24 de Tieng Anh On Thi THPT Quoc Gia 24 de Tieng Anh On Thi THPT Quoc Gia
24 de Tieng Anh On Thi THPT Quoc Gia 24 de Tieng Anh On Thi THPT Quoc Gia
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PRACTICE TEST 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. lean B. teammate C. beacon D. overhead
Question 2: A. studied B. kissed C. hoped D. laughed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. require B. consist C. achieve D. system
Question 4: A. intervention B. necessary C. intellectual D. productivity
Question 5: A. intensity B. accurate C. erosion D. miraculous
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t o indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: Since the flood the number of homeless people __________ dramatically.
A. are increasing B. had increased C. increase D. has increased
Question 7: Can you make yourself __________ in French?.
A. understood B. understand C. to understand D. understanding
Question 8: Today many species of plant and animal are in ________ of extinction.
A. danger B. endangered C. endanger D. dangerous
Question 9: At first she was trained to be _____scriptwriter, but later she worked as ______ secretary.
A. the / a B. a / a C. the / the D. a / the
Question 10: ― Don‘t look so worried!. You should take the leader‘s comment with ________.‖
A. a teaspoon of salt B. a cup of salt
C. a dose of salt D. a pinch of salt
Question 11: Three pounds of butter __________ in this recipe.
A. needs B. need C. are needed D. is needed
Question 12: Our project was successful ________ its practicality.
A. in terms of B. with a view to C. regardless D. on behalf of
Question 13: Of the two new students, one is friendly and _________.
A. the others are not B. the other is not
C. another is unfriendly D. other lacks friendliness
Question 14: There is one person to ________ I owe more than I can say..
A. whom B. who C. that D. whose
Question 15: Mary is sixteen years old. She is _______ young to get married.
A. too B. so C. such D. enough
Question 16: __________is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants which
make a balanced environment..
A. extinction B. biodiversity C. habitat D. conservation
Question 17: - Kate: ― How lovely your cats are!‖ - David: ― ____________‖
A. Really? They are B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so
C. Can you say it again D. I love them, too
Question 18: Peter was ejected after committing five personal _________ in water sport game yesterday.
A. mistakes B. faults C. fouls D. errors
Question 19: It‘s essential that every student ________ all the lectures.
A. attends B. attend C. has attended D. attended
Question 20: It‘s a secret. You _________ let anyone know about it.
A. mustn‘t B. needn‘t C. mightn‘t D. may not
Question 21: When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to ________ their houses.
A. do up B. do in C. do through D. do over
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t o indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the fo llowing questions.
Question 25: We can use either verbal or non – verbal forms of communication.
A. using gesture B. using speech C. using verbs D. using facial expressions
Question 26: You must answer the police‘s questions truthfully; otherwise, you will get into trouble.
A. in a harmful way B. as trustingly as you can
C. with a negative attitude D. exactly as you can
Question 27: It takes me 15 minutes to get ready.
A. to prepare B. to wake up C. to go D. to get up
Question 28: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest.
A. hungry B. rich C. poor D. full
Question 29: We went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out.
A. every single day B. every other day
C. every second day D. every two days
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions .
Question 30: Men and women in the Peace Corps work with people in the developing countries to help
A B
them improving their living conditions.
C D
Question 31: Although not widely sold, that book is considered to be best book on the subject.
A B C D
Question 32: Because his sickness he didn‘t take part in the English competition held last Sunday.
A B C D
Question 33: I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end.
A B C D
Question 34: Dreaming, like all other mental processes, it is a product of the brain and its activity.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Environmental Concerns
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (35) _____ human
activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (36) _____ on consuming two-thirds
of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive we are rapidly destroying
the (37) _____ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (38)
_____ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be
able to recover (39) _____. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the
consequences. As a (40) _____ the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when
rising human numbers and consumption are (41) _____ increasingly heavy demands on it.
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The Earth's (42) _____ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines,
warmth, shelter and minerals to (43) _____ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how
we use the resources, they will (44) _____ indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they
will soon run out and everyone will suffer.
Question 35: A. Although B. Yet C. Still D. Despite
Question 36: A. continues B. repeats C. follows D. carries
Question 37: A. individual B. alone C. very D. solitary
Question 38: A. neither B. sooner C. rather D. either
Question 39: A. utterly B. completely C. quite D. greatly
Question 40: A. result B. reaction C. development D. product
Question 41: A. making B. doing C. having D. taking
Question 42: A. living B. real C. natural D. genuine
Question 43: A. maintain B. stay C. hold D. keep
Question 44: A. remain B. go C. last D. stand
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the question s from 45 to 54.
The Planets of Jupiter
The largest of the giant gas planets, Jupiter, with a volume 1,300 times greater than Earth‘s, contains
more than twice the mass of all the other planets combined. It is thought to be a gaseous and fluid planet
without solid surfaces, Had it been somewhat more massive, Jupiter might have attained internal
temperatures as high as the ignition point for nuclear reactions, and it would have flamed as a star in its own
right. Jupiter and the other giant planets are of a low-density type quite distinct from the terrestrial planets:
they are composed predominantly of such substances as hydrogen, helium, ammonia, and methane, unlike
terrestrial planets. Much of Jupiter‘s interior might be in the form of liquid, metallic hydrogen, Normally,
hydrogen is a gas, but under pressures of millions of kilograms per square centimeter, which exist in the deep
interior of Jupiter, the hydrogen atoms might lock together to form a liquid with the properties of a metal.
Some scientists believe that the innermost core of Jupiter might be rocky, or metallic like the core of Earth.
Jupiter rotates very fast, once every 9.8 hours. As a result, its clouds, which are composed largely of
frozen and liquid ammonia, have been whipped into alternating dark and bright bands that circle the planet at
different speeds in different latitudes. Jupiter‘s puzzling Great Red Spot changes size as it hovers in the
Southern Hemisphere. Scientists speculate it might be a gigantic hurricane, which because of its large size
(the Earth could easily fit inside it), lasts for hundreds of years.
Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as it receives from the Sun. Perhaps this is primeval heat or beat
generated by the continued gravitational contraction of the planet. Another star like characteristic of Jupiter is
its sixteen natural satellites, which, like a miniature model of the Solar System, decrease in density with
distance from rocky moons close to Jupiter to icy moons farther away. If Jupiter were about 70 times more
massive, it would have become a star, Jupiter is the best-preserved sample of the early solar nebula, and with
its satellites, might contain the most important clues about the origin of the Solar System.
Question 45: The word attained in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. attempted B. changed C. lost D. reached
Question 46: The word they in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. nuclear reactions B. giant planets C. terrestrial D. substances
Question 47: According to the passage, hydrogen can become a metallic-like liquid when it is _____.
A. extremely hot B. combined with helium C. similar atmospheres D. metallic cores
Question 48: According to the passage, some scientists believe Jupiter and Earth are similar in that they both
have _____.
A. solid surfaces B. similar masses C. similar atmospheres D. metallic cores
Question 49: The clouds surrounding Jupiter are mostly composed of _____.
A. ammonia B. helium C. hydrogen D. methane
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Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that the appearance of alternating bands circling Jupiter is
caused by _____.
A. the Great Red Spot B. heat from the Sun
C. the planet‘s fast rotation D. Storms from the planet‘s Southern Hemisphere
Question 51: The author uses the word puzzling in paragraph 2 to suggest that the Great Red Spot is _____.
A. the only spot of its kind B. not well understood
C. among the largest of such spots D. a problem for the planet‘s continued existence
Question 52: Paragraph 3 supports which of the following conclusions?
A. Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as the Sun.
B. Jupiter has a weaker gravitational force than the other planets.
C. Scientists believe that Jupiter was once a star.
D. Scientists might learn about the beginning of the Solar System by Studying Jupiter.
Question 53: Why does the author mention primeval heat in paragraph 3?
A. To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the Sun
B. To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the other planets
C. To suggest a possible explanation for the number of satellites that Jupiter has
D. To suggest a possible source of the quantity of heat that Jupiter gives off
Question 54: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. If Jupiter had fewer satellites, it would be easier for scientists to study the planet itself.
B. If Jupiter had had more mass, it would have developed internal nuclear reactions.
C. If Jupiter had been smaller, it would have become a terrestrial planet.
D. if Jupiter were larger, it would give off much less heat.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the question s from 55 to 64 .
Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating
without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known culture. The basic
function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as. For
example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for
communication is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and
of themselves. A stop sign or a barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently. Symbols are more
difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver‘s
cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol
of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage.
They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. As a
result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods are based upon
speech. Radio, television, and the telephone are only a few.
Question 55: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Gestures B. Signs and signals
C. Speech D. Communication
Question 56: What does the author say about speech?
A. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
B. It is the most advanced form of communication.
C. It is necessary for communication to occur.
D. It is the only true form of communication.
Question 57: According to the passage, what is a signal?
A. A form of communication that interrupts the environment.
B. The most difficult form of communication to describe
C. A form of communication which may be used across long distances.
D. The form of communication most related to cultural perception.
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Question 58: The phrase “ impinge upon” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______________.
A. prohibit B. intrude C. vary D. improve
Question 59: The word “it” in paragraph refers to _______________.
A. way B. environment C. function D. signal
Question 60: The word “ potential” in paragraph 1 could be replaced by ______________.
A. advanced B. possibility C. organization D. signal
Question 61: The word ―intricate‖ in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ________
A. inefficient B. complicated C. historical D. uncertain
Question 62: Applauding was cited as an example of ______________.
A. a signal B. a sign C. a gesture D. a symbol
Question 63: Why were the telephone, radio, and television invented?
A. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols.
B. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.
C. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.
D. Because people wanted new forms of communication.
Question 64: It may be concluded from this passage that___________.
A. only some cultures have signs, signals, and symbols
B. signs, signals, symbols, and gestures are forms of communication
C. symbols are very easy to define and interrupt
D. waving and handshaking are not related to culture
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
Question 65: It started to rain as soon as I went out.
No sooner………………………………………………….……………………….
Question 66: No one in our class is taller than Peter.
Peter………………………………………………………………….……………..
Question 67: People think that he broke into the bank last night
He……………………………………….…………………………………………..
Question 68: You are in trouble now because you didn‘t follow my advice
Had …………………………………………………………………………………
Question 69: ―I‘ll take you to the zoo next Sunday‖ his mother said
His mother promised …………..………………………………………………….
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph to describe a person you admire
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PRACTICE TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from the rest.
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D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
Question 53: According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true EXCEPT:
A. The time of high tide is later each day.
B. Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do.
C. The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon.
D. Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides.
Question 54: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those
caused by tides?
A. Lines 2-4 B. Lines 10-11 C. Lines 12-13 D. Lines 17-18
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 46 to 55.
Watching for wildlife in the forest, we rarely see past the surface of things. Standing on the ground floor,
we scan the leafy rafters, entirely overlooking the living world in the soil beneath out feet.
The forest‗s basement is a secret world. As different from our own world as water is from air, the soil
seems quiet, even dead. But life bustles down below: a cubic inch of topsoil may contain billions of
creatures.
Predators and prey roam beneath as well as above the forest floor. Furthermore, those upstairs and
downstairs forest denizens live closely linked lives soil-dwelling bacteria and fungi break down deal organic
matter into molecules that above ground plants use for food. Those plants, as well as animals, mature and die,
leaving more organic matter to fuel the folks downstairs.
Like a well -insulated house, the soil protected its tenants from extreme temperatures, and from rain and
snow. It also provides a bulwark against predators that roam the surface world. But the dense, protecting soil
also limits mobility. Soil creatures must be specially equipped in order to travel easily through their
dark, constricting realm.
Earthworms and ants are the champion earth-movers, creating channels that allow air and water to enter
the soil. While
ants travel relatively far from their nests, earthworms work small areas, reprocessing vast amount of soil into
fertile ―waste‖. In a single year, as much as 36 tons of soil may pass through the alimentary tracts of all the
earthworms living in an acre of soil.
Question 55: The main topic of the passage is_______ .
A. life in the forest soil B. the habitats of the forest animals
C. the life cycle of ants and worms D. a description of a forest scene
Question 56: The word ― bustles‖ in the passage is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. is very active B. threatens C. continues. D. waits
Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that the forest soil is_____ .
A. sparsely inhabited B. devoid of life C. unknown to man D. densely inhabited
Question 58: According to the passage, what is the main function of bacteria and fungi?
A. to build walls in the soil B. to help aerate the soil
C. to kill mature plants D. to provide food for plant life
Question 59: The word ―bulwark‖ in the passage is closest in meaning to_______ .
A. tomb B. radar C. barrier D. gateway
Question 60: According to the passage, the soil offers creatures who live underground protection from all of
the following EXCEPT__________.
A. bacteria and fungi B. bad weather
C. extreme heat and cold D. enemies
Question 61: The word "constricting‖ can be replaced with _______.
A. deep B. heavy C. damp D. limiting
Question 62: According to the passage, it could be expected that ants __________.
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A. are more mobile than earthworms B. move more earth than earthworms
C. perform similar functions to fungi D. live only above ground
Question 63: The word "reprocessing" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. transporting B. converting C. eliminating D. arranging
Question 64: The author uses which analogy to discuss the soil of the forest?
A. A building B. A vehicle C. A laboratory D. A tunnel
WRITING
Part I. Rewrite the following sentences in order to keep their original meanings.
Question 65. Mary is pretty but Camry is prettier.
-> Camry is the ………………………………………..…………….………………..
Question 66. This is the best film I‘ve ever seen.
-.> I‘ve ……………………………………………………………..…………………
Question 67. My school has over 2,000 students.
-> There are …………………………………………………..……….……………
Question 68. People say that the plane of Germanwings crashed into the mountains.
-> It is ……………………………………………………………………..…………
Question 69. He tries to learn English well so as to find a good job.
-> He tries to learn English well with ………………………………………………
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the book you like most .
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PRACTICE TEST 3
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the rest in each of the following questions:
Question 1: A. symbol B. emergency C. poverty D. qualify
Question 2: A. appalled B. dedicated C. designed D. injured
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of main stress in
each of the following questions:
Question 3: A. preferential B. communicate C. eliminate D. accompany
Question 4: A. community B. businessman C. development D. environment
Question 5: A. achieve B. improve C. enter D. contain
Mark the correct option A, B,C or D to fill each of the following blanks :
Question 6: This is his fifth day on the tour . He ____ four countries.
A. already visited B. visited C. has already visited D. is visiting
Question 7: ―I think the teacher should give us more exercises. – ―_________ .‖
A. That‘s rubbish. B. Yes, let‘s. C. Ok. D. That‘s just what I was
thinking.
Question 8: There is fog at Heathrow; the plane, ____ , has been delayed.
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A. otherwise B. or C. therefore D. so
Question 9: The man you saw yesterday _____Mr. Brown, because he went to London on business last week.
A. can‘t have been B. mustn‘t be C. can‘t be D. mustn‘t have been
Question 10: ____ , he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more B. If he were studying to a greater degree
C. If he studied more D. Had he studied more
Question 11: ―Why don‘t you go to the zoo?‖ – ―____________ .‖
A. That‘s a good idea. B. Because we don‘t have enough money.
C. I couldn‘t agree more. D. Yes, I‘d love to.
Question 12: ____ the bad weather, he could get to the airport in time.
A. Despite B. Though C. However D. Although
Question 13: The fact is, doctor, I just cannot ____ this dreadful cough.
A. get down to B. get rid of C. get out of D. get round to
Question 14: Jane is plain, but her sister is very ____.
A. complex B. attractive C. sympathetic D. sophisticated
Question 15:______, Harry was the thirty – third President of the United States
A. He was born and raised in Missori B. That he was born and raised in Missori
C. Because he was born and raised in Missouri D. Born and raised in Missouri
Question 16: I like that photo very much. Could you make an _____ for me?
A. increase B. enlargement C. extension D. expansion
Question 17:I ______ ― Chicken Soup for the Soul‖ but I haven‘t finished it yet.
A. am reading B. was reading C. have been reading D. read
Question 18:You shouldn‘t live ____ your means.
A. into B. without C. beyond D. on
Question 19: From an early age, Wolfgang had a(n) ____ for music.
A. interest B. passion C. involvement D. tendency
Question 20: Despite playing under strength, the village team _____ beat the rivals.
A. could B. were able to C. couldn‘t D. weren‘t able to
Question 21: Living organisms contain more water_______ substance.
A. than do any other B. does than any other C. other than do they any D. than any other
Question 22: ______ bacteria in foods are killed, as they are during baking or stewing, decay is slowed down.
A. What B. The C. If D. So
Question 23: Industrialization has been responsible for ____ most radical of the environmental changes caused
by humans.
A. a B. the C. some of which D. which are the
Question 24: For the first time in 70 years, ______ aspirin's potential beyond reducing pain, fever and
inflammation.
A. researchers began to understand B. researchers begin understanding
C. researcher's understanding of D. researchers began their understanding
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underline word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Although we argued with him for a long time, he stood his ground.
A. changed his decision B. refused to change his decision C. felt sorry for us D. wanted to continue
Question 26: Between you and me, so don‘t tell anyone, I‘m sure he‘ll lose the election.
A. In conclusion B. In fact C.In truth D. In confidence
Question 27: You ought to send two hours as a minimum in the fresh air every day.
A. at most B. at all C. at least D. at ease
Question 28: Sharks are single – minded , and will usually ignore rescuers.
A. concentrate on only one purpose/aim … B. are selfish C. are cruel D. attack suddenly
Question 29: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined pared that needs correction
Question 30:There will always be a job for Mike if he changehis mind.
A B C D
Question 31:Language is important factor in the accumulation of culture.
A B C D
Question 32: That cats have nine lives have been believed for centuries
A B C D
Question 33: Despite the appearance of the Mayan empire, there are still Mayans in the region that
A B C D
they once inhabited
Question 34: After writing it , the essay must be duplicated by the student himself and handed into the
department
A B C
secretary before the end of the month .
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks.
About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural resources . We
(35)___ well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown
away .A high (36)___ of our animal consumption is in the (37)____ of packaging and this (38) ___ about
seven percent by weight, of our domestic (39) ____ . Almost all of it can be recycled, but very little of it is
,though the plastic recycling (40)___ is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy - rich –
they have a higher calorific (41) ____ than coal and one (42)____ of ―recovery‖ strongly(43)____ by plastic
manufactures is the (44)_____ of waste plastic into a fuel .
Question 35: A. consign B. import C. remove D. consume
Question 36: A. proportion B. portion C. amount D. rate
Question 37: A. kind B. type C. form D. way
Question 38: A. constitutes B. carries C. takes D. makes
Question 39: A. refuse B. goods C. requirements D. rubble
Question 40: A. plant B. industry C. factory D. manufacture
Question 41: A. value B. degree C. effect D. demand
Question 42: A. measure B. mechanism C. method D. medium
Question 43: A. desired B. favoured C. argued D. presented
Question 44: A. melting B. change C. conversion D. replacement
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from number.
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial
problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man‘s
inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend
that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its
desiccating effects. No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found.
The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is
open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is
largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having
adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word.
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The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like
mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most
of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only
by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the
temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 45: The title for this passage could be _____ .
A. ―Desert Plants‖ B. ―Life Underground‖
C. ―Animal Life in a Desert Environment‖ D. ―Man‘s Life in a Desert Environment‖
Question 46: The word ―inexorable‖ in the passage mostly means _____ .
A. relentless B. full C. demanding D. essential
Question 47: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as _____ .
A. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert B. water is an essential part of his existence
C. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things D. very few large animals are found in
the desert
Question 48: The phrase ―those forms‖ in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. water-loving animals B. the coyote and the bobcat
C. moist-skinned animals D. many large animals
Question 49: According to the passage, creatures in the desert _____.
A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals B. live in an accommodating environment
C. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
Question 50: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT
_____.
A. they sleep during the day B. they dig home underground
C. they are noisy and aggressive D. they are watchful and quiet
Question 51: The word ―emaciated‖ in the passage mostly means _____.
A. wild B. cunning C. unmanageable D. unhealthy
Question 52: the word ―Them‖ means
A. animals B. people C. water D. minutes
Question 53: The word ―burrows‖ in the passage mostly means _____.
A. ―places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young‖
B. ―holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in‖
C. ―structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept‖
D. ―places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found‖
Question 54: We can infer from the passage that _____ .
A. living things adjust to their environment B. water is the basis of desert life
C. desert life is colorful and diverse D. healthy animals live longer lives
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and
prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C . Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its
construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is
a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the
burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are
aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient
Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based
on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further
scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future. . Many of
the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied
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for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural
powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient
past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?
