b) 35% (c) 45% (d) 10%

44. Which bacteria can flourish in hot springs and deep sea hydrothermal vents? [1]
(a) Cyanobacteria (b) Archaebacteria
(c) Actinobacteria

45. Below figure represents

(d) Acidobacteria

N K [1]

O
R M
(a) Self-pollinated flowers
(c) Cleistogamous flowers

P E (b) Cross-pollinated flowers

(d) None of these

46. What would be the per cent growth or birth rate per individual per hour for the same [1]

A
population mentioned in the question?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 50 (d) 150

P
47. Queen Victoria was a carrier of which disease?
(a) Myotonic dystrophy
(c) Haemophilia
(b) Sickle-cell anaemia
(d) Phenylketonuria

48. Visiting a place like Manali and Mansarovar gives you an uncomfortable feeling. This
is referred to as __________
[1]

[1]

(a) Motion Sickness (b) Altitude Sickness

(c) Acrophobia (d) All of the above

49. Which of the following is correct for relationship exists between moth and yucca [1]
plant?
(a) Moth and the plant cannot complete their life cycle without each other
(b) Moth deposit egg in the locule of the ovary and the flower and in turn flower gets
pollinated by the moth
(c) Larva of the moth comes out of the eggs as the seeds start developing
(d) All are correct

PaperMonk By Invotech Labs Page 5 of 9

50. Photosynthetic function in opuntia is performed by __________ [1]
(a) Roots (b) Flowers (c) Fruits (d) Stems

51. Find the true statement. [1]

(a) Ori means origin of transcription.
(b) Some bacterial cell may have copy number of plasmid vary from 15–100.
(c) Vector should have many recognition sites for commonly used restriction
enzymes so that alien DNA can attach to any one of the sites easily.
(d) tetR gene in pBR322 can be cleaved by Pvu I and Pst I.

52. Identify the A, B, C and D in this figure. [1]

N K
O
53. Natural selection is of following types:
(a) Stabilising (b) Disruptive

R M [1]

E
(c) Directional (d) Any of the above

54. What “C” is showing in down figure? [1]

A P
P
(a) Epiblast (b) Scutellum (c) Shoot apex (d) Radicle

55. The main point of Darwin’s theory is: [1]

(a) Variation (b) Mutation
(c) Enormous fertility (d) Natural selection

56. Initiating force of evolution is: [1]

(a) Variation (b) Adaptation
(c) Competition (d) Natural selection

57. Factors affecting genetic equilibrium are the following except: [1]
(a) Gene flow (b) Mutation
PaperMonk By Invotech Labs Page 6 of 9
 (c) Somatic variation (d) Genetic recombination

58. Stellar distances are measured in: [1]

(a) km (b) m (c) Light year (d) pm

59. Flowers are considered as object of [1]

(a) Aesthetic value (b) Ornamental value
(c) Religious and cultural value (d) All of the above

60. Transgenic plants are the ones [1]

(a) grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field
(b) produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium
(c) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from the
cell
(d) produced after protoplast fusion in an artificial medium

61. Presence of recessive trait is 16%. The frequency of dominant allele in population is: [1]

K
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.32 (c) 0.84 (d) 0.92

62. Variation in DNA is due to [1]

N
(a) Mutation (b) Recombination
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

O
63. F2 -progeny of Mendelian monohybrid cross between Tall and Dwarf plant made up [1]
of
(a) Tall plant, identical to their parental type

R M
(b) Dwarf plant, identical to their parental type
(c) Plant with intermediate light were produced (d) Both (a) and (b)

64. Which of the following is a set of homologous organs?

(a) Wings of grasshopper, fl ippers of whale
[1]

E
(b) Wings of birds, front feet of horse
(c) Wings of housefl y, wings of birds (d) None of the above

A P
65. Fruit of fig species provide
(a) Egg laying site to female wasp for oviposition
(b) Developing seed as food for the developing wasp larvae
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
[1]

P
66. Basic idea of evolution is:
(a) Cosmic evolution
(c) Spontaneous generation

67. Analogy is found between:

(a) Wings of birds and bats
(b) Special creation
(d) Descent with modifi cation

(b) Wings of bat and butterfly

[1]

[1]

(c) Hands of man and flippers of whale

(d) Hands of man and forelimbs of horse

68. Who discovered X-body but could not explain its signifi cance [1]
(a) Mendel (b) Morgan (c) Henking (d) De varies

69. Restriction enzymes recognize specific [1]

(a) Palindromic region (b) Exons (c) Introns (d) None of these

70. Which combination of qualities is first priority of plant breeder? [1]

(A) Increased yield (B) Increased quality of food
(C) Increased resistance to pathogens

PaperMonk By Invotech Labs Page 7 of 9

 (D) Increased tolerance to environmental stresses
(a) A and B only (b) C and D only
(c) All A, B, C, D (d) A, B, and C only

71. IARI, New Delhi released several vegetable crops that are rich in vitamins and mineral. [1]
With respect to that select the correct match.

