1. What is the first step in the PCM process?

A. Quantization
B. Encoding
C. Sampling
D. Modulation

Correct Answer: C. Sampling

Explanation: Sampling is the initial step in PCM where the continuous-time analog signal is
sampled at regular intervals to create discrete-time data.

2. What is the purpose of quantization in PCM?

A. To amplify the signal

B. To convert analog signal to digital
C. To map samples to discrete levels
D. To remove noise

Correct Answer: C. To map samples to discrete levels

Explanation: Quantization maps each sampled value to a finite set of discrete amplitude
levels, enabling digital encoding.

3. Which process in PCM converts the quantized values into binary code?

A. Sampling
B. Modulation
C. Encoding
D. Filtering

Correct Answer: C. Encoding

Explanation: Encoding transforms the quantized signal values into binary code, preparing
them for digital transmission.

4. What is the last block in a PCM transmitter?

A. Encoder
B. Quantizer
C. Sampler
D. Low-pass filter

Correct Answer: A. Encoder

Explanation: In a PCM transmitter, the encoder is the final block that takes the quantized
levels and converts them into digital binary code.
5. In PCM receiver, what is the purpose of a low-pass filter?

A. To decode binary signal

B. To reduce quantization noise
C. To reconstruct analog signal
D. To remove DC offset

Correct Answer: C. To reconstruct analog signal

Explanation: The low-pass filter at the receiver smoothens the signal, converting the stair-
step waveform into a continuous analog signal.

6. What is the main drawback of uniform quantization?

A. Low accuracy for large signals

B. Poor SNR at low amplitude
C. High complexity
D. Requires companding

Correct Answer: B. Poor SNR at low amplitude

Explanation: Uniform quantization assigns equal step sizes to all values, resulting in poor
Signal-to-Noise Ratio for low-level signals.

7. Why is companding used in PCM systems?

A. To reduce sampling rate

B. To compress large signals
C. To improve SNR for small signals
D. To eliminate quantization noise

Correct Answer: C. To improve SNR for small signals

Explanation: Companding improves the effective resolution of small signals by compressing
the dynamic range before quantization.

8. Which block in Delta Modulation performs prediction of next sample?

A. Comparator
B. Integrator
C. Quantizer
D. Differentiator
Correct Answer: B. Integrator
Explanation: The integrator in the feedback loop estimates or predicts the next sample using
previous information.

9. What causes slope overload distortion in Delta Modulation?

A. Low bit rate

B. Slow changing signals
C. Small step size
D. Flat input signals

Correct Answer: C. Small step size

Explanation: When the input signal changes rapidly and the step size is too small, the system
fails to keep up, causing slope overload.

10. How does Adaptive Delta Modulation reduce slope overload?

A. By decreasing step size

B. By adjusting step size based on signal rate
C. By using low-pass filters
D. By adding noise shaping

Correct Answer: B. By adjusting step size based on signal rate

Explanation: Adaptive Delta Modulation dynamically varies the step size depending on the
rate of signal change to avoid distortion.

11. What is the Nyquist rate for a signal with a maximum frequency of 4 kHz?

A. 2 kHz
B. 4 kHz
C. 6 kHz
D. 8 kHz

Correct Answer: D. 8 kHz

Explanation: The Nyquist rate is twice the highest frequency in the signal, so for 4 kHz it is
2 × 4 = 8 kHz.
12. Which device holds the sampled value constant for a short time in PCM?

A. Quantizer
B. Sample-and-hold circuit
C. Encoder
D. Comparator

Correct Answer: B. Sample-and-hold circuit

Explanation: The sample-and-hold circuit captures and holds the sampled value so it can be
quantized without variation during processing.

13. What is the term for the difference between actual sample value and
quantized value?

A. Quantization level
B. Step size
C. Quantization error
D. Encoding delay

Correct Answer: C. Quantization error

Explanation: Quantization error is the difference between the original analog value and the
quantized digital level.

14. In PCM, increasing the number of bits per sample will result in:

A. Lower bandwidth
B. Higher quantization noise
C. Better signal accuracy
D. Slower sampling

Correct Answer: C. Better signal accuracy

Explanation: More bits per sample allow finer quantization levels, improving the accuracy
of the digital representation.

15. What is the main advantage of non-uniform quantization?

A. Reduces SNR
B. Increases bandwidth
C. Better representation of small signals
D. Simplifies encoding
Correct Answer: C. Better representation of small signals
Explanation: Non-uniform quantization gives smaller step sizes to low amplitude signals,
improving accuracy and SNR.

16. Which of the following is a companding technique?

A. A-law
B. Nyquist
C. Fourier
D. PCM

Correct Answer: A. A-law

Explanation: A-law is a commonly used companding technique (especially in Europe) that
compresses dynamic range in PCM systems.

17. In Delta Modulation, the output signal is:

A. A multilevel signal
B. A single-bit stream
C. Analog signal
D. Quantized signal

Correct Answer: B. A single-bit stream

Explanation: Delta Modulation uses 1-bit per sample to indicate the direction of signal
change (up or down), resulting in a single-bit stream.

18. What is granular noise in Delta Modulation?

A. Noise from rapid signal change

B. Noise when signal is constant
C. Thermal noise
D. Quantization error in PCM

Correct Answer: B. Noise when signal is constant

Explanation: Granular noise occurs when the input signal is flat, but the modulator keeps
toggling, causing unnecessary variations.

19. Which of the following is not an advantage of Delta Modulation?

A. Simple design
B. Lower bandwidth than PCM
C. High SNR for all signals
D. Use of 1-bit encoder

Correct Answer: C. High SNR for all signals

Explanation: Delta Modulation struggles with fast signal changes and flat signals, making
SNR poor in those cases.

20. What does Adaptive Delta Modulation adapt?

A. Bit rate
B. Step size
C. Sampling frequency
D. Quantization level

Correct Answer: B. Step size

Explanation: In Adaptive Delta Modulation, the step size is varied according to the rate of
change in the input signal.

21. In PCM, increasing the sampling rate beyond the Nyquist rate leads to:

A. Aliasing
B. Better signal reconstruction
C. Higher quantization noise
D. Bandwidth reduction

Correct Answer: B. Better signal reconstruction

Explanation: Sampling at a rate higher than Nyquist provides more accurate reconstruction
and reduces distortion.

22. The number of quantization levels in PCM is equal to:

A. 2n
B. n2
C. n
D. log 2 n

Correct Answer: A. 2n
Explanation: If n bits are used in encoding, the number of quantization levels is 2n.

23. Which one is a disadvantage of PCM?

A. Low noise immunity
B. High bandwidth requirement
C. Complex sampling process
D. Low data rate

Correct Answer: B. High bandwidth requirement

Explanation: Since PCM uses more bits per sample, it requires a higher bandwidth for
transmission.

24. What is companding a combination of?

A. Sampling and encoding

B. Compression and expanding
C. Quantization and modulation
D. Filtering and amplification

Correct Answer: B. Compression and expanding

Explanation: Companding compresses the dynamic range before transmission and expands it
at the receiver to improve SNR.

25. Which of the following best describes quantization noise?

A. Noise due to thermal effects

B. Error between sampled signal and original analog signal
C. Error due to step size approximation in quantization
D. Power supply variation noise

Correct Answer: C. Error due to step size approximation in quantization

Explanation: Quantization noise arises because the signal is approximated to the nearest
quantization level.

26. The main cause of distortion in Delta Modulation for fast-varying signals
is:

A. Granular noise
B. Pulse width modulation
C. Slope overload
D. Noise folding

Correct Answer: C. Slope overload

Explanation: Slope overload happens when the signal changes too quickly for the step size
to follow.
27. A signal is sampled at 10 kHz and encoded using 8 bits per sample. What
is the bit rate?

A. 80 kbps
B. 18 kbps
C. 100 kbps
D. 800 kbps

Correct Answer: A. 80 kbps

Explanation: Bit rate = sampling rate × number of bits = 10,000 × 8 = 80,000 bps = 80 kbps.

28. Which modulation technique does not use amplitude variations?

A. PCM
B. AM
C. FM
D. ASK

Correct Answer: A. PCM

Explanation: PCM is a digital modulation method that represents signals with binary codes,
not by varying amplitude.

29. In uniform quantization, quantization step size is:

A. Variable
B. Logarithmic
C. Constant
D. Proportional to amplitude

Correct Answer: C. Constant

Explanation: Uniform quantization uses equal-size steps across the full range of values.

30. What is the typical value of SNR (Signal-to-Noise Ratio) improvement per
bit in a PCM system?

A. 1 dB
B. 2 dB
C. 6 dB
D. 12 dB
Correct Answer: C. 6 dB
Explanation: Each additional bit in PCM improves the SNR by approximately 6 dB.

31. In a PCM system, if 256 quantization levels are used, how many bits are
required per sample?

A. 6 bits
B. 7 bits
C. 8 bits
D. 10 bits

Correct Answer: C. 8 bits

Explanation: Number of bits log 2 256=8. So, 8 bits are needed to represent 256 quantization
levels.

32. Which block is common to both PCM and Delta Modulation receivers?

A. Decoder
B. Low-pass filter
C. Quantizer
D. Integrator

Correct Answer: B. Low-pass filter

Explanation: The low-pass filter is used in both systems to reconstruct the analog signal
from the received digital stream.