Question 55: What has research of the base revealed?
A. there are cracks in the foundation B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh‘s body
C. The lines represent important events D. A superior race of people built in
Question 56: Extraterrestrial beings are___.
A. very strong workers B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology D. living beings from other planets
Question 57: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly B. To permit the high priests to pray at night
B. To enable the Pharaoh‘s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
Question 58: The word feat in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ____.
A. accomplishment B. Appendage C. festivity D. structure
Question 59: What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architects‘plan for the hidden passages B. Pathways of the great solar bodies
C. Astrological computations D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time
Question 60: In the second passage , the word ‗ prophesied‘ is closest in meaning to ____.
A. affiliated B. precipitated C. terminated D. foretold
Question 61: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
Question 62: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies B. Advanced technology
C. Advanced tools of measurement D. knowledge of the earth‘s surface
Question 63: Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory B. As a religious temple
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh D. as an engineering feat
Question 64: Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A.it is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops C. It was built by a super race D. It is very old
WRITING
Part I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that the same as the sentence printed before
it.
Question 65: It was your assistance that enabled us to get achievement.
But for ____________________________________________________
Question 66: It is such a wonderful opportunity that we mustn‘t miss it
It _________________________________________________________
Question 67:Hanoi city isn‘t as big as Ho Chi Minh city
Ho Chi Minh City ____________________________________________
Question 68:No one has seen Linda since the day of the party.
Linda ______________________________________________________
Question 69:I regret not booking the seats in advance
If only ______________________________________________________
Part II: In 140 words, write a paragraph about the effect of the Internet to your life
...............................................................................................................................................................................
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.................................................................................................... ..........................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................................................
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........................... ...................................................................................................................................................
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PRACTICE TEST 4
I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: ( 8 điểm)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. drought B. fought C. brought D. bought
Question 2: A. builds B. destroys C. occurs D. prevents
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. include B. achieve C. replace D. comment
Question 4: A. comfortable B. attractive C. secretive D. necessary
Question 5: A. appearance B. telephone C. government D. leadership
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 6 to 30.
Question 6: At first she was trained to be _____scriptwriter, but later she worked as ______ secretary.
A. the / a B. a / a C. the / the D. a / the
Question 7: ― Don‘t look so worried!. You should take the leader‘s comment with ________.‖
A. a teaspoon of salt B. a cup of salt
C. a dose of salt D. a pinch of salt
Question 8: Three pounds of butter __________ in this recipe.
A. needs B. need C. are needed D. is needed
Question 9: Our project was successful ________ its practicality.
A. in terms of B. with a view to C. regardless D. on behalf of
Question 10: Of the two new students, one is friendly and _________.
A. the others are not B. the other is not
C. another is unfriendly D. other lacks friendliness
Question 11: There is one person to ________ I owe more than I can say..
A. whom B. who C. that D. whose
Question 12: After a good night‘s sleep I woke up feeling as fresh as ______and eager to start a new day.
A. a fruit B. a daisy C. a flower D. a maiden
Question 13: Mary is sixteen years old. She is _______ young to get married.
A. too B. so C. such D. enough
Question 14: __________is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants which
make a balanced environment..
A. extinction B. biodiversity C. habitat D. conservation
Question 15: Since we ____________ to working so hard, can we rest for a while?.
A. don‘t used B. aren‘t used C. don‘t use D. not use
Question 16: - Kate: ― How lovely your cats are!‖ - David: ― ____________‖
A. Really? They are B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so
C. Can you say it again D. I love them, too
Question 17: Peter was ejected after committing five personal _________ in water sport game yesterday.
A. mistakes B. faults C. fouls D. errors
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Question 18: Toxic chemicals in the air and land have driven many species to the _______ of extinction.
A. tip B. edge C. verge D. border
Question 19: She ran ________ an interesting article about fashion while she was reading the newspaper.
A. after B. cross C. away D. out
Question 20: It‘s essential that every student ________ all the lectures.
A. attends B. attend C. has attended D. attended
Question 21: It‘s a secret. You _________ let anyone know about it.
A. mustn‘t B. needn‘t C. mightn‘t D. may not
Question 22: When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to ________ their houses.
A. do up B. do in C. do through D. do over
Question 23: - Anne: ― Make yourself at home‖ - John: ― ____________‖
A. Thanks! Same to you B. That‘s very kind. Thank you
C. Not at all. Don‘t mention it D. Yes, Can I help you?
Question 24: He managed to keep his job_________the manager had threatened to sack him.
A. therefore B. although C. unless D. despite
Question 25: A: _____. B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.
A. When have you got this beautiful dress? B. How a beautiful dress you‘re wearing!
C. You‘ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven‘t you? D. That‘s a beautiful dress you have on!
Question 26: I studied English for four years in high school. _____ had trouble talking with people when I
was traveling in the US.
A. Therefore, I B. Otherwise, I C. Although I D. However, I
Question 27: _____ in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing.
A. Frost is produced B. Frost produces
C. What produces frost D. What is frost produced
Question 28: All_____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
A. what is needed B. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is needed
Question 29: He said that the plane had already left and that I_____ an hour earlier.
A. Must have arrived B. had to arrive
C. should have arrived D. was supposed to arrive
Question 30: There seems to be a large _____ between the number of people employed in service industries,
and those employed in the primary sectors.
A. discriminate B. discretion C. discrepancy D. distinguish
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 31 to 32.
Question 31: We went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out.
A. every single day B. every other day
C. every second day D. every two days
Question 32: We can use either verbal or non – verbal forms of communication.
A. using gesture B. using speech C. using verbs D. using facial expressions
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 33 to 34.
Question 33: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest.
A. hungry B. rich C. poor D. full
Question 34: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. ease B. attraction C. consideration D. speculation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction from 35 to 39.
Question 35: Men and women in the Peace Corps work with people in the developing countries to help
A B
them improving their living conditions.
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C D
Question 36: Although not widely sold, that book is considered to be best book on the subject.
A B C D
Question 37: Because his sickness he didn‘t take part in the English competition held last Sunday.
A B C D
Question 38: I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end.
A B C D
Question 39: Dreaming, like all other mental processes, it is a product of the brain and its activity.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 40 to 49 .
In recent years, there has been a remarkable increase into happiness. The researchers have come up a number
of factors which contribute to a definition of happiness.
First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be happy, in other words,
happiness (40)_______ in families. And happiness seems to correlate quite strongly with the main
dimensions of personalities: extroverts are generally happier, neurotics are less so.
Second, people often report good social relations as a reason for their happiness. In particular, friends
are a great (41) ______ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do together, partly because of the
way friends use positive non-verbal (42) ______ such as caressing and touching, to affirm their friendship.
Marriage and similar (43) ______ relationships can also form the basis of lasting happiness.
Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (44) ______ overall satisfaction, and vice versa - perhaps this is
why some people are happy in boring jobs: it (45) ______ both ways. Job satisfaction is caused not only by
the essential nature of the work, but (46)_____ by social interactions with co-workers. Unemployment, on
the contrary, can be a serious cause of unhappiness.
Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (47) ______ than most other causes of
happiness. Activities (48) _____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and social clubs of
various kinds, can give great joy. This is partly because of the (49) ______themselves, but also because of
the social support of other group members – it is very strong in the case of religious groups.
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advertisements onto the television, and employs people to hand out its free introductory disks at places like
train stations. As the Internet gets faster, AOL is changing. With many homes getting high-speed connection
through fiber optic cables, or the new ADSL technology, the ―Cyber-cockroach‖ will have to show that like
real cockroaches, it can survive in almost any environment.
Question 50 : What is the passage about?
A. a computer company B. a software company
C. an Internet company D. a video company
.Question 51 : The word ―it‖ in line……..refers to:
A. American Online B. Cyber-cockroach
C. Control video corporation D. digital company
Question 52 : Who does Steve Case work for?
A. Pizza Hut B. AOL
C. Control video Corporation D. None of these
Question 53 : How do ―teachies‖ feel about American Online?
A. They think it is a Cyber-cockroach B. They think it is for experts
C. They think it is a movie and a magazine company D. They feel superior to its users
Question 54 : American Online has the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. innovative B. experienced C. user-friendly D. fast moving
Question 55 : People who use American Online are probably:
A. video game players B. ―teachies‖
C. movie fans D. people new to the Internet
Question 56 : American Online is an unusual digital company because:
A. it used to make video games B. it is innovative
C. it makes money D. is has joined with another company
Question 57 : . Which marketing idea is NOT mentioned?
A. advertisements on the Internet B. advertisements on TV
C. free disks in journals D. people giving disks away
Question 58 : . What does the article say about AOL‘s future?
A. it will do well B. it will do badly
C. it will face challenges D. The article doesn‘t say
Question 59 : What is this passage mainly concerned with?
A. technology B. a history of the Internet
C. computer users D. a successful business
Read the following passage and circle the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions from 60 to 64.
The United Nations is a group of government from around the world that work together to solve the
world‘s problems and prevent wars. Sometimes the United Nations is successful, and sometimes it is not.
There used to be a group similar to the United Nations called the League of Nations. U.S President Woodrow
Wilson started the League of Nations after World War I because he didn‘t want the world to have another
huge, destructive war. He knew that the world needed a way to solve its problems without fighting.
Unfortunately, the League of Nations had little power. Its members often broke its rules, and it did not stop
the next big war, World War II. After World War II, the world ended the League of Nations and began the
United Nations.
Question 60 : What is the purpose of the United Nations?
A. To stop World War II.
B. To prevent wars.
C. To give more power to the League of Nations.
D. To make better governments around the world.
Question 61 : When did the League of Nations start?
A. After the United Nations was unsuccessful.
B. After World War II
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PRACTICE TEST 5
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. dissolved B. blamed C. misused D. increased
Question 2: A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. economics B. material C. delicious D. unpopular
Question 4: A. inference B. reference C. inferior D. redundancy
Question 5: A. mechanic B. memorial C. machine D. mechanism
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions
Question 6: My cousin obviously didn't _____ much of an impression on you if you can't remember meeting
her.
A. do B. make C. create D. build
Question 7: The tennis match was put off because of the heavy rain.
A. damaged B. postponed C. canceled D. destroyed
Question 8: This ring is made of plastic so it‘s not valuable.
A. worthless B. invaluable C. worthy D. priceless
Question 9: He denied _____ there at the time.
A. not to be B. that he wasn‘t C. wasn‘t D. not being
Question 10: Out _______ from its tiny cage.
A. does the bird fly B. flew the bird C. did the bird fly D. fly the bird
Question 11: Have you had much experience _____ computers?
A. on B. in C. with D. about
Question 12: It was very difficult to understand what he was saying about the noise of the traffic.
A. pick up B. make up C. turn out D. make out
Question 13 Begin_____ the beginning of the story.
A. with B. for C. at D. to
Question 14: ―I‘m tired of the same old routine.‖ _ ―I know how you feel. I get tired of doing the same
things day in_____.‖
A. and day off B. and day on C. and day of D. and day out
Question 15: She_____$ 20 out of the bank every Monday.
A. pulls B. extracts C. draws D. takes
Question 16: The book is written by a famous anthropologist. It‘s about the people in Samoa _____ for two
years.
A. that she lives B. that she lives among them
C. among whom she lived D. where she lived among them
Question 17: Everyone in our class _____ his suggestion.
A. agrees to B. agree with C. agree to D. agrees with
Question 18: It is true, then, that a great many people-and a great many people are _____ in the use of
English.
A. contained B. involved C. included D. taken
Question 19: The people at the party were worried about Jane because no one was aware _____ she had
gone.
A. where that B. the place C. of where D. of the place where
Question 20: What do you think of your new bookkeeper?‖
- ―He works _____ his figures never need ______.‖
A. such efficiently that / to check C. so efficient that / checking
B. so efficiently that / to be checked D. such an efficient that / to be checked
Question 21: John pretended _____ sick yesterday.
A. being B. to be C. be D. to being
Question 22: Mary was the last applicant _____ by that interviewer
A. to be interviewed B. to interview C. to be interviewing D. to have interviewed
Question 23: Not until the Triassic Period _____.
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A. the first primitive mammals develop B. did develop the first primitive mammals
C. the first primitive mammals did develop D. did the first primitive mammals develop
Question 24: _____ of bananas are cheap today.
A. Bunches B. Blocks C. Packages D. Heads
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr.
Mayo‘s outstanding humanitarianism.
A. exhaustive B. charitable C. remarkable D. widespread
Question 26: My little daughter would spend an inordinate amount of time in the shop, deciding exactly
which 4 comics she was going to buy.
A. excessive B. limited C. required D. abundant
Question 27: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. skillful B. famous C. perfect D. modest
Question 28: After many year of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller
finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader.
A. requesting B. trying C. offering D. deciding
Question 29: We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
A. uninterested B. unsure C. open D. slow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 30: She is no longer young to enter a beautiful contest.
A B C D
Question 31: Every child in Great Britain between the old year of five and fifteen must
A B C D
attend school.
Question 32: Emmy was determined to succeed and final achieved what she wanted.
A B C D
Question 33: It has been said that laser to be the most miraculous to cure patients.
A B C D
Question 34: I would rather she is staying at home this time yesterday.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
It is estimated the (35) __ number is not known that worldwide some 60,000 newspapers exist with a (36) __
circulation of nearly 500 million. However, the number of readers is (37) __ greater-as many as three times
the circulation figure.
This is because newspapers are shared, some are posted, and (38) __ placed in libraries and other (39) ___
places. Worldwide, about 8,000 of these newspapers are dailies. About a third of all newspapers are
published in North America, (40) ____ third in Europe, and the (41) ____ third in the rest of the world.
Countries with the highest newspaper (42) __ are Britain, Norway, Denmark, Sweden, Japan, and the United
States. Europe has nearly half of the world's total newspaper circulation, North America about a quarter, and
the rest of the world another quarter. Taking the world (43) __, the average circulation of dailies per 1,000
persons is about 100, but there are many parts of the world where the modern newspaper is (44) __ ever seen.
Question 35: A. exact B. correct C. precise D. right
Question 36: A. mixed B. combined C. connected D. linked
Question 37: A. even B. far C. more D. very
Question 38: A. another B. the others C. others D. the rest
Question 39: A. open B. common C. shared D. public
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
The fertile valleys of the river Nile straddle the hot desert land of Egypt. Rain is relatively scarce, and the
summers are scorching hot. Nevertheless the strip of land, known as the Cultivation, on either side of the Nile
is reputed to be one of the most fertile places in the world. Its rich black soil is the result of accumulation of
silt deposited by the annual flooding of the Nile thousands of years ago. From June to October, the river
overflowed its banks. Modern damps were then constructed to control the flooding. The floodwaters left
behind a rich sticky black mud which made it suitable for the cultivation of crops. As long as the soil was
well irrigated, two or three crops could be grown in one season. Its rich soil led to the growth and rise of the
brilliant civilization of the ancient Egyptians on the Nile valley more than 5000 years ago. The earliest
Egyptians had acquired the skills to till the land along the banks, drawing along the Nile became wealthy,
and they embarked on projects of digging ditches and constructing dams to control the floods. In about 3100
BC, the whole Egypt was united under the reign of King Menes. He and his descendants made up Egypt's
first ruling family, or dynasty. His rule led to the great development of the arts like writing, painting,
architecture, and crafts. Egyptian power and influence were to last for the next 2000 years. The Egyptian
kings had absolute powers. The king possesses all the land and the peasants had to surrender part of their
crops to the king. An army of officials and scribes did the task of collecting the exact amount of due from the
individual farmers. Crops and livestock were often seen at the storehouses surrounding the royal palaces. In
return for their uphill task, the king paid his officials and dishes out funds for huge irrigation projects. Egypt's
trade with the outside world stretches far and wide. In return for gold, copper, gemstones, and building
stones, it purchases the goods that it did not have. Timber, resins, oils, silver and slaves came from Lebanon.
From Deria and Anatolia came horses, while the blue stone called lapis lazuli was imported from
Mesopotamia. Strong forts were constructed to protect overland trade routes. Egypt held Nubia in the south
for almost 800 years. It served as Egypt's most vital source of gold and slaves.
Question 45: The civilization of the ancient Egyptians was brought about by _____.
A. Egypt's first ruling family
0B. the rich soil of the Nile
C. Egypt's trade with the outside world
D. the highly-developed writing, painting, architecture and crafts
Question 46: Egyptian slaves came from _____.
A. Syria and Anatolia B. Palestine C. Mesopotamia D. Lebanon
Question 47: The king was wealthy because _____.
A. he possessed all the land B. huge irrigation projects were set up
C. he was in absolute power D. farmers paid him their tribute
Question 48: The writer said that the annual flooding of the Nile _____.
A. needed to be controlled B. led to the discovery of new mines
C. caused an influx of foreign traders D. helped to develop the arts
Question 49: According to the passage, the king was wise _____.
A. to own slaves and gold B. to pay for huge irrigation projects
C. to control the land D. to import the things that Egypt did not have
Question 50: In return for, in the first line, last paragraph, refers to _____.
A. what Egypt exported B. how fast the profit came
C. the respect Egypt received D. the protection the Egyptian army provided
Question 51: A suitable title for this passage is _____.
A. The Farming Methods of the Egyptians B. The Landscape of the Egypt
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C. The Might of the Egyptian Army D. The Civilization of the Ancient Egyptians
Question 52: We know the Egyptian Empire was powerful from the _____.
A. long period it extended its power and influence B. way its army fought with other invaders
C. number of crops grown in one season D. trade and business done with other nations
Question 53: Farm crops would be _____ if there was no water for irrigation.
A. harvested B. unavailable C. unprotected D. destroyed
Question 54: From June to October, the flood plains would be _____.
A. open to the building of new B. left to the sowing of new crops dams
C. raised to a higher level D. inundated with floodwaters from the Nile
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
A useful definition of an air pollutant is a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the
atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetations, or materials adversely. Air pollution
requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were
established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen
or smelled-a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed
and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has
lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides,
are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentrations of these pollutants were altered by various
chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycle. These serve as an air purification
scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil on a global basis, nature's output
of these compounds dwarfs those resulting form human activities. However, human production usually
occurs in a localized area, such as a city.
In this localized regions, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural
purification scheme of the cycle. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The
concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants
would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to
be a pollutant; in fact the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this
represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has
detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon
monoxide, however, as a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about
15 ppm.
Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution B. What constitutes an air pollutant?
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere
Question 56: The word "adversely" in line 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
Question 57: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that________.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 58: The word "altered" in line 10 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. eliminated B. caused C. slowed D. changed
Question 59: Natural pollutants can play an important role in controlling air pollution for which of the
following reasons?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants.
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WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
Question 65: I advise you to put your money in the bank.
You'd better………………………………………………………………...
Question 66: If you don't study harder, you will surely fail the next exam.
Unless ………………………………………………………………………
Question 67: "I will let you know the answer by the end of this week," Tom said to Janet.
Tom ……………………………………………………………………….
Question 68: Maria says she‘d like to have been put in a higher class.
Maria ………………………………………………………………………
Question 69: If motorists were to drive carefully, they would have fewer accidents.
Motorists ……………………………………………………………….....
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about your favourite sport.
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PRACTICE TEST 6
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. cooks B. loves C. joins D. spends
Question 2: A. teacher B. children C. chore D. school
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. disappearance B. vulnerable C. conservation D. generation
Question 4: A. attract B. person C. signal D. instance
Question 5: A. situation B. appropriate C. informality D. entertainment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions
Question 6: Nancy: ―________‖ - Sue: ―Great. Thanks.‖
A. Be careful! B. Excuse me! C. How are you doing? D. What are you
doing?
Question 7: _______the film‘s director, Ben Affleck, was famously left off of the 85th Oscar‘s Best Director
list of nominees surprised everyone.
A. What B. That C. Although D. Due to
Question 8: Sales of the Chinese toys dropped ________ sharply when the TV news reported that high levels
of toxic lead had been found in painted toys.
A. out B. down C. away D. off
Question 9: Would you mind ________ me a favor and posting this letter for me?
A. making B. doing C. getting D. giving
Question 10: It is imperative that your face book password ________ confidential.
A. need keeping B. need to keep
C. needs to be kept D. needed keeping
Question 11: You should look up the meaning of the new word in the dictionary________ misuse it.
A. so as to not B. to C. so as not to D. so that
Question 12: I would be very rich now ________ working long ago.
A. if I gave up B. if I wouldn‘t give up C. were I to give up D. had I not given up
Question 13: The noise of the airplanes _______from the airport over my house was unbearable at times.
A. which taking off B. taking off C. which was taking off D. to take off
Question 14: I know you have been working very hard today. Let's ________ and go home.
