Biology Delhi (Set 2)

General Instructions:

Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:
(i) Question paper comprises five sections – A, B, C, D and E.
(ii) There are 27 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Section A question number 1 to 5 are multiple choice questions, carrying one mark
each.
(iv) Section B question number 6 to 12 are short answer questions type-I,
carrying two marks each.
(v) Section C question number 13 to 21 are short answer questions type-II,
carrying three marks each.
(vi) Section D question number 22 to 24 are short answer questions type-III,
carrying three marks each.
(vii) Section E question number 25 to 27 are long answer questions, carrying five marks
each.
(viii) Answer should be brief and to the point also the above word limit be adhered to as
far as possible.
(ix) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has
been provided in two questions of 1 mark, one question of 2 marks, two questions
of 3 marks and three questions of 5 marks questions. Only one of the choices in such
questions have to be attempted.
(x) The diagram drawn should be neat proportionate and properly labelled, wherever
necessary.
(xi) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question,
wherever necessary.

Question 1
In a bacterium when RNA-polymerase binds to the promoter on a transcription unit
during transcription, it
(a) terminates the process
(b) helps remove introns
(c) initiates the process
(d) inactivates the exons
Solution:
RNA polymerase is the key enzyme for the process of transcription. This enzyme
recognizes the promoter region and initiates the transcription process. This leads to the
formation of RNA (or mRNA) from the template DNA.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Question 2
The first cellular form of life evolved
(a) in air
(b) on land
(c) in water environment
(d) in deep soil

Solution:
The first cellular forms of life evolved in water.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Question 3
Mating of a superior male of a breed of a cattle to a superior female of another breed is
called
(a) in breeding
(b) out crossing
(c) out breeding
(d) cross breeding
OR
Large-holes in 'Swiss-Cheese' are due to
(a) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisae
(c) Penicillium chrysogenum
(d) Acetobacter aceti

Solution:
Mating of superior male of one breed and superior female of another breed to obtain the
desirable qualities of two breeds can be combined by the process of cross breeding.
e.g., Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri
ewes and Marino rams.

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

OR
The large holes in 'Swiss cheese' are due to the production of a large amount of CO 2 by a
bacterium called Propionibacterium sharmanii.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

Question 4
Increased concentration of DDT in fish-eating birds is due to
(a) eutrophication
(b) bio-magnification
(c) cultural eutrophication
(d) accelerated eutrophication
OR
Species-Area relationship is represented on a log scale as
(a) hyperbola
(b) rectangular hyperbola
(c) linear
(d) inverted
Solution:

Biomagnification is the increase in the concentration of non biodegradable material at

each trophic level of the food chain. e.g., Biomagnification of DDT in the food chain.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

OR
The species-area relationship, when represented on a logarithmic scale, shows a typical
linear curve.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Question 5

Which one of the following part of the plant when put into the soil is likely to produce
new offspring?
(a) Part of an internode
(b) A stem cutting with a node
(c) Part of a primary root
(d) A flower

Solution:
The new plantlet grows from the nodes present in the stem of the flowering plants.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Question 6
Name the Scientists and write how did they explain Mendel's laws after the
chromosomes were discovered.
Solution:
Sutton and Boveri came up with the Chromosomal Theory of Inheritence. According to
this theory Mendel's factors or genes are located on the chromosomes only. Following
observations led Sutton and Boveri to come up with Chromosomal Theory of
Inheritence:

1) Chromosomes occur in pairs just like Mendelian factors or genes with a diploid cell.
2) Chromosomes segregate like Mendelian factors during the process of
gametogenesis.
3) Only one chromosome of a pair is observed in a gamete just like mendelian factor.
4) The paired condition of chromosomes and Mendelian factors is restored after
fertilization.

Based on the above mentioned observations, Sutton and Boveri proposed that the
location of the Mendelian factors or genes is on chromosomes indeed.
Question 7

State two advantages of an apomictic seed to a farmer.

Solution:
Apomictic seeds are advantageous over the hybrid seeds in the following ways:

(i) They reduce the cost of hybrid breeding programmes.

