[Practice Test-04 | Aarambh NEET (2024) | 07/01/2024]

SECTION-(I) PHYSICS

SECTION-A 7. If the earth revolves round the sun in a circular

1. A woman weighing 600 N is sitting in a car which orbit, then the necessary centripetal force will be
is travelling at a constant speed on a straight road. provided by
The car suddenly goes over a hump in the road (1) weight of the earth
(hump may be regarded as an arc of a circle of (2) acceleration due to gravity
radius 12.1 m ). If the woman experiences (3) gravitational force of attraction between the
weightlessness, calculate the speed of the car. sun and the earth
[Take 𝑔 = 10 m/s2 ] (4) presence of atmosphere around the earth
(1) 11 m/s (2) 8 m/s
(3) 15 m/s (4) 5 m/s 8. The infinitesimal angular displacement of a
particle performing uniform circular motion is a
2. In uniform circular motion vector because
(1) Both velocity and acceleration are constant (1) it obeys the cumulative and associative laws
(2) Velocity changes and acceleration is constant of vector addition
(3) Velocity is constant and acceleration changes (3) it does not obey the laws of multiplication
(4) Both velocity and acceleration change (2) it does not obey the laws of vector addition
(4) all of these
3. The centripetal acceleration is given by
(1) 𝑣 2 /𝑟 (2) 𝑣𝑟 9. A wheel having a diameter of 3 m starts from rest
2 and accelerates uniformly to an angular velocity
(3) 𝑣𝑟 (4) 𝑣/𝑟
of 210 r.p.m. in 5 seconds. Angular acceleration
4. Radius of the curved road on national highway is of the wheel is
𝑟. Width of the road is 𝑙. The outer edge of the (1) 4.4 rads −2
road is raised by ℎ with respect to the inner edge (2) 3.3 rads −2
so that a car with velocity 𝑣 can pass safely over (3) 2.2 rads −2
it. The value of ℎ is (4) 1.1 rads −2
𝑣2𝑟 𝑣2𝑙
(1) 𝑔
(2) 𝑟 10. In a uniform circular motion, the direction of
𝑣2𝑙 𝑣2
(3) (4) linear velocity is along the
𝑟𝑔 𝑔
(1) tangent to the curve path
(2) radius vector towards the centre
5. A particle of mass 𝑚 executing uniform circular
(3) perpendicular of the plane of the circular
motion on a path of radius 𝑟. If p is the magnitude
motion
of its linear momentum, the radial force acting on
(4) radius vector away from origin
the particle will be
𝑝2
(1) 𝑝𝑚𝑟 (2) 𝑟𝑚 11. On a horizontal curved road, the skidding or over
𝑟𝑝 𝑟𝑚
(3) (4) turning of a vehicle will occur when
𝑚 𝑝2
(1) 𝑣 > √𝜇𝑟𝑔
6. The passengers in car are thrown outwards when (2) the radius 𝑟 is small
the car negotiates a curve, but the cyclist bends (3) coefficient of friction 𝜇 is small
inwards, while negotiating the same curve. Then (4) all of these.
this happens due to
(1) the car is heavier than the cycle 12. An engine requires 5 𝑠 to go from a speed of 600
(2) the cycle moves slower than the car r.p.m. to 1200 r.p.m. with constant acceleration.
(3) the car moves faster than the cycle How many revolutions does it make in this
(4) cyclist counteracts the centrifugal force, period?
which throws the passengers in the car (1) 7.50 (2) 750
outwards (3) 75 (4) 7500
13. The particle is performing uniform circular 19. A particle is moving in a uniform circular motion
motion, the true statement/s are / is with radius ' 𝑟 '. Then the distance covered by the
A. the direction of linear velocity, acceleration particle in one revolution will be
and force changes instantaneously (1) 2𝜋𝑟
B. the magnitude of linear velocity, acceleration (2) 2𝜋
and force changes instantaneously. (3) 𝜋𝑟
C. the magnitude of linear velocity, acceleration (4) 𝜋𝑟 2
and force remains constant.
D. linear velocity, acceleration and force are in 20. A coin is placed on a rotating turn table rotated
the same direction. with angular speed 𝜔. The coin just slips if it is
(1) A and D placed at 4 cm from the center of the table. If
(2) A and C angular velocity is doubled, at what distance will
(3) B, C, and D coin starts to slip
(4) A, B, and C (1) 1 cm (2) 4 cm
(3) 9 cm (4) 16 cm
14. What is the value of linear velocity if 𝜔
⃗ = 3𝚤ˆ −
ˆ ˆ
4𝚥ˆ + 𝑘 and 𝑟 = 5𝚤ˆ − 6𝚥ˆ + 6𝑘 ? 21. The average angular acceleration vector for a
(1) 6𝚤ˆ + 2𝚥ˆ − 3𝑘ˆ particle having a uniform circular motion is:
(2) −18𝚤ˆ − 13𝚥ˆ + 2𝑘ˆ (1) Constant vector of the magnitude
√2
𝑟
(3) 4𝚤ˆ − 13𝚥ˆ + 6𝑘ˆ (2) Null vector
(4) 6𝚤ˆ − 2𝚥ˆ + 8𝑘ˆ √2
(3) A vector of magnitude normal to plane of
𝑟
15. The angle of banking of the road does not depend UCM
upon (4) Equal to the instantaneous acceleration vector
(1) Acceleration due to gravity
(2) Radius of curvature of the road 22. In circular motion radius vector has:
(3) Mass of the vehicle (1) fixed direction but changing magnitude
(4) Speed of the vehicle (2) fixed magnitude but changing direction
(3) variable magnitude but fixed direction
16. A particle performs uniform circular motion in a (4) both direction & magnitude variable
horizontal plane. The radius of the circle is
20 cm. The centripetal force acting on the particle 23. The rail tracks are banked on the curves so that
is 10 𝑁. Its kinetic energy is (1) resultant force will be decreased
(1) 0.1 𝐽 (2) 0.2 𝐽 (2) weight of train may be reduced
(3) 2.0 𝐽 (4) 1.0 𝐽 (3) centrifugal force may be balanced by the
horizontal component of the normal reaction
17. The motion of the particle along the of the rail
circumference of the circle with constant angular (4) frictional force may be produced between the
speed is wheels and tracks
(1) uniform circular motion
(2) projectile motion 24. A body is revolving with a constant speed along a
(3) non accelerated motion' circle. If its direction of motion is reversed but the
(4) non uniform circular motion speed remains the same, then which of the
following statements is true?
18. While driving around curve of radius 17.32 m, an (1) The centripetal force will not suffer any
engineer notes that a pendulum in his car hangs at change in magnitude
an angle of 30∘ to the vertical. The speed of the (2) The centripetal force will have its direction
car is (approximately) reversed
(1) 10 m/s (3) The centripetal force will suffer change in
direction
(2) 15 m/s
(4) The centripetal force would be doubled
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 6.7 m/s
25. When the bob of a conical pendulum is moving in 31. A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with
a horizontal circle at constant speed, which constant speed and time period 0.2𝜋. s. the
quantity is fixed? acceleration of the particle is
(1) Velocity (1) 15 m/s2
(2) Acceleration (2) 25 m/s2
(3) Centripetal force (3) 36 m/s2
(4) Kinetic energy
(4) 5 m/s 2