33. In Adaptive Delta Modulation, when signal slope increases, the step size:

A. Decreases
B. Remains constant
C. Increases
D. Becomes zero

Correct Answer: C. Increases

Explanation: Adaptive Delta Modulation increases the step size during rapid signal changes
to prevent slope overload.

34. What determines the resolution of a PCM system?

A. Sampling frequency
B. Quantizer step size
C. Number of quantization levels
D. Number of bits per sample

Correct Answer: D. Number of bits per sample

Explanation: Resolution is directly related to the number of bits used to represent each
sample.

35. Which parameter is improved by using non-uniform quantization?

A. Bit rate
B. Transmission bandwidth
C. SNR for low amplitude signals
D. Sampling frequency

Correct Answer: C. SNR for low amplitude signals

Explanation: Non-uniform quantization gives smaller step sizes to small signals, improving
SNR for those values.

36. What is the key difference between PCM and Delta Modulation?

A. Use of low-pass filters

B. PCM uses binary codes, DM uses 1-bit steps
C. PCM needs no quantization
D. DM uses variable bit rates

Correct Answer: B. PCM uses binary codes, DM uses 1-bit steps

Explanation: PCM uses multiple bits per sample; DM uses only 1-bit to indicate signal rise
or fall.

37. What happens if a signal is sampled below the Nyquist rate?

A. Improved SNR
B. Reduced bandwidth
C. Aliasing
D. Better resolution

Correct Answer: C. Aliasing

Explanation: Sampling below the Nyquist rate causes signal distortion known as aliasing
due to overlapping frequency components.

38. What does the compander do at the receiver end of a PCM system?
A. Compress the signal
B. Encode the signal
C. Expand the signal
D. Quantize the signal

Correct Answer: C. Expand the signal

Explanation: At the receiver, the compander expands the compressed signal to restore its
original dynamic range.

39. A PCM system has a bit rate of 64 kbps and 8 bits per sample. What is the
sampling rate?

A. 4 kHz
B. 6 kHz
C. 8 kHz
D. 16 kHz

Correct Answer: C. 8 kHz

Explanation: Sampling rate = bit rate / bits per sample = 64,000 / 8 = 8,000 samples/sec = 8
kHz.

40. Which of the following is not a reason for using PCM?

A. High immunity to noise

B. Easy regeneration
C. Efficient bandwidth usage
D. High signal fidelity

Correct Answer: C. Efficient bandwidth usage

Explanation: PCM requires more bandwidth compared to analog techniques, though it offers
better noise immunity and signal quality.

41. What does increasing the number of quantization levels in PCM improve?

A. Bandwidth
B. Sampling rate
C. Quantization noise performance
D. Transmission delay

Correct Answer: C. Quantization noise performance

Explanation: More quantization levels reduce the quantization error, leading to improved
signal-to-noise ratio (SNR).
42. In Delta Modulation, the transmitted signal is a sequence of:

A. Multi-bit codes
B. Analog pulses
C. Binary digits representing step direction
D. Frequency modulated pulses

Correct Answer: C. Binary digits representing step direction

Explanation: Delta Modulation transmits a stream of 1s and 0s indicating whether the signal
goes up or down.

43. What causes slope overload distortion in Delta Modulation?

A. Very low amplitude signals

B. Granular noise
C. Sudden rapid changes in the input signal
D. Excessive filtering

Correct Answer: C. Sudden rapid changes in the input signal

Explanation: Slope overload occurs when the signal changes faster than the modulator can
track with its fixed step size.

44. Which filter is used to reconstruct the analog signal from PCM or DM?

A. High-pass filter
B. Band-stop filter
C. Low-pass filter
D. All-pass filter

Correct Answer: C. Low-pass filter

Explanation: The low-pass filter removes high-frequency components and reconstructs the
original analog waveform.

45. Which type of quantizer provides better SNR for small signal amplitudes?

A. Uniform quantizer
B. Non-uniform quantizer
C. Mid-riser quantizer
D. Step quantizer

Correct Answer: B. Non-uniform quantizer

Explanation: Non-uniform quantizers use smaller step sizes for small amplitudes, leading to
better SNR in that range.
46. What technique is used in PCM to prevent aliasing before sampling?

A. Adaptive modulation
B. Companding
C. Low-pass filtering
D. Peak clipping

Correct Answer: C. Low-pass filtering

Explanation: A low-pass (anti-aliasing) filter is used to remove high-frequency components
before sampling.

47. What is the typical bit rate of a PCM signal with 4 kHz sampling rate and
7 bits per sample?

A. 28 kbps
B. 32 kbps
C. 21 kbps
D. 7 kbps

Correct Answer: A. 28 kbps

Explanation: Bit rate = sampling rate × bits/sample = 4000 × 7 = 28,000 bps = 28 kbps.

48. What is the major limitation of a simple Delta Modulator?

A. High bandwidth requirement

B. Complicated hardware
C. Slope overload and granular noise
D. Inability to encode binary signals

Correct Answer: C. Slope overload and granular noise

Explanation: Simple Delta Modulators cannot effectively track fast-changing signals (slope
overload) or flat signals (granular noise).

49. Adaptive Delta Modulation solves the problem of:

A. Sampling rate
B. Slope overload distortion
C. Quantization noise
D. Bandwidth limitation
Correct Answer: B. Slope overload distortion
Explanation: By adapting the step size, ADM can handle both slow and fast signal
variations, thus reducing slope overload.

50. What is the primary reason for using companding in PCM systems?

A. Reduce quantization noise in high-level signals

B. Reduce quantization noise in low-level signals
C. Increase signal bandwidth
D. Simplify encoding

Correct Answer: B. Reduce quantization noise in low-level signals

Explanation: Companding compresses low-level signals before transmission, which reduces
the effect of quantization noise, especially for small amplitudes.

RF Modulation and Geometric Representation of Signals

1. In geometric representation, digital modulation signals are represented as:

A) Vectors in time domain
B) Sinusoidal waveforms
C) Points or vectors in signal space
D) Pulse sequences
Answer: C
Explanation: Geometric representation uses a signal space diagram where each signal is
shown as a point or vector.

2. The dimension of signal space for an N-ary modulation is:

A) log₂N
B) N
C) N²
D) √N
Answer: A
Explanation: For N distinct symbols, the signal space has log₂N dimensions.

3. The Euclidean distance in signal space determines:

A) Bit error rate
B) Symbol period
C) Carrier frequency
D) Amplitude level
Answer: A
Explanation: Greater Euclidean distance reduces probability of error in detection.

4. Orthogonal signals in signal space have:

A) Minimum energy
B) Zero inner product
C) Maximum bandwidth
D) Phase difference of 180°
Answer: B
Explanation: Orthogonal signals have zero inner product and are easy to distinguish.

5. In signal space, the inner product is used to compute:

A) Modulation index
B) Phase shift
C) Signal similarity
D) Sampling frequency
Answer: C
Explanation: The inner product determines how similar two signals are.

Maximum Likelihood Decoding

6. Maximum likelihood decoding chooses the symbol that:

A) Has highest amplitude
B) Minimizes channel bandwidth
C) Is closest in Euclidean distance
D) Is farthest from other symbols
Answer: C
Explanation: It selects the signal with the minimum Euclidean distance from the received
signal.

7. The decision rule for ML decoding is based on:

A) Maximize SNR
B) Maximize entropy
C) Minimize noise power
D) Maximize posterior probability
Answer: D
Explanation: ML decoding maximizes the likelihood or posterior probability of the
transmitted symbol.

8. ML decoding is optimal when:

A) Noise is Gaussian
B) Symbols are equally likely
C) Channel is noiseless
D) Transmission is analog
Answer: A
Explanation: Under Gaussian noise, ML decoding minimizes the probability of error.

9. In binary ML decoding, the decision boundary is:

A) Midpoint between two signals
B) Zero
C) Random
D) Always fixed at origin
Answer: A
Explanation: The decision threshold is typically the midpoint for two equally likely signals.
10. ML decoding performance improves with:
A) Reduced bandwidth
B) Increased signal energy
C) Lower data rate
D) More quantization levels
Answer: B
Explanation: Higher signal energy improves the signal-to-noise ratio, reducing error
probability.

ASK (Amplitude Shift Keying)

11. In ASK, the information is conveyed by:

A) Frequency variation
B) Phase change
C) Amplitude change
D) Time delay
Answer: C
Explanation: ASK modulates the carrier amplitude to represent digital data.

12. Binary ASK is also known as:

A) OOK (On-Off Keying)
B) FSK
C) BPSK
D) QAM
Answer: A
Explanation: In OOK, logic 1 is transmitted as a carrier signal and logic 0 as no signal.

13. A major drawback of ASK is:

A) High bandwidth requirement
B) Phase instability
C) High susceptibility to noise
D) Complex detection
Answer: C
Explanation: Since ASK relies on amplitude, it's more affected by noise.

14. In the presence of noise, ASK performs poorly because:

A) Noise affects frequency
B) Phase changes erratically
C) Amplitude gets distorted
D) Modulation index reduces
Answer: C
Explanation: Noise primarily affects amplitude, making ASK prone to errors.

15. ASK signals require which type of detection?

A) Coherent only
B) Non-coherent only
C) Either coherent or non-coherent
D) Quadrature detection
Answer: C
Explanation: ASK can be demodulated using both coherent and non-coherent methods.

BPSK (Binary Phase Shift Keying)

16. BPSK modulates data using:

A) Two amplitudes
B) Two frequencies
C) Two phases
D) Two time delays
Answer: C
Explanation: BPSK transmits bits using two phases: 0° for ‘1’ and 180° for ‘0’ (or vice
versa).