(ii) Desired traits can be maintained without losing superiority of hybrids over parents
(hybrid vigour), and farmers can replant these seeds year after year.
Question 8

List two diseases that spread through inhaling droplets or aerosols. Write one
prominent symptoms for each one of them.

Solution:
The two diseases that spread through inhaling droplets or aerosols are diphtheria and
common cold.

The prominent symptoms of these diseases are:

Diphtheria- sore throat and swollen lymph nodes.

Common Cold- nasal congestion and sneezing.
Question 9
What makes humus a reservoir of nutrients? Name and write about the process humus
undergoes that enriches the soil.

Solution:
Humus is a reservoir of nutrients as it is derived from litter or organic matter scattered
over soil surface such as leaves, twigs, dead bodies of organisms and their excretion. It
is an amorphous, dark coloured substance, resistance to microbial action and
undergoes decomposition at a very slow rate. Being colloidal in nature it acts as a good
source of inorganic nutrients, which are often returned back to the soil during
decomposition of humus by the process of mineralization.
Question 10
(a) Name the two techniques employed to meet the increasing demand of fish in the
world.
(b) Name any two fresh water fishes.
OR
Describe the contributions of Alexander Fleming, Ernest Chain and Howard Florey in the
field of microbiology.

Solution:
a) The two techniques employed to meet the increasing demand of fish in the world are:

• Pisciculture- It is the rearing of fish for food in enclosures such as fish ponds or tanks.

• Inland Fisheries- Inland fisheries are the commercial fishing operations that
takes place in freshwater. It includes capture fishery, where the fish living naturally in a
body of water are harvested. The other type of inland fishery is the fish farm, where
fish are raised in tanks or ponds, generally for human consumption.

b) Rohu, Common Carp

OR
Alexander Fleming while working on Staphylococci bacteria, once observed a mould
growing in one of his unwashed culture plates around which Staphylococci could not
grow. He found out that it was due to a chemical produced by the mould and he named
it Penicillin after the mould Penicillium notatum.

However, its full potential as an effective antibiotic was established much later by
Ernest Chain and Howard Florey. This antibiotic was extensively used to treat American
soldiers wounded in World War II. Fleming, Chain, and Florey were awarded the Nobel
Prize in 1945, for this discovery.
Question 11
All cloning vectors do have a 'selectable marker'. Describe its role in recombinant DNA-
technology.

Solution:
The role of selectable marker is to identify and distinguish the bacterial cells that have
taken up the recombinant vector during the transformation process.
Question 12
Mention how have plants developed mechanical and chemical defence against
herbivores to protect themselves with the help of one example of each.

Solution:
The plants exhibit mechanical and chemical defence to protect themselves against
herbivores. These have been enlisted as follows:

The chemical defence includes certain secondary metabolites produced by the plants.
They do not participate in the metabolism of the plant and act by impeding certain
biochemical pathways in herbivores. Example: alkaloids present in plants produce
noxious smell and taste to keep the herbivores away.

Structures such as thorns and spines constitute the mechanical defence of the plant.
These structures are the modifications of various plant parts, like thorn-modified
branches and spines-modified leaves. They cause physical damage to the herbivores
such as rashes and cuts.
Question 13

Explain 'Integrated organic' farming as successfully practiced by Ramesh C. Dagar, a

farmer in Sonepat (Haryana).

Solution:

"Integrated Organic farming" is an agricultural technique that relies on crop rotation,

green manure, biological pest control and compost. In this kind of farming, the waste
from one process is utilised in another process, and hence it is zero waste process. It
limits the use of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides.

Ramesh Chander Dagar, an organic farmer, followed integrated organic farming and has
been proven to be successful. It comprises of many practices like bee keeping, dairy
management, water harvesting, composting and agriculture, which support each other
and allow economic, sustainable and environment friendly venture. Cow dung is used a
manure, and the plant wastes are used as compost in this practice.
Question 14

Explain three different modes of pollination that can occur in chasmogamous flower.
OR
Explain the formation of placenta after implantation in a human female.
Solution:
(i) Autogamy − It is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the
same flower. Autogamy requires the anther and the stigma to lie close. It also requires
synchrony in the pollen release and stigma receptivity. Plants like Viola, Oxalis, etc.
produce two kinds of flowers—chasmogamous (with an exposed anther and stigma)
and cleistogamous (which do not open at all, only autogamy occurs).