26. For traffic moving at 60 km/ hour along a

32. According to right hand thumb rule, the direction
circular track of radius 0.1 km, the correct angle
of angular displacement when a particle is
of banking is
602
performing uniform circular motion is
(1) tan−1 ( 0.1 ) (1) parallel to radius vector directed away
(50/3)2 (2) tangent to circular path
(2) tan−1 [ ]
100×9.8
100×9.8
(3) perpendicular to plane of circular path
(3) tan−1 [ (50/3)2 ] (4) directed along radius towards centre
−1
(4) tan √(60 × 0.1 × 9.8)
33. Select the wrong statement
27. If a car is taking turn along a circular track, then (1) centrifugal force has same magnitude as that
the necessary force required to go round circular of centripetal force
track will be (2) centrifugal force is along the radius, away
(1) gravitational force from the centre
(2) restoring force. (3) centrifugal force exist in inertial frame of
(3) centripetal force reference
(4) centrifugal force. (4) centrifugal force is called pseudo force as its
origin cannot be explained.
28. A wheel rotates with a constant angular velocity
of 300 r.p.m. The angle through which the wheel 34. A particle does uniform circular motion in a
rotates in one second is horizontal plane. The radius of the circle is
(1) 𝜋 𝑟𝑎𝑑 (2) 5𝜋 𝑟𝑎𝑑 20 cm. If the centripetal force 𝐹 is kept constant
(3) 10 𝜋𝑟𝑎𝑑 (4) 20𝜋 𝑟𝑎𝑑 but the angular velocity is doubled, the new radius
of the path (original radius 𝑅 ) will be
29. A particle moves along a circular orbit with (1) 𝑅/4
constant angular velocity. This necessarily means (2) 𝑅/2
(1) Its motion is confined to a single plane
(3) 2R
(2) Its motion is not confined to a single plane
(4) 4R
(3) Nothing can be said regarding the plane of
motion
35. The angular velocity of a wheel is 70 rad/s. If the
(4) Its motion is one-dimensional
radius of the wheel is 0.5 m, then linear velocity
30. A string of length 𝐿 is fixed at one end and carries of the wheel is
a mass 𝑀 at the other end. The string makes 2/𝜋 (1) 10 m/s
revolutions per second around the vertical axis (2) 20 m/s
through the fixed end as shown in the figure, then (3) 35 m/s
tension in the string is (4) 70 m/s

36. If the equation for the displacement of a particle

moving on a circular path is given by 𝜃 = 2𝑡 3 +
0.5, where 𝜃 is in radian and 𝑡 is in seconds, then
the angular velocity of the particle at 𝑡 = 2 s is
(1) 8 rad/s
(1) ML (2) 2𝑀𝐿 (2) 12 rad/s
(3) 4𝑀𝐿 (4) 16𝑀𝐿 (3) 24 rad/s
(4) 36 rad/s
37. A stone tied to the end of a string of length 50 cm 44. A flywheel at rest is reached to an angular
is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant velocity of 36 rad/s in 6 s with a constant
speed. If the stone makes 40 revolutions in 20 s, angular acceleration. The total angle turned during
then the speed of the stone along the circle is this interval is
(1) 𝜋/2 ms−1 (2) 𝜋 ms−1 (1) 216 rad
(3) 2𝜋 ms−1 (4) 4𝜋 ms−1 (2) 144 rad
(3) 108 rad
38. A wheel rotates with constant acceleration of (4) 72 rad
2.0 rad/s 2 . If the wheel has an initial angular
velocity of 4 rad/s, then the number of 45. A body of mass 100 𝑔 is revolving in a horizontal
revolutions it makes in the first ten seconds will circle. If its frequency of rotation is 3.5 r.p.s. and
be approximately radius of circular path is 0.5 m, the angular speed
(1) 16 (2) 22 of the body is
(3) 24 (4) 20 (1) 18 rad/s
(2) 20 rad/s
39. A string breaks if its tension exceeds 10 newton. (3) 22 rad/s
A stone of mass 250 g tied to this string of length (4) 24 rad/s
10 cm is rotated in a horizontal circle. The
maximum angular velocity of rotation can be 46. Assertion (A): When a car take turn, then a new
(1) 20 rad/s (2) 40 rad/s type of force called centripetal force act on the
(3) 100 rad/s (4) 200 rad/s car.
Reason (R): Centripetal force is necessary for
40. The period of a conical pendulum is circular motion.
(1) Equal to that of a simple pendulum of same (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
length 𝑙 true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
(2) More than that of a simple pendulum of same of Assertion (A).
length 𝑙 (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(3) Less than that of a simple pendulum of same but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
length 𝑙 of Assertion (A).
(4) Independent of length of pendulum
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is
false.
41. A particle is describing the circular path of radius
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is
20 m in every 2 s. The average angular speed of
true.
the particle during 4 s is
(1) 20𝜋 rads −1 (2) 4𝜋 rads−1 1
(3) 𝜋 rads −1 (4) 2𝜋 rads−1 47. Assertion (A): 𝑆 = 𝑢𝑡 + 2 𝑎𝑡 2 , does not apply to
the case of uniform circular motion.
42. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop with a Reason (R): In circular motion, acceleration is
speed of 150 𝑚/𝑠 with its wings banked at an not uniform.
angle of 12∘ . The radius of the loop is (𝑔 = (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
10 𝑚/𝑠 2 ) true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
(1) 10.6 km (2) 9.6 km of Assertion (A).
(3) 7.4 km (4) 5.8 km (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
43. A car is moving at a speed of 72 km/hr. The of Assertion (A).
diameter of its wheel is 0.5 m. If the wheels are (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is
stopped in 20 rotations on applying brakes, then false.
angular retardation produced by the brakes would
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is
be
true.
(1) −45.5 rad/s2 (2) −33.5 rad/s2
(3) −25.48 rad/s 2 (4) −50.9 rad/s2
48. Assertion (A): On a banked curved track, vertical 50. Assertion (A): The kinematic equations for
components of normal reaction provides the uniform acceleration do not apply to the case of
necessary centripetal force. uniform circular motion.
Reason (R): Centripetal force is always required Reason (R): In uniform circular motion
for turning. magnitude of acceleration is constant but its
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are direction is changing.
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
of Assertion (A). true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, of Assertion (A).
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
of Assertion (A). but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is of Assertion (A).
false. (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is false.
true. (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is
true.
49. Assertion (A): The tendency of
skidding/overturning is quadrupled, when a cyclist
doubles his speed of turning.
𝑣2
Reason (R): 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜃 = 𝑅𝑔
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is
false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is
true.
 Practice Test-04 Aarambh NEET (2024) 07/01/2024