17. BPSK has how many signal points in the constellation?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
Answer: B
Explanation: BPSK uses two points on the constellation diagram.

18. Which modulation scheme offers better noise immunity than ASK?
A) FSK
B) PSK
C) QAM
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: ASK is more susceptible to noise; PSK, FSK, and QAM are generally better.

19. BPSK is a type of:

A) Linear modulation
B) Quadrature modulation
C) Non-linear modulation
D) Spread spectrum
Answer: A
Explanation: BPSK is linear and uses phase to encode data.

20. In BPSK, bit error rate (BER) performance is better than:

A) QAM
B) ASK
C) FSK
D) DPSK
Answer: B
Explanation: BPSK performs better than ASK in noisy channels due to phase modulation
being less affected by amplitude noise.
Coherent and Non-Coherent FSK (Frequency Shift Keying)

21. In FSK, digital information is represented by:

A) Amplitude changes
B) Phase shifts
C) Frequency variations
D) Time delays
Answer: C
Explanation: FSK uses different frequencies to represent binary data.

22. Coherent detection in FSK requires:

A) Phase synchronization
B) Amplitude estimation
C) Frequency averaging
D) No carrier
Answer: A
Explanation: Coherent detection uses phase synchronization for accurate demodulation.

23. Non-coherent FSK detection is:

A) More accurate than coherent
B) Requires carrier phase tracking
C) Simpler but less efficient
D) Not possible for digital data
Answer: C
Explanation: Non-coherent FSK is easier to implement but less bandwidth efficient.

24. In 2-FSK, the frequency difference between symbols is:

A) Arbitrary
B) Equal to bandwidth
C) Equal to bit rate
D) Must be orthogonal
Answer: D
Explanation: To avoid interference, the two frequencies are typically orthogonal.

25. Which of the following is more bandwidth-efficient?

A) Coherent FSK
B) Non-coherent FSK
C) ASK
D) BPSK
Answer: A
Explanation: Coherent FSK allows for tighter spacing between frequencies, improving
bandwidth efficiency.

QPSK (Quadrature Phase Shift Keying)

26. QPSK encodes how many bits per symbol?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
Answer: B
Explanation: QPSK uses 4 phase states to encode 2 bits per symbol.

27. In QPSK, the signal constellation has:

A) 2 points
B) 4 points
C) 8 points
D) 16 points
Answer: B
Explanation: QPSK has 4 constellation points spaced at 90° intervals.

28. QPSK has the same bandwidth as BPSK but transmits:

A) At the same rate
B) Twice the bit rate
C) Half the bit rate
D) Double the power
Answer: B
Explanation: Since QPSK encodes 2 bits per symbol, it doubles the bit rate in the same
bandwidth.

29. QPSK is more power-efficient than:

A) BPSK
B) 16-QAM
C) ASK
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: QPSK achieves a good trade-off between power and bandwidth efficiency.

30. One key advantage of QPSK over BPSK is:

A) Higher robustness to noise
B) Lower complexity
C) Higher bit rate without increasing bandwidth
D) Higher phase separation
Answer: C
Explanation: QPSK transmits two bits per symbol, increasing throughput without requiring
more bandwidth.

DPSK (Differential Phase Shift Keying)

31. DPSK is different from BPSK because it modulates:

A) Amplitude
B) Phase difference between successive symbols
C) Frequency
D) Time duration
Answer: B
Explanation: DPSK modulates the phase difference between consecutive symbols rather
than the absolute phase.

32. In DPSK, the receiver detects:

A) The absolute phase of the signal
B) The relative phase between consecutive symbols
C) The signal amplitude
D) Frequency shifts
Answer: B
Explanation: DPSK demodulates by detecting phase differences between consecutive
symbols.

33. A major advantage of DPSK over BPSK is:

A) Reduced bandwidth requirement
B) Lower power consumption
C) Resistance to phase ambiguities
D) Higher data rate
Answer: C
Explanation: DPSK is less affected by phase ambiguity as it relies on phase differences
rather than absolute phase.

34. The primary disadvantage of DPSK is:

A) Increased bandwidth
B) Lower power efficiency
C) Increased complexity in demodulation
D) Higher probability of symbol errors
Answer: C
Explanation: DPSK requires more complex demodulation compared to BPSK due to phase
difference detection.

QAM (Quadrature Amplitude Modulation)

35. QAM combines which two types of modulation?

A) ASK and PSK
B) FSK and PSK
C) BPSK and DPSK
D) Amplitude modulation and phase modulation
Answer: D
Explanation: QAM modulates both the amplitude and the phase of the carrier.

36. In 16-QAM, the number of symbols in the constellation is:

A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
Answer: D
Explanation: 16-QAM has 16 different symbols, represented in a 4x4 grid on the signal
constellation.

37. The main advantage of QAM is:

A) High bandwidth efficiency
B) Simple detection
C) Reduced error rate
D) Low power consumption
Answer: A
Explanation: QAM allows high data rates due to its ability to encode more bits per symbol.

38. One disadvantage of high-order QAM (e.g., 64-QAM) is:

A) Increased susceptibility to noise
B) Increased power consumption
C) Decreased bandwidth efficiency
D) Difficulty in modulation
Answer: A
Explanation: Higher-order QAM increases susceptibility to noise, leading to higher error
rates.

MSK (Minimum Shift Keying)

39. MSK is a type of:

A) Continuous-phase modulation
B) Differential modulation
C) Frequency modulation
D) Quadrature modulation
Answer: A
Explanation: MSK is a continuous-phase frequency modulation that minimizes the phase
discontinuities.

40. The primary advantage of MSK is:

A) High bandwidth efficiency
B) Constant envelope
C) High noise immunity
D) Simple modulation and demodulation
Answer: B
Explanation: MSK has a constant envelope, making it resistant to non-linear distortion in the
transmission channel.

Multicarrier Modulation

41. In multicarrier modulation, the total bandwidth is divided into:

A) One large carrier frequency
B) Several narrowband carriers
C) A single wideband carrier
D) A few broad subcarriers
Answer: B
Explanation: Multicarrier modulation divides the total bandwidth into several narrow
subcarriers.

42. The most common multicarrier modulation technique is:

A) OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing)
B) CDMA
C) TDMA
D) FDM
Answer: A
Explanation: OFDM is widely used in systems like Wi-Fi, LTE, and digital television.

43. One of the main benefits of multicarrier modulation is:

A) Higher power consumption
B) Increased symbol duration
C) Robustness to frequency selective fading
D) Reduced data rate
Answer: C
Explanation: Dividing the data into multiple subcarriers increases robustness to frequency
selective fading.

44. In OFDM, subcarriers are typically spaced:

A) Closely to prevent interference
B) At equal distances
C) Far apart to avoid noise
D) Overlapping to increase capacity
Answer: B
Explanation: Subcarriers in OFDM are spaced equally to maintain orthogonality and prevent
interference.

45. The major disadvantage of multicarrier modulation is:

A) Increased bandwidth efficiency
B) Increased computational complexity
C) Higher power consumption
D) Simple implementation
Answer: B
Explanation: The computational complexity of multicarrier modulation, especially in
OFDM, is higher due to the need for FFT/IFFT operations.

Bandwidth and Bit Rate Comparisons of Digital Modulation Schemes

46. The bandwidth efficiency of a modulation scheme is defined as:

A) Bit rate divided by bandwidth
B) Bandwidth divided by bit rate
C) Symbol rate divided by bandwidth
D) Bit rate divided by power
Answer: A
Explanation: Bandwidth efficiency is the ratio of the bit rate to the bandwidth.

47. For a given bit rate, which of the following modulation schemes has the smallest
bandwidth requirement?
A) ASK
B) BPSK
C) QPSK
D) 16-QAM
Answer: C
Explanation: QPSK is bandwidth-efficient since it encodes two bits per symbol, minimizing
bandwidth for a given bit rate.

48. Among the following, which modulation scheme requires the largest bandwidth?
A) ASK
B) FSK
C) MSK
D) QAM
Answer: D
Explanation: Higher-order QAM (e.g., 64-QAM) requires the most bandwidth due to the
higher number of symbols.

49. Which of the following is true about the bit rate and bandwidth relationship in digital
modulation?
A) Higher bit rate always requires more bandwidth
B) Higher bit rate reduces bandwidth efficiency
C) Higher-order QAM increases bit rate without significantly increasing bandwidth
D) Bandwidth is independent of the modulation scheme
Answer: A
Explanation: To achieve a higher bit rate, more bandwidth is generally required, especially
in schemes like higher-order QAM.

50. In terms of power efficiency, which modulation scheme is typically the best for noisy
channels?
A) ASK
B) PSK
C) QAM
D) FSK
Answer: B
Explanation: PSK, particularly BPSK and QPSK, tends to be more power-efficient in noisy
environments compared to amplitude-modulated schemes like ASK.

1. The main idea behind multiplexing is to:

A) Increase the power of the signal
B) Allow multiple signals to share a common channel
C) Increase the bandwidth of a communication link
D) Improve the error rate of a signal
Answer: B
Explanation: Multiplexing allows multiple signals to share the same communication
medium or channel.
2. Why is multiplexing necessary in communication systems?
A) To reduce signal interference
B) To avoid signal loss
C) To maximize the use of available bandwidth
D) To improve the clarity of the signal
Answer: C
Explanation: Multiplexing helps maximize the use of limited bandwidth by allowing
multiple signals to be transmitted over the same channel.