A. pull my leg B. call it a day C. put your back up D. pros and cons
Question 15: Many habitats change ________ the types of plants and animals that live there.
A. with respect to B. in respect for C. as for D. as against
Question 16: In this company, there has been little ________ for the needs of part - time workers.
A. favor B. regard C. reception D. manners
Question 17: Ms Jane gave her short speech to express her ________ for the retirement gift.
A. appeasement B. applause C. apportionment D. appreciation
Question 18: Tom: ―Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.‖ -Mary: ―________‖
A. I have nothing to tell you. C. Never mind!
B. Oh. Poor me! D. You was absent – minded.
Question 19: Children should be ________ by their parents on the first day of school.
A. accompanied B. followed C. involved D. associated
Question 20: People have used coal and oil to ________ electricity for a long time.
A. cultivate B. breed C. raise D. generate
Question 21: We are considering having ________ for the coming New Year.
A. redecorated our flat B. to redecorate our flat
C. our flat to be redecorated D. our flat redecorated
Question 22: About 20 percent of U.S electricity currently _________ nuclear power plants.
A. come from B. coming to C. comes from D. came from
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 30: It is the high time John understands how to behave properly towards the old men.
A B C D
Question 31: Never in his whole life has he forgotten what happened to his wife.
A B C D
Question 32: Would you like to have a drink with me tonight, John?
A B C D
Question 33: All know that we have to work hardly to earn a living ourselves and support the
A B C D
family.
Question 34: This will have a serious effect about agriculture.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The traditional definition of literacy is considered to be the ability to read and write, or the ability to use
language to read, write, listen, and speak. In modern contexts, the word refers to reading and writing at a
level (35) _____ for communication, or at a level that lets one understand and communicate ideas in a
literate society,' so as to take (36)_____ in that society. The United Nations, Educational, Scientific and
Cultural Organization (UNESCO) has drafted the following definition: ―Literacy is the ability to identify,
understand, interpret, create, communicate and compute, using printed and written' materials (37) _____ with
varying contexts. Literacy involves a continuum of learning to enable an Individual to achieve his or her
goals, to develop his, or her (38) _____ and potential, and to participate fully in the wider society."
Many policy analysts consider literacy rates a crucial measure of a region's human capital. This claim is
made on the (39) _____ that literate people can be trained less expensively than illiterate people, generally
have a higher socio-economic (40) _____ and enjoy better health and employment prospects. Policy makers
also argue that literacy increases job opportunities and access to higher education. In Kerala, India, for
example, female and child mortality rates declined (41) _____ in the 1960s, when girls who were educated in
the education reforms after 1948 began to raise families. Recent researchers, (42) _____, argue that
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correlations such as, the one listed above may have more to do with the effects of schooling rather than
literacy in general. Regardless, the (43) ____ of educational systems worldwide includes a basic (44) ____
around communication through test and print, which is the foundation of most definitions of literacy.
Question 35: A. adaptable B. suitable C. adequate D. important
Question 36: A. comfort B. control C. part D. honor
Question 37: A. associated B. worked C. appropriated D. related
Question 38: A. ability B. knowledge C. performance D. behavior
Question 39: A. foundations B. ways C. grounds D. basics
Question 49: A. condition B. request C. state D. status
Question 41: A. dramatically B. extremely C. actually D. accurately
Question 42: A. additionally B. however C. therefore D. consequently
Question 43: A. focus B. demand C. majority D. main
Question 44: A. content B. concept C. contact D. context
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
The advent of the Internet may be one of the most important technological developments in recent
years. Never before have so many people had access to so many different sources of information. For all
of the Internet‘s advantages, however, people are currently becoming aware of some of its drawbacks and
are looking for creative solutions. Among the current problems, which include a general lack of reliability
and numerous security concerns, the most crucial is speed.
First of all, the Internet has grown very quickly. In 1990, only a few academics had ever heard of the
Internet. In 1996, over 50 million people used it. Every year, the number of people with access to the
Internet doubles. The rapid growth has been a problem. The computer systems which run the Internet
have not been able to keep up with the demand. Also, sometimes, a request for information must pass
through many routing computers before the information can be obtained. A request for information made
in Paris might have to go through computers in New York, Los Angeles and Tokyo in order to obtain the
required information. Consequently, the service is often slow and unpredictable. Service also tends to be
worse when the Internet is busiest - during the business day of the Western Hemisphere - which is also
when companies need its service the most.
Some people are trying to harness the power of networked computers in such a way as to avoid this
problem. In 1995, a group of American universities banded together to form what has come to be known
as Internet II. Internet II is a smaller, more specialized system intended for academic use. Since it is more
specialized, fewer users are allowed access. Consequently, the time required to receive information has
decreased.
Businesses are beginning to explore a possible analogue to the Internet II. Many businesses are
creating their own ―Intranets‖. These are systems that can only be used by the members of the same
company. In theory, fewer users should translate into a faster system. Intranets are very useful for large
national and international companies whose branches need to share information. Another benefit of an
Intranet is an increased amount of security. Since only company employees have access to the information
on the Intranet, their information is protected from competitors. While there is little doubt that the Internet
will eventually be a fast and reliable service, industry and the academic community have taken their own
steps toward making more practical global networks.
Question 45: According to the passage, which of the following is not true of the Internet?
A. It tends to be unreliable. B. It has created a sense of financial security.
C. It is too expensive to access. D. It has become increasingly less popular.
Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following statements was true in 1990?
A. the Internet was a secure means to gain information.
B. the Internet experienced enormous growth rates.
C. Internet data proved to be impractical.
D. Few people were using the Internet.
Question 47: According to the author, what is one reason why the Internet is sometimes slow?
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A. Phone lines are often too busy with phone calls and fax transmissions to handle Internet traffic.
B. Most people do not have computers that are fast enough to take advantage of the Internet.
C. Often a request must travel through many computers before it reaches its final destination.
D. Scientists take up too much time on the Internet, thus slowing it down for everyone else.
Question 48: The word ―obtained‖ in line 10 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. understood B. acquired C. purchased D. distributed
Question 49: The word ―harness‖ in line 15 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. utilize B. disguise C. steal D. block
Question 50: According to the passage, what benefits does Internet II have over the Internet I?
A. There is no governmental intervention regulating Internet II.
B. Small businesses pay higher premiums to access to the Internet.
C. Internet II contains more information than the Internet.
D. Internet II has fewer users and therefore is faster to access.
Question 51: The word ―analogue‖ in line 20 most nearly means__________.
A. similarity B. alternative C. use D. solution
Question 52: The word ―their‖ in line 25 refers to __________.
A. competitors B. company employees C. Intranets D. companies
Question 53: With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?
A. Fewer academic communities need to create their own Internet systems.
B. Companies who develop their own Intranets are limiting their information data base.
C. The technology used by Internet creators is too complex for computer owners to understand.
D. An Internet system with fewer users would be quicker.
Question 54: All of the following are advantages of business ―Intranets‖ mentioned in the passage
EXCEPT___
A. they provide a higher level of security.
B. they share information with other company branches.
C. they are cheaper than other alternatives.
D. they move data faster.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
American and British people both speak English, of course, but sometimes it does not seem like the same
language. In fact, there are some important differences between British and American English.
First of all, they sound very different. Often, Americans don‘t say all the letters in each word, especially
consonants like ―t‖ and ―d‖. For example, Americans may say ―I dunno‖ instead of ―I don‘t know, or they
may say ―Whaddya say‖ instead of ―What do you say?‖. However, the British usually pronounce their
consonatnts carefully.
Also, some letters have different sounds. For example, Americans say the ―a‖ in ―class‖ like ―a‖ in ―cat‖, but
the British say the ―a‖ in ―class‖ like the ―a‖ in ―half‖. The ―r‖ is sometimes said differently, too. When an
American says ―farmer‖, you can usually hear ―r‖. But you can‘t hear ―r‖ in British English. The British say
―fahmah‖.
Sound is not the only difference between British English and American English. The two languages have
differnt words for somethings. For example, the words for clothing atre different. Americans use the word
―sweater‖, but the English say ―jumper‖. American wear ―vests‖ under their shirts. An American man wears
a ―tuxedo‖ to a very fancy party, but an English man wears a ―dinner jacket‖. Americans talk about ―pants‖
or ―slacks‖ but the British talk about ―trousers‖.
Many expressions are also different in the two countries. In England, if you are going to telephone friends,
you ‗ring them up‖. In America, ―you give them a call‖. The Brtish use the word ―lovely‖ to describe
something they like. Americans use the word ―nice‖ or ―great‖.
There are also some differences in grammar. For example, Americans almost always use the helping verb
―do‖ with the verb ―have‖. They might say, ―Do you have an extra pen?‖ The British often ask the question a
different way. They might say, ―Have you got an extra pen?‖
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These diffences can be confusing if you are learning English. But there is a reason for the differences.
Language change over time. When the same language is used in different places, it changes differently in
each place. This is what happened to English. It also happened to other languages, such as French. Many
people in Canada speak Frence, but their French is different from the French spoken in France.
(Sourse: ―Reading Power‖- Beatrice S. Mikulecky & Linda Jeferies. Longman, New York)
Question 55: This article is about _____.
A. English vocabulary
B. the way the British say words
C. how American sounds are different from British sounds
D. how American English is different from British English
Question 56: Compared the British, Americans are usually _____.
A. more careful about saying consonant B. less careful about saying consonants
C. easier to understand D. slower speaker
Question 57: Some letters in English _____.
A. always sound the same in the United States and England
B. don‘t change whether they are spoken in the United States or England
C. have different sounds in the United States and England
D. have an unusual sound in the United States and England
Question 58: The words for clothing are _____.
A. an example of British English B. different in the United States and England
C. an example of modern technology D. the same in the United States and England
Question 59: The word ―slacks‖ in American English means _____ in British English.
A. vests B. jumpers C. trousers D. jackets
Question 60: People in the United States and in England _____.
A. always use the same expressions B. often say goodbye
C. don‘t use expressions often D. sometimes use different expressions
Question 61: When Americans ask questions, they almost always _____.
A. use the helping verb ―do‖ B. don‘t use the helping verb
C. don‘t use any grammar D. cause confusion
Question 62: Learners of English can get confused because _____.
A. English never changes
B. English is different in different places
C. British English is more difficult than other languages
D. British English is the only kind of English
Question 63: According to the passage, languages _____.
A. change over time B. are difficult to say
C. don‘t change much D. are the same in all places
Question 64: According to the passage, which of the following statements in NOT true?
A. Americans do not pronounce ―farmer‖ the same as the British
B. French spoken in Canada is different from French spoken in France
C. People in the United States call some things different from people in England
D. There is no difference in grammar between British English and American English
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
Question 65: My sister is studying geology. She finds it fascinating.
My sister ……………………………………………………………………..
Question 66: I didn't have an umbrella with me, so I got wet.
If………………………………………………………………………………
Question 67: People must not leave bicycles in the hall.
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Bicycles ……………………………………………………………………….
Question 68: Because the weather is warm and damp, rice grows very well here.
Because ………………………………………………………………………
Question 69: The cinema didn‘t become industry until 1915
It……………………………………………………………….........................
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the world you would like to live in the future.
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PRACTICE TEST 7
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. resort B. present C. consume D. result
Question 2: A. reserved B. locked C. forced D. touched
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. partnership B. romantic C. actually D. attitude
Question 4: A. environment B. establish C. emergency D. organization
Question 5: A. initiate B. medical C. rapidly D. possible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: This old businessman is said _______ school at the age of thirteen.
A. that left B. to leave C. to have left D. that having left
Question 7: I still like Betty _______ she is sometimes annoying.
A. because B. despite C. since D. even though
Question 8: What was that notice _______ ?
A. at that you were looking B. you were looking at
C. you were looking at it D. which you were looking
Question 9: If anything urgent comes _____, you can contact me at this number.
A. across B. by C. up D. round
Question 10: She was wearing a pair of _______ .
A. white German leather running shoes. B. German leather white running shoes
C. running white German leather shoes. D. leather white German running shoes.
Question 11: It is often considered to be impolite to _______at someone.
A. point B. smile C. look D. raise
Question 12: I will have this letter _______ tomorrow.
A. type B. typed C. to type D. typing
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of
Red Cross Societies in 1991.
A. started B. helped C. treated D. dedicated
Question 26: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Question 27: Variations in the color of sea water from blue to green seem to be caused by high or low
concentrations of salt.
A. Changes B. Descriptions C.Measures D. Clarity
Question 28: The landscape can change abruptly after a rainstorm in the desert Southwest.
A. quickly B. sharply C. favorably D. slightly
Question 29: The new suit he has bought is unfortunately made of synthetic material.
A. blended B. silken C. artificial D. natural
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 30: Marriage is a life-long journey together, which is not simply a boat you
A B C
get on together and getting off when it does not work out.
D
Question 31: UNICEF's child protection programs also aim at those children who are
A B C
uniquely vulnerable to the abuses, so as when living without parental care, in remote
D
areas, or in very poor family.
Question 32: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before
A B C
attempting to pass the exam.
D
Question 33: After a carefully investigation, we soon discovered that the house was
A B C D
infested with termites.
Question 34: They are going to have to leave soon and so do we.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
In the western customs (35) _____ hands is the customary form of greeting, but in China a nod of the
head or (36) _____ bow is sufficient. Hugging and kissing when greeting are uncommon. Business cards are
often (37) _____ and yours should be printed in your own language and in Chinese. Also, it is more
respectful to present your card or a gift or -any other article using (38) _____ hands. The Chinese are (39)
_____ applauders. You may be greeted with group clapping, even by small children. When a person is
applauded in this practice it is the custom for that person to return the applause or a "thank you." When
walking in public places, direct eye (40) _____ .and staring is uncommon in the larger cities, especially in
those areas accustomed to foreign visitors. (41) _____, in smaller communities, visitors may be the subject of
much curiosity and therefore you may notice some stares. (42) _____ speaking, the Chinese are not a touch-
oriented society, especially true for visitors. So, avoid (43) _____ or any prolonged form of body contact.
Public displays of affection are very rare. On the other hand, you may note people of the same sex walking
hand-in-hand, which is simply a gesture of friendship. Do not worry about a bit of pushing and shoving in
stores or when groups board public buses or trains. In this case, (44) _____ are neither offered or expected.
The Chinese will stand much closer than Westerners.
Question 35: A. taking B. shaking C. grasping D. hugging
Question 36: A. small B. bit C. slight D. light
Question 37:A. exchanged B. changed C. transferred D. converted
Question 38: A. pair B. couple C. double D. both
Question 39: A. enthusiast B. enthusiastic C. enthusiasm D. enthusiastically
Question 40: A. contact B. look C. stare D. watch
Question 41: A. Moreover B. Furthermore C. However D. Whatever
Question 42: A. Generally B. Successfully C. Fortunately D. Expectedly
Question 43: A. touch B. to touch C. touched D. touching
Question 44: A. Contacts B. Apologies C. Gestures D. Saying goodbye
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
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Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No
other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are
surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve
more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In
theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In
reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a
lesser extent, the Sun.
Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide
is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of
the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full.
These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides.
At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added
together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a
high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie
at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal
movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other
time during the month.
Question 45: What is the main point of the first paragraph?
A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
Question 46: The word "felt" in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A. based B. dropped C. detected D. explored
Question 47: The words "In reality" in line 8 are closest in meaning to
A. surprisingly B. actually C. characteristically D. similarly
Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much
gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is
A. size B. distance C. temperature D. density
Question 49: The word "correspondingly" in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. unpredictably B. interestingly C. similarly D. unusually
Question 50: What is the cause of spring tides?
A. Seasonal changes in the weather
B. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth
C. The Earth's movement around the Sun
D. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon
Question 51: The word "configuration" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. unit B. center C. surface D. arrangement
Question 52:Neap tides occur when
A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
B. the Moon is full
C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
Question 53: According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true EXCEPT:
A. The time of high tide is later each day.
B. Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do.
C. The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon.
D. Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides.
Question 54: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those
caused by tides?
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States are most foods only in season. Drying,
smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh
milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810 a French inventor named Nicolas
Appert developed the cooking – and sealing process of canning. And in the 1850‘s an American named Gail
Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became
more common during the 1860‘s but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880,
however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate.
Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and invention had also helped it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing
urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce.
Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to
preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890‘s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and
western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of
the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An easy means of
producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870‘s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two
thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most
homes and remained so until mechanized refrigerator replaced it in 1920‘s and 1930‘s.
Almost everyone had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavy
in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take
advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
D. Population movements in the nineteenth century
Question 56:The phrase ― in season‖ in paragraph 1 refers to
A. a kind of weather B. a particular time of year
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring food
Question 57: The word ―prevent‖ is closest in meaning to
A. estimate B. avoid C. correct D. confine
Question 58: During the 1860‘s, canned food products were
A. unavailable in rural areas B. shipped in refrigerator cars
C. available in limited quantities D. a staple part of the American diet
Question 59: It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
Question 60: The word ―them‖ in paragraph 2 refers to
A. refrigerator cars B. perishables C. growers D. distances
Question 61: The word ―fixture‖ is closest in meaning to
A. luxury item B. substance
C. commonplace object D. mechanical device
Question 62: The author implies that in 1920‘s and 1930‘s home deliveries of ice
A. decreased in number B. were on an irregular schedule
C. increased in cost D. occurred only in the summer
Question 63:The word ―Nevertheless‖ is closest in meaning to
A. therefore B. because C. occasionally D. however
Question 64: Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Canning C. Cold storage D. Chemical additive
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WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
Question 65: Many people live in this city, they need many services.
The……………………………………………………………….
Question 66: I haven‘t been to the cinema for two years.
The last time………………………………………................................
Question 67: People say that he has been all over the world.
He is ........................................................................................................
Question 68: Although Mary was exhausted, she agreed to join in the activity.
Exhausted …………………………………………………………………..
Question 69: ―You mustn‘t come out of this shop now.‖
The policeman stopped the customer ……………………………………
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about measures to protect endangered species
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PRACTICE TEST 8
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunctiation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. included B. wanted C. decided D. noticed
Question 2: A. course B. courtesy C. source D. force
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. communicate B. impatient C. interesting D. apologize
Question 4: A. activity B. psychology C. information D. development
Question 5: A. perform B. invent C. attempt D. motion
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: When I _______ up this morning, my roommate _______ already.
A. am waking / leaves B. wake / has left C. woke / had left D. was waking / left
Question 7: Something ________ about global warming or else some types of penguins will perish from the
earth.
A. should do B. should be done C. should be doing D. should have done
Question 8: Had you told me that this was going to happen, I ________ it.
A. would never have believed B. don't believe C. hadn't believed D. can't believe
Question 9:Technology is advancing so rapidly nowadays that computers and other machines seem to be
..................... after a very short time.
A. antiquated B. irreparable C. disused D. obsolete
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Question 10: Thanks to the ______ of paper, many books have been kept for a very long time.
A. information B. knowledge C. durability D. portability
Question 11: ______, dolphins have no sense of smell.
A. As known as far B. It is known as far C. Known thus far as D. As far as is known
Question 12: _______ at home, I would enjoy my favourite show.
A. Suppose I am B. Unless were I C. Were I D. If were I
Question 13: Mary eats ________ she used to.
A. fewer meat and bananas than B. less and less meat and bananas than
C. less meat and fewer bananas than D. the least meat and fewest bananas than
Question 14: Don‘t waste your time telling Janet a joke. She totally ................. of a sense of humour.
A. deficient B. missing C. devoid D. lacking
Question 15: Mary has just had her hair cut. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the
following exchange.
- Anne: "What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!"
- Mary: "_______"
A. Thank you very much. I am afraid B. You are telling a lie
C. Thank you for your compliment D. I don't like your sayings
Question 16: Many wildlife parks have been installed security cameras to guard against _______ who
regularly hunt wild animals illegally.
A. poachers B. conservationists C. environmentalists D. authority
Question 17: It is __ that changes women's lives and the perception of women's roles.
A. educate B. education C. educational D. educated
Question 18: The early railroads were .................. the existing arteries of transportation: roads, turnpikes,
canals, and other waterways.
A. those short line connected B. short lines that connected
C. connected by short lines D. short connecting lines
Question 19: I tried to be diplomatic, but ................ I couldn‘t help losing my temper.
A. in the end B. at the end C. by accident D. on purpose
Question 20: The player gave a hard shot ________ straight into the opposing goal.
A. beauty B. beautiful C. beautify D. beautifully
Question 21: In economics, a country's _______ is the total value of goods and services produced within a
country in a year, not including its income from investments in other countries.