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 9. The oxidation number of sulphur in Na2S4O6 is :

1. The oxidation number of C in CH4, CH3Cl, CH2Cl2, (1) 1.5 (2) 2.5
CHCl3 and CCl4 is respectively : (3) 3 (4) 2
(1) –4, –2, 0, +2, +4 (2) +2, +4, 0, –2, –4
(3) 4, 2, 0, –2, –4 (4) 0, 2, –2, 4, 4 10. For the reaction : NH 3 + OCl − → N 2 H 4 + Cl − in
2. The conversion of sugar into CO2 basic medium, the coefficients of NH 3 , OCl − and
C12 H 22O11 → CO2 is: N 2 H 4 for the balanced equation are respectively
(1) oxidation (1) 2, 2, 2 (2) 2, 2, 1
(2) reduction (3) 2, 1, 1 (4) 4, 4, 2
(3) Both oxidation and reduction
(4) Neither oxidation nor reduction C2 H 6 ( g ) + nO2 ( g ) → CO2 ( g ) + H 2O (l )
11.
3. Which of the following cannot acts as reducing In this equation, the ratio of the coefficients of
agent ? CO2 and H2O is :
(1) NO2 (2) SO2 (1) 1: 1 (2) 2: 3
(3) CO2 (4) ClO2 (3) 3: 2 (4) 1: 3

4. H2S acts only as a reducing agent while SO2 can act 12. Oxygen has an oxidation state of +2 in the compound:
both as a reducing and oxidizing agent because : (1) H2O2 (2) CO2
(1) oxygen is more –ve in SO2 (3) H2O (4) F2O
(2) hydrogen in H2S is more +ve than oxygen
(3) S in SO2 has +4 oxidation state
13. 2MnO4− + 5H 2O2 + 6 H + → 2Z + 5O2 + 8H 2O
(4) S in H2S has –2 oxidation state
In this reaction Z is :
5. Which reaction involves neither oxidation nor (1) Mn2+ (2) Mn4+
reduction? (3) MnO2 (4) Mn
(1) CrO42− → Cr2O72−
14. Which one of the following reactions involves
(2) Cr → CrCl3
disproportionation ?
(3) Na → Na + (1) 2 H 2 SO4 + Cu → CuSO4 + 2 H 2O + SO2
(4) 2S2O32− → S4O62− (2) As2O3 + 3H 2 S → As2 S3 + 3H 2O
(3) 2KOH + Cl2 → KCl + KOCl + H 2O
6. A compound contains atoms of three elements A, B
and C. If the oxidation number of A is +2, B is +5, and (4) Ca3 P2 + 6 H 2O → 3Ca (OH ) 2 + 2 PH 3
that of C is –2, the possible formula of the compound
is 15. In a balanced equation
(1) A2 ( BC3 )2 (2) A3 ( BC4 )2 H 2 SO4 + xHI → H 2 S + yI 2 + zH 2O , the values of
(3) A3 ( B4C )2 (4) ABC2 x, y, z are :
(1) x = 3, y = 5, z = 2 (2) x = 4, y = 8, z = 5
7. The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2, H2S (3) x = 8, y = 4, z = 4 (4) x = 5, y = 3, z = 4
respectively, are :
(1) 0, +1 and –2 (2) +2, + 1 and –2 16. Which of the following behaves as both oxidising and
(3) 0, +1 and +2 (4) –2, +1 and –2 reducing agents ?
(1) H2SO4
8. Oxidation numbers of chlorine atoms in CaOCl2 are : (2) SO2
(1) 0, 0 (2) –1, –1 (3) H2O
(3) –1 +1 (4) None of these (4) HNO3
[1]
17. In the reaction : 22. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be
2+ 4+ completely reduced by one mole of ferrous
HAsO2 + Sn → As + Sn + H 2O , oxidising
oxalate in acidic medium are :
agent is : (1) 2/5 (2) 3/5
(1) Sn2+ (2) Sn4+ (3) 4/5 (4) 1
(3) As (4) HAsO2
23. The correct decreasing order of oxidation number of
18. The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions oxygen in compounds BaO2 , O3 , KO2 and OF2 is :
SO32− , S2O42− and S 2O62− follow the order : (1) BaO2  KO2  OF2
(2) OF2  O3  KO2  BaO2
(1) S 2O62−  S 2O42−  SO32−
(3) KO2  OF2  O3  BaO2
(2) S 2O42−  SO32−  S 2O62−
(4) BaO2  O3  OF2  KO2
(3) SO32−  S 2O42−  S 2O62−
(4) S 2O42−  S 2O62−  SO32− 24. Assertion(A) : Stannous chloride is a powerful
oxidising agent which oxidises mercuric chloride to
mercury.
19. Oxidation numbers of P in PO43− , S in SO42− and Reason(R): Stannous chloride gives grey
precipitate with mercuric chloride, but stannic
that of Cr in Cr2O72− are respectively : chloride does not do so.
(1) +3, +6 and +5 (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(2) +5, +3 and +6 true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
(3) –3, +6 and +6 of Assertion (A).
(4) +5, +6 and +6 (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
20. Which of the following statements are correct
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
concerning redox properties ? false.
(i) A metal M for which Eº for the half life (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
reaction M n+ + ne− M is very true.