(ii) Geitonogamy − It is the transfer of pollen from the anther of one flower to the stigma
of another flower in the same plant. Genetically, it is similar to autogamy but requires
pollinating agents.

(iii) Xenogamy − It is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a
different plant. Xenogamy causes genetically different types of pollens to be brought to
a plant.
OR
The formation of placenta occurs after 12 weeks of pregnancy, when the finger like
projection called chorionic villi appears on the trophoblast, penetrate the endometrium
lining of uterine tissue.

This chorionic villi and uterine tissue interdigitate to form the structural and functional
unit between developing embryo and maternal body called placenta, which help the
embryo to obtain nutrients and oxygen and remove the metabolic waste and carbon
dioxide.

Question 15
You are asked to find the genotypes of a tall pea plant growing in your school garden.
Name the cross and explain how would you confirm the genotypes.
Solution:
The genotypes of a tall pea plant growing in our school garden can be found by test
cross.

Test cross is a cross in which an individual with an unknown genotype is crossed with
an individual (parent) homozygous recessive for that trait. This cross determines
whether the dominant character is coming from homozygous dominant genotype or
heterozygous genotype. (e.g., tallness coming from TT or Tt)

Case I : When TT is crossed with tt, we obtain all Tt (tall) individuals in the progeny.

Case II : When Tt is crossed with tt, we obtain Tt (tall) and tt (dwarf) individuals in the
progeny.

Therefore, if tallness is coming from TT, then we obtain all tall progenies in test cross.
We obtain both tall and dwarf varieties in test cross, if tallness is coming from Tt.

Question 16
What are 'SNPs'? Where are they located in a human cell ? State' any two ways the
discovery of SNPs can be of importance to humans.
Solution:
SNP refers to Single Nucleotide Polymorphism. It refers to the variation in the genome
of organisms within a particular species because of changes in the sequence of a single
nucleotide.

SNPs are located within the chromosomes in certain discrete locations. The discovery
of SNPs can prove useful to humans in the following manner:
1. SNPs can be used to specifically identify genetic regions associated with certain
genetic disorders.
2. SNPs can also be used in forensic sciences.

Question 17
What is adaptive radiation? Explain with the help of a suitable example.
Solution:

The process of evolution in which a particular trait or characteristic or a structure is

modified over and over again as per the varied environment leading to divergent
evolution is adaptive radiation.

Example : Australian Marsupials.

A number of organisms (marsupials) each different from the other (some land dwelling,
some tree dwelling, etc.) evolved from the same ancestor but all within the Australian
continent.
Question 18
(a) Explain the mode of action of Cu ++ releasing IUDs as a good contraceptive. How is
hormone releasing IUD different from it?
(b) Why is “Saheli' a preferred contraceptive by women (any two reasons)?
Solution:

(a) Cu++ releasing IUDs such as CuT exert their effects in two ways:
• They can trigger phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.

• They can also affect the fertilizing ability of sperms and suppress their motility.

In contrast to Cu++ releasing IUDs, hormone-releasing IUDs alter the uterus through
hormonal actions such that implantation does not occur.

(b) Saheli is a preferred contraceptive because of the following reasons:

1. Minimal side effects
2. High contraceptive value

Question 19
(a) Explain why bee-hives are setup on the farms for some of our crop-species. Name
any two such crop species.
(b) List any three important steps to be kept in mind for successful bee keeping.

Solution:
(a) Beehives kept in crop fields during the flowering period, increase the pollination
efficiency. This increases the yield of crop and honey.

Also, bees can easily collect huge amounts of nectar from the flowers of the crop in a
close reach without much foraging. This increases honey production. This technique is
practiced in apple and watermelon fields.