A. free trade area B. association
C. gross domestic product D. economic cooperation
Question 22: My husband and I take turns cleaning ________ the kitchen depending ________ who gets
home from work earlier.
A. away / to B. from / in C. up / on D. with / for
Question 23: What does "www" ________ for? Is it short for ―world wide web?‖
A. sit B. stand C. lie D. point
Question 24: Someone who is _______ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in particular.
A. powerful B. optimistic C. stagnant D. pessimistic
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools.
A. depended B. required C. divided D. paid
Question 26: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual
meeting in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
Question 27: Aquatic sports have long been acknowledged as excellent ways to take physical exercise.
A. reduced B. encouraged C. recognized D. practiced
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Question 28: In synchronized swimming, the players perform beautiful maneuvers to music and diving.
A. swimming suits B. tools for swimming
C. scuba sets D. movements that need skill and care
Question 29: Women bear more than half of all work done.
A. give up B. put away C. keep on D. take up
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 30: One of the best ways to encourage your children to read are to provide
A B C
interesting titles for them to enjoy.
D
Question 31: Most parents prefer an education system which offers the children widest
A B C D
study options in the world.
Question 32: In several parts of Asia, there is still a strong market for traditional
A B
medicines making from these animal parts.
C D
Question 33: Reading is an important skill that benefits children in many way, and can
A B C
turn into an extremely rewarding hobby later in life.
D
Question 34: The proportion of women spend 30 hours a week or more on unpaid
A B C
housework fell to 19.8 per cent in 2006 from 24.6 per cent in 1996.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
UNICEF (The United Nations InternationalChildren‘s emergency Fund) is mandated by the United Nations
General Assembly to advocate for the (35) _____ of children's rights, to help meet their basic needs and to
expand their opportunities to reach their full potential. UNICEF is guided by the Convention on the Rights of
the Child and (36) _____ to establish children's rights as enduring ethical principles and international
standards of (37) _____ towards children. UNICEF (38) _____ that the survival, protection and development
of children are universal development. UNICEF mobilizes political will and material (39) _____ to help
countries, particularly developing countries, ensure a "first call for children" and to, build their capacity to
form appropriate policies and (40) _____ services for children and their families. UNICEF is committed to
ensuring special protection for (41) _____ most disadvantaged children - victims of war, disasters, extreme
poverty, all forms of violence and (42) _____ and those with disabilities. UNICEF responds in emergencies
to protect the rights of children. In coordination with United Nations partners and humanitarian agencies,
UNICEF makes its unique facilities for rapid response available to its partners to (43) _____ the suffering of
children and those who provide their care. UNICEF is non-partisan and its cooperation is free from
discrimination. In everything it does, the most disadvantaged children and the countries in greatest need have
priority. UNICEF (44) _____, through its country programs, to promote the equal rights of women and girls
and to support their full participation in the political, social, and economic development of their
communities.
Question 35: A. protest B. destruction C. protection D. achievement
Question 36: A. admits B. suggests C. adopts D. tries
Question 37: A. poverty B. behavior C. medicine D. injure
Question 38: A. insists B. devotes C. treats D. mounts
Question 39: A. sources B. mines C. budgets D. funds
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
Many of the most damaging and life-threatening types of weather-torrential rains, severe thunderstorms, and
tornadoes-begin quickly, strike suddenly, and dissipate rapidly, devastating small regions while leaving
neighboring areas untouched. One such event, a tornado, struck the northeastern section of Edmonton,
Alberta, in July 1987.
Total damages from the tornado exceeded $ 250 million, the highest ever for any Canadian storm.
Conventional computer models of the atmosphere have limited value in predicting short-live local storms like
the Edmonton tornado, because the available weather data are generally not detailed enough to allow
computers to discern the subtle atmospheric changes that precede these storms. In most nations, for example,
weatherballoon observations are taken just once every twelve hours at locations typically separated by
hundreds of miles. With such limited data, conventional forecasting models do a much better job predicting
general weather conditions over large regions than they do forecasting specific local events.
Until recently, the observation-intensive approach needed for accurate, very shortrange forecasts, or
"Nowcasts", was not feasible. The cost of equipping and operating many thousands of conventional weather
stations was prohibitively high, and the difficulties involved in rapidly collecting and processing the raw
weather data from such a network were insurmountable. Fortunately, scientific and technological advances
have overcome most of these problems. Radar systems, automated weather instruments, and satellites are all
capable of making detailed, nearly continuous observation over large regions at a relatively low cost.
Communications satellites can transmit data around the world cheaply and instantaneously, and modern
computers can quickly compile and analyzing this large volume of weather information. Meteorologists and
computer scientists now work together to design computer programs and video equipment capable of
transforming raw weather data into words, symbols, and vivid graphic displays that forecasters can interpret
easily and quickly. As meteorologists have begun using these new technologies in weather forecasting
offices, Nowcasting is becoming a reality.
Question 45: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Computers and weather B. Dangerous storms
C. Weather forecasting D. Satellites
Question 46: Why does the author mention the tornado in Edmonton, Canada?
A. To indicate that tornadoes are common in the summer
B. To give an example of a damaging storm
C. To explain different types of weather
D. To show that tornadoes occur frequently in Canada
Question 47: The word 'subtle' in line 8 is closest in meaning to
A. complex B. regular C. imagined D. slight
Question 48: Why does the author state in line 10 that observations are taken 'just once every twelve hours'?
A. To indicate that the observations are timely
B. To show why the observations are of limited value
C. To compare data from balloons and computers
D. To give an example of international cooperation
Question 49: The word 'they' in line 13 refers to
A. models B. conditions C. regions D. events
Question 50: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an advance in short-range weather forecasting?
A. Weather balloons B. Radar systems
C. Automated instruments D. Satellites
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes
extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a change environment, it may perish. The exact causes of
a species‘ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile
to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be adapt. Food resources may be
affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources.
Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the
death of a species.
The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses
have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time - a mass extinction.
One of the best - known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of
dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225
million years ago, when approximately 95 percent of all species died. Mass extinctions can be caused by a
relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many
species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the
oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would
probably lead to a mass extinction.
One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have
tended to be more intense every 26 million years. The periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the
earth‘s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also
speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may
survive for no particular reason. A species‘ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to
adapt. If so, some of revolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.
Question 55: The underlined word ―ultimately― is closest in meaning to
A. exceptionally B. unfortunately C. eventually D. dramatically
Question 56: What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth‘s history?
A. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
B. They have caused rapid change in the environment .
C. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms
D. They are no longer in existence.
Question 57: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological
change?
A. Availability of food resources B. Introduction of new species
C. Temperature changes D. Competition among species
Question 58: The word ―demise‖ is closest in meaning to
A. help B. death. C. recovery D. change
Question 59: Why is ― plankton‖ mentioned in the second paragraph?
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PRACTICE TEST 9
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. feat B. great C. seat D. beat
Question 2: A. ranged B. bathed C. borrowed D. stayed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3 : A. psychology B. entertainment C. mathematics D. economics
Question 4: A. material B. completely C. economy D. tropical
Question 5: A. champion B. recite C. female D. general
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Mark the letter A , B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: The baby will be ill____________.
A. unless you keep him warm B. if you keep him warm
C. unless you kept him warm D. if you kept him warm
Question 7: ________his parents‘ encouragement, he didn‘t get married until he was 40.
A. Although B. because C. Because of D. Despite
Question 8: ____________he drank, ____________he became.
A. More / more violent B. The most / the most violent
C. The more / the more violent D. The less / less violent
Question 9: The coffee was too hot for me to drink.
A. The coffee is so hot that I can‘t drink it B. The coffee is so hot that I can‘t drink
C. The coffee was so hot that I couldn‘t drink it D. The coffee was so hot that I could drink it
Question 10: He forced his wife __________him the money.
A. to giving B. that she gave C. to give D. give
Question 11: I have ____________, but I don‘t have time.
A. a vocation enough money for B. money enough for a vocation
C. enough money for a vocation D. enough money for vocation
Question 12: I was brought ____________in the countryside by my aunt after my parents had
pass____________
A. on/ over B. for / on C. on / off D. up / away
Question 13: What will the relationship between computing and ____________ bring us over the next 15
years?
A. science B. scientific C. scientifically D. scientist
Question 14: Many people delay having children ____________they are too busy earning a living.
A. in spite of B. although C. because D. because of
Question 15: Is that the man ____________was broken into two days ago.
A. whose house B. the house of whom C. who‘s house D. of whom the house
Question 16: He realizes that he was wasting____________
A. many times B. much times C. many time D. much time
Question 17: My father is not interested in tennis and ____________
A. I don‘t, either B. neither do I C. so am I D. neither am I
Question 18: ____________by the police.
A. The stealing car has just been found B. The stolen car has just been found
C. The stealing car has just found D. The stolen car has just found
Question 19: ―Would you like a piece of cake?‖ - ____________
A. Yes, I would B. Yes, I do like C. Yes, please D. Yes, of course
Question 20: He was ____________in his final attempt. What a pity for him!.
A. successful B. successive C. unsuccessful D. success
Question 21: It is just a small village which has about 100.000____________
A. inhabitations B. inhabitants C. habitats D. inhabits
Question 22: Jill failed in the final examination last term. ____________.
A. Really? B. Sorry to hear that C. What is wrong D. I can‘t believe
Question 23: We started working here three years ago.
A. We have worked here for three years. B. We worked here for three years.
C. We have no longer worked here for tree years. D. We will work here in three years.
Question 24: ―____________?‖ – Yes, I‘d like to.
A. How do you do? B. How about something to drink
C. What about going shopping? D. What do you like doing?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
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Question 25: I‘m tired because I went to bed late last night.
A. stayed up B. kept off C. put out D. brought up
Question 26: Jim is genius at maths.
A. a student majoring B. working regularly
C. exceptionally good D. a specialish
Question 27: Old Behrman, the main character in the short story ―The last leaf‖ by William Sydney Porter,
is a simple, kind-hearted artist who always dreams of painting a masterpiece.
A. a good principal B. an expensive piece of painting
C. a large piece of painting D. an excellent work of art
Question 28: By 1900, many municipalities had begun to restrict the use of automobiles in order to ensure
pedestrian safety.
A. test B. limit C. standardize D. prohibit
Question 29: Suffering from stress, my aunt had a nervous breakdown last week.
A. was disappointed B. was tired and anxious
C. had poor health D. was bad- tempered
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions
Question 30: Although his poor health, Mr. Brown still works hard to support his family.
A B C D
Question 31: It was very kind for you to lend me the money I needed.
A B C D
Question 32: The birthday cake was careful made, and the children ate it so fast that there was
A B
hardly enough to go around , let alone any to take home.
C D
Question 33: The athlete could no longer complete in a games as he was getting too old to be
A B C D
playing vigorous sports.
Question 34: After the automobile accident, the driver wasn‘t scacely able to tell the police
A B C
what had happened.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Some time ago, scientists began experiments to find out (35)______ it would be possible to set up a
―village‖ under the sea. A special room was built and lowered (36)______ the water of Port Sudan in the Red
Sea. For 29 days, five men lived (37)______ a depth of 40 feet. At a (38)______ lower level, another two
divers stayed for a week in a smaller ―house‖. On returning to the surface, the men said that they had
experienced no difficulty in breathing and had (39)______ many interesting scientific observations. The
captain of the party, Commander Cousteau, spoke of the possibility of (40)______ the seabed. He said that
some permanent stations were to be set up under the sea, and some undersea farms would provide food for
the growing population of the world.
The divers in both ―houses‖ spent most of their time (41)______ the bottom of the sea. On four
occasions, they went down to 360 feet and observed many extraordinary (42)______ of the marine life, some
of which had never been seen before. During their stay, Commander Cousteau and his divers reached a depth
of 1,000 feet and witnessed a gathering of an immense (43)______ of crabs which numbered, perhaps,
hundreds of millions. They also found out that it was (44)______ to move rapidly in the water in a special
vessel known as a ―diving saucer‖.
Question 35: A. which B. what C. how D. whether
Question 36: A. underneath B. into C. down D. below
Question 37: A. in B. at C. on D. from
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Question 64:The passage would most likely lead to a more specific discussion in the field of……….
A. zoology B. biology C. anatomy D. astrology
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as teh sentence printed
before it.
Question 65: . ―I‘m sorry that I broke the glass‖ said Peter.
Peter apologized _______________________________________________________
Question 66: Michael took a deep breath and dived into the water.
Having_______________________________________________________
Question 67: . The engineer wrote the letter as soon as he returned from his work.
Hardly_________________________________________________
Question 68: As TV programs become more popular, they seem to get worse.
The more _________________________________________________
Question 69: The man who was injured in the accident was taken to hospital.
The man _________________________________________________
Part II. “ The life of a city woman is easier than that of a village woman nowadays”. In about 140 words,
write a paragraph to express your opinion about this statement.
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The end
PRACTICE TEST 10
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word(s) for each of the blanks.
The reality of an interview is never as bad as your fears. For some (1) _________ people imagine the
interviewer is going to jump on every tiny mistake they (2) _________ . In truth, the interviewer is as keen
for the meeting to go well as you are. It is what (3) _________ his or her job enjoyable.
The secret of a good interview is preparing for it. What you wear is always important as it creates the first
impression. So (4) _________ neatly, but comfortably. Make (5) _________ that you can deal with anything
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you are (6) _________. Prepare for questions that are certain to come up, for example: Why do you want to
become a nurse? What is the most important quality a good nurse should have? Apart from nursing, what
other careers have you considered? What are your interest and hobbies?
Answer the questions fully and precisely. For instance, if one of your interests is reading, be prepared to (7)
_________ about the sort of books you like. (8) _________, do not learn all your answers off (9) _________
heart. The interviewer wants to meet a human being, not a robot. Remember, the interviewer is genuinely
interested in you, so the more you relax and are yourself, the more (10) _________ you are to succeed.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
11. Furniture makers use glue to hold joints together and sometimes to reinforce it.
A B C D
12. Much superstitions and symbols are connected with Halloween.
A B C D
13. Sheep have been domesticated for over 5,000 years ago.
A B C D
14. The earliest form of artificial lighting was fire, which also provided warm and protection.
A B C D
15. Aneroid barometers are smaller than mercury barometers and are more easy to carry.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Lighthouses are towers with strong lights that help mariners plot their position, inform them that land is near,
and warn them of dangerous rocks and reefs. They are placed at prominent points on the coast and on
islands, reefs, and sandbars.
Every lighthouse has a distinctive pattern of light known as its characteristic. There are five basic
characteristics: fixed, flashing, occulting, group flashing, and group occulting. A fixed signal is a steady
beam. A flashing signal has periods of darkness longer than periods of light, while an occulting signal‘s
periods of light are longer. A group-flashing light gives off two or more flashes at regular intervals, and a
group-occulting signal consists of a fixed light with two or more periods of darkness at regular intervals.
Some lighthouses use lights of different colors as well, and today, most lighthouses are also equipped with
radio beacons. The three type of apparatus used to produce the signals are the catoptric, in which metal is
used to reflect the light; the dioptric, in which glass is used; and the catadioptric, in which both glass and
metal are used.
In the daytime, lighthouses can usually be identified by their structure alone. The most typical structure is a
tower tapering at the top, but some, such as the Bastion Lighthouse on the Saint Lawrence River, are shaped
like pyramids, and others, such as the Race Rock Light, look like wooden houses sitting on high platforms.
Still others, such as the American Shoal Lighthouse off the Florida Coast, are skeletal towers of steel. Where
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Choose the word or phrase which best replaces the underlined word.
51. I am looking for a dependable person who can stand out for me at the meeting.
A. dependent B. talented C. energetic D. reliable
52. My little boy Tom never screams though he is scared.
A. in pain B. frightened C. embarrassed D.confused
53. You can do whatever you like, as far as I am concerned.
A. mind out B. actually C. indeed D. in my opinion
54. Sometimes when I hear the news, I feel very miserable.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or have
neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers,
now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct.
What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost
entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in
personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction.
Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world‘s
ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival – and the
survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an
effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animals reserves. They then charge
admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world
organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals.
Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from
endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from being hunted and
killed.
56. A. Concerned scientists B. Enterprising researchers
C. Illegal hunters D. Trained hunters
57. The word “callousness” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. incompetence B. indirectness C. insensitivity D. independence
58. The previous passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast:
A. A comparison and a contrast B. A problem and a solution
C. A statement and an illustration D. Specific and general information
59. What does the word “this” refer to in the passage?
A. Bengal tiger B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
60. Where in the passage does the author discuss a cause of extinction?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. all of them
61. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated”?
A. set aside B. combined C. taken D. organized
62. The word “defray” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. make a payment on B. raise
C. lower D. make an investment toward
63. What does the term “international boycott” refer to?
A. A global increase in animal survival
B. A refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. Defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
D. Buying and selling of animal products overseas
64 Which of the following best describes the author‘s attitude?
A. indifferent B. forgiving C. concerned D. surprised
WRITING
Part 1. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before
it.
65. They don‘t let anyone enter the area.
Nobody………………………………………………………….
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PRACTICE TEST 11
I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (64 câu; 8.0 điểm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the rest in each of the following questions.
1. A. hour B. how C. exhaust D. heir
2. A. closed B. marked C. believed D. followed
3. A. Thursday B. heath C. thought D. smooth
Pick out the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words.
4. A. idiomatic B. responsibility C. mathematics D. characteristic
5. A. understand B. museum C. dependent D. encounter
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
6. I could tell from the frightened look on her face that something terrible ________ .
A. has happened B. happening C. had happened D. would be happening
7. He rarely goes fishing, _______?
A. doesn‘t he B. is he C. does he D. isn‘t he
8. There is somebody behind us. I think we _______ .
A. are following B. have been following
C. had been being followed D. are being followed
9. Have you ever considered _______ to study in a foreign country?
A. going B. to go C. to be going D. having gone
10. Now I do apologize for what I said about you. I know I shouldn‘t _______ that.
A. have said B. said C. say D. saying
11. He spoke quietly to her _______ nobody else could hear a word.
A. because B. in order C. although D. so that
12. Some schools have very ______ about rules of behavior which must be obeyed.
A. strict B. solid C. straight D. strong
13. They stayed and chatted for hours, _______ annoyed me a lot.
A. which B. that C. what D. it
14. Poverty is a problem in some cities _______ whole families can only afford to live in a room.
A. when B. where C. even D. if
15. I wish you ______ stop interrupting me whenever I speak.
A. will B. did C. would D. might
16. You must hurry, _______ you will miss the last bus.
A. otherwise B. and C. nevertheless D. but
17. He likes to take ______ in sport, not only to watch it.
A. practice B. part C. exercise D. place
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
31. The cost of living has gone up considerably the last few years.
A B C D
32. I think your garden needs to weed and you had better do it right now.
A B C D
33. I‘m going out now. If anyone phones while I shall be out, can you take a message?
A B C D
34. In some countries, octopuses and snails are considered being delicacies to eat.
A B C D
35. Men and women in that organization work with people in developing countries to help them
A B C
improving their living conditions.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
blanks.
With the (36)____of the motor car at the end of the last century, a new era in personal transport was
born. The early motorist had his problems _ the biggest one being_ (37)___ his vehicle would start or not.
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This problem has completely disappeared today, but others have taken its (38)__. More traffic and faster
vehicles mean that (39)_____ a car may be, its driver has to have much greater driving skill than before.
Today drivers can‘t neglect their own personal (40)____ for the accidents that happen on the road every
year. A good driver has many things in his qualities. Some of them, such as experience and skill, will come
only (41)__, but attitude _just as important _ must be part of him from the beginning. These qualities are a
sense of responsibility for the safety of others, a determination to (42)__ the job of driving, patience and
courtesy. Together, these become (43)____ is generally known as the drivers attitude.
(44)_____, every driver must make a real effort to develop these qualities and this effort must start from the
very beginning of the first driving (45)___ .
36. A. coming B. going C. arriving D. getting
37. A. when B. how C. whether D. why
38. A. place B. part C. turn D. back
39. A. however safe and reliable B. however safely and reliably
C. how safe and reliable D. how safely and reliably
40. A. right B. responsibility C. fault D. concept
41. A. on time B. from time to time C. in one time D. in time
42. A. choose B. focus on C. take D. pursue
43. A. that B. it C. what D. there
44. A. Moreover B. Yet C. Therefore D. So far
45. A. lesson B. test C. licence D. practice
Choose the item A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the UNDERLINED word(s)
in each of the following questions
46. I have to take up my dress. I step on it all the time,
A. make it longer B. embellish C. shorten D. try on
47. The film is not worth seeing. The plot is too dull.
A. slow B. simple C. complicated D. boring
48. Maria will take charge of the advertising for the play.
A. spend time B. be responsible for C. account for D.spend money
49. Many areas in Africa are desperately short of food.
A. unfortunately B. widely C. temporarily D. badly
50. We now can find a wide range of ready-cooked food in supermarkets.
A. variety B. classification C. small number D. popularity
Choose the item among A, B, C or D that best answers the questions about the passage.
Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent technological
advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor. This
has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to preserve them.
Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable objects
on a sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic, which sank
outside the Boston harbor in 1900. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that projects sound
waves across the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck in just two and a
half days. Before the use of this new technology, such searches could take months or years. The team of 45
divers searched the wreck for two months, finding silver tea services, crystal dinnerware, and thousands of
bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a half tons of American Gold Eagle coins they were
searching for.
Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck‘s treasure
does not have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are preserved in
nearly mint condition. But once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archaeological value is lost.
Maritime archaeologists who are preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract more
treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservationists are lobbying
their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and unregulated salvages. To counter their
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efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and million-dollar treasures, the wrecks and their
historical artifacts would never be recovered at all
51. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar.
B. Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks.
C. The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins.
D. The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers.
52. The word ―sunken‖ is closest in meaning to which of the following words?
A. broken B. underwater C. ancient D. hollow
53. Which of the following could best replace the phrase ―a profile‖ in the second paragraph?
A. a projection B. an execution C. a highlight D. an outline
54. Which of the following statements is best supported by the author?
A. The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts.
B. Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonar.
C. Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging.
D. The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks.
55. The author uses the phrase ―mint condition‖ in the third paragraph to describe _______ .
A. something perfect B. something significant
C. something tolerant D. something magical
56. All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEPT
A. wine bottles B. silver tea services
C. American Gold Eagle coins D. crystal dinnerware
57. From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to
A. shun treasure-seeking salvagers
B. be a diver
C. put treasures in a museum
D. do archaeological research
58. The word ―scoured‖ is most similar to which of the following?
A. scraped away B. scratched over C. scrambled around D. searched through
59. What is the closest meaning to the word ―lure‖ in the third paragraph?
A. knowledge B. attraction C. luxury D. glare
60. The second and third paragraphs are an example of
A. chronological order B. explanation C. specific to general D. definition
Choose the item among A, B, C or D that best answers the questions about the passage.
History books recorded that the first film with sound was The Jazz Singer in 1927. But sound films, or
talkies, did not suddenly appear after years of silent screenings. From the earliest public performances in
1896, films were accompanied by music and sound effects. These were produced by a single pianist, a small
band, or a full-scale orchestra; large movie theatres could buy sound-effect machines. Research into sound
that was reproduced at exactly at the same time as the pictures - called 'synchronized sound' – began soon
after the very first films were shown. With synchronized sound, characters on the movie screen could sing
and speak. As early as 1896, the newly invented gramophone (m y h t), which played a large disc carrying
music and dialogue, was used as a sound system. The biggest disadvantage was that the sound and pictures
could become unsynchronized if, for example, the gramophone needle jumped or if the speed of the projector
changed. This system was only effective for a single song or dialogue sequence.
In the 'sound-on-film' system, sound was recorded as a series of marks on celluloid which could be read by
an optical sensor. These signals would be placed on the film alongside the image, guaranteeing
synchronization (s ng b ho ). Short feature films were produced in this way as early as 1922. This
system eventually brought us 'talking pictures'.
61. The passage is mainly about the
A. history of silent movies B. disadvantages of synchronized sound
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PRACTICE TEST 12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. organise B. promise C. paradise D. realise
Question 2: A. controlled B. returned C. formed D. convinced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. open B. happen C. offer D. begin
Question 4: A. difficulty B. . simplicity C. discovery D. commodity
Question 5: A. international B. geographical C. obligatory D. undergraduate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: The students __________ by Mrs. Monty. However, this week they _______ by Mr. Tanzer.
A. have usually been taught / have been teaching B. usually teach / are teaching
C. are usually taught / are being taught D. were usually teaching / are teaching
Question 7: Doctors are supposed to ………………. responsibility for humman life.
A. take B. do C. rush D. join
Question 8: Tim looks so frightened and upset. He ………………… something terrible.
A. . must experience B. can have experienced
C. should have experienced D. must have experienced
Question 9: Last night‘s concert did not………………our expectations
A. catch up with B. come up to C. stand in for D. look up to
Question 10: Are you sure you can do it on……………?
A. youself B. secret C. your own D. date
Question 11: Lenses, ____________,are used to correct imperfections in eyesight.
A. in the form of glasses and contact lenses B. are the forms of glasses and contact lenses
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C. glasses and contact lenses which form D. glasses and contact lenses may be formed
Question 12: …………….. was caused by breathing impure air over was once a common belief.
A. Why malaria B. That malaria C. The reason malaria D. Malaria
Question 13: Not until a monkey is several years old ………… to exhibit signs of independence
from its mother.
A. is it begin B. and begin C. does it begin D. it begins
Question 14: . ............I might, I couldn‘t open the door.
A. Try as B. However hard C. As try D. No matter
Question 15: Tim: ― .....................‖ – Jeycy: ―Certainly‖
A. Welcome back! B. What are you doing there?
C. I‘m sorry I am late D. May I borrow a pencil , please?
Question 16: Olivia booked a babysitter………………..she could go out for the evening.
A. but B. so C. so that D. or
Question 17: What are the …………………between women in old times and women in modern times ?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: When being interviewed , you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking
you..
A. be related to B. be interested in C . express interest in D. pay all attention to
Question 26: He drives me to the edge bacause he never stops talking .
A. steers me B. irritates me C. moves me D. frightens me
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Certain cources are compulsory ; others are optional .
A. voluntary B. free C. pressure D. mandatory
Question 28: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest.
A. full B. rich C. poor C. hungry
Question 29: : I‘d like to pay some money into my bank account.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
In the American colonies there was little money. England did not supply the colonies with coins and
did not allow the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony, which
received permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins. England wanted to keep
money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was forced to trade only with
England if it did not have the money to buy products from other countries. The result during this pre-
revolutionary period was that the colonists used various goods in place of money: beaver pelts, Indian
wampum, and tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes for money. The colonists also made use
of any foreign coins they could obtain. Dutch, Spanish, French, and English coins were all in use in the
American colonies.
During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance the world, so each of the individual
states and the Continental Congress issued paper money. So much of this paper money was printed that by
the end of the war, almost no one would accept it. As a result, trade in goods and the use of foreign coins
still flourished during this period.
By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the monetary system
was in a state of total disarray. To remedy this situation, the new Constitution of the United States,
approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states could no longer have their
own money supply. A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made the dollar the official currency of the
United States and put the country on a bimetallic standard. In this bimetallic system, both gold and silver
were legal money, and the rate of exchange of silver to gold was fixed by the government at sixteen
to one.
Question 45: The passage mainly discusses
A. the effect of the Revolution on American money.
B. American money from past to present.
C. the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries.
D. the English monetary policies in colonial America.
Question 46 : The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was
A. used extensively for trade. B. scarce.
C. supplied by England. D. coined by colonists.
Question 47 : The Massachusetts Bay Colony was allowed to make coins
A. for a short time during one year.
B. throughout the seventeenth century.
C. continuously from the inception of the colonies.
D. from 1652 until the Revolutionary War.
Question 48 : The expression ―a means of‖ in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by.
A. a result of B. a method of C. a punishment for D. an example of
Question 49 : Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money during
the colonial period?
A. Wampum B. Cotton C. Beaver furs D. Tobacco
Question 50: The pronoun ―it‖ in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following
A. The Continental Congress B. Trade in goods C. The War D.Paper money
Question 51 : It is implied in the passage that at the end of the Revolutionary War, a paper dollar was worth
A. exactly one dollar B. just over one dollar
C. just under one dollar D. almost nothing
Question 52 : The word ―remedy‖ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. resolve B. medicate C. renew D.
understand
Question 53 : How was the monetary system arranged in the Constitution?
A. The US officially went on a bimetallic monetary system.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
Glass is a remarkable substance made from the simplest raw materials. It can be colored or colorless,
monochrome or polychrome, transparent, translucent, or opaque. It is lightweight impermeable to liquids,
readily cleaned and reused, durable yet fragile, and often very beautiful Glass can be decorated in multiple
ways and its optical properties are exceptional. In all its myriad forms – as table ware, containers, in
architecture and design –glass represents a major achievement in the history of technological developments.
Since the Bronze Age about 3,000 B.C., glass has been used for making various kinds of objects. It
was first made from a mixture of silica, line and an alkali such as soda or potash, and these remained the
basic ingredients of glass until the development of lead glass in the seventeenth century. When heated, the
mixture becomes soft and malleable and can be formed by various techniques into a vast array of shapes and
sizes. The homogeneous mass thus formed by melting then cools to create glass, but in contrast to most
materials formed in this way (metals, for instance), glass lacks the crystalline structure normally associated
with solids, and instead retains the random molecular structure of a liquid. In effect, as molten glass cools, it
progressively stiffens until rigid, but does so without setting up a network of interlocking
crystals customarily associated with that process. This is why glass shatters so easily when dealt a blow.
Why glass deteriorates over time, especially when exposed to moisture, and why glassware must be slowly
reheated and uniformly cooled after manufacture to release internal stresses induced by uneven cooling.
Another unusual feature of glass is the manner in which its viscosity changes as it turns from a cold
substance into a hot, ductile liquid. Unlike metals that flow or ―freeze‖ at specific temperatures glass
progressively softens as the temperature rises, going through varying stages of malleability until it flows like
a thick syrup. Each stage of malleability allows the glass to be manipulated into various forms, by different
techniques, and if suddenly cooled the object retains the shape achieved at that point. Glass is thus amenable
to a greater number of heat-forming techniques than most other materials.
Question 55: Why does the author list the characteristics of glass in paragraph 1?
A. To demonstrate how glass evolved
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PRACTICE TEST 13
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. process B. competitor C. elicit D. federation
Question 2: A. absorbed B. attached C. obliged D. gathered
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. curable B. dangerous C. confident D. amazing
Question 4: A. argue B. allow C. accept D. attract
Question 5: A. religion B. exercise C. importance D. explorer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: He was the first person _______ the world championship in swimming.
A.win B. to have won C. winning D. to win
Question 7: There were many big trees, between me and the river and now they all fell
down _______ into the water.
A. each other B. one after another C. one another D. a lot
Question 8: Years ago women were treated almost _______ servants or even slaves.
A.with B. like C. as D. for
Question 9: "My friend was going to call me as soon as he arrived this morning, but he
didn't call." "He _______ the train."
A. had to miss B. should have missed C. would have missed D. must have missed
Question 10: My brother is much taller than I _______.
A. do B. did C. am D. was
Question 11: The incidence of anorexia nervosa, _______, is growing in industrially
advanced societies.
A. is an eating disorder B. an eating disorder which
C. an eating disorder D. for which an eating disorder
Question 12: _______, a brick fell on his head.
A. Turning the corner B. Having turned the corner
C. When he turned the corner D. Being turned the corner
Question 13: She went to a seaside resort because she was _______ on water-skiing.
A. keen B. enthusiastic C. interested D. like
Question 14: Not only _____ a strong swimmer but also, as its name suggests, it can walk for miles with
little rest.
A. the booby blue footed is B. the blue footed booby is
C. is the blue footed booby D. footed is the booby blue
Question 15: The _______ of the motor car on TV last night attracted many viewers.
A. approach B. inauguration C. initiation D. advert
Question 16: ______ efforts to cambat it, drug abuse is on the increase in many countries in the world.
A. Instead of B. Despite C. In the event of D. Throughout
Question 17: ______ stay the night if it‘s too difficult to get home.
A. At all cost B. By all means C. In all D. On the whole
Question 18: - John: “Do you want any help?”
- Peter: ―____________________________‖
A.Yes, that‘s right. B. Yes, you are C. No, thanks. It‘s all right D. I‘m afraid I can‘t
Question 19: ______ that she burst into tears.
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A. Such was angry girl B. So angry she was C. She was angry so D. Her anger was such
Question 20: They decided to ______ their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
A. take up B. turn round C. do with D. postpone
Question 21: The electorate will not easily forgive the government for failing to fulfill its ______.
A. promises B. vows C. aspirations D. offers
Question 22: Either Pike or his sister ______ the keys to the car.
A. has taken B. have taken C. has took D. have took
Question 23: Einstein gradually became ______ in the discussion.
A. absorb B. absorbed C. to absorb D. absorbing
Question 24: My friend‘s main ______ for going abroad was his poor health.
A. need B. reason C. cause D. desire
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Two little boys approached me and said, ―Give me some money‖.
A. came down to B. came up to C. came around to D. came on to
Question 26 : Peace in the area was elusive as the wind.
A. easy B. slow in coming C. difficult to catch D. near
Question 27: I have designed the kitchen so that my son can‘t reach everything.
A. repaired B. prepared C. planned D. altered
Question 28: In the end we had so little time together that our marriage was breaking up.
A. forgotten B. shorten C. coming to an end D. boring
Question 29: She has a full schedule.
A. working day B. programme of work C. busy day D. project
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions
Question 30: In a restaurant, if we want to call the waiter, we can raise our hand and waves it slightly
A B
to signal that we need assistance.
C D
Question 31: An apologize indicates that we realize we‘ve made a mistake and we feel sorry for it.
A B C D
Question 32: They are a lively and interestingly group of musicians.
A B C D
Question 33: In an essay writing in 1779, Judith Sergent Murray promoted the cause of women‘s
A B C D
education.
Question 34: It has been clearly shown that there is no difference at all between the brain of the average
A B C
woman and this of the average man.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Here's some advice for trying to find the university that works for you.
1. You need to examine (35) _____ and your reasons for going to university before you start your search.
Why are you going? What are your abilities and strengths? What are your weaknesses? What do you want
out of life? Are you socially self-sufficient (36) _____ do you need warm, familial (37) _____? Talk with
your family, friends and high-school counselors as you ask these questions. The people (38) _____ know you
best can help you the most with these important issues.
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2. Very few high-school students have enough information or (39) _____ to choose a major. You need to be
well (40) _____ to determine your interest and aptitude. Many students (41) _____ their minds two or three
times before they settle on a major.
3. If you do not have to go to university right (42) _____ it is never too late. There is no such thing as
the perfect time to start university. Some students benefit from a year off to work, study or travel, and these
experiences (43) _____ them to be better, more engaged students. Some students choose to apply to
university and gain admission and then defer their entrance, while others wait to apply until after they have
had (44) _____ alternative experience.
Question 35. A. you B. your C. yours D. yourself
Question 36. A. or B. but C. nor D. either
Question 37. A. support B. bringing C. feeding D. growth
Question 38. A. which B. whom C. who D. whose
Question 39. A. expenditure B. experience C. experiment D. expert
Question 40. A. prepare B. prepared C. preparation D. preparative
Question 41. A. transform B. translate C. change D. convert
Question 42. A. for B. up C. over D. away
Question 43. A. allow B. make C. let D. advise
Question 44. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster.
According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious
parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic
parental expectations can cause great damage to children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are
ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very
supportive of their child.
Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him
to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice
a week for violin lessons. Michael‘s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in
a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael‘s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians,
and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they
enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always
afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.
Question 45: . One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to ______.
A. push their child into trying too much B. make their child become a musician
C. neglect their child‘s education D. help their child to become a genius
Question 46. Parents‘ ambition for their children is not wrong if they ______.
A. force their children into achieving success
B. themselves have been very successful
C. arrange private lessons for their children
D. understand and help their children sensibly
Question 47. Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Educational psychologists. B. Unrealistic parents.
C. Their children. D. Successful musicians.
Question 48. Michael Collins is fortunate in that ______.
A. his parents are quite rich B. his parents help in a sensible way
C. his mother knows little about music D. his father is a musician
Question 49. The phrase ―crazy about‖in the passage mostly means _______.
A. ―surprised at‖ B. ―completely unaware of‖
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
Increasing numbers of parents in the U.S. are choosing to teach their children at home. In fact, the U.S.
Department of Education has estimated that in 1999, about 850,000 children were
being homeschooled. Some educational experts say that the real number is double this estimate, and the
ranks of homeschooled children seem to be growing at the average rate of about eleven percent every year.
At one time, there was a theory accounting for homeschooling: it was traditionally used for students who
could not attend school because of behavioral or learning difficulties. Today, however, more parents are
taking on the responsibility of educating their own children at home due to their dissatisfaction with the
educational system. Many parents are unhappy about class size, as well as problems inside the classroom.
Teacher shortages and lack of funding mean that, in many schools, one teacher is responsible for thirty or
forty students. The children are, therefore, deprived of the attention they need. Escalating classroom violence
has also motivated some parents to remove their children from school.
Although there have been a lot of arguments for and against it, homeschooling in the U.S. has become a
multi-million dollar industry, and it is growing bigger and bigger. There are now plenty of websites, support
groups, and conventions that help parents protect their rights and enable them to learn more about educating
their children. Though once it was the only choice for troubled children, homeschooling today is an accepted
alternative to an educational system that many believe is failing.
Question 55. The past participle ―homeschooled‖ in the first paragraph is best equivalent to ―_____at
home‖.
A. taught B. self-learned C. untaught D. self-studied
Question 56. This estimated number was presented by _____.
A. a governmental office B. school teachers C. the parents D. homeschooled children
Question 57. According to some experts, the exact number of homeschooled children in the US in the last
year of the 20th century must be _____.
A. 1,600,000 B. 850,000 C. 1,900,000 D. 1,700,000
Question 58. Parents can teach children at home with the support of __________.
A. The internet, conventions along with support groups
B. support groups, teachers and websites
C. documents, websites and support groups
D. books, support groups and the Internet
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Question 59. More parents teach their children because they completely _____ the current educational
system.
A. please with B. object to C. appeal to D. approve of
Question 60. The word ―arguments‖ at the beginning of the third paragraph can be best replaced by
―_____‖.
A. rows B. quarrels C. viewpoints D. discussions
Question 61. The attitude of the author towards homeschooling can be best described as _____.
A. acceptable B. favorable C. remarkable D. unfavorable
Question 62. The number of parents who want to teach their own children in the U.S. is _____.
A. remaining unchanged B. remaining the same C. going up D. going down
Question 63. Many parents stop their children from going to school because it is now too _____ for them.
A. explosive B. expensive C. dangerous D. humorous
Question 64. Which is the best tittle for the passage?
A. Reasons for Homeschooling in theUSA.
B. The Trend of homeschooling in theUSA.
C. Homeschooling- one of the ways of education in theUSA.
D. Education system in theUSA.
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as teh sentence printed
before it.
Question 65: It is ages since Alan visited his parents.
Alan __________________________________________________________
Question 66: Peter usually drives faster than Mary.
Mary __________________________________________________________
Question 67: The workers expected to be paid because they had finished their work.
Having ________________________________________________________
Question 68: Tom‘s father no longer smokes cigarettes.
No longer ______________________________________________________
Question 69: ―I must have made a mistake in the calculations", Mr Forest said
Mr Forest admitted _____________________________________________
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about advantages and disadvantages of television.
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PRACTICE TEST 14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. justice B. culture C. rule D. product
Question 2. A. total B. potential C. absorbent D. intense
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stre ss in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A appearance B. determine C. maintenance D. romantic
Question 4. A. financial B. respectful C. percentage D. marital
Question 5. A. prevention B. agreement C. satisfy D. experience
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6. It is ______ that so many young people leave school without qualifications.
A. to be regretted B. to be regrettable C. to be regretful D. to regret
Question 7: Sumerians were the first to invent cuneiform, ______.
A. was s system of writing B. for a system of witting
C. a system of writing D. which a system of writing
Question 8: After the seventh month of pregnancy, ______ a good chance of survival.
A. there is a premature baby B. a premature baby has
C. does a premature baby have D. it has premature baby
Question 9: Migratory patterns in births ______ term of seasonal changes.
A. in usually be explained B. can be explained usually in
C. can usually be explained in D. can be explained in usually
Question 10: He __________ from Da Nang university before he got married
A. had graduated B. graduated C. has graduated D. graduates
Question 11: Mary lost one of her running shoes, but won the race despite this ______
A. disaster B. feat C. awkwardness D. handicap
Question 12: Veronica broke the school rules so many times that the headmistress finally had no alternative
but to ______ her.
A. eject B. expel C. export D. deport
Question 13: ______ your precious help, I wouldn‘t have certainly overcome most of the practical
difficulties
A. If not B. Provided C. Unless D. Without
Question 14: I've applied for several jobs. I don't want to ______.