negative will be a good reducing agent. 25. Assertion(A) : In a reaction ;

(ii) The oxidizing power of the halogens Zn( s ) + CuSO4 (aq ) → ZnSO4 (aq ) + Cu ( s )
decreases from chlorine to iodine. Zn is a reductant but itself get oxidized.
(iii) The reducing power of hydrogen halides Reason(R): In a redox reaction, oxidant is
increases from hydrogen chloride to reduced by accepting electrons and reductant is
hydrogen iodide oxidized by losing electrons.
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(3) (i) only (4) (ii) and (iii) true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
21. Match List– I with List-II for the oxidation states of
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
the central atoms : explanation of Assertion (A).
List -I List-II (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
(I) Cr2O72− (A) +3 false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
(II) MnO4− (B) +4
true.
(III) VO3− (C) +5
26. Which of the following arrangements represent
(IV) FeF63− (D) +6 increasing oxidation number of the central atom ?
(E) +7 (1) CrO2− , ClO3− , CrO42− , MnO4−
(1) I-(D), II-(A), III-(C), IV-(B) (2) ClO3− , CrO42− , MnO4− , CrO2−
(2) I-(D), II-(E), III-(C), IV-(A)
(3) CrO2− , ClO3− , MnO4− , CrO42−
(3) I-(B), II-(D), III-(C), IV-(A)
(4) I-(A), II-(D), III-(B), IV-(C) (4) CrO42− , MnO4− , CrO2− , ClO3−

[2]
27. The IUPAC name of H3C – C  C– CH(CH3 )2 is: 32. IUPAC name of the following compound is :
(1) 4-methyl-2-pentyne O
(2) 4, 4-dimethyl-2-butyne ||
(3) methyl isopropyl acetylene H − C − CH 2 − CH 2 − O − CH 3
(4) 2-methyl-4-pentyne (1) 2 – methoxypropanal
(2) methoxypropanal
28. The IUPAC name of the compound (3) 3 – methoxypropanal
(4) 2 – formyl methoxyethane
is:
33. The number of secondary hydrogen atoms in 2, 2-
(1) 1, 2, 3-trinitropropane
dimethylbutane is :
(2) 1, 2, 3-tricyanopropane
(1) 8
(3) Propane -1, 2, 3-tricarbonitrile (2) 6
(4) 1, 2, 3-pentanetrinitrile (3) 4
(4) 2
29. The IUPAC name of the compound
CH 3OCH 2CH 2CH 2OCH 2CH 3 is : 34. The IUPAC name of
(1) 3-ethoxy-1-methoxypropane
(2) 1-ethoxy-3-methoxypropane is:
(3) 2, 5-dioxyhexane
(4) ethoxypropane oxymethane (1) 5–chlorohex–2–ene
(2) 2–chlorohex–5–ene
30. Which of the following compounds has wrong (3) 1–chloro–1–methylpent–3–ene
IUPAC name ? (4) 5–chloro–5–methylpent–2–ene
(1) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − COO − CH 2 − CH 3 →
ethyl butanoate 35. Which of the following compounds contains 1º, 2º, 3º
as well as 4º carbon atoms ?
(2) CH 3− C H − CH 2 − CHO →3-methylbutanal
| (1) Neopentane
CH3 (2) 2-methyl pentane
(3) CH 3− C H − CH − CH 3 →2-methyl-3-butanol (3) 2,3-dimethyl butane
| | (4) 2,2,3-trimethyl pentane
OH CH3
O SECTION-B
|| 36. The correct IUPAC name of
(4) CH 3 − CH − C − CH 2 − CH 3 →2-methyl-3-
|
CH3
pentanone is :

31. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is :

(1) 5-methyl -4-(1, 2-dimethylpropyl) heptane
(2) 3-methyl-4-(1, 2-dimethylpropyl) heptane
(3) 2,3,5-trimethyl-4-propylheptane
(4) 4-propyl-2,3,5-trimethylheptane

37. The number of  and  bonds in a molecule of

(1) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene acetonitrile are respectively :
(2) 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene (1) 2, 5
(2) 3, 4
(3) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
(3) 4, 3
(4) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene
(4) 5, 2

[3]
38. The correct IUPAC name of the compound (2) 2-Bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile
(3) 2- Cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene
is: (4) 6-Bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile

44. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name of

(1) 4-Ethyl-3-propyl hex-1-ene a compound ?
(2) 3-Ethyl-4-ethenyl heptane (1) 3-ethyl-4, 4-dimethylheptane
(3) 3-Ethyl-4-propyl hex-1-ene (2) 4, 4-dimethyl-3-ethylheptane
(4) 3-(1-ethylpropyl) hex-1-ene (3) 5-ethyl-4, 4-dimethylheptane
(4) 4, 4-bis(methyl)-3-ethylheptane
39 The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

45. The IUPAC name of

is:
(1) 1-hydroxypentane-1, 4-dione
(2) 1, 4-dioxopentanol
(1) (E)-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
(3) 1-carboxybutan-3-one
(2) (Z)-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
(4) 4-oxopentanoic acid
(3) (E)-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
(4) (Z)-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
46. The IUPAC name of