3. Which of the following is a key benefit of multiplexing?

A) Reduces signal strength
B) Increases the cost of communication
C) Enhances the quality of the signal
D) Efficient use of transmission resources
Answer: D
Explanation: Multiplexing enables multiple signals to share the same communication
medium, leading to more efficient use of available resources.

4. Multiplexing is primarily used in communication systems to:

A) Minimize data transfer time
B) Allow more data to be transmitted through a single channel
C) Reduce the size of the signal
D) Make the system more secure
Answer: B
Explanation: Multiplexing allows more data to be transmitted through a single channel,
improving the efficiency of data transmission.

5. Which of the following best describes multiplexing in a communication system?

A) Using one frequency to transmit multiple signals
B) Combining multiple channels into one
C) Increasing the frequency of a signal
D) Decreasing the signal strength to improve quality
Answer: B
Explanation: Multiplexing combines multiple signals into one, allowing them to share the
same transmission medium.

3.2 Types of Multiplexing – Time Division Multiplexing (TDM), Frequency

Division Multiplexing (FDM), and Code Division Multiplexing (CDM)

6. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) works by:

A) Assigning different frequencies to different signals
B) Allocating different time slots to different signals
C) Using different codes for different signals
D) Increasing the bandwidth for each signal
Answer: B
Explanation: TDM allocates different time slots for each signal to share the same frequency
channel.
7. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM) works by:
A) Allocating different time slots for each signal
B) Using different frequencies to carry multiple signals
C) Assigning different codes to different signals
D) Using one frequency for all signals
Answer: B
Explanation: FDM assigns different frequencies to each signal, allowing multiple signals to
be transmitted simultaneously without interference.

8. In Code Division Multiplexing (CDM), multiple signals are transmitted:

A) At different frequencies
B) Simultaneously using different time slots
C) Using unique codes in the same frequency band
D) Using different signal power levels
Answer: C
Explanation: CDM uses unique codes to differentiate between multiple signals transmitted
at the same frequency and time.

9. Which of the following is NOT a multiplexing technique?

A) TDM
B) FDM
C) WDM
D) AM
Answer: D
Explanation: AM (Amplitude Modulation) is a modulation technique, not a multiplexing
method.

10. In TDM, the time slots are typically assigned to:

A) Different frequency channels
B) Different signals in the same frequency band
C) Different codes for each signal
D) Different transmission powers
Answer: B
Explanation: In TDM, time slots are assigned to different signals to allow them to share the
same frequency band.

3.3 Principles of Time Division Multiplexing and Synchronization in a Digital

Communication System

11. In TDM, synchronization is required to:

A) Ensure signals are correctly aligned in time
B) Separate the frequencies of each signal
C) Correct the error rate
D) Ensure no interference between signals
Answer: A
Explanation: Synchronization is essential in TDM to ensure that signals are correctly aligned
in time and transmitted in their allocated time slots.
12. The main principle of TDM is:
A) Different signals are assigned different frequency bands
B) Signals are transmitted in different time slots on the same frequency
C) Signals use unique codes to differentiate themselves
D) All signals are transmitted together using one frequency
Answer: B
Explanation: TDM allows signals to share the same frequency but allocates different time
slots for each signal.

13. In TDM, what happens if synchronization is lost?

A) Signals are combined and cause interference
B) Signals will be distorted but still transmitted
C) Only one signal will be transmitted at a time
D) The channel is wasted
Answer: A
Explanation: Loss of synchronization in TDM leads to signals being combined incorrectly,
causing interference between them.

14. In which type of system is TDM most commonly used?

A) Analog communication systems
B) Digital communication systems
C) Both analog and digital systems
D) None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: TDM is predominantly used in digital communication systems to allow
multiple signals to share the same channel.

15. What is the primary challenge in Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)?

A) High bandwidth requirement
B) Difficulty in synchronization
C) Interference between signals
D) Noise and signal distortion
Answer: B
Explanation: Synchronization is a critical challenge in TDM to ensure that signals are
correctly aligned in their time slots.

3.4 PCM – TDM in Modern Applications

16. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) is commonly used for:

A) Analog signal transmission
B) Digital encoding of analog signals
C) Frequency division multiplexing
D) Noise reduction in digital channels
Answer: B
Explanation: PCM is used to digitize analog signals by sampling the signal and converting it
into a digital format.
17. Which of the following modern applications uses PCM and TDM?
A) Analog telephone systems
B) Digital television broadcasting
C) Wireless communication networks
D) Satellite communication systems
Answer: D
Explanation: Satellite communication systems use PCM for encoding signals and TDM for
multiplexing multiple channels over the same frequency band.

18. In modern communication systems, TDM is used in:

A) Wireless networks to share the frequency spectrum
B) Voice communication over optical fibers
C) Encoding analog video signals
D) Multiplexing digital data in satellite links
Answer: D
Explanation: TDM is used in satellite communication and other digital communication
systems to multiplex multiple digital data streams into one signal.

19. PCM is most commonly used in:

A) Analog systems for voice communication
B) Digital systems for voice communication
C) Satellite communication
D) Radio frequency transmission
Answer: B
Explanation: PCM is widely used in digital communication systems for encoding voice
signals.

20. The primary purpose of TDM in modern systems is to:

A) Reduce noise interference
B) Allow multiple signals to be transmitted simultaneously
C) Encode analog signals into digital form
D) Increase the power of the signal
Answer: B
Explanation: TDM allows multiple signals to be transmitted simultaneously over the same
channel by dividing the channel into time slots.

3.5 Frequency Division Multiplexing with Practical Examples

21. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM) is commonly used in:

A) Optical fiber communication
B) Analog TV broadcasting
C) Wireless digital communication
D) All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: FDM is used in analog TV broadcasting to allocate different frequency bands
for each television channel.
22. A practical example of FDM is:
A) Satellite communication with multiple channels
B) Digital subscriber line (DSL)
C) Wi-Fi communication
D) Bluetooth communication
Answer: A
Explanation: In satellite communication, FDM is used to allocate different frequencies to
multiple communication channels.

23. The main advantage of FDM over TDM is:

A) More efficient use of bandwidth
B) Less sensitive to synchronization issues
C) Ability to transmit more signals simultaneously
D) Requires less power
Answer: B
Explanation: FDM does not require synchronization like TDM, as each signal uses a
different frequency band.

24. Which of the following is a limitation of Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)?

A) Requires a very high bandwidth
B) Signals cannot overlap in frequency
C) Interference between channels can occur
D) It cannot handle digital data
Answer: C
Explanation: In FDM, interference between channels can occur if the frequency bands are
not carefully separated.

25. FDM is typically used in which of the following communication systems?

A) Voice transmission in telephone networks
B) Analog TV and radio broadcasting
C) High-speed internet data transfer
D) Digital cellular networks
Answer: B
Explanation: Analog TV and radio broadcasting use FDM to assign different frequency
bands to each channel.

3.5 Frequency Division Multiplexing with Practical Examples (Continued)

26. In FDM, each signal occupies:

A) A unique time slot in a shared frequency
B) A unique frequency band within the spectrum
C) A specific time frequency and coding pattern
D) A certain amount of bandwidth based on signal strength
Answer: B
Explanation: FDM allocates unique frequency bands to different signals, allowing them to
share the same transmission medium.
27. Which of the following is a characteristic of Frequency Division Multiplexing?
A) High requirement for precise synchronization
B) It uses different frequency bands for each signal
C) The signals overlap in time
D) It is primarily used for encoding analog signals
Answer: B
Explanation: FDM assigns different frequency bands to each signal, which allows them to
be transmitted simultaneously without interference.

28. The bandwidth of the FDM system is determined by:

A) The highest frequency of the signals being transmitted
B) The number of signals being transmitted
C) The frequency spacing between channels
D) Both B and C
Answer: D
Explanation: The total bandwidth in an FDM system is determined by the number of signals
being transmitted and the frequency spacing between channels to prevent overlap.

29. Which of the following is NOT a typical application of FDM?

A) AM radio transmission
B) FM radio transmission
C) Television broadcasting
D) Cellular communication networks
Answer: D
Explanation: Cellular communication networks primarily use TDM and CDM, rather than
FDM.

30. In FDM, guard bands are used to:

A) Increase the frequency range of each signal
B) Prevent interference between adjacent channels
C) Reduce signal power loss
D) Optimize signal compression
Answer: B
Explanation: Guard bands are unused frequency bands between adjacent channels in FDM
to prevent interference.

4.1 Multiplexing in Modern Communication Systems

31. Which of the following technologies uses TDM and FDM for multiplexing?
A) 5G cellular networks
B) Fiber-optic communication
C) Satellite communication systems
D) Wi-Fi networks
Answer: C
Explanation: Satellite communication systems commonly use both TDM and FDM to
efficiently transmit data from multiple channels.
32. In modern communication systems, TDM is typically used for:
A) Analog signal processing
B) Digital voice transmission
C) Frequency modulated signals
D) Video encoding
Answer: B
Explanation: TDM is widely used in digital voice transmission, particularly in systems like
telephone networks and digital TV.

33. The primary advantage of FDM over TDM is:

A) It is more cost-effective
B) It doesn't require synchronization
C) It supports higher data rates
D) It is better suited for long-distance communication
Answer: B
Explanation: FDM does not require synchronization between channels as TDM does,
making it simpler to implement in some systems.