A. be a good egg B. have an egg on my face
C. kill the goose that lay the golden eggs D. put all my eggs in one basket
Question 15: Everyone is surprised to know that the Korean Vice-prime Minister resigned and he _____ all
responsibility for what had happened in the Sewol ferry.
A. captured B. bore C. maintained D. solved
Question 16: Mai: May I borrow your pen for a minute? -Lan: ―________________.‖
A. Yes, certainly B. Yes, thank you C. No, thanks D. No, of course
Question 17:We must adopt firm policy on punctuality. We can‘t have people ______ late all the time.
A. arriving B. arrive C. to arrive D. to have arrived
Question 18: Fortunately, several of his colleagues had ______ in his downfall.
A. every hand B. their hands C. a hand D. both hands
Question 19: ______ the French army was defeated at the battle of Dien Bien Phu came a complete surprise
to all over the world.
A. Why B. Which C. What D. That
Question 20. ______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Not until had
Question 21. He ______ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.
A. must have gone B. couldn‘t go C. didn‘t have to go D. should have
gone
Question 22. John paid $2 for his meal, ______ he had thought it would cost.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 25: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.
A. hopeless B. hopeful C. successful D. unsuccessful
Question 26: Carpets from countries such as Persia and Afghanistan often fetch high prices in the United
States.
A. Artifacts B. Pottery C. Rugs D. Textiles
Question 27: Though many scientific breakthroughs have resulted from mishaps it has taken brilliant
thinkers to recognize their potential.
A. accidents B. misunderstandings C. incidentals D. misfortunes
Question 28: He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night.
A. easy- looking B. important C. well- known D. impressive.
Question 29: They are going to suffer a lot of criticism for increasing bus fare by so much.
A. get into B. stand in with C. come in for. D. put across
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 30: Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial cities
today. A B C D
Question 31: It took me a very long time to recover off the shock of her death
A B C D
Question 32 : Because of the high costs of living, life is difficult for an unemployed these days.
A B C D
Question 33: There is a species of bird that are threatened with extinction.
A B C D
Question 34. Because of the long questions, Tom could not hardly finish the test on time.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks.
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an employee?
The schools teach a (35)______ many things of value to the future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they
also teach anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most
valuable for the future employee to know. But very few students bother (36)______ it. This basic is the skill
ability to organize and express ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee
will depend on your ability to communicate with people and to (37)______ your own thoughts and ideas to
them so they will (38)______ understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (39)______ itself. You must have something to say in the first
place. The effectiveness of your job depends (40)______ your ability to make other people understand your
work as they do on the quality of the work itself.
Expressing one's thoughts is one skill that the school can (41)______ teach. The foundations for skill in
expression have to be (42)______ early: an interest in and an ear (43)______ language; experience in
organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the habit of verbal expression. If you
do not lay these foundations (44)______ your school years, you may never have an opportunity again.
Question 35: A. lots B. large C. far D. great
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
"The economic history of the United States", one scholar has written, "is the history of the rise and
development of the capitalistic system". The colonists of the eighteenth century pushed forward what those
of the seventeenth century have begun: the expansion and elaboration of an economy born in the great age of
capitalist expansion.
Our excellent natural resources paved the way for the development of abundant capital to increase our
growth. Capital includes the tools - such as: machines, vehicles, and buildings - that makes the outputs of
labor and resources more valuable. But it also includes the funds necessary to buy those tools. If a society
had to consume everything it produced just to stay alive, nothing could be put aside to increase future
productions. But if a farmer can grow more corn than his family needs to eat, he can use the surplus as seed
to increase the next crop, or to feed workers who build tractors. This process of capital accumulation was
aided in the American economy by our cultural heritage. Saving played an important role in the European
tradition. It contributed to American‘s motivation to put something aside today for the tools to buy tomorrow.
The great bulk of the accumulated wealth of America, as distinguished from what was consumed, was
derived either directly or indirectly from trade. Though some manufacturing existed, its role in the
accumulation of capital was negligible. A merchant class of opulent proportions was already visible in the
seaboard cities, its wealth as the obvious consequence of shrewd and resourceful management of the carrying
trade. Even the rich planters of tidewater Virginia and the rice coast of South Carolina finally depended for
their genteel way of life upon the ships and merchants who sold their tobacco and rice in the markets of
Europe. As colonial production rose and trade expanded, a business community emerged in the colonies,
linking the provinces by lines of trade and identity of interest.
Question45: The word ‗it‘ in the third sentence of paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. resource B. capital C. labour D. growth
Question46: According to the passage, capital includes all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. factories B. tractors C. money D. workers
Question 47: According to the passage, the emergence of a business community in the colonies was a result
of ______.
A. efficient saving B. the immigration
C. the existence of manufacturing D. the success of production and trade
Question48: The word ‗negligible‘ in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. able to be neglected B. very important
C. necessary to be neglected D. not very important
Question49: The phrase ‗put aside‘ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. hidden B. reviewed C. saved D. consumed
Question50: With what subject is this passage mainly concerned?
A. Geography B. Economics C. Finance D. Culture
Question51: The phrase ‗paved the way‘ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. accumulated B. supported C. resembled D. paid for
Question52: It can be inferred from the passage that the European ancestors of early Americans ____.
A. were accustomed to saving B. were good farmers
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64
Water scarcity is fast becoming one of the major limiting factors in world crop production. In many areas,
poor agricultural practices have led to increasing desertification and the loss of formerly arable lands.
Consequently, those plant species that are well adapted to survival in dry climates are being looked at for an
answer in developing more efficient crops to grow on marginally arable lands.(có thể trồng trọt)
Plants use several mechanisms to ensure their survival in desert environments. Some involve purely
mechanical and physical adaptations, such as the shape of the plant's surface, smaller leaf size, and extensive
(mở rộng) root systems. Some of the adaptations are related to chemical mechanisms. Many plants, such as
cacti, have internal gums and mucilage (dịch nhầy) which give them water-retaining properties. Another
chemical mechanism is that of the epicuticular wax layer (lớp mô, sừng ngoài). This wax layer acts as an
impervious (trơ, không thấm) cover to protect the plant. It prevents excessive loss of internal moisture. It also
protects the plant from external aggression, which can come from inorganic agents such as gases, or organic
agents which include bacteria and plant pests.
Researchers have proposed that synthetic waxes (sáp tổng hợp) with similar protective abilities could be
prepared based on knowledge of desert plants. If successfully developed, such a compound could be used to
greatly increase a plant's ability to maintain health in such adverse situations as inadequate water supply,
limited fertilizer availability, attack by pests, and poor storage after harvesting.
Question 55: This passage deals mainly with ________
A. desertification B. decreasing water supply
C. factors limiting crop production D. developing efficient plants
Question 56: The word ―arable‖ in the 1st paragraph is closest in meaning to ________
A. fertile B. parched C. barren D. marsh
Question 57: Which of the following is a mechanical or physical mechanism that desert plants use?
A. The plant‘s shape B. The small root system C. The vast leaf size D. The high water system
Question 58: The word ―extensive‖ in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to _________
A. spongy B. shallow C. widespread D. comprehensive
Question 59: Which is one of the ways in which the epicuticular wax protects the plant?
A. It helps the plant to avoid excessive moisture intake B. It helps the plant to attack aggressors.
C. It releases gases against plant pests. D. It guards against bacteria.
Question 60: The word ―It‖ in the 2nd paragraph refers to________
A. another chemical mechanism B. the epicuticular wax layer
C. an impervious plant like cover D. the loss of internal moisture
Question 61: The word ―aggression‖ in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to_________
A. attack B. agitation C. conditions D. surroundings
Question 62: What is an example of an inorganic agent that may attack plants?
A. Bacteria B. Insects C. Gas D. Pests
Question 63: It can be inferred that synthetic stimulate waxes________
A. have not been developed yet B. have not succeeded
C. have been determined to be impervious to organic and inorganic agents
D. have the quality of causing bacteria
Question 64: All of the following are examples of an adverse situation for crops EXCEPT________
A. inadequate water B. insufficient fertilize C. pest aggression D. proper storage
WRITING.
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Part I. Rewrite the sentences sothat they have similar meaning to the original.
65. What did you write yesterday, Ann?" asked Peter.
=> Peter asked..........................................................................................................................
66. She has worked for a company in Ha Noi for 10 years.
=>. She began..............................................................................................................................
67. I‘ve nevr read a story that makes me feel attracted like this one
It‘s ..........................................................................................................................................
68. In spite of having a lot of progress in our study, we still need to try harder
Although .............................................................................................................................
69. I tried as hard as I could , but I just couldnt get the money.
No matter ................ .............................................................................................................................
Part II. Write a paragraph to give your opinion about: “ Students should wear uniform when they are
at school” . You should write about 120 -140 words .
You may write about ;
- Why wear uniform
- The benefits of wearing uniform
- Your feelings when you wear it
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PRACTICE TEST 15
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Câu 1: A. filled B. missed C. ploughed D. watched
Câu 2: A. resume B. statistics C. position D. designer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 3: A. pollution B. quantity C. intensity D. reclaiming
Câu 4: A. economic B. manufacture C. investigate D. sociology
Câu 5 A. apply B. persuade C. reduce D. offer
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Câu 6. It has been ____ that the annual medical cost for many illnesses connected to smoking is between 20
to 35
million pounds. A. expected B. estimated C. believed D.
anticipated
Câu 7. Pay attention ____ all traffic signs when you are traveling in the street.
A. from B. on C. to D. for
Câu 8. Sally has a big advantage ____ most girls when it comes to games as she ‗s so tall.
A. on B. over C. to D. above
Câu 9. The children are fond of watching ____ TV.
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A. a B. an C. the D.
Câu 10. Have you met ____ boy that Susan is going to marry?
A. a B. the C. which D.
Câu 11. ____ this dictionary I have no Japanese books.
A. Beside B. In addition C. Except D. Apart from
Câu 12. The government ____ the flood victims with food, clothes and money.
A. gave B. provided C. offered D. presented
Câu 13. More and more people ____ of food poisoning nowadays.
A. exist B. survive C. die D. starve
Câu 14. The first sign of vitamin A disorder is night ____.
A. loss of sight B. lack of vision C. invisibility D. blindness
Câu 15. When you take ice out of the freezer, it ____.
A. melts B. dissolves C. softens D. disappears
Câu 16. There are many ____ of pollution in our modern world.
A. resources B. sources C. bases D. foundation
Câu 17. Many people ____ that natural resources will never be use up.
A. view B. regard C. consider D. believe
Câu 18. Using the computer competently is an important ____ to help one get a good job.
A. reason B. aspect C. factor D. issue
Câu 19. George wants £1000 for his car, but I don‘t think it‘s ____ as much as that.
A. worth B. cost C. valued D. priced
Câu 20.‖Did jenny say anything about her sister?‖-No, she didn‘t ____ her at all.
A. remind B. remark C. refer D. mention
Câu 21. Before he went to Japan, he asked his bank to ____ some money to Tokyo for him.
A. transport B. transform C. transfer D. transplant
Câu 22. Paul‘s retired now. He‗s the ____ manager of our bank.
A. former B. formal C. old D. prior
Câu 23. Barbara‘s wedding was a big ____ there were more than two hundred guests.
A. occasion B. opportunity C. occurrence D. moment
Câu 24. I don‘t like john. His _______complaints , day after day make me angry.
A. continuous B. continual C. regular D. invariable
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t o indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the fo llowing questions.
Câu 25: The 1923 earthquake in Japan killed about 200,000 people and left countless wounded and
homeless.
a. poor b. imprisoned c. suffered d. injured
Câu 26: The Industrial Revolution marked the beginning of an epoch of exodus from rural areas to cities.
A. episode B. period C. migration D. story
Câu 27: We had to list the chronology of events in World War II on our test.
A. catastrophe B. time sequence C. disaster D. discrepancy
Câu 28: may find that jogging is detrimental to your health rather than beneficial.
A. helpful B. facile C. depressing D. harmful
Câu 29. The hostess was affronted by Bill‘s failure to thank her for dinner.
A. affable B. insulted C. afflicted D. confronted
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions .
Câu 30: The children were playing last night outdoors when it began to rain very hard.
A B C D
Câu 31: She asked why did Mathew look so embarrassed when he saw Carole.
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A B C D
Câu 32: I‘d prefer to do it on myself, because other people make me nervous.
A B C D
Câu 33: Could you mind telling me the way to the nearest restaurant?
A B C D
Câu 34: There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Italy.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Smoking causes lung cancer, heart disease, and breathing problems. Worldwide, about three million people
die every year because of smoking – that‗s about one (35) ____ every ten seconds! In fact, smoking is the
(36) ____ of almost 20 percent of all deaths in the developed countries of the world. Smoking doesn‘t just
(37) ____ the smoker, it hurts other people, too. When a pregnant (38) ____ smokes, she is hurting her
developing (39) ____ when a man (40) ____ at home, his wife and children are also breathing in smoke and
can become sick. Even though most people understand the (41) ____ effects of smoking, they continue to
smoke. The (42) ____ of women and teenagers who smoke is increasing. Cigarette companies make
advertisements that (43) ____ these groups of people so that they (44) ____ to buy cigarettes.
Câu 35. A. death B. end C. loss D. decrease
Câu 36. A. origin B. reason C. cause D. basis
Câu 37. A. injure B. danger C. destroy D. hurt
Câu 38. A. child B. man C. woman D. wife
Câu 39. A. baby B. children C. love D. youth
Câu 40. A. relax B. enjoy C. cigarettes D. smokes
Câu 41. A. beneficial B. harmful C. harmed D. profitable
Câu 42. A. number B. amount C. quantity D. total
Câu 43. A. interest B. concern C. matter D. worry
Câu 44. A. retain B. maintain C. continue D. preserve
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the question s from 45 to 54.
Carefully guiding a needle that's longer than his tiny fingers, a young boy in Pakistan stitches together the
leather pieces of a soccer ball. He sits crouched in the corner of a hot, airless shed for 12 hours. For his long
day's work, he will earn 60 cents. The boy is one of more than 200 million children who work at hard,
sometimes dangerous jobs all over the world. Child labor exists in two-thirds of the world's nations. From
Indonesia to Guatemala, poor children as young as six are sent off to work. Often they are mistreated and
punished for not working hard enough. Children mix the gunpowder for firecrackers in China and knot the
threads for carpets in India, all for pennies a day. Sometimes they are sold as slaves. In a speech to the Child
Labor Coalition when he was U.S. Secretary of Labor, Robert Reich expressed gratitude for the
organization's work to end abuse of child labor, "You turned up the heat, and you got results." He also
congratulated Craig Kielburger, then 13, of Canada, who traveled the world for a year fighting for kids'
rights. Craig believes kids can make a difference. He offers this advice, "Write letters to companies and
government officials. Put pressure on leaders to make changes and to stop the misuse of children." One
solution to the child-labor problem in poor countries is education. "The future of these countries," Secretary
Reich declared, "depends on a work force that is educated. We are prepared to help build schools."
Education has helped to make the world a brighter place for one youth, Aghan of India. When he was nine,
Aghan was kidnapped from his home and sold to a carpet maker. Aghan's boss was very cruel. "I was always
crying for my mother," he recalls. Aghan's dream was to learn to write so that he could send letters to his
parents. Fortunately, a group that opposes child labor rescued Aghan from the factory. He was sent to a
shelter in New Delhi where he worked hard to learn to write.
Câu 45. What is an example of dangerous work done by a child?
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years, teams from all over the globe compete to take home the FIFA World Cup Trophy, yet nobody ever
does.
Do you know why? Nobody ever takes it home because the 18-carat gold trophy is kept under lock and key
by FIFA
(Federation Internationale de Football Association). The champions of each World Cup tournament receive
only a replica.
This is to protect the valuable prize from thieves, who have stolen the World Cup trophy twice in its 75-year
history.
The little trophy has certainly had a troubled existence. The original trophy was made by a French sculptor,
Abel LaFleur, and was called the "Jules Rimet Cup," in honor of the founder of the World Cup tournament.
Sometime during the first three World Cup events (1930, '34 and '38), the name changed to simply the
"World Cup." Then during World War II, not much was seen or heard of the trophy. It was being kept hidden
in a shoe box under the bed of Dr. Ottorino Barassi, the Italian vice-president of FIFA, to prevent it from
falling into the hands of the Nazi army.
Although the trophy made it safely through the war, it didn't fare so well during the turbulent 1960s. In 1966,
the Cup was stolen during a public showing of the trophy prior to the World Cup tournament in England.
Luckily, it was found a short time later none the worse for wear in a trash container, by a little dog named
Pickles.
Four years later, Brazil earned permanent possession of the original trophy by winning its third World Cup
title.
Unfortunately, the trophy was stolen a second time, in 1983, and was never recovered. The Brazilian Football
Association had to have a duplicate trophy made.
After the first trophy became the possession of Brazil's football association, a new World Cup Trophy for
FIFA was
designed by an Italian artist, Silvio Gazazniga, in 1974. This trophy cannot be won outright, but remains in
the possession of FIFA, and rest assured they are keeping a close eye on it. Today, World Cup winners are
awarded a replica of the trophy that is gold-plated, rather than solid gold like the real one.
Gazazniga's World Cup trophy weighs almost five kilograms. Its base contains two layers of a semi-precious
stone called malachite, and has room for 17 small plaques bearing the names of the winning teams -enough
space to honor all the World Cup champions up to the year 2038. After that, a new trophy will have to be
made.
Câu 55. This reading is mainly about……
A. the World Cup tournament C. the World Cup trophy
B. thieves D. World Cup stars
Câu 56. Which question is NOT answered in the reading?
A. How much does the World Cup trophy weigh? B. Who made the first trophy?
C. Where did the police find the stolen trophy? D. How much money is the trophy worth?
Câu 57. The first trophy was named the "Jules Rimet Cup" because Rimet…..
A. made the trophy B. was a famous player
C. scored the final goal in 1930 D. came up with the idea of the World Cup
Câu 58. Which is true about Gazazniga's World Cup trophy?
A. It is made of gold and silver. B. It is a replica of the first trophy.
C. It is in a museum in Brazil D. It will only be used until 2038.
Câu 59. In which year did Brazil win the World Cup championship for the third time?
A. 1970 B. 1974 C. 1986 D. 2002
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the question s from 60 to 64 .
Wikipedia is an encyclopaedia that is available on the Internet and what people love about it is that it can be
edited by
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absolutely everybody. When and how did it start? It was founded in 2001 by a guy called Jimmy Wales. It
started as a fancy idea, a kind of a hobby and everybody is surprised how popular it has become and how
many computer scientists it has attracted. It has got a collection of about 1.8 mln articles, the majority of
which are in English; however, one can find some articles in over 200 languages. If it was a business, it
would earn lots of money.
How is it possible that articles that can be changed by anyone are correct? The Wikipedia is based on wikis -
a special software which lets everyone modify a webpage and it is true that anyone can change the
information on the page if they think it's incorrect. But, the Wikipedia has a team of over 13,000 people who
are experts in different fields and who correct any inaccurate information sent by people. Is it error-free? One
may say so. Recently, for example, the British journal Nature looked at the scientific information in
Wikipedia and confirmed it was very reliable and that they didn't find many errors. It was very good news for
the founder as well as for all the users.
Why is it becoming so popular?
Like the whole idea of the Internet, it's also quick and available to everyone. The greatest thing of all is that it
is free. Some people also stress that it's fun to be able to add what you know to the information on the net. IT
specialists believe it has a very bright future and most claim it's the most brilliant invention ever.
Câu 60. Wikipedia ……
A. was created by a team of computer scientists.
B. began as a business idea.
C. became popular as soon as it started.
D. started as one man's passion.
Câu 61. Articles in Wikipedia are ……
A. mostly about science.
B. mostly in English.
C. translated into 200 languages.
D. very interesting.
Câu 62. Wikipedia remains accurate as much as possible because …..
A. all people who write for it are experts.
B. it has a special type of software programme.
C. there are people who monitor it for mistakes.
D. not everybody can change the information.
Câu 63. The best advantage of Wikipedia is that …..
A. you don't have to pay for it.
B. everyone can use it.
C. it is created by ordinary people.
D. is quick and reliable.
Câu 64. The text probably comes from …..
A. a leaflet B. a speech C. a scientific article D. a magazine article
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in s uch a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.
Câu 65. Finding a good jod in Ho Chi Minh City is very hard.
It is……………………………………………………….
Câu 66. He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
He has……………………………………………………..
Câu 67. ―Would you like to come to my birthday party, Sue?‖ asked Mark.