40. The IUPAC name of is :

is :
(1) 3-ethyl-4, 4-dimethylheptane
(2) 1, 1-diethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane
(3) 4, 4-dimethyl-5,5-diethylpentane (1) 1-chloro-2-nitro-4-methylbenzene
(4) 5, 5-diethyl-4,4-dimethylpentane. (2) 1-chloro-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene
(3) 2-chloro-1-nitro-5-methylbenzene
41. The correct decreasing order of priority for the (4) m-nitro-p-chlorotoluene
functional groups of organic compounds in the
IUPAC system of nomenclature is : 47. Correct IUPAC name for , is :
(1) – COOH, – SO3H, – CONH2, – CHO
(2) – SO3H, – COOH, – CONH2, – CHO (1) 2-ethyl-3-methylpentane
(3) – CHO, – COOH, – SO3H, – CONH2 (2) 3, 4-dimethylhexane
(4) – CONH2, – CHO, – SO3H, – COOH (3) 2-sec-butylbutane
(4) 2, 3-dimethylbutane
42. The IUPAC name of neopentane is :
(1) 2, 2 dimethylpropane 48. The structure of isobutyl group in an organic
(2) 2- methylpropane compound is :
(3) 2, 2- dimethylbutane (1) CH 3 − CH − CH 2 − CH 3
|
(4) 2- methylbutane
(2) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 −
43. The IUPAC name of the following compound is :
(3)

(4)
(1) 4-Bromo-3-cyanophenol

[4]
49. Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3- 50. The IUPAC name of the compound
ethyl-2- hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid is :

is :

(1)
(1) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
(2) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
(3) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
(4) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
(2)

(3)

(4)

PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4

Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if

[5]
 [Practice Test-04 | Aarambh NEET (2024) | 07/01/2024]
SECTION-(III) BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. What is the primary function of the cuticle in the 108. A radial vascular bundle refers to which of the
epidermis? following?
(1) Facilitating gas exchange. (1) Xylem and phloem located at different
(2) Preventing water loss. positions within the stem.
(3) Enhancing photosynthesis. (2) Xylem and phloem positioned at different
(4) Promoting root growth. locations within the root.
(3) Xylem and phloem situated at the same
102. Which cells in the stomatal apparatus possess position within the stem.
chloroplasts and control stomatal opening and (4) Xylem and phloem found at the same
closing? position within the root.
(1) Epidermal cells
(2) Subsidiary cells 109. Pith is well developed in;
(3) Trichomes (1) dicot stem and monocot root.
(4) Guard cells (2) monocot stem and dicot root.
(3) monocot root and monocot stem.
103. Branch of botany related with study of internal (4) dicot root and dicot stem.
structure of plants: -
(1) Cytology (2) Anatomy 110. What is the outermost layer of a dicotyledonous
(3) Physiology (4) Ecology root?
(1) Cortex
104. Which tissue system comprises all tissues except (2) Epiblema
the epidermis and vascular bundles? (3) Endodermis
(1) Epidermal tissue system. (4) Pericycle
(2) Ground tissue system.
(3) Vascular tissue system. 111. What is the role of the endodermis in a
(4) Meristematic tissue system. dicotyledonous root?
(1) Initiation of lateral roots.
105. Which statement regarding the epidermis is (2) Storage of water.
incorrect? (3) Protection of the root.
(1) It constitutes the outer layer of the primary (4) Regulation of water movement through the
plant body. casparian strips.
(2) It is frequently coated with an external
cuticle. 112. How does a monocot root distinguish itself from a
(3) It is typically composed of multiple layers. dicot root?
(4) Its cells are densely packed together. (1) Through the presence of polyarch xylem
bundles.
106. What distinguishes open vascular bundles from (2) By having a substantial and well-developed
closed vascular bundles in dicotyledonous plants? pith.
(1) Presence of cambium. (3) By exhibiting both (1) and (2).
(2) Arrangement of xylem and phloem. (4) By featuring radial vascular bundles and
(3) Number of vascular bundles. exarch xylem.
(4) Location in the plant stem.
113. What type of cells make up the mesophyll in
107. What is the characteristic arrangement of xylem leaves, and what is their primary characteristic?
and phloem in radial vascular bundles, as seen in (1) Parenchyma cells with thick walls.
roots? (2) Sclerenchyma cells with chloroplasts.
(1) Alternating layers (3) Collenchyma cells with waxy coatings.
(2) Jointly situated (4) Thin-walled chloroplast-containing cells.
(3) Concentric rings
(4) Stacked in columns
114. Where does the initiation of lateral roots and 121. What is the characteristic feature of the vascular
vascular cambium occur in a dicotyledonous root? bundles in a monocotyledonous stem?
(1) Cortex (2) Epiblema (1) Closed and scattered.
(3) Pericycle (4) Pith (2) Large intercellular spaces.
(3) Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
115. How many xylem bundles are typically found in a (4) Phloem parenchyma.
monocotyledonous root?
(1) Fewer than six 122. Which type of xylem is present in the vascular
(2) Six to eight bundles of a dicotyledonous stem?
(3) Eight to ten (1) Protoxylem (2) Metaxylem
(4) More than six (polyarch) (3) Endarch xylem (4) Exarch xylem