(b) Apiculture or bee keeping refers to the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the
production of honey. For successful bee keeping, the following steps are necessary:

i. Accurate knowledge of nature and habit of bees

ii. Selection of a suitable location for maintaining beehives
iii. Management of beehives during different seasons
Question 20

Explain the role of Agrobacterium tumifaciens in developing resistance in tobacco plant

against nematode Meloidegyne incognitia. Name the processes responsible for this.
Solution:
Agrobacterium tumifaciens is a normal pathogen of many dicot plants and is quite
capable in transferring a piece of there own genome termed as T-DNA into the infected
plant cells.

Thus, these bacterial cells with desired inserts within their T-DNA are the preferred
medium for the transfer of foreign DNA inserts within the plant crop to create a desired
GMO.

In case of tobacco plant the same method of Agrobacterium mediated transformation

has been used to inactivate one of the house-keeping gene of the nematode
pathogen Meloidegyne incognitia. The GMO crop of tobacco resistant to the pest
infestation by this nematode is controlled by the very process of RNA interference or
RNAi.

Here, the GMO tobacco crop carries a gene coding for sense and anti-sense RNA to the
mRNA of one of the housekeeping genes of the nematode pest. The anti-sense RNA
strand transcribed within the GMO tobacco crop effectively binds in a complementary
fashion to the mRNA of the housekeeping gene of the nematode pest, effectively
silencing it and leading to the death of the nematode.

Thus, RNAi is an effective strategy for control of this nematode infestation within the
roots of the tobacco crop.
Question 21
Differentiate between “Pioneer-species”; “Climax-community” and “Seres”.
OR
Explain any three ways other than zoological parks, botanical gardens and wildlife
safaries, by which threatened species of plants and animals are being conserved 'ex
situ'.

Solution:

The differences between pioneer species, climax community and seres can be
summarised as follows:

Pioneer species: A pioneer species is a species that is first to colonize a bare area. A
typical example of pioneer species is lichen which firstly colonizes a bare rock during
primary succession.

Climax community: A climax community is that community which arises during the final
stages of succession and remain unchanged for a long period of time (as long as the
environment remains stable). A typical example includes a forest community.

Seres: Sere refers to the overall sequence of communities that arise during the course
of ecological succession. Each community that exists during ecological succession is
called a seral community.
OR
In addition to zoological parks, botanical garden and wildlife safaris, the following
methods are being employed for the ex-situ conservation of plants and animals:

1. Seed banks: In this method, viable seeds from different plants are preserved in a
temperature and moisture controlled environment. These seeds are then stored for
extended periods of time.

2. Gene banks: This method is preferred for animals. In gene banks, embryos, sperms or
eggs of endangered animals are stored in the low-temperature environments.

3. Cryopreservation: In this method, pollens, embryos or tissues can be preserved in

liquid nitrogen at a temperature of -196°C.

Question 22
Following a road accident four injured persons were brought to a nearby clinic. The
doctor immediately injected them with tetanus antitoxin.
(a) What is tetanus antitoxin ?
(b) Why were the injured immediately injected with this antitoxin?
(c) Name the kind of immunity this injection provided.

Solution:

(a) Tetanus antitoxin is solution of preformed antibodies.

(b) Clostridium tetani, a bacterium enters the body through cut & wounds and obstructs
nerve signalling. This antitoxin neutralises the effect of tetanus toxin in the body. As the
injured persons required immediate immunization in this case, so pre-formed
antibodies(tetanus antitoxin) were delivered to the patients.

(c) Passive immunity would be provided in this case.

Question 23
"The population of a metro city experiences fluctuations in its population density over a
period of time.”
(a) When does the population in a metro city tend to increase?
(b) When does the population in metro city tend to decline?
(c) If 'N' is the population density at the time 't', write the population density at the time 't
+ 1'.

Solution:

(a) The population in a metro city will tend to increase when natality and immigration
will be higher.

(b) The population in metro city will tend to decline when mortality and emigration will
be higher.

(c) The equation represents the population density at

time t + 1. The components of the equation are
• Nt+1: Population density at time t + 1.