Mark…………………………………………………………………..
Câu 68. The children couldn‗t go swimming because the sea was too rough.
The sea was …………………………………………………………….
Câu 69. People must not leave bicycles in the hall.
People are not……………………………………………………………
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Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about “ the person you admire most”
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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-------------------HẾT----------------
PRACTICE TEST 16
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. bride B. fridge C. bridge D. driven
Question 2: A. booked B. pushed C. caused D. matched
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. attract B. person C. signal D. instance
Question 4: A. family B. whenever C. obedient D. solution
Question 5: A. situation B. appropriate C. informality D. entertainment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: The students in this class were made ________ very hard.
A. learning B.having learnt C. learn D. to learn
Question 7: Which of the following shapes has three sides? .......................
A. circle B. square C. triangle D. rectangle
Question 8: We‘ll have to call the camping trip ................. It‘s going to rain.
A. for B. off C. cross D. up
Question 9: He .................the plants. If he had, they wouldn't have died
A. needn't have B. can't have watered C. shouldn't water D. couldn't water
watered
Question 10: Frankly, I'd rather you ______ anything about it for the time being.
A. do B. didn't do C. don't do D. doing
Question 11: Dien Bien Phu is the place ________ our army won a resounding victory in 1954.
A. which B. that C. what D. where
Question 12: ........................., we tried our best to complete it.
A. Difficult as the homework was B. Despite the homework was difficult
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: They've found a house. They really want to buy now. They need to get a(n).............. from the
bank.
A. loan B. mortgage C. money D. interest
Question 26: The headmistress is very competent. All the teaching staff look ....................
A. up to her B. her up to C. at her up D. for her up
Question 27: He had no ________ of selling the clock – it had belonged to his grandfather.
A. interest B. intend C. intention D. meaning
Question 28: Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and ________.
A. communicate B. communication C. communicative C. communicative
Question 29: Jack insisted that he didn‘t need any help, ________ I helped him anyway.
A. so B. besides C. however D. but
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Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 30: Dogs that are trained to lead the blind must be loyalty, intelligent and calm.
A B C D
Question 31: Since erecting in 1886, the Statue of Liberty has served as a symbol of freedom.
A B C D
Question 31: Food prices have raisedso rapidly in the past few months that some families have been
A B C
forced to alter their eating habits.
D
Question 33: The existence of many stars in the sky lead us to suspect that there may be life on another
A B C D
planet.
Question 34: The president refused to accepteither of the four new proposals made by the contractors.
A BC D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The leading causes of (35) in many developing countries are now heart disease, cancer, accident, flu,
pneumonia etc. Moreover cigarettes, alcohol, physical inactivity and overeating also add to the causes of
several of these killing diseases. Medicine has little help to offer, however, to persons (36) can not get rid
(37) habits harmful to their health. Surgery is the only (38) to offer any chance of survival for people (39)
lung cancer.
Although psychiatrists tried to stop people (40) drinking, they haven't been very (41). Neither have doctors.
How then (42) our health be improved? The answer is simple, though perhaps not very pleasing. Ordinary
persons can do it (43). They (44) able to make good advances in the prevention of diseases.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
When the first white men came to America, they found vast amounts of natural resources of tremendous
value. Forests covered a large part of the nation; later gas, oil and minerals were found in unbelievable
amounts. There was a great abundance of very fertile soil. Forests, prairies, streams and rivers abounded
with wildlife. So vast were these resources that it seemed that they could never be used up. So forests were
destroyed to make way for farmland. Grass lands and prairies were plowed and harrowed. Minerals and oil
were used in great quantities to supply a young industrial nation. Almost every river became the scene of
factories, mills and power companies. Mammals and birds were slaughtered for food and sport.
Within a short time, the results were obvious. Floods caused millions of dollars worth of damage
yearly. The very fertile soil was washed away and blown up. The seemingly inexhaustible oil and minerals
showed signs of depletion. Rivers were filled with silt from eroding farms and wastes from factories. Many
of the rivers were made unfit for fish. Several species of birds disappeared, and some mammals seemed on
the verge of extinction. Future timber shortages were predicted. In short, Americans soon became to realize
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that some sorts of conservation program must be set up, if future as well as present Americans were to share
in the resources that are the heritage of every American.
Question 45:The title that best expresses the main theme or subject of this selection is________
A. What the first white men found in America. B. The loss of topsoil.
C. The cause of timber shortage D. The story of America's natural resources
Question 46:It seeemed to the early American settlers that________
A. fertile soil was scarce B. the natural resources were inexhaustible
C. forests should not be cut D. there was a shortage of minerals.
Question 47:The use of America's natural resources by the early settlers was________
A. careless B. scientific C. unbelievable D. predicted
Question 48:Much of the fertile soil of America has________
A. sunk deep into the earth B. been covered by lakes
C. been eroded by wind and water D. become the scene of factories
Question 49:According to the passage, all the following are true EXCEPT________
A. The early American settlers used a lot of minerals and oil.
B. They killed animals for food and sport.
C. They grew different kinds of plants in prairies.
D. They plowed and harrowed grasslands and prairies.
Question 50:The word " abounded with" could best replaced by________
A. were abundant in B. were rich with C. were short of D. were a few of
Question 51:The word " silt" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to________
A. dust B. soil C. mud D. land
Question 52:One reason why many of our rivers are no longer suitable living places for fish is that________
A. too many fish have been caught B. a conservation program has been set up
C. floods have caused much damage D. factories have dumped waste into the rivers
Question 53:Some species of birds and mammals seemed________
A. to become extinct B. to die C. to be killed D. to be slaughtered
Question 54:Americans soon came to realise that________
A. They should stop killing animals for food. B. They must give up exploiting minerals
C. They shouldn't reclaim the land D. They must establish a conservation program
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
A Japanese construction company plans to create a huge independent city-state, akin to the legendary
Atlantis, in the middle of the Pacific Ocean. The city, dubbed ―Marinnation‖, would have about one million
inhabitants, two airports, and possibly even a space port. Marinnation, if built, would be a separate country
but could serve as a home for international organisations such as the United Nations and the World Bank.
Aside from the many political and social problems that would have to be solved, the engineering task
envisaged is monumental. The initial stage requires the building of a circular dam eighteen miles in diameter
attached to the sea bed in a relatively shallow place in international waters. Then, several hundred powerful
pumps, operating for more than a year, would suck out the sea water from within the dam. When empty and
dry, the area would have a city constructed on it. The actual land would be about 300 feet below the sea
level. According to designers, the hardest task from an engineering point of view would be to ensure that the
dam is leak proof and earthquake proof.
If all goes well, it is hoped that Marinnation could be ready for habitation at the end of the second decade of
the twenty-first century. Whether anyone would want to live in such an isolated and artificial community,
however, will remain an open question until that time.
Question 55:According to the text, Marrination, when built, will be a(an) __________ city.
A. underground B. underwater C. marine D. legendary
Question 56:The word ‗akin‘ in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ________.
A. similar B. next C. likely D. close
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Question 57:Which of the following would NOT be a problem for the construction plan?
A. social B. political C. financial D. engineering
Question 58:Which of the following is NOT true according to the text?
A. Marinnation will be located in the middle of the Pacific Ocean.
B. Marinnation will be built in a deep place in the Pacific Ocean.
C. Marinnation could be served as home for international organisations.
D. Marinnation would have about one million inhabitants.
Question 59:The word ‗monumental‘ in Paragraph 2 means _________.
A. important and difficult B. like a large monument
C. serving as a monument D. important and historic
Question 60:What is going to be built first?
A. a city B. a dam C. a monument D. a sea bed
Question 61:The phrase ‗suck out’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. draw out B. pull out C. dry up D. take out
Question 62:The most difficult task is to protect the dam against _________ and earthquake.
A. fire B. water C. sunlight D. weather
Question 63:According to the text, people could come to live in the future city in the year _______.
A. 2020 B. 2010 C. 2012 D. 2002
Question 64:What does the author imply in the last sentence of the passage?
A. The construction of Marinnation could never be completed in time.
B. People will ask an open question about living in Marinnation.
C. People will ask how they can live in such an isolated and artificial city.
D. People might not want to live in an isolated and artificial community.
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.
Question 65:I have never seen such beautiful pictures before.
These pictures are ___________________________________________.
Question 66:Jack has stopped writing letters to Jill.
Jack used ___________________________________________.
Question 67:Although he took a taxi, Bill still arrived late for the concert
In spite ____________________________________________.
Question 68:If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
Were you_______________________________________________.
Question 69:It is thought that the boss is considering raising wages.
The boss________________________________________.
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph to describe a film you like
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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PRACTICE TEST 17
A.TRẮC NGHIỆM
Find the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from the other three words in each
question.
Question 1. A. recipe B. slice C. strip D. bribe
Question 2. A. famous B. favourite C. favour D. familiar
Question 3. A. nervous B. worry C. birthday D. third
Question 4. A. brush B. rush C. push D. crush
Question 5. A. character B. chemistry C. scholar D. chapter
Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question
Question 6. A. calculator B. intelligent C. impossible D. American
Question 7. A. economics B. material C. delicious D. unpopular
Question 8. A. inference B. reference C. inferior D. redundancy
Question 9. A. mechanic B. memorial C. machine D. mechanism
Question 10. A. pastime B. teenager C. orchestra D. rehearse
Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) from four alternatives
Question 11. She ____ for her parents‘ support during her university education, but she preferred to work
part-time and support herself. A. should have asked B. could have asked
C. must have asked D. ought to ask
Question 12. According to a study, women blink almost twice ________ men.
A. more than B. as much as C. many more D. so much that
Question 13. We are a very close- __________ family.
A. love B. knit C. good D. modern
Question 14. When young Americans first go to university, many of them join a fraternity or Sorority, social
organizations for male and female students_____
A. respectively B. certainly C. orderly D. consequently
Question 15. Spectators are reminded that it is _______ to take photos during the match.
A. prevented B. restricted C. forbidden D. banned
Question 16. ___my personal qualities, I have experience of working in a multi-national company for three
years.
A. Beside B. In addition C. Instead of D. Apart from
Question 17. During our stay in Venice, we bought a ________ bottle.
A. glass lovely perfume B. lovely glass perfume C. lovely perfume glass D. glass perfume lovely
Question 18. My arm hurts so much I felt sure I________ it.
A. should have broken B. must have broken C. was breaking D. have broken
Question 19. Wildlife ________ are concerned about the environment.
A. scientists B. activists C. members D. protectors
Question 20. ―Where is my bag?‖. - ―________‖
A. There it is B. There is it C. Here you are D. Here are you
Question 21. The conference was organized for all of the _______ in the city .
A . history teachers B. historical teachers C . historic teachers D . historian teachers
Question 22. It‘s high time we _______ something about the pollution.
A. did B. had done C. made D. had made
Question 23. ________ my complaint to the manager, the waiter was sacked.
A. Thanks to B. Despite C. Without D. Because of
Question 24. I _______ my hand to draw her attention but she took no _______ of me.
A. waved/ notice B. shook/ noticed C. waved/ attention D. shook/ attention
Question 25. Neither of them will be treated preferentially, ________ ?
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substance to be a pollutant; in fact the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase
this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has
detectable (nhận thấy) health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural
level. Carbon monoxide, however, as a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level
reaches about 15 ppm.
Question 41: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution B. What constitutes an air pollutant
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere
Question 42: The word "adversely" in line 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
Question 43: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that________.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 44: The word "altered" in line 10 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. eliminated B. caused C. slowed D. changed
Question 45 Natural pollutants can play an important role in controlling air pollution for which of the
following reasons?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following is true about human-generated air pollution in
localized regions?
A. It can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants in the localized region.
B. It can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants.
C. It will damage areas outside of the localized regions.
D. It will react harmfully with naturally occurring pollutants.
Question 47: The word "noxious' in line 16 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. harmful B. noticeable C. extensive D. weak
Question 48:According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only
useful if ____.
A. the other substances in the area are known B. it is in a localized area
C. the naturally occurring level is also known D. it can be calculated quickly
Question 49: The word "detectable" in line 21 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable
Question 50: Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws.
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each space
(51)____ history, women have always aimed for the recognized place in (52)____. Guided by their
own (53)____ of knowledge and expertise, women like Marie Curie in science, Mary Wollstonecraft in
literary writing, Simone de Beauvois in philosophical existentialist debate, and Marie Stopes in medicine, to
name a few, have brought about (54)____ awareness of the role of the women in any walks of life. These
women have helped redefine and (55)____ the nature of women‘s place in society. Today the (56)____ of
global women‘s organizations and the impact of women‘s contributions (57)____ society show that progress
has been made and the progress in furthering the role of women in society has been some benefit to the (58
)____ woman. It is true to say that not all women have the same need. The need of the woman who stays at
home and (59)_____ children will differ widely from the woman who works outside. Nonetheless, in the
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extensive field of equal opportunities, it would be good to know that access in given to both with equal
measure according to the true value of respective abilities. It also would be good to know that the woman at
home is recognized as a valued (60)____ of society just as much as the one who deals on business outside the
home.
Question 51. A. Throughout B. Among C. During D. Upon
Question 52. A. social B. society C. socialize D. socialist
Question 53. A. region B. farm C. path D. field
Question 54. A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 55. A. gain B. encourage C. consolidate D. force
Question 56. A. right B. spread C. limit D. belief
Question 57. A. on B. for C. with D. at
Question 58. A. own B. private C. individual D. personal
Question 59. A. rises B. raises C. increases D. lifts
Question 60. A. party B. competitor C. partner D. member
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 61: She is no longer young to enter a beautiful contest.
A B C D
Question 62: Van Cliburn who studied piano from 1951 to 1954 and won multiple awards between 1958 and
1960. A B C D
Question 63: Emmy was determined to succeed and final achieved what she wanted.
A B C D
Question 64: It has been said that laser to be the most miraculous to cure patients.
A B C D
B. PHẦN VIẾT
Rewrite the following sentences
Question 65. I wish I had chosen English to study at school.
The speaker regrets …………………………………….
Question 66. The meeting was put off because of pressure of time.
There was not …………………………………………………..
Question 67. Had he known more about the internet, he‘d have invested in some computer companies.
Knowing …………………………………………………………………………………………
Question 68. As television programmes become more popular, they seem to get worse
The more …………………………………………………………………………………….
Question 69. Seeing that he was so angry, she left the office
She left …………………………………………………………………………………………
Topic writing:
Write a composition about 150 words about the changes that information technology brings to your life
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PRACTICE TEST 18
Mark A,B,C or D to indicate the word pronounced differently from the rest.
Question 1. A. laughed B. passed C. suggested D. placed
Question 2. A. river B. rival C. native D. driven.
Mark A,B,C or D to indicate the word whose main stress differs from the rest.
Question 3. A. mechanic B. military C. apologize D. miraculous
Question 4. A. expensive B. allow C. develop D. different
Question 5. A. maintenance B. appearance C. appropriate D. environment
Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to the following questions.
Question 6. John: ―Would you like a cup of tea?‖
Mike:‘ _____.
A. Yes, I do B. It‘s my pleasure C. I‘m sorry D. Yes, thanks
Question 7. ―We‘d better go. We‘ve been here for ............. hour. That was ........... fastest hour I‘ve ever
spent‖
A. a/ the B. an/ the C. an/ a D. θ/ the
Question 8. Luckily, by the time we got there, the painting ...................
A. didn‘t sell B. hadn‘t sold C. wasn‘t sold D. hadn‘t been sold
Question 9. Don‘t be impatient ! I ‗m sure he will turn ________ on time
A. up B. round C. on D. off
Question 10. I remember....the letter a few days before going on holiday.
A. to receive B. to have received C. received D. receiving
Question 11. Humans depend on species ................. to provide food, clean air and water.
A. seperation B. division C. diversity D. difference
Question 12. My new neighbor has two children,.........are very lovely.
A. both of whom B. all of whom C. who both of D. both of that
Question 13. You _____________ drink this; it‘s poison..
A. must B. needn‘t C. mustn‘t D. shouldn‘t
Question 14. . I could not eat …………….I was very hungry.
A. despite B. in spite C. although D. because
Question 15. ―Let me drive you home.‖ ― ___________‖
A. No problem. B. Don‘t worry. I‘m all right.
C. I usually drive home at five. D. It‘s me.
Question 16. John, could you look after my handbag while I go out for a minute.
A. take part in B. take over C. take place D. take care of
Question 17. She doesn't want anything alcoholic now. She would rather.........a soft drink.
A. have B. to have C. prefer D. prefer to have
Question 18. ―Would you mind sending those flowers to Mr. Brown? ‖ ―______________‖
A. Sure, I‘ll do it now. B. I would if I were you.
C. He wouldn‘t mind. D. No, I can handle it myself.
Question 19. If she............... rich, she would travel around the world.
A. would be B. is C. has been D. were
Question 20. My car is quite ___________ .
A. economics B. economic C. economical D. economy
Question 21. I had to get up early, ………I‘d have missed the train.
A. if not B. but C. otherwise D. so that
Question 22. In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to keep oneself ______
A. occupation B. occupational C. occupied D. preoccupied
Question 23. I don‘t like stories _________ have an happy ending.
A. whose B. when C. where D. which
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
Almost all the energy on the earth comes from the sun. Heat from the sun makes the earth warm
enough for life. Plants use the sun‘s energy to live and grow. Plants give off a gas called oxygen. Animals
eat plants and breathe oxygen. Animals need plants in order to live, and plants need the sun. You use plants
to create heat and energy. You can burn wood from trees. You can burn fossil called coal, gas, and
oil. Fossil fuels formed deep underground from plants and animals that died millions of years ago.
The sun‘s energy can also do harm. Too much sunlight can burn your skin, causing sunburn.
Harmful rays from the sun can also cause a disease called skin cancer. Looking right at the sun can harm
your eyes. You need to be careful of the sun. The center of the sun is called the core, which is extremely
hot. All the energy of the sun comes from the nuclear reactions in its core. It takes a long time for the
energy from the core to reach the surface of the earth-about 170,000 years!
Question 26: According to the passage, the sun is vital because ..........
A. it has its hot core
B. plants live and grow better with the sun‘s energy
C. plants, animals and people need energy from the sun
D. fossil fuels will be used up and people turn to the sun‘s energy
Question 27: Fossil fuels formed deep underground from ......
A. heat from the sun B. earth and rock
C. oil and gas D. dead plants and animals
Question 28: The title for this passage could be .....
A. ―Energy from the sun‖ B. ―Oxygen and Plants‖
C. ―Animals and Plants‖ D. ―The Sun and Fossil Fuels‖
Question 29: Harmful rays from the sun may cause ....
A. fever B. skin cancer C. pain D. headache
Question 30: All of the following statements are NOT true EXCEPT .......
A. the sun‘s heat does no harm to people
B. looking right at the sun is a way to make your eyes better
C. the sun is a long way from the Earth
D. the center of the sun is not very hot
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word(s) for each of the blanks
In the United States and Canada, it is very important to (31)______ a person directly in the eyes when you
are having a conversation (32)______ him or her. If you look down or to the side when the (33)______
person is talking, that person will think that you are not interested in (34)______ he or she is saying. This,
(35)______, is not polite. If you look down or to the side when you are talking, it might (36)______ that you
are not honest. However, people who are speaking will sometimes look away for (37)______ seconds when
they are thinking or (38)______ to find the right word. But they always turn immediately (39)______ to look
the listener directly in the eyes. These social "rules" are (40)______ for two men, two women, a man and a
woman, or an adult and a child.
Question 31: A. talk B. notice C. get D. look
Question 32: A. with B. to C. for D. about
Question 33: A. others B. another C. one D. other
Question 34: A. which B. what C. that D. where
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 41: The sooner you leave, the earliest you will arrive at your destination.
A B C D
Question 42: A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to the same idea.
A B C D
Question 43: Tom, your chores should have been finished by the time I get home, including taking out
A B C D
the garbage.
Question 44: After she had dressed and ate breakfast, Lucy rushed off to her office for a meeting with
A B C D
her accountant.
Question 45: If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the
A B C D
locals now.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46: He learned to drive when he was eighteen.
A. His father made him drive when he was eighteen.
B. He could drive when he was eighteen, but he didn't.
C. He has been using his car since he was eighteen.
D. He has driven since he was eighteen.
Question 47: People believe he won a lot of money on the lottery.
A. He won a lot of money on the lottery, it is believed.
B. He was believed to win a lot of money on the lottery.
C. He is believed to have won a lot of money on the lottery.
D. He is believed that he won a lot of money on the lottery.
Question 48: Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life.