(a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

protein.
(a) homologus host, recombinant
(c) heterologus host, non-recombinant
(d) homologus host, non-recombinant
N
(b) heterologus host, recombinantK
72. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a _________ host, it is called a _________ [1]

(a) Rain forest (b) Tundra (c) Desert

O
73. Precipitation is an important factor for the formation of major biomes such as
(d) All of the above
[1]

(a) Biogenesis theory

(c) Extraterrestrial theory

75. Landing platform for pollen grains is

R M
74. The idea that life originates from pre-existing life is referred to as:
(b) Abiogenesis theory
(d) Special creation theory
[1]

[1]
(a) Stigma (b) Style

76. Diameter of pollen grain is

(a) 20–50 μm

P E
(b) 25–50 μm
(c) Ovary

(c) 30–50 μm
(d) None of them

(d) 10–50 μm
[1]

A
77. When a given population is in genetic equilibrium, then: [1]
(a) Gene pool remains constant.

P
(b) Allele frequencies in population is constant from generation to generation.
(c) Sum total of all allelic frequencies is 1. (d) All

78. DNA or RNA segment tagged with radioactive molecules is called [1]
(a) Vector (b) Probe (c) Clone (d) Plasmid

79. EcoRI cut palindrome sequence which produces overhanging stretches called sticky [1]
ends on each strand. These are named sticky because
(a) They can combine with any DNA.
(b) They form hydrogen bonds with their complementary cut counterpart.
(c) They facilitate the action of the enzyme DNA ligase.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

80. Endosperm persist in mature seed of [1]

(a) Pea, caster and coconut (b) Castor and coconut
(c) Pea and beans (d) Groundnut and caster

81. Species richness of tropics is because of [1]

(a) Tropics have more evolutionary time.
PaperMonk By Invotech Labs Page 8 of 9
 (b) Tropics have relatively constant environment.
(c) Tropics receive more solar energy. (d) All of the above

82. The host cultured in a continuous culture system where inside the used medium is [1]
drained out from one side while fresh medium is added from the other to maintain
cells in their physiologically _________ phase.
(a) lag (b) log (c) stationary (d) declining

83. Which way of pollen to ovary is sequentially correct? [1]

(a) Ovary → Style → Stigma (b) Style → Stigma → Ovary
(c) Stigma → Ovary → Style (d) Stigma → Style → Ovary

84. Iron fortified rice variety is _________ times richer in iron than the commonly used [1]
varieties.
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five

85. In crop improvement programme, virus free clones can be obtained through [1]
(a) Embryo culture
(c) Grafting
(b) Shoot apex culture
(d) Hybridization

N K
86. Under unfavourable conditions, many species of zooplankton which lives in small
water bodies are known to enter __________
(a) Diapause (b) Metapause (c) Neopause (d) Monopause
[1]

87. Arrange the following in the order of their evolution.

O
(a) Homo habilis → Ramapithecus→Homo erectus→ Dryopithecus → Homo sapiens
[1]

→ Australopithecines → Neanderthal man

erectus→ Neanderthal man→ Homo sapiens

R M
(b) Dryopithecus→ Ramapithecus→ Australopithecus → Homo habilis→ Homo

(c) Australopithecines→Homo sapiens→Ramapithecus→Dryopithecus→Homo

E
habilis→Homo erectus→Neanderthal man
(d) Neanderthal man → Australopithecines → Homo sapiens → Homo erectus

P
→Homo hab ilis→Ramapithecus→Dryopithecus

A
88. Whorl of carpel in flower represents [1]
(a) Gynoecium (b) Androecium (c) Calyx (d) Corolla

P
89. In hybridization, Tt × tt gives rise to the progeny of ratio [1]
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:2:1

90. The male and female gametes of angiosperm are respectively [1]
(a) Motile, non-motile (b) Non-motile, motile
(c) Motile, motile (d) Non-motile, non-motile

PaperMonk By Invotech Labs Page 9 of 9

 Answers

1. a 2. b 3. d
4. b 5. b 6. a
7. a 8. a 9. a
10. a 11. d 12. a
13. b 14. c 15. a
16. b 17. b 18. d
19. d 20. b 21. d
22. d 23. a 24. a
25. b 26. a 27. c
28. b 29. d 30. d
31. d 32. d 33. c
34. b 35. c 36. d
37. d 38. b 39. c
40. c 41. a 42. d
43. a 44. b 45. b
46. b 47. c 48. b
49. d 50. d 51. b
52. a 53. d 54. c
55. d 56. a 57. c
58. c 59. d 60. c
61. a 62. c 63. d
64. b 65. c 66. d
67. b 68. c 69. a
70. a 71. b 72. b
73. d 74. a 75. a
76. b 77. d 78. b
79. b 80. b 81. d
82. b 83. d 84. d
85. b 86. a 87. b
88. a 89. a 90. d