• Nt: Population density at time t.

• B: This represents natality. Natality refers to the number of births during a given period
in the population.

• I: It refers to immigration. It is the number of individuals of the same species that have
come into habitat from elsewhere during the considered time period.

• D : This represents mortality. Mortality is the number of deaths in the population

during a given period.

• E: It refers to emigration. It is the number of individuals of the population who left the
habitat and went elsewhere during the considered time period.

Question 24
Study the diagram showing the entry of HIV into the human body and be processes that
are followed :
(a) Name the human cell 'A' HIV enters into.
(b) Mention the genetic material 'B' HIV releases into the cell.
(c) Identify enzyme 'C'.

Solution:

(a) HIV which is the causative agent of AIDS specifically attacks helper T-cells. So, 'A'
is helper T-cells.

(b) Viral RNA is introduced into the cell. So, 'B' is RNA.

(c) Enzyme 'C' is reverse transcriptase.

Question 25

(a) Why did T.H. Morgon select Drosophila melanogaster for his experiments?
(b) How did he disprove Mendelian dihybrid F 2 phenotypic ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1? Explain
giving reasons.

OR
(a) List any four major goals of Human Genome project.
(b) Write any four ways the knowledge from HGP is of significance for humans.
(c) Expand BAC and mention its importance.

Solution:
a) T. H. Morgon selected Drosophila melanogaster as the model organism for his
genetic studies because of the following reasons:

(i) Drosophila is easy and suitably grown on cheap synthetic medium under laboratory
conditions in all seasons.

(ii) Drosophila has a short life cycle of two weeks only.

(iii) High number of progenies are generated per generation making it easy to observe
variation.

(iv) Male and female flies can be easily distinguished from each other.

(v) Observable genetic variations can be easily noticed using a low power microscope
or a hand lens.

(vi) Four pair of chromosomes in diploid organisms makes Drosophila a fairly simple
model for genetic studies.

b) Morgan observed that for many genetic characters observed in case of Drosophila,
the typical mendelian dihybrid cross ratio of 9:3:3:1 is not observed. This was proved by
test cross of F1 generation flies of dihybrid cross.

If the two genes involved in the dihybrid cross are assorting independently then the test
cross of the F1 generation individuals will result in off springs with 50% parental genetic
combination and 50% recombinants, but that is not the case as observed by Morgan in
case of Drosophila.

This can be demonstrated as follows:

 OR

a) Main goals of Human genome project (HGP) are:

To identify all the genes (approximately 20,000-25,000) present in the human DNA.
To determine the accurate sequence of 3 billion chemical base pairs which make up the
human genome

To store the above information in the form of databases.

To improve the tools available for data analysis

(b) The four important advantages of the Human genome project (HGP) are:

1. HGP has led to better understanding of Human Biology and Genetics in general.
2. HGP has paved the way for personalised medicine in future based on one's own
genome.

3. HGP has shed a lot of light on human evolution and phylogenetics.

4. HGP has provided greater insights into the field of genetic disorders and their cures.

c) BAC stands for Bacterial Artificial Chromosome. It is an artificially constructed vector

containing the origin of replication & selectable marker for identification.

It is capable of carrying large DNA fragments and can replicate easily inside a bacterial
cell.

These vectors are used in the human genome project for cloning large chunks of
fragmented human genome with ease.
Question 26

(a) Name the insect that attacks cotton crops and causes lot of damage to the crop.
How has Bt cotton plants overcome this problem and saved the crop ? Explain.
(b) Write the role of gene Cry IAb.
OR
(a) Explain the different steps carried out in Polymerase Chain Reaction, and the
specific roles of the enzymes used.
(b) Mention application of PCR in the field of
(i) Biotechnology
(ii) Diagnostics

Solution:

a) Cotton Bollworm is a lepidopteran larvae which is notoriously known as the major pest
of cotton balls. Bt cotton plants are GMOs containing the active Cry gene from Bacillus
thuringiensis which leads to a production of inactive insecticidal protein, which becomes
active and functional due to the alkaline pH in the gut of the lepidopteran larvae.