116. Statement I: Peripheral vascular bundles are 123. In a dicotyledonous stem, what tissue occupies the
generally smaller than the centrally located ones central portion and consists of parenchymatous
in monocot stem. cells with large intercellular spaces?
(1) Hypodermis (2) Endodermis
Statement II: The monocot stem has a
(3) Medullary rays (4) Pith
sclerenchymatous hypodermis.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
124. Assertion (A): The ‘ring’ arrangement of vascular
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
bundles is a characteristic of monocot stem.
incorrect. Reason (R): Each vascular bundle is conjoint,
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is open, and with endarch protoxylem in dicot stem.
correct. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
incorrect. of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
117. What do all the tissues on the inner side of the true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
endodermis in a dicotyledonous root constitute? explanation of Assertion (A).
(1) Stele (2) Cortex (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
(3) Epiblema (4) Conjunctive tissue false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
118. Which layer of the cortex in a dicotyledonous true.
stem is referred to as the starch sheath?
(1) Outer hypodermis 125. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
(2) Parenchymatous cells option.
(3) Endodermis List-I List-II
(4) Pericycle (I) Trichomes (A) Dicotyledonous
Stem
119. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct (II) Bulliform cells (B) Monocotyledonous
option. Leaf
List-I List-II (III) Collenchymatous (C) Dicotyledonous
(I) Hypodermis in (A) Absent cells Leaf
dicot stem (IV) Casparian strips (D) Dicotyledonous
(II) Pericycle in (B) Parenchymatous Root
dicot stem (1) I (A), II (B), III (C), IV (D)
(III) Ground tissue (C) Collenchymatous (2) I (B), II (C), III (A), IV (D)
in monocot (3) I (D), II (B), III (C), IV (A)
stem (4) I (A), II (C), III (D), IV (B)
(IV) Phloem (D) Sclerenchymatous
parenchyma in 126. Which type of vascular bundles are generally
monocot stem smaller in a monocotyledonous stem?
(1) I (D), II (A), III (C), IV (B) (1) Central (2) Peripheral
(2) I (A), II (B), III (D), IV (C) (3) Scattered (4) Sclerenchymatous
(3) I (C), II (D), III (B), IV (A)
(4) I (B), II (C), III (A), IV (D) 127. What is a notable feature of the phloem in a
monocotyledonous stem?
120. What is the arrangement of vascular bundles in a (1) It contains sclerenchyma cells.
dicot stem? (2) It is surrounded by a starch sheath.
(1) Scattered (2) Conjoint and open (3) It lacks parenchyma cells.
(3) Peripheral (4) Closed and dispersed (4) It has water-containing cavities within the
bundles.
128. What is the main difference in stomatal 135. During water stress, the bulliform cells;
distribution between dorsiventral and isobilateral (a) Become turgid
leaves? (b) Become flaccid
(1) Dorsiventral leaves have more stomata on the (c) Make the leaves curl inwards
upper surface. (d) Make the leaf surface exposed
(2) Dorsiventral leaves have stomata only on the Choose the correct options:
lower surface. (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) Isobilateral leaves have stomata on both (3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
surfaces.
(4) Isobilateral leaves lack stomata. SECTION-B

129. Among the following, which components can be 136. Which of the following statements regarding dicot
identified as parenchyma tissue in plant anatomy? stomata are correct?
i. The hypodermis, which acts as a protective i. Subsidiary cells have a bean-shaped
layer. appearance.
ii. The pericycle found within a dicot roots. ii. The outer walls of guard cells are thin.
iii. Companion cells. iii. Guard cells possess a kidney-shaped
iv. Conjunctive tissues. structure.
(1) i, iii, and iv (2) ii, and iii iv. The stomatal pore is created between two
(3) ii, iii, and iv (4) All of the these guard cells.
(1) Statements ii and iv are correct.
130. What is the primary function of bulliform cells in (2) Statements i and iii are correct.
grasses? (3) Statements ii, iii, and iv are correct.
(1) Facilitating photosynthesis. (4) Statements i, ii, and iii are correct.
(2) Regulating transpiration.
(3) Storing water. 137. Mark the incorrect statements regarding the
(4) Supporting the leaf structure. structure given in the diagram.

131. What is the primary role of the mesophyll in a

leaf?
(1) Facilitating water transport.
(2) Providing mechanical support.
(3) Conducting photosynthesis.
(4) Regulating gas exchange. i. Bulliform cells are present in E.
ii. Number of stomata are almost similar in B
132. Select the correct statements from the following? and E.
i. First formed xylem is present towards the iii. Chloroplasts are absent in B.
inner side in the monocot root. iv. Chloroplasts are present in E.
ii. Protoxylem is present on the outer side in v. Water is conducted through D.
dicot root. (1) i and ii (2) ii and iii
iii. Metaxylem is present towards the inner side (3) i and iv (4) iv and v
in the monocot root.
iv. Protoxylem is present on the outer side in 138. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
dicot stem. option.
(1) i, iii and iv (2) ii, and iii List-I List-II
(3) iii and iv (4) ii ,iii and iv (I) Stomata (A) Mechanical
strength
133. In dorsiventral leaves, where are the majority of (II) Palisade (B) Gas exchange
stomata usually found? parenchyma and transpiration
(1) adaxial epidermis. (III) Hypodermis (C) High-efficiency
(2) abaxial epidermis. photosynthesis
(3) Equally distributed on both epidermal (IV) Root hairs (D) Water and
surfaces. nutrient
(4) In the mesophyll layer. absorption

134. What is true about a monocot leaf? (1) I (A), II (B), III (C), IV (D)
(1) Presence of reticulate venation. (2) I (B), II (D), III (A), IV (C)
(2) Absence of bulliform cells. (3) I (B), II (C), III (A), IV (D)
(3) Absence of vascular bundles. (4) I (D), II (C), III (A), IV (B)
(4) Absence of differentiation of mesophyll.
139. Statement I: In monocot leaf, the stomata are 145. What are root hairs, and what is their primary
present on both the surfaces of the epidermis. function?
Statement II: The mesophyll is well (1) Multicellular appendages for support.
differentiated into palisade and spongy (2) Branched structures for photosynthesis.
parenchyma in monocot. (3) Unicellular elongations for water and mineral
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. absorption.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (4) Secretory cells for defense.
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is 146. How does the size of vascular bundles relate to the
correct. veins in reticulate venation of dicot leaves?
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are (1) Vascular bundles are always smaller than
incorrect. veins.
(2) Vascular bundle size is independent of vein
140. How is the mesophyll of a dorsiventral leaf size.
different from that of an isobilateral leaf? (3) Vascular bundles are larger than veins.
(1) Dorsiventral leaf mesophyll lacks (4) Vascular bundles are absent in dicot leaves.
chloroplasts.
(2) Isobilateral leaf mesophyll lacks air cavities. 147. Statement I: Stomata regulate the process of
(3) Dorsiventral leaf mesophyll is differentiated. transpiration and gaseous exchange.
(4) Isobilateral leaf mesophyll is made up of only Statement II: Stomata are structures present in
palisade cells. the endodermis of monocot leaves.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
141. What is the primary role of the bundle sheath cells (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
in the vascular bundles of leaves? incorrect.
(1) Facilitating water transport. (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(2) Supporting the epidermis. correct.
(3) Regulating gas exchange. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(4) Providing mechanical strength.
incorrect.
142. Vascular bundles are found scattered in ground
148. Choose correct option w.r.t spongy mesophyll.
tissue in: -
(1) Numerous large spaces and air cavities
(1) Maize stem (2) Sunflower stem
between its cells.
(3) Gram root (4) Isobilateral leaf
(2) A large number of chloroplasts.
(3) Present on the adaxial surface.
143. Assertion (A): The structure and function of
(4) Vertical and parallel arrangement of cells.
tissue system would also be dependent on
location.
Reason (R): The tissue system is differentiated 149. Lateral roots arise from: -
into the epidermal tissue system, the ground or (1) Cortex (2) Endodermis
fundamental tissue system and the vascular or (3) Cork cambium (4) Pericycle
conducting tissue system.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 150. Assertion (A): The parenchymatous cells which
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation lie between the xylem and the phloem are called
of Assertion (A). conjunctive tissue in dicot root.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the Reason (R): In dicot root, Pericycle takes part in
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct the formation of vascular cambium & cork
explanation of Assertion (A). cambium.
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
false. true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is of Assertion (A).
true. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
144. A tissue is a group of cells having a :- explanation of Assertion (A).
(1) Common origin and dissimilar in function. (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
(2) Dissimilar origin and common in function. false.
(3) Dissimilar origin and dissimilar in function (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
(4) Common origin and usually performing a true
common function.
 Practice Test-04 Aarambh NEET (2024) 07/01/2024