34. PCM is essential for:

A) Modulating analog signals for radio transmission
B) Sampling and quantizing signals for digital encoding
C) Increasing signal strength in communication systems
D) Encoding signals into frequency bands for FDM
Answer: B
Explanation: PCM involves sampling analog signals and converting them into a digital form
by quantizing and encoding the signal.

35. Which of the following applications uses PCM and TDM together?
A) Analog AM radio transmission
B) Digital satellite communications
C) Early 2G cellular systems
D) Television broadcasting
Answer: B
Explanation: Digital satellite communications systems use both PCM and TDM to multiplex
and transmit multiple channels over the same satellite link.

4.2 Code Division Multiplexing (CDM) Applications

36. In CDM, multiple signals are distinguished from one another using:
A) Frequency bands
B) Time slots
C) Unique codes
D) Different bandwidths
Answer: C
Explanation: CDM uses unique codes to differentiate between signals that share the same
frequency and time.
37. Which of the following is a key advantage of CDM?
A) It reduces the need for synchronization
B) It provides higher signal-to-noise ratios
C) It allows for better frequency reuse
D) It simplifies signal processing
Answer: A
Explanation: CDM allows multiple signals to be transmitted simultaneously on the same
frequency without precise synchronization, using unique codes to separate them.

38. Code Division Multiplexing (CDM) is used in:

A) 2G GSM cellular systems
B) Satellite communication
C) Wi-Fi networks
D) Analog television transmission
Answer: A
Explanation: CDM (also known as CDMA) is used in 2G GSM cellular systems to allow
multiple users to share the same frequency channel.

39. In CDM, the capacity of the system can be increased by:

A) Using more power
B) Increasing the number of time slots
C) Adding more frequency bands
D) Using longer unique codes
Answer: D
Explanation: In CDM, using longer unique codes can increase the system’s capacity by
allowing more users to share the same frequency band.

40. Which modulation technique is commonly used with CDM?

A) Amplitude Modulation (AM)
B) Frequency Modulation (FM)
C) Phase Modulation (PM)
D) Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
Answer: D
Explanation: CDM often uses Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) to spread the signal
across a wide frequency band, allowing multiple users to share the same channel.

4.3 Comparison of Bandwidth and Bit Rate of Digital Modulation Schemes

41. The bandwidth of a QAM signal increases with:

A) The number of bits per symbol
B) The number of codes used
C) The length of the transmission line
D) The transmission power
Answer: A
Explanation: The bandwidth of a QAM signal increases as the number of bits per symbol
increases, which enables higher data rates but requires more bandwidth.
42. Which of the following modulation techniques has the highest bandwidth efficiency?
A) ASK
B) BPSK
C) QPSK
D) MSK
Answer: C
Explanation: QPSK (Quadrature Phase Shift Keying) has the highest bandwidth efficiency,
as it transmits 2 bits per symbol.

43. In general, higher-order modulation schemes such as 16-QAM and 64-QAM:

A) Require less power for transmission
B) Require more bandwidth for the same bit rate
C) Are more resistant to noise
D) Offer lower bit rates
Answer: B
Explanation: Higher-order modulation schemes such as 16-QAM and 64-QAM require more
bandwidth to maintain the same bit rate.

44. MSK (Minimum Shift Keying) modulation is known for:

A) High power efficiency
B) High spectral efficiency
C) Simplicity in implementation
D) Low bandwidth requirement
Answer: B
Explanation: MSK provides high spectral efficiency because it uses the minimum amount of
frequency spectrum while maintaining a constant envelope.

45. The bit rate of QPSK is:

A) Twice the symbol rate
B) Equal to the symbol rate
C) Half the symbol rate
D) Four times the symbol rate
Answer: A
Explanation: In QPSK, two bits are transmitted per symbol, so the bit rate is twice the
symbol rate.

4.4 Multicarrier Modulation: Comparison of Bandwidth and Bit Rate

46. Multicarrier modulation schemes like OFDM are commonly used in:
A) Mobile phone communication
B) Satellite communication
C) Wi-Fi and 4G/5G networks
D) Television broadcasting
Answer: C
Explanation: OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing) is widely used in Wi-
Fi, 4G, and 5G networks due to its efficient use of bandwidth.
47. The primary advantage of multicarrier modulation (e.g., OFDM) is:
A) It increases the bit rate significantly
B) It reduces the power consumption of the transmitter
C) It is more resistant to multipath fading
D) It requires less bandwidth
Answer: C
Explanation: Multicarrier modulation, such as OFDM, is more resistant to multipath fading,
making it ideal for wireless communication in environments with high interference.

48. In multicarrier modulation, the total bandwidth is divided into:

A) A single frequency band for all signals
B) Multiple sub-carriers
C) Time slots for each signal
D) Various codes for each signal
Answer: B
Explanation: In multicarrier modulation, the total bandwidth is divided into several narrow
sub-carriers, which can be used for parallel data transmission.

49. The key disadvantage of using multicarrier modulation in wireless communication is:
A) High complexity in signal processing
B) High power consumption
C) Lack of error correction
D) Limited bandwidth availability
Answer: A
Explanation: The complexity in signal processing is the main drawback of multicarrier
modulation, as it requires efficient algorithms for managing multiple carriers.

50. In comparison to single-carrier systems, multicarrier modulation:

A) Reduces the bit rate
B) Increases the required bandwidth
C) Increases the signal-to-noise ratio
D) Improves the robustness to interference
Answer: D
Explanation: Multicarrier modulation improves robustness to interference, especially in
environments with multipath fading.

1. A PN sequence is used in spread spectrum systems to:

A) Increase signal strength
B) Spread the signal over a wide frequency band
C) Modulate the carrier signal
D) Synchronize the transmitter and receiver
Answer: B
Explanation: A PN (Pseudo-Noise) sequence spreads the signal over a wide frequency band,
providing security and resistance to interference.

2. The primary characteristic of a PN sequence is that it:

A) Is periodic but appears random
B) Always follows a fixed pattern
C) Is generated by a continuous wave signal
D) Has a frequency similar to the original signal
Answer: A
Explanation: A PN sequence is periodic but appears random, making it suitable for
applications like spread spectrum and cryptography.

3. In a PN sequence, the sequence is generated using:

A) A deterministic function
B) A random number generator
C) A linear feedback shift register (LFSR)
D) A sinusoidal waveform
Answer: C
Explanation: A PN sequence is typically generated using an LFSR, which is a shift register
with feedback.

4. A key property of PN sequences used in spread spectrum systems is:

A) Their unpredictability
B) Their high power consumption
C) Their periodicity and repeatability
D) Their fixed frequency
Answer: C
Explanation: PN sequences are periodic, but they appear random, which makes them
predictable at the receiver while appearing noise-like to outsiders.

5. Which of the following is a typical application of a PN sequence?

A) Frequency modulation in AM radio
B) Error correction in digital communication
C) Spread spectrum communication for security
D) Analog signal amplification
Answer: C
Explanation: PN sequences are commonly used in spread spectrum communication to
enhance security and resistance to interference.

4.2 Model of Spread Spectrum Modulation

6. Spread spectrum modulation is primarily used to:

A) Minimize signal bandwidth
B) Increase signal power
C) Spread the signal over a wide frequency band
D) Encode information into a fixed frequency
Answer: C
Explanation: Spread spectrum modulation spreads the signal over a wide frequency band,
making it more resistant to interference and eavesdropping.

7. Which of the following is a key advantage of spread spectrum modulation?

A) High data rates
B) Resistance to jamming and interception
C) Low bandwidth usage
D) Low power consumption
Answer: B
Explanation: Spread spectrum modulation provides resistance to jamming and interception
by spreading the signal across a broad frequency range.

8. In spread spectrum modulation, the signal is spread by:

A) Modulating the frequency of the carrier
B) Changing the bit rate
C) Increasing the bandwidth of the signal
D) Using higher modulation orders
Answer: C
Explanation: The key feature of spread spectrum is that the signal bandwidth is intentionally
increased to spread the signal over a wide frequency range.

9. Which of the following is NOT a feature of spread spectrum modulation?

A) Reduced interference from other signals
B) Difficult interception by unauthorized users
C) More efficient use of bandwidth
D) High power requirement for transmission
Answer: D
Explanation: Spread spectrum modulation typically requires more bandwidth but does not
inherently require high power for transmission.

10. The primary goal of spread spectrum techniques is to:

A) Maximize the power of the signal
B) Avoid interference with other communications
C) Reduce the bandwidth of the signal
D) Increase the cost of the system
Answer: B
Explanation: The primary goal is to minimize interference with other communications while
providing security and reliability in the transmission.

4.3 Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)

11. In DSSS, the data signal is:

A) Modulated with a high-frequency carrier
B) Spread over a wide frequency band using a PN sequence
C) Divided into multiple time slots
D) Encoded with frequency shifts
Answer: B
Explanation: DSSS spreads the signal by modulating the data with a high-speed PN
sequence, effectively spreading the signal across a wide frequency range.

12. The main advantage of DSSS is:

A) High power efficiency
B) Greater resistance to interference and jamming
C) Simple implementation
D) Low cost of transmission
Answer: B
Explanation: DSSS provides greater resistance to interference and jamming by spreading the
signal across a wide band of frequencies.

13. In DSSS, the signal's bandwidth is determined by:

A) The bit rate of the signal
B) The length of the PN sequence
C) The frequency of the carrier
D) The modulation index
Answer: B
Explanation: The bandwidth of a DSSS signal is primarily determined by the length of the
PN sequence and its spreading factor.