This happens when the pest larvae feeds on the GMO Bt crop, which produces the inactive
toxin as produced by the Bacillus thuringiensis. The functional protein inside the larvae
gut binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells leading to formation of pores in them.

Due to this the midgut epithelial cells of the insect larvae swells up and lyse, leading to
the death of the larvae itself. This way it leads to control of the major insect pest cotton
bollworm.

b) CryIAb gene is responsible for the control of corn borer just like the way CryIAc controls
the cotton bollworm.
OR
a) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)- This process is used to amplify specific DNA into
million or billion copies in vitro. It was invented in 1983 by Kary Mullis.

Two sets of primers (chemically synthesised oligonucleotide stretches that are

complementary to a region of DNA), enzyme DNA polymerase,and deoxynucleotides are
used in this process.

• PCR consists of 3 steps:

⚬ Denaturation − Double helical DNA is denatured by providing high temperature. DNA

polymerase does not get degraded in such high temperatures since the DNA
polymerase used in this reaction is thermostable as it is isolated from thermophilic
bacteria, Thermus aquaticus (Taq).

⚬ Annealing- It is the step in which primers are annealed to single stranded DNA
templates. Two sets of primers (small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are
complementary to the regions of DNA) are used.

The temperature of reaction mixture is lowered to 50- 65°C for some seconds to allow
annealing of primers. DNA polymerase extends the primer in 5' to 3' direction.

⚬ Extension − Replication of DNA occurs in vitro.

This cycle is repeated several times to generate up to 1 billion identical copies of the
DNA.
The enzymes used in PCR is Taq polymerase which is obtained from the
bacterium Thermus aquaticus, which yields DNA polymerase.

This enzyme is thermostable and can withstand the high temperature and is used in
PCR in recombinant DNA technology.

b) i) In molecular biology to amplify a single or a few copies of a piece of DNA across

several orders of magnitude, generating thousands to millions of copies of a particular
DNA sequence.

ii) PCR is used in early diagnosis of bacteria and virus in body, when the concentration
is extremely low, can be done by PCR since it amplifies the DNA several folds. It is used
to detect HIV virus in suspected AIDS patients and mutations in genes in suspected
cancer patients.

Question 27
(a) Explain the process of syngamy and triple fusion in angiosperms.
(b) Trace the development of the product of syngamy upto its mature stage in a dicot
plant.
(c) Draw and label three important parts of a mature dicot embryo.
 OR
Name the gonadotropins in human. Explain their role in human male and female,
respectively.

Solution:

a) When one generative cell carried by the pollen tube fuses with the egg contained in
the embryo sac of the ovule, this fusion of male and female gametes is
called syngamy and its product is the zygote.

The other generative cell fuses with the two polar nuclei and this process is called triple
fusion, where three nuclei are involved in the fusion process, one male gamete and two
polar nuclei.

b) The product of syngamy is zygote which develops into embryo having two cotyledons
in the following steps:

• The embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is
situated.

• The zygote gives rise first to the pro-embryo, and then to the globular, heart-shaped,
mature embryo.

• A typical dicot embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons.

• The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is called epicotyl. It
contains the plumule (shoot tip). The portion below the axis is called hypocotyl. It
contains the radicle (root tip). The root tip is covered by the root cap.

OR

Gonadotropins are the hormones that act on gonads to increase the production of sex
hormones. These are produced by anterior pituitary gland and act on testes and ovaries
to stimulate the production of sperm or egg.

Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) are the main
gonadotropins produced in humans.

They help in spermatogenesis and oogenesis as follows:

In Males,

LH : Act on the Leydig cells to secrete testosterone.

FSH : Stimulates the formation of sperms.
 In Females,
FSH:

• Stimulates the growth of Graffian follicle

• Formation of secondary oocyte by helping in development of egg/oocyte within follicle

to complete meiosis I.

• Stimulates the formation of estrogen.

LH :

• Helps in release of secondary oocyte by rupturing the mature Graffian follicle. Hence,
causes ovulation.

• Takes part in development of corpus luteum.