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A 6. Which of the following given statements is

1. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of incorrect?
one of the categories of small molecular weight (1) Proteins are heteropolymers containing strings
organic compounds in the living tissues. Identify of amino acids.
the category shown and the one blank component (2) A protein is imagined as a line, the left end
‘X’ in it represented by the first amino acid and the
right end represented by the last amino acid.
(3) The first amino acid is also called as
C-terminal amino acid.
(4) In proteins, only right handed helices are
observed.
Category Component
7. Read the following statements.
(1) Nucleotide Adenine
(a) Low temperature preserves the enzyme.
(2) Nucleoside Cytosine
(b) The activity of an enzyme can be affected by
(3) Cholesterol Guanine a change in the conditions which can alter the
(4) Sugar NH2 tertiary structure of the protein.
(c) The activity of an enzyme is also sensitive to
2. An enzyme increases the rate of reaction by; the presence of specific chemicals that bind to
(1) increasing activation energy. the enzyme.
(2) decreasing activation energy. (d) Enzymes are divided into 8 classes each with
(3) providing extra energy to the substrate. 4-13 subclasses.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(4) lowering energy of substrate.
(1) (a) & (b) only
3. In B-DNA, one full turn of the helical strand (2) (b), (c) & (d) only
contains; (3) (a), (b) & (c) only
(1) 11 base pairs. (4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(2) 8 base pairs.
8. A competitive inhibitor;
(3) 10 base pairs.
(1) increase the Km of an enzyme.
(4) 9 base pairs.
(2) decreases the Km of an enzyme.
(3) increases both the Vmax and the Km of an
4. When protein chain is folded upon itself like a enzyme.
hollow woolen ball and gives a three dimensional
(4) decrease the Km but increases the Vmax of an
view of protein. The structure is called;
enzyme.
(1) primary structure.
(2) -helix. 9. Which of the following molecule binds to the
(3) -pleated sheet. active site of an enzyme?
(4) tertiary structure. (1) Allosteric activator
(2) Allosteric inhibitor
5. Prosthetic group is a part of holoenzyme. It is; (3) Non-competitive inhibitor
(1) loosely attached organic part. (4) Competitive inhibitor
(2) loosely attached inorganic part. 10. Similarity in DNA and RNA is that;
(3) non-protein organic part firmly attached with (1) both have polynucleotide chain.
apoenzyme.
(2) both have similar pyrimidines.
(4) none of these. (3) both have similar sugar.
(4) both are genetic material in man.
 2

11. Statement-I: When we grind a tissue, we are 16. Non-essential amino acids;
disrupting the cell structure. Cell membrane and (1) must be obtained from food.
other membranes are broken into pieces, and form (2) are synthesised in our body.
vesicles which are not water soluble. (3) are not needed in our diet.
Statement-II: The membrane fragments in the (4) both (2) and (3).
form of vesicles get separated along with the acid
insoluble pool and hence in the macromolecular 17. Lecithin is a;
fraction. (1) wax (2) phospholipid
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (3) oil (4) simple fatty acid
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect. 18. The given amino acid is _____ is nature.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is COOH
correct. |
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are H2 N − C − H
incorrect. |
CH 2 COOH
12. The curve given below shows enzymatic activity
(1) acidic (2) basic
with relation to two conditions pH and
temperature. (3) neutral (4) aromatic

19. The rise per base pair would be;

(1) 0.034 nm (2) 3.4 Å
(3) 3.4  (4) 34 nm

20. How many total carbons are present in palmitic

What do the two axis (X and Y) represent? acid?
X-axis Y-axis (1) 15 (2) 16
(1) Enzymatic Temperature (3) 17 (4) 20
activity
(2) Enzymatic pH 21. Which of the following is aromatic amino acid?
activity (1) Tyrosine (2) Tryptophan
(3) pH Enzymatic (3) Phenylalanine (4) All of these
activity
(4) Temperature pH 22. Identify a basic amino acid among the following
given amino acids.
13. ATP is; (1) Valine (2) Glutamic acid
(1) nucleotide (2) nucleoside (3) Glycine (4) Lysine
(3) nucleic acid (4) vitamin
23. -helix and beta pleated sheet represents;
14. Which of the following is not strictly a
biomacromolecule? (1) tertiary structure of protein.
(1) Proteins (2) Lipids (2) primary structure of protein.
(3) Polysaccharides (4) Nucleic acid (3) quaternary structure of protein.
(4) secondary structure of protein.
15. Statement-I: Rate of reaction doubles or decreases
by half for every 10°C change in either direction. 24. Which of the following is a primary metabolite?
Statement-II: Catalysed reactions proceed at rates (1) Carotenoids (2) Anthocyanins
vastly higher than that of uncatalysed ones. (3) Amino acids (4) Rubber
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is 25. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
incorrect. (1) Amino acids are substituted ethane.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(2) The heterocyclic compounds in nucleic acids
correct.
are the nitrogenous bases.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect. (3) Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
(4) Uracil is a pyrimidine.
 3