14. DSSS is typically used in:

A) AM radio transmission
B) GPS systems
C) High-frequency radar systems
D) Digital TV broadcasting
Answer: B
Explanation: DSSS is widely used in GPS systems to provide robustness against
interference and multipath fading.

15. The spreading factor in DSSS refers to:

A) The ratio of the transmitted bandwidth to the data rate
B) The number of bits transmitted per symbol
C) The length of the PN sequence used for spreading
D) The frequency deviation of the signal
Answer: A
Explanation: The spreading factor refers to the ratio of the transmitted bandwidth to the data
rate, which determines how much the signal is spread over the frequency spectrum.

4.4 Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)

16. In FHSS, the transmitter and receiver:

A) Stay on a fixed frequency
B) Continuously change frequency in a predictable manner
C) Use a single time slot for transmission
D) Employ a fixed PN sequence for spreading
Answer: B
Explanation: In FHSS, the transmitter and receiver hop between different frequencies in a
predictable pattern to avoid interference.

17. The main advantage of FHSS is:

A) It provides high bandwidth efficiency
B) It makes the signal less susceptible to interference and jamming
C) It reduces the cost of transmission
D) It requires less power
Answer: B
Explanation: FHSS provides resistance to interference and jamming by frequently changing
the frequency used for transmission.

18. In FHSS, slow frequency hopping means:

A) A large number of hops in a short period
B) A few hops over a longer period
C) The frequency is hopped randomly
D) The signal stays on a frequency for a long time
Answer: B
Explanation: Slow frequency hopping means the frequency is changed infrequently over a
longer period, typically less than the symbol duration.

19. In FHSS, fast frequency hopping means:

A) A large number of frequency hops within each symbol period
B) A small number of hops during each transmission
C) The use of a wide frequency range
D) The frequency hop pattern is not known to the receiver
Answer: A
Explanation: Fast frequency hopping involves changing frequencies rapidly, typically on the
order of symbol rates, to avoid interference.

20. Which of the following is a typical application of FHSS?

A) Bluetooth communication
B) Digital TV broadcasting
C) AM radio
D) FM radio
Answer: A
Explanation: Bluetooth uses FHSS to avoid interference and improve security by hopping
across multiple frequencies.

4.5 Application of Spread Spectrum Modulation

21. Spread spectrum modulation is widely used in:

A) Wireless communication systems
B) Wired communication networks
C) Fiber optic communications
D) High-voltage power transmission
Answer: A
Explanation: Spread spectrum is commonly used in wireless communication systems for its
robustness against interference.

22. Which of the following is a key application of DSSS?

A) GPS systems
B) Fiber-optic cable transmission
C) Analog radio transmission
D) Wireless LANs (Wi-Fi)
Answer: A
Explanation: DSSS is widely used in GPS systems for robust and secure signal transmission.
23. FHSS is especially useful in:
A) High-speed data transmission
B) Secure communication in noisy environments
C) Analog signal amplification
D) Simple point-to-point communication
Answer: B
Explanation: FHSS is used in secure communication in noisy environments, such as military
and commercial wireless systems.

24. Spread spectrum techniques are used in:

A) Wi-Fi and mobile communications
B) AM radio and FM radio
C) Analog television
D) Analog satellite TV
Answer: A
Explanation: Spread spectrum techniques are widely used in Wi-Fi and mobile
communication systems for their ability to handle interference and provide security.

25. Which of the following is an advantage of spread spectrum modulation in military

applications?
A) High bit rate
B) Resistance to jamming and interception
C) Low power consumption
D) Efficient bandwidth usage
Answer: B
Explanation: Spread spectrum modulation provides resistance to jamming and interception,
making it ideal for secure military communications.

Applications Continued

26. Which application of spread spectrum technology is most suited for preventing
unauthorized access?
A) Bluetooth
B) GPS
C) Secure wireless LANs
D) Satellite television
Answer: C
Explanation: Secure wireless LANs (Wi-Fi) use spread spectrum to prevent unauthorized
access by using encryption and hopping patterns.

27. Spread spectrum modulation helps to:

A) Increase bandwidth efficiency
B) Avoid signal interference from other devices
C) Decrease transmission range
D) Increase power consumption
Answer: B
Explanation: Spread spectrum modulation helps avoid interference by spreading the signal
over a wide frequency range.
28. Which of the following spread spectrum techniques is used to increase resistance to
interference in digital communication?
A) Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
B) Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
C) Both DSSS and FHSS
D) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: Both DSSS and FHSS techniques are used to increase resistance to interference
by spreading the signal over a wide frequency range.

29. In a practical application, which modulation technique is most suitable for secure
communication in a noisy environment?
A) DSSS
B) AM modulation
C) ASK
D) FM modulation
Answer: A
Explanation: DSSS is ideal for secure communication in noisy environments because it
spreads the signal over a large bandwidth, making it resistant to interference and jamming.

30. Which of the following is an example of a civilian application of FHSS?

A) Military communication
B) Bluetooth
C) Satellite communication
D) GPS
Answer: B
Explanation: Bluetooth technology uses FHSS for secure and interference-resistant
communication in short-range wireless devices.

31. In a DSSS system, if the PN sequence has a spreading factor of 10, the signal bandwidth
will be:
A) 10 times the data rate
B) 100 times the data rate
C) Equal to the data rate
D) 1/10th the data rate
Answer: A
Explanation: The spreading factor determines how much the signal bandwidth is increased,
so with a spreading factor of 10, the bandwidth will be 10 times the data rate.

32. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using DSSS?

A) It has high power efficiency
B) It requires a complex receiver
C) It is not secure
D) It uses a narrow frequency band
Answer: B
Explanation: DSSS requires a more complex receiver because it must accurately correlate
the received signal with the PN sequence to extract the data.

33. The primary difference between slow and fast frequency hopping in FHSS is:
A) The number of frequency hops
B) The time duration between hops
C) The transmission power used
D) The modulation technique
Answer: B
Explanation: The primary difference is the time duration between hops. In slow frequency
hopping, the frequency changes infrequently, while in fast frequency hopping, the frequency
changes rapidly.

34. In DSSS, the term "chip rate" refers to:

A) The rate at which the data is transmitted
B) The rate at which the PN sequence is transmitted
C) The modulation index
D) The frequency deviation of the signal
Answer: B
Explanation: The chip rate is the rate at which the PN sequence is transmitted, which is
much higher than the data rate in DSSS.

35. FHSS provides security by:

A) Increasing the data rate
B) Changing frequencies rapidly during transmission
C) Modulating the signal with a high-frequency carrier
D) Using encryption techniques
Answer: B
Explanation: FHSS provides security by rapidly changing the frequencies during
transmission, making it difficult for unauthorized users to intercept the signal.

36. The main advantage of using spread spectrum in wireless communication is:
A) Greater bandwidth efficiency
B) Reduced interference and jamming
C) Increased power consumption
D) Simple receiver design
Answer: B
Explanation: Spread spectrum techniques, such as DSSS and FHSS, provide reduced
interference and jamming, making them ideal for secure and reliable wireless
communication.

37. A common application of FHSS is:

A) Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN)
B) GPS positioning
C) Satellite TV transmission
D) Digital cellular systems
Answer: A
Explanation: FHSS is commonly used in WLANs like Bluetooth, where devices hop
between frequencies to avoid interference.

38. In DSSS, the data signal is combined with the PN sequence through:
A) Amplitude modulation
B) Frequency modulation
C) Direct multiplication
D) Phase modulation
Answer: C
Explanation: In DSSS, the data signal is combined with the PN sequence through direct
multiplication, spreading the signal across a wide bandwidth.

39. Which of the following statements about FHSS is true?

A) It requires more bandwidth than DSSS
B) It uses a fixed frequency for the entire transmission
C) It provides a high level of security through frequency hopping
D) It is used in systems with low power and high data rates
Answer: C
Explanation: FHSS provides a high level of security by hopping between different
frequencies in a predetermined sequence, making it difficult for unauthorized listeners to
intercept the signal.

40. What is the primary reason that DSSS is less susceptible to interference?
A) The signal is modulated with a high-frequency carrier
B) The signal is spread across a wide frequency range
C) The receiver uses a low-pass filter
D) The signal is transmitted with a higher power
Answer: B
Explanation: DSSS is less susceptible to interference because it spreads the signal across a
wide frequency range, making it less likely to experience interference from narrowband
signals.

41. The number of frequency hops in a given time period for FHSS is determined by:
A) The symbol rate
B) The spreading factor
C) The hopset length
D) The modulation technique
Answer: C
Explanation: The number of frequency hops in a given time period is determined by the
hopset length, which defines how many frequencies are used in the hopping sequence.

42. The primary benefit of using DSSS in communication systems is:

A) Low bandwidth requirement
B) High power consumption
C) Robustness against interference
D) Simple transmitter design
Answer: C
Explanation: DSSS is robust against interference because the signal is spread over a wide
frequency range, reducing the impact of narrowband interference.

43. Which modulation technique is used in combination with DSSS for military
communications?
A) Amplitude modulation
B) Frequency modulation
C) Phase modulation
D) Both DSSS and encryption
Answer: D
Explanation: Military communications often combine DSSS with encryption techniques to
ensure secure communication and resistance to jamming.

44. In FHSS, the frequency hop rate should be chosen in such a way that:
A) It is much faster than the data rate
B) It is the same as the data rate
C) It is slower than the data rate
D) It exceeds the chip rate
Answer: A
Explanation: The frequency hop rate should be faster than the data rate to ensure that the
signal is spread over the frequency spectrum effectively.

45. The primary purpose of the PN sequence in DSSS is to:

A) Encode the signal
B) Change the frequency of the carrier
C) Spread the signal over a wide frequency band
D) Modulate the signal
Answer: C
Explanation: The PN sequence in DSSS is used to spread the signal over a wide frequency
band, increasing security and resistance to interference.

46. In DSSS, if the spreading factor is increased, what happens to the bandwidth?
A) Bandwidth increases
B) Bandwidth decreases
C) Bandwidth remains the same
D) Bandwidth is eliminated
Answer: A
Explanation: Increasing the spreading factor increases the bandwidth of the signal, as the
signal is spread over a wider frequency range.

47. What type of communication systems benefit most from FHSS?

A) Systems requiring high data rates
B) Systems with high bandwidth efficiency
C) Systems requiring resistance to interference and jamming
D) Systems that need simple receivers
Answer: C
Explanation: FHSS is ideal for systems that require resistance to interference and jamming,
such as military or secure communication systems.

48. What is the typical use of FHSS in modern communication?

A) Cellular networks
B) Bluetooth and Wi-Fi
C) Satellite communication
D) Digital television
Answer: B
Explanation: FHSS is commonly used in Bluetooth and other short-range wireless
technologies for its ability to avoid interference and enhance security.

49. Which modulation technique is used in DSSS for security in GPS systems?
A) Amplitude modulation
B) Frequency modulation
C) Phase modulation
D) DSSS with encryption
Answer: D
Explanation: GPS systems use DSSS with encryption to secure the signal against
unauthorized interception.

50. Spread spectrum modulation is commonly used in:

A) Analog TV broadcasts
B) Analog cellular systems
C) Digital communication systems requiring high security and interference resistance
D) Wired telephone lines
Answer: C
Explanation: Spread spectrum modulation is commonly used in digital communication
systems, such as Wi-Fi, GPS, and military communications, for security and interference
resistance.

What is the main problem associated with conventional tubes at microwave

frequencies?

A) High power output

B) High efficiency
C) Difficulty in maintaining a consistent frequency
D) High loss and limited frequency range
Answer: D
Explanation: Conventional tubes, like vacuum tubes, face issues with high loss and limited
frequency range when used at microwave frequencies, making them less efficient for such
applications.

2. The velocity modulation in a Klystron tube results in:

A) Increased frequency of oscillation

B) Increased efficiency of amplification
C) Reduced power output
D) Reduced frequency stability
Answer: B
Explanation: Velocity modulation in Klystrons results in an effective increase in the
efficiency of amplification by varying the velocity of electron beams, leading to better energy
transfer.

3. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the multi-cavity

Klystron?

A) High gain
B) Low frequency range
C) No use of velocity modulation
D) High power consumption
Answer: A
Explanation: Multi-cavity Klystrons are designed for high gain and are commonly used in
microwave amplification for communication and radar applications.

4. The primary use of a Reflex Klystron is:

A) High-frequency oscillation
B) Low-frequency amplification
C) Microwave power generation
D) Frequency conversion
Answer: A
Explanation: Reflex Klystrons are primarily used as high-frequency oscillators due to their
ability to generate microwaves at stable frequencies.

5. Which of the following microwave tubes is known for high efficiency and is
used for wideband amplification?

A) Reflex Klystron
B) Traveling Wave Tube (TWT)
C) Magnetron
D) Multi-cavity Klystron
Answer: B
Explanation: Traveling Wave Tubes (TWTs) are known for their high efficiency and wide
frequency bandwidth and are widely used in satellite communications and radar systems.

6. The frequency range of operation of a Traveling Wave Tube (TWT)

typically lies between:

A) 10 GHz to 100 GHz

B) 1 GHz to 10 GHz
C) 100 MHz to 1 GHz
D) 10 MHz to 1 GHz
Answer: A
Explanation: Traveling Wave Tubes (TWTs) typically operate in the microwave frequency
range, which spans from 10 GHz to 100 GHz.

7. The primary difference between the Reflex Klystron and the multi-cavity
Klystron is:
A) Power output
B) Efficiency
C) Frequency stability
D) Number of cavities used for amplification
Answer: D
Explanation: The Reflex Klystron uses a single cavity while the multi-cavity Klystron uses
multiple cavities to enhance amplification and achieve higher gain.

8. In the operation of a Traveling Wave Tube (TWT), the efficiency is

influenced by:

A) The magnetic field strength

B) The velocity of the electron beam
C) The type of cathode used
D) The external power supply voltage
Answer: B
Explanation: The efficiency of a TWT is largely influenced by the velocity of the electron
beam, which determines how well it interacts with the propagating wave in the tube.

9. The Gunn diode is primarily used for:

A) High-frequency amplification
B) Microwave oscillation generation
C) Signal detection
D) Waveguide impedance matching
Answer: B
Explanation: Gunn diodes are used for microwave oscillation generation in radar systems,
communication systems, and local oscillators.

10. The principle of operation of a Gunn diode involves:

A) Transit time modulation

B) Negative resistance
C) Direct current modulation
D) Phase modulation
Answer: B
Explanation: Gunn diodes operate on the principle of negative resistance, where the voltage-
current characteristics exhibit regions of negative resistance, allowing microwave oscillation.

11. The IMPATT diode is primarily used for:

A) Microwave oscillation generation
B) Power amplification
C) High-frequency signal detection
D) Frequency mixing
Answer: A
Explanation: IMPATT (Impact Ionization Avalanche Transit-Time) diodes are used for
generating microwave oscillations, commonly in radar and communication applications.

12. The principle of operation of an IMPATT diode is based on:

A) Avalanche multiplication
B) Negative resistance
C) Heat generation
D) Frequency modulation
Answer: A
Explanation: The IMPATT diode operates based on avalanche multiplication and transit-
time effects, which generate negative resistance and enable microwave oscillation.

13. What type of detector is most commonly used at microwave frequencies?

A) Schottky diode
B) Germanium diode
C) Photo diode
D) Varactor diode
Answer: A
Explanation: Schottky diodes are commonly used at microwave frequencies due to their fast
response time and low forward voltage drop, making them ideal for high-frequency detection.

14. A directional coupler is used to:

A) Split power between two paths

B) Match impedance in a microwave circuit
C) Reduce signal loss
D) Detect signals
Answer: A
Explanation: A directional coupler is used to split or combine signals in microwave circuits,
allowing for power to be directed to different paths with minimal loss.

15. Which of the following is a passive microwave device that isolates one part
of a system from another?
A) Magic Tee
B) Attenuator
C) Isolator
D) Directional Coupler
Answer: C
Explanation: An isolator is a passive device used to allow microwave signals to pass in one
direction only while preventing signals from reflecting back into the system, thus isolating
one part of the system from another.

16. A magic tee is used in microwave circuits to:

A) Combine or split signals in phase and out of phase

B) Filter frequencies
C) Detect signals
D) Amplify signals
Answer: A
Explanation: A Magic Tee is a hybrid device used to combine or split microwave signals in
both in-phase and out-of-phase conditions, often used in power dividers and mixers.

17. Which of the following is a key feature of a rectangular waveguide?

A) It supports TE and TM modes

B) It only supports TE modes
C) It has no cutoff frequency
D) It is a passive device
Answer: A
Explanation: A rectangular waveguide supports both Transverse Electric (TE) and
Transverse Magnetic (TM) modes, depending on the mode of operation.

18. The cutoff frequency of a waveguide is determined by:

A) The waveguide's length

B) The dielectric material used
C) The waveguide's cross-sectional dimensions
D) The frequency of the input signal
Answer: C
Explanation: The cutoff frequency of a waveguide is determined by its cross-sectional
dimensions, as the dimensions dictate the minimum frequency at which the waveguide can
effectively transmit electromagnetic waves.

19. In a circular waveguide, the electric and magnetic fields are confined to:
A) The center of the waveguide
B) The walls of the waveguide
C) The interior region between the walls
D) Both the center and walls
Answer: C
Explanation: In a circular waveguide, the electric and magnetic fields are confined to the
interior region between the walls, with specific field configurations depending on the mode of
propagation.

20. Which mode of propagation is typically used in rectangular waveguides

for most practical applications?

A) TE10 mode
B) TM11 mode
C) TE01 mode
D) TM01 mode
Answer: A
Explanation: The TE10 mode is the dominant mode in rectangular waveguides and is most
commonly used in practical microwave applications due to its efficient power transmission
characteristics.

21. TE and TM modes in a waveguide refer to:

A) Transverse Electric and Transverse Magnetic

B) Time Energy and Transverse Magnetic
C) Transmission Efficiency and Transmission Modulation
D) Transverse Electric and Time Modulation
Answer: A
Explanation: TE (Transverse Electric) modes have no electric field in the direction of
propagation, while TM (Transverse Magnetic) modes have no magnetic field in the direction
of propagation.

22. The primary advantage of using waveguides in microwave systems is:

A) Low attenuation
B) High attenuation
C) High power consumption
D) Complexity in design
Answer: A
Explanation: Waveguides offer low attenuation and minimal loss, making them ideal for
transmitting microwave signals over long distances with high efficiency.
23. In microwave communication systems, isolators are used to:

A) Prevent interference between devices

B) Convert digital signals to analog signals
C) Split signals between devices
D) Control the frequency of operation
Answer: A
Explanation: Isolators are used to prevent interference between devices by allowing signals
to travel in one direction and blocking reflections that may cause interference.