26. Assertion (A): The molecules in the insoluble 31. Which of the following is correct?
fraction with the exception of lipids are polymeric (1) Primary metabolites play known roles in
substances. human physiological process.
Reason (R): Those which have molecular weights
(2) Secondary metabolites have not any
less than one thousand dalton and are usually
referred to as micromolecules. ecological importance.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (3) Pigments are primary metabolites.
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation (4) All of these.
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 32. Which of the following compound is found in
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct acid soluble pool during analysis of a living
explanation of Assertion (A). tissue?
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is (1) Protein
false. (2) Lipid
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is (3) Nucleic acid
true.
(4) Monosaccharide
27. Match the List-I with List-II to find out the
correct option. 33. In which of the following groups all are
List-I List-II polysaccharides?
(I) Antibody (A) Secondary (1) Sucrose, glucose and fructose
metabolite (2) Maltose, lactose and fructose
(II) Glycerol (B) Disaccharide (3) Glycogen, sucrose and maltose
(III) Ricin (C) Protein (4) Glycogen, cellulose and starch
(IV) Sucrose (D) Trihydroxy propane
(1) I-B, II-C, III-D IV-A
34. Which of the following structure of protein gives
(2) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
positional information about it?
(3) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
(1) Secondary structure
(4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
(2) Primary structure
28. Quaternary structure of a protein is seen in; (3) Globular structure
(1) haemoglobin (2) keratin (4) Helical structure
(3) silk fibroin (4) insulin
35. Assertion (A): In lipids, fatty acids are found
29. Which compound forms helical secondary esterified with glycerol.
structures that can hold iodine? Reason (R): Molecular weight of lipids does not
(1) Cellulose (2) Glycogen exceeds 800 Dalton.
(3) Starch (4) Chitin
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
30. Match the List-I with List-II to find out the
of Assertion (A).
correct option.
List-I List-II (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(I) Alkaloids (A) Vinblastine true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
(II) Essential (B) Morphine explanation of Assertion (A).
oils (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
(III) Toxins (C) Lemon grass oil false.
(IV) Drugs (D) Abrin (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
(1) I-B, II-C, III-D IV-A true.
(2) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
(3) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
(4) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
 4

SECTION-B 41. Assertion (A): Thermal stability is an important

36. Statement-I: The acid soluble pool represents quality of enzymes isolated from thermophilic
roughly the cytoplasmic composition. organisms.
Statement-II: The complex polysaccharides are Reason (R): Enzymes isolated from organisms
mostly homopolymers. who normally live under extremely high
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. temperatures (e.g., hot vents and sulphur springs),
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is are stable and retain their catalytic power even at
incorrect. high temperatures (upto 80°-90°C).
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
correct.
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are of Assertion (A).
incorrect.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
37. Assertion (A): In arthropods, exoskeleton is made true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
up of chitin. explanation of Assertion (A).
Reason (R): Chitin is a polysaccharide made up (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
of glucose. false.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation true.
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
42. Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis
explanation of Assertion (A).
leaving double bonds is;
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
false. (1) hydrolases
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is (2) oxidoreductases
true. (3) transferases
(4) lyases
38. Carbohydrates formed from polymerisation of
glucose are;
(1) starch, glycogen, cellulose 43. Match the List-I (component) with List-II (% of
(2) starch, inulin, glycogen the total cellular mass) to find out the correct
(3) sucrose, starch, lactose option.
(4) chitin, starch, glycogen List-I List-II
(Component) (% of the total
39. Polymer of fructose is; cellular mass)
(1) insulin (2) inulin (I) Water (A) 3
(3) glycogen (4) starch
(II) Proteins (B) 70–90
40. Which of the following statements about enzymes (III) Carbohydrates (C) 2
is incorrect? (IV) Lipids (D) 10–15
(1) Enzymes are denatured at high temperature
but in certain exceptional organisms they are (1) I-A, II-B, III-C IV-D
effective even at 80° – 90°C. (2) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
(2) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal (3) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
activity.
(4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
(3) Most enzymes are proteins but some are
lipids.
(4) Enzymes are highly specific.
 5

44. The figure given below shows the conversion of a 47. The pitch of ds B-DNA would be;
substrate into product by an enzyme. In which of (1) 3.4 Å
the four options (1–4) the components of reaction
(2) 0.34 Å
labelled as A, B, C and D are identified correctly.
(3) 34 Å
A (4) 34 nm
C
D 48. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
B (1) GLUT-4 - Enables fat transport into
Substrate cells.
Product (2) Zinc - Cofactor in
carboxypeptidase.
Progress of Reaction (3) Co-enzyme - Loosely attached organic
A B C D
cofactor of holoenzyme
(1) Potential Transition Activation Activation (4) Co-factors - Non-protein part of
energy state energy energy holoenzyme.
with without
enzyme enzyme 49. Which one of the following biomolecules is
(2) Transition Potential Activation Activation incorrectly characterised?
state energy energy energy (1) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride found
without with in cell membrane.
enzyme enzyme
(2) Collagen - The most abundant protein in
(3) Activation Transition Activation Potential
energy state energy energy animal world.
without with (3) Adenylic acid - Contains adenosine and
enzyme enzyme phosphate.
(4) Activation Transition Activation Potential (4) Amino acid - Contains an amino group and an
energy state energy energy acidic group anywhere in the molecule.
with without
enzyme enzyme
50. The backbone of a DNA molecule is made up of;
(1) nitrogenous bases
45. Find out the odd one from the given pair. (2) sugar -sugar chain
(1) Polysaccharide - Glycosidic bond (3) sugar-phosphate-sugar chain.
(2) Protein - Peptide bond (4) sugar-nitrogenous base chain.
(3) Fat - Ester bond
(4) Polynucleotide - Hydrogen bond

46. Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid which exhibits;

(1) 24 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
(2) 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
(3) 14 carbon atoms excluding carboxyl carbon
(4) 26 carbon atoms excluding carboxyl carbon.

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