24. The field of operation of a Reflex Klystron is typically in the frequency

range of:

A) 1 GHz to 10 GHz
B) 10 GHz to 50 GHz
C) 100 MHz to 1 GHz
D) 50 MHz to 500 MHz
Answer: A
Explanation: Reflex Klystrons are primarily used in the frequency range of 1 GHz to 10
GHz, where they are employed as oscillators in radar and communication systems.

25. The primary function of a microwave attenuator is to:

A) Increase the signal strength

B) Control the frequency of the signal
C) Decrease the signal power
D) Split the signal into multiple paths
Answer: C
Explanation: A microwave attenuator is used to decrease the signal power to a desired level,
allowing for better signal control and protection of sensitive equipment.

26. The frequency range of operation for a Reflex Klystron is typically:

A) 100 MHz to 1 GHz

B) 1 GHz to 10 GHz
C) 10 GHz to 50 GHz
D) 50 GHz to 100 GHz
Answer: B
Explanation: Reflex Klystrons are used in the frequency range of 1 GHz to 10 GHz,
typically in oscillators for generating microwave signals.
27. Which of the following is the most suitable application for a Traveling
Wave Tube (TWT)?

A) Low-frequency amplification
B) High-power microwave amplification
C) Oscillation generation
D) Signal mixing
Answer: B
Explanation: Traveling Wave Tubes (TWTs) are commonly used for high-power microwave
amplification in satellite communication, radar systems, and electronic warfare.

28. In a microwave system, the purpose of using a directional coupler is to:

A) Isolate different parts of the system

B) Split or combine signals with minimal loss
C) Increase signal strength
D) Generate microwave frequencies
Answer: B
Explanation: A directional coupler is used to split or combine signals in a microwave system
with minimal loss, allowing for signal routing and power measurement.

29. A Magic Tee is typically used in microwave systems for:

A) Signal amplification
B) Frequency conversion
C) Power splitting and combining
D) Signal detection
Answer: C
Explanation: A Magic Tee is a four-port network that is used for power splitting and
combining in phase and out of phase, commonly in radar and communication systems.

30. The primary role of an isolator in a microwave system is to:

A) Allow signals to pass only in one direction

B) Split power between two paths
C) Amplify the signal
D) Measure signal strength
Answer: A
Explanation: An isolator is a passive device that allows signals to pass in one direction while
preventing reflections from traveling back into the system.
31. What is the primary advantage of using a circular waveguide over a
rectangular waveguide?

A) It has a higher cutoff frequency

B) It supports only one mode of propagation
C) It is easier to manufacture
D) It has no cutoff frequency
Answer: D
Explanation: Circular waveguides have no cutoff frequency for certain modes, making them
more efficient for carrying signals over a wide range of frequencies compared to rectangular
waveguides.

32. Which of the following is a characteristic of TE modes in a waveguide?

A) The electric field is entirely in the direction of propagation

B) The magnetic field is absent in the direction of propagation
C) The electric field has no component in the direction of propagation
D) The waveguide does not support TE modes
Answer: C
Explanation: In TE modes (Transverse Electric), the electric field has no component in the
direction of propagation, meaning it is entirely confined to the transverse direction.

33. The TM mode in a waveguide indicates that:

A) There is no electric field

B) The magnetic field is entirely in the direction of propagation
C) The magnetic field has no component in the direction of propagation
D) The waveguide supports only one mode
Answer: C
Explanation: In TM modes (Transverse Magnetic), the magnetic field has no component in
the direction of propagation, but the electric field has a component along the propagation
direction.

34. In a microwave system, what is the primary function of an attenuator?

A) To increase the signal strength

B) To decrease the signal strength
C) To combine signals
D) To detect microwave signals
Answer: B
Explanation: An attenuator is a passive device used to reduce the strength of a signal in a
controlled manner, preventing overload in sensitive components and adjusting signal levels
for proper system operation.
35. The cutoff frequency of a rectangular waveguide depends on:

A) The length of the waveguide

B) The width and height of the waveguide cross-section
C) The type of dielectric material used
D) The frequency of the input signal
Answer: B
Explanation: The cutoff frequency of a rectangular waveguide is determined by the width
and height of the waveguide's cross-sectional dimensions. A larger cross-section allows lower
cutoff frequencies.

36. The primary application of a Directional Coupler is to:

A) Measure signal power

B) Split signals with minimal loss
C) Amplify signals
D) Isolate sections of a system
Answer: B
Explanation: A directional coupler is primarily used to split or combine signals with
minimal loss, allowing for efficient signal routing and measurement of power in microwave
systems.

37. The efficiency of a Klystron is primarily determined by:

A) The type of cathode used

B) The quality of the electron beam
C) The magnetic field strength
D) The number of cavities used
Answer: B
Explanation: The efficiency of a Klystron depends largely on the quality and behavior of the
electron beam, which is modulated to transfer energy to the microwave signal.

38. In the context of waveguides, what does the TE11 mode refer to?

A) A higher-order mode
B) A fundamental mode
C) A mixed mode
D) A hybrid mode
Answer: A
Explanation: The TE11 mode is a higher-order transverse electric mode that is supported in
waveguides, with specific cutoff frequencies and propagation characteristics depending on
the waveguide geometry.

39. A common use of a Reflex Klystron is in:

A) High-power microwave amplification

B) Low-frequency signal modulation
C) Microwave oscillation generation
D) Frequency conversion
Answer: C
Explanation: Reflex Klystrons are commonly used as microwave oscillators in
communication systems and radar systems, where stable frequency generation is required.

40. The efficiency of a Traveling Wave Tube (TWT) is highest when:

A) The electron beam velocity is matched with the signal wave velocity
B) The electron beam velocity is much higher than the signal wave velocity
C) The signal frequency is extremely high
D) The waveguide is very long
Answer: A
Explanation: The efficiency of a TWT is maximized when the velocity of the electron beam
is matched with the velocity of the signal wave, ensuring optimal energy transfer between the
beam and the wave.

41. What is the function of a microwave isolator in a communication system?

A) To amplify signals
B) To isolate a part of the system by blocking backward reflection
C) To split signals into multiple paths
D) To detect incoming signals
Answer: B
Explanation: A microwave isolator is used to prevent backward reflection of signals,
protecting sensitive components from potential damage and interference.

42. Which of the following is not a type of microwave passive device?

A) Directional coupler
B) Magic Tee
C) Traveling Wave Tube
D) Isolator
Answer: C
Explanation: A Traveling Wave Tube (TWT) is an active device used for amplification,
while directional couplers, Magic Tee, and isolators are all passive devices used in signal
routing and protection.

43. In a rectangular waveguide, which mode has the lowest cutoff frequency?

A) TE10
B) TE11
C) TM01
D) TM10
Answer: A
Explanation: The TE10 mode has the lowest cutoff frequency in a rectangular waveguide
and is the dominant mode for most practical applications.

44. What is the primary characteristic of a waveguide that supports only a

specific frequency range?

A) It has an infinite bandwidth

B) It has a cutoff frequency
C) It supports all modes of propagation
D) It has no attenuation
Answer: B
Explanation: Waveguides have a cutoff frequency below which they cannot support signal
propagation. The frequency of the signal must be above the cutoff frequency to propagate
through the waveguide.

45. A microwave detector diode is used to:

A) Detect the amplitude of a microwave signal

B) Amplify a microwave signal
C) Split the signal into two paths
D) Match impedance in a circuit
Answer: A
Explanation: Microwave detector diodes are used to detect the amplitude of microwave
signals, converting them into a lower-frequency signal that can be measured by conventional
electronics.

46. In microwave communication, what is the main advantage of using a

circular waveguide over a rectangular waveguide?
A) It requires less power
B) It can support more modes of propagation
C) It offers lower attenuation
D) It has no cutoff frequency for certain modes
Answer: D
Explanation: Circular waveguides can support lower cutoff frequencies for certain modes
compared to rectangular waveguides, making them more efficient for transmitting
microwaves.

47. The primary function of a directional coupler in a radar system is to:

A) Increase signal strength

B) Detect the reflected signal
C) Split the transmitted signal for measurement
D) Convert analog signals to digital
Answer: C
Explanation: In radar systems, a directional coupler is used to split the transmitted signal to
measure it and compare it with the reflected signal.

48. A Magic Tee is used in radar systems to:

A) Detect reflected signals

B) Combine signals in-phase and out-of-phase
C) Split signals into multiple paths
D) Measure signal strength
Answer: B
Explanation: A Magic Tee is used to combine signals in-phase and out-of-phase, which is
essential in radar and communication systems for signal routing and power division.

49. Which of the following devices is typically used to isolate two parts of a
microwave system?

A) Magic Tee
B) Isolator
C) Attenuator
D) Directional Coupler
Answer: B
Explanation: An isolator is used to isolate two parts of a microwave system by allowing
signals to pass in one direction while blocking reflected signals.

50. The term "cutoff frequency" in a waveguide refers to:

A) The maximum frequency supported by the waveguide
B) The minimum frequency supported by the waveguide
C) The frequency at which power losses are highest
D) The frequency at which the waveguide becomes opaque
Answer: B
Explanation: The cutoff frequency is the minimum frequency below which a waveguide
cannot support the propagation of electromagnetic waves.