A. His early retirement has brought him peace in life.
B. Although he retired early, but he found no peace in life.
C. He found no peace in life because he retired early.
D. Early as he retired, he found no peace in life.
Question 49: You should have persuaded him to change his mind.
A. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn‘t listen
B. You should persuade him to change his mind but he didn‘t listen.
C. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn‘t.
D. You didn‘t persuade him to change because of his mind.
Question 50: She had only just begun to speak when people started interrupting.
A. She hardly had begun to speak when people started interrupting.
B. Hardly she had begun to speak when people started interrupting.
C. Hardly had she begun to speak when people started interrupting.
D. She hadn‘t begun to speak when people started interrupting.
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Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word or phrase.
Question 51: As a government official, Benjamin Franklin often traveled abroad.
A. widely B. secretly C. alone D. overseas
Question 52: A revolution in women‘s fashion during the second half of the twentieth century made trousers
acceptable for almost all activities.
A. available B. permissible C. attractive D. ideal
Question 53: Now many people who shop at a health food store instead of a local supermarket are much
more likely to find a healthy, sugar-free beverage.
A. harmful to health B. full of preservatives C. beneficial to health D. convenient to prepare
Question 54: Just like hearing infants who start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables
together to sound like real sentences and questions, deaf babies follow the same pattern.
A. obedient to parents B. physically abnormal C. hard of hearing D. able to hear
Read the passage below and choose the best answers that follow.
Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use
one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more
than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some
doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile
phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried
about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your
health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile
phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning
equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He
couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk
on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His
family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can
detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is
some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use
your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it.
Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones
may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile
phone too often.
Question 55: According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because
....................
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications.
B. they make them look more stylish.
C. they keep the users alert all the time.
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.
Question 56: The word "means" in the passage most closely means ....................
A. ―meanings‖ B. ―expression‖ C. ―transmission‖ D. ―method‖
Question 57: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may ....................
A. cause some mental malfunction C. change their users‘ temperament.
B. change their users‘ social behaviours. D. damage their users‘ emotions.
Question 58 "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means ....................
A. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones.
C. information on the lethal effects of cell phones.
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WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
Question 65: It isn‘t necessary to finish the work today.
You don‘t .....................................................................................
Question 66: We arrived too late to see the first film.
We didn‘t......................................................................................
Question 67: His parents made him study hard for the exams.
He was ..........................................................................................
Question 68: She knows more about it than I do.
I don‘t ..........................................................................................
Question 69: Susan felt sick, because she ate four cream cakes.
If Susan ........................................................................................
Part II. In about of 140 words, write a paragraph about your favorite sport.
.....................................................................................................................................................................
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PRACTICE TEST 19
I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
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Question 41:. An increasing number of companies has changed dress codes, allowing
A B
employees to wear casual clothing in the work place.
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C D
Question 42:According to Mehrabian in1971, only 7% of the information we
A B
communicate to others depends upon the words saying; 93% of that depends on
C D
nonverbal communication.
Question 43:Body language is quiet and secret, but most powerful language of all.
A B C D
Question 44:Our understanding and use of non-verbal cues in facial expressions
A B
and gestures are familiar to us nearly in birth. (from)
C D
Question 45:Many optimist people have made predictions about the positive impact
A B C
of the increasing mechanization on human life.
D
3) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 46:
a. picture b. action c. question d. future
Question 47:
a. swallow b. below c. slowly d. allow
Question 48:
a. enough b. loud c. about d. amount
Question 49:
a. reading b. easy c. pleasure d. please
Question 50:
a. killed b. enjoyed c. described d. digested
4) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which is stressed differently
from the rest.
Question 51:
a. water b. football c. begin d. meter
Question 52:
a. personal b. penalty c. defensive d. vertical
Question 53:
a. award b. prevent c. visit d. except
Question 54:
a. goalie b. advanced c. above d. depend
Question 55:
a. overtime b. decision c. period d. penalize
5) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word for each of the blanks from 24 to 28.
Today there are libraries in almost every towns in the world. Even in areas (56)______ there are no libraries,
there are often mobile libraries which take boos from one village to (57)______. But in the days when books
were copied by hand (58)______ than printed, libraries were very rare. The reason is simple: books took a
very long time to produce, and there were far fewer coppies of any given work around. The greatest library
(59)______ all, that in Alexandia, had 54,000 books.
In the ancient world, this number (60)______ considered huge. It was the first time that anyone had collected
so many books from all around the world (61)______ one roof. There are many theories about why these
books were lost. (62)______is that the library accidentally burned down. Another is that one of the rulers of
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the city ordered the books to be burned. They were taken to various places and it took six monthsto burn
them. (63)______ happened, the collection there was priceless. Many of the library‘s treasures were lost
forever-sone books were (64)______ recovered. We cannot even know (65)______ what the library containd.
56. A. where B. who C. the place D. which
57. A. other B. others C. the other D. another
58. A. rather B. else C. more D. much
59. A. of B. about C. in D. over
60. A. is B. was C. were place D. has been
61. A. in B. under C. over D. below
62. A. One B. A theory C. None D. All
63. A. Whoever B. Whichever C. whatever D. wherever
64. A. almost B. never C. already D. yet
65. A. exactly B. really C. detailedly D. yet
6)Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 19 to 23.
The 24th SEA Games was held from 6th to 15th December, 2007 in three provinces in Thailand, namely
Nakhon Ratchsima, Bangkok, and Chon Buri. In fact, the 2007 SEA Games was to be hosted by Singapore,
but Singapore gave up the chance, as its new national sports stadium is under construction and will not be
completed in time for the next SEA Games. Thailand was then asked by The SEA Games Federation to host
this regional sport event in place of Singapore.
The SEA Games takes place every two years, with 11 countries in Southeast Asia participating. Each
member country, in alphabetical order, takes turn hosting this event. Let‘s look at the number of sports and
gold medals in The SEA Ganes in recent years. The 21st SEA Games, hosted by Malaysia in 2001, had 32
sports with 391 gold medals. There were 32 sports with 439 gold medals in The 22nd SEA Games, held in
Vietnam in 2003. The 23rd SEA Games, in The Philippines in 2005, had 40 sports with 439 gold medals.
The 24th SEA Games in Thailand this year, featuring 43 sports and 485 gold medals, had the highest number
of sports and gold medals in The Asian Games and The Olympic Games. So The SEA Games is regarded as
the largest regional sporting event in the world in terms of number of sports and madals.
66. How long did The 24th SEA Games last?
A. A week B. 8 days. C. 2 weeks D. 10 days.
67. Which of the following is not stated in the passage?
A. The 24th SEA Games was the largest regional sporting event in the world.
B. The 24th SEA Games was the highest number of sports and gold meadals in the history of the SEA
Games.
C. The 22nd SEA Games was held in Vietnam in 2003.
D. The 2007 SEA Games was to be hosted by East Timor.
68. How many sports were there in The 24th SEA Games?
A. 44 B. 485 C. 43 D. 42
69. How offen does the SEA Games take place? Every ___________.
A. 2 years B. 4 years C. 3 years D. 5 years
st
70. Where was The 21 SEA Games celebrated?
A. in Philippines B. in Vietnam C. in Malaysia D. in Singapore
II. PHẦN VIẾT (2,0 điểm)
A) Rewrite the sentences: (1,0)
1. Although his English was good, he wasn‘t chosen.
=> However
…………………………………………………………….……………………………………………
…
2. The water is so hot that I can‘t drink it.
=> The water is
too…………………………………………………………….………………………………………………
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B) Write a paragraph about your hometown. You should write at least 120 words
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………
…………………………………………………………..………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………
PRACTICE TEST 20
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words whose pronunciation is different
from the others in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. watched B. stopped C. pushed D. naked
Question 2. A. cooks B. loves C. joins D. spends
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. cancer B. treatment C. tissue D. disease
Question 4. A. intensity B. accurate C. erosion D. miraculous
Question 5. A. participate B. interviewer C. honorable D. intimacy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6. She had to work on _______last night, so she is very tired this morning.
A. the roof B. the factory C. the office D. night shift
Question 7. The theory of relativity________ by Einstein, who was a famous physicist.
A. was developed B. is developed C. develops D. developed
Question 8. The guidelines in this book can help you become a _________ speaker.
A. confide B. confident C. confidence D. self-confidence
Question 9. _______he got top marks at high school, he never went to university.
A. Despite B. Although C. Meanwhile D. Nevertheless
Question 10. Since I _________ a child, I have solved difficult Math puzzles.
A. am B. was C. have been D. had been
Question 11. In England , English, Math and Science are_______ subjects at school.
A. more B. store C. score D. core
Question 12. It's ____ to transfer drugs in our country.
A. legally B. illegally C. illegal D. legal
Question 13. ―It‘s about time you_______ your homework, Mary.‖
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Although there have been a lot of arguments for and against it, homeschooling in the U.S. has become a
multi-million dollar industry, and it is growing bigger and bigger. There are now plenty of websites, support
groups, and conventions that help parents protect their rights and enable them to learn more about educating
their children. Though once it was the only choice for troubled children, homeschooling today is an accepted
alternative to an educational system that many believe is failing.
Question 46 The past participle ―homeschooled‖ in the first paragraph is best equivalent to ―_____at
home‖.
A. taught B. self-learned C. untaught D. self-studied
Question 47. This estimated number was presented by _____.
A. a governmental office B. school teachers C. the parents D. homeschooled children
Question 48. According to some experts, the exact number of homeschooled children in the US in the last
year of the 20th century must be _____.
A. 1,600,000 B. 850,000 C. 1,900,000 D. 1,700,000
Question 49. Parents can teach children at home with the support of __________.
A. The internet, conventions along with support groups
B. support groups, teachers and websites
C. documents, websites and support groups
D. books, support groups and the Internet
Question 50. More parents teach their children because they completely _____ the current educational
system.
A. please with B. object to C. appeal to D. approve of
Question 51. The word ―arguments‖ at the beginning of the third paragraph can be best replaced by
―_____‖.
A. rows B. quarrels C. viewpoints D. discussions
Question 52. The attitude of the author towards homeschooling can be best described as _____.
A. acceptable B. favorable C. remarkable D. unfavorable
Question 53. The number of parents who want to teach their own children in the U.S. is _____.
A. remaining unchanged B. remaining the same C. going up D. going down
Question 54. Many parents stop their children from going to school because it is now too _____ for them.
A. explosive B. expensive C. dangerous D. humorous
Question 55. Which is the best tittle for the passage:
A. Reasons for Homeschooling in the USA.
B. The Trend of homeschooling in the USA.
C. Homeschooling- one of the ways of education in the USA.
D. Education system in the USA.
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 56 to 65.
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a
career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time
and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and
rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences
virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the
factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin
by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and
surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as ―Would you like to travel ? Do
you want to work with children ? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work ?‖ There are no right
or wrong answers ; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require,
which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to
you.
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The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If
not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great
deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields
is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other
hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the
country.If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as
insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your
experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
Don‘t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or
negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does
not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that
are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be
as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to develop
new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be
your final one.
Question 56. The author states that ―There are no right or wrong answers‖ in order to _______.
A. emphasize that each person‘s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D. indicate that each person‘s answers may change over time.
Question 57. The word ―them‖ in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
Question 58. The word ―assessing‖ in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ________.
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
Question 59. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does
not want to live in a big city ?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
Question 60. Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job except__________.
A.Your likes and your dislikes
B. The atmosphere at work
C. Geographical location
D. Your strengths and weaknesses
Question 61. The word ―that‖ in paragraph 4 refers to
A. occupation B. the traveling life C. a flight attendant D. commission
Question 62. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that ________.
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
Question 63. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that ________.
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
Question 64. Why does the author mention ―long, grueling hours without sleeps‖ in paragraph 4 ?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant‘s job with most people‘s perception.
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
WRITING
Part I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
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before it.
Question 65. I didn’t listen to him and I didn’t succeed.
If ___________________________________________________________________________
Question 66. Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.
It is _________________________________________________________________________
Question 67. I’m like my mum, whereas my brother looks like my dad.
I‘m like my mum, _____________________________________________________________
Question 68. People on Jeju Island have a unique culture.
The culture of the people on Jeju Island differs _______________________________________
Question 69. Paul fell ill, so he didn't attend the conference.
As a result of __________________________________________________________________
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about a person who has great influence on you.
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PRACTICE TEST 21
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. commit B. index C. preview D. open
Question 2: A. enrichment B. advantage C. sovereignty D. edition
Question 3: A. habitat B. candidate C. wilderness D. attendance
Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined word is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 4. A. kites B. stops C. learns D. laughs
Question 5. A .rough B. aghast C. laugh D. cough
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: The theory of relativity _____ by Einstein, who was a famous physicist.
A. was developed B. is developed C. develops D. developed
Question 7: ________ a few more minutes, we could have finished the task.
A. Unless we had. B. If we had had. C. If we have D. If we had
Question 8: Communities in remote areas are extremely _____ to famine if crops fail.
A. defenseless B. helpless C. disappointed D. vulnerable
Question 9: The girl was used ________ birthday presents from her brothers.
A. to receive B. to receiving. C. to being received D. to be receiving
Question 10: I could hear voices but I couldn‘t ________what they were saying.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 3 to 12.
We live in a world of tired, sleep deprived people. In his book Counting Sheep, Paul Martin – a
behavioural biologist – describes a society which is just too busy to sleep and which does not give sleeping
the importance it deserves.
Modern society has invented reasons not to sleep. We are now a 24/7 society where shops and services
must be available all hours. We spend longer hours at work than we used to, and more time getting to work.
Mobile phones and email allow us to stay in touch round the clock and late-night TV and the Internet tempt
us away from our beds. When we need more time for work or pleasure, the easy solution is to sleep less. The
average adult sleeps only 6.2 hours a night during the week, whereas research shows that most people need
eight or even eight and a half hours‘ sleep to feel at their best. Nowadays, many people have got used to
sleeping less than they need and they live in an almost permanent state of ‗sleep debt‘.
Until the invention of the electric light in 1879 our daily cycle of sleep used to depend on the hours of
daylight. People would get up with the sun and go to bed at nightfall. But nowadays our hours of sleep are
mainly determined by our working hours (or our social life) and most people are woken up artificially by an
alarm clock. During the day caffeine, the world‘s most popular drug, helps to keep us awake. 75% of the
world‘s population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a point masks the symptoms of sleep
deprivation.
What does a chronic lack of sleep do to us? As well as making us irritable and unhappy as humans, it also
reduces our motivation and ability to work. This has serious implications for society in general. Doctors, for
example, are often chronically sleep deprived, especially when they are on ‗night call‘, and may get less than
three hours‘ sleep. Lack of sleep can seriously impair their mood, judgment, and ability to take decisions.
Tired engineers, in the early hours of the morning, made a series of mistakes with catastrophic results. On
our roads and motorways lack of sleep kills thousands of people every year. Tests show that a tired driver can
be just as dangerous as a drunken driver. However, driving when drunk is against the law but driving when
exhausted isn‘t. As Paul Martin says, it is very ironic that we admire people who function on very little sleep
instead of criticizing them for being irresponsible. Our world would be a much safer, happier place if
everyone, whatever their job, slept eight hours a night.
New English File Upper-intermediate by Clive Oxenden and Christina Latham-Koenig, OUP
Question 30: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE about Paul Martin?
A. He shows his concern for sleep deprivation in modern society.
B. He gives an interesting account of a sleepless society.
C. He is a scientist who is chronically deprived of sleep.
D. He describes the modern world as a place without insomnia.
Question 31: The phrase ―round the clock‖ in the second paragraph is similar in meaning to______.
A. surrounded with clocks B. all day and night
C. during the daytime D. having a round clock
Question 32: The writer mentions the Internet in the passage as______.
A. a temptation that prevents us from sleeping B. an easy solution to sleep deprivation
C. an ineffective means of communication D. a factor that is not related to sleep deprivation
Question 33: According to the third paragraph, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. Our social life has no influence on our hours of sleep.
B. The sun obviously determined our daily routines.
C. The electric light was invented in the 19th century.
D. The electric light has changed our daily cycle of sleep.
Question 34: The word ―which‖ in the third paragraph refers to______.
A. reaching a point B. masking the symptoms
C. the world‘s population D. caffeine consumption
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the last paragraph?
A. Doctors ‗on night call‘ do not need more than three hours of sleep a day.
B. Our motivation decreases with the bigger number of hours we sleep.
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and non-alumni, who are ultimately responsible for all operations. They appoint senior (53) ,
such as principals, headmasters, presidents, and deans; and approve the actions taken (54) their name.
Question 45: A. provided B. provision C. provide D. providing
Question 46: A. to B. with C. for D. on
Question 47: A. capable B. probable C. possible D. able
Question 48: A. call B. rise C. lend D. raise
Question 49: A. at B. for C. to D. with
Question 50: A makes B. prevents C. lets D. causes
Question 51: A. collection B. collect C. collectively D. collective
Question 52: A being controlled B. controlled C. are controlling D. are controlled
Question 53: A. leaders B. trainees C. judges D. assistants
Question 54: A. above B. on C. in D.at
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions
Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural
environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature‘s provision is the oldest known
subsistence strategy and has been practised for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only way
to obtain food until rudimentary farming and the domestication of wild animals were introduced about
10,000 years ago.
Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have
dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and arctic wastelands.
In higher latitudes, the shorter growing seasons have restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions
have caused a greater dependence on hunting, and on fishing along the coasts and waterways. The abundance
of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for
gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited
possibilities for the development of subsistence societies.
Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from the
observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and
gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party
harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area has become
exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice seasonal migration patterns
evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between the sexes. These patterns of
behavior may be similar to those practised by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.
Question 55: What does it mean ―domestication‖ in the first paragraph?
A. adapting animals to suit a new working environment
B. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home
C. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home
D. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans
Question 56: According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on ________.
A. hunter-gatherers‘ tools B. nature‘s provision C. farming methods D. agricultural products
Question 57: The word ―marginal‖ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ―________‖
A. disadvantaged B. suburban C. forgotten D. abandoned
Question 58: In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter-gatherers ________.
A. can free themselves from hunting
B. have better food gathering from nature
C. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing
D. harvest shorter seasonal crops
Question 59: According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can provide___.
A. further understanding of prehistoric times
B. broader vision of prehistoric natural environments
C. further understanding of modern subsistence societies
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PRACTICE TEST 22
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. vertical B. water C. vulnerable D. wilderness
Question 2: A. started B. decided C. looked D.
needed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. refuse B. musician C. history D. mechanic
Question 4: A. museum B. destroy C. threatened D. economy
Question 5: A. computer B. communicate C. comfortable D. flamingo
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: ________Paul realize that he was on the wrong flight.
A. No sooner had the plane taken off than B. It was not until the plane had taken off that
C. Only after the plane had taken off D. Not until the plane had taken off did
Question 7: The sky was grey and cloudy._________, we went to the beach.
A. However B. In spite of C. even though D. Consequently
Question 8: I don‘t mind _________ much homework.
A. did B. to do C. do D. doing
Question 9: Nadine: ―__________‖. Monica: ―Good luck‖
A. I don‘t like rock music. B. How do you do!
C. Have a nice day! D. I‘m taking a test this afternoon.
Question 10: I can‘t walk in these high-heeled boots. I keep________.
A. falling off B. falling back C. falling over D. falling out
Question 11: Old people are often looked ________ by their children when they get older.
A. for B. after C. up D. into
Question 12: Education in Vietnam has improved since the government started a programme of educational
___________.
A. experience B. reform C. system D. resources
Question 13: The plan was developed _________by a team of experts.
A. system B. systematical C. systemized D. systematically
Question 14: All of the food ________sold by the time we arrived at the restaurant.
A. has been B. had been C. was D. was being
Question 15: It was not until 1915 _________ the cinema became an industry.
A. what B. that C. when D. how
Question 16: Yuri Gagarin was the first person ________into space.
A. travelling B. has travelled C. to travel D. travelled
Question 17: Like everyone else, Sue has her __of course but on the whole, she‘s quite satisfied with life.
A. ups and downs B. ins and outs C. safe and sound D. odds and ends
Question 18: The Prime Minister congratulated the team _______winning the match.
A. for B. in C. on D. into
Question 19: He came when I _______ the film ―Man from the star‖
A. has watched B. watched C. was watching D. am watching
Question 20: Peter _________football when he was younger.
A. used to playing B. is used to playing C. is used to play D. used to play
Question 21: ________ with the size of the whole earth, the highest mountains do not seem high at all.
A. A comparison B. Compare them C. If you compare D. When compared
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 35: There were too many books on the shelves that I didn‘t know which one to choose.
A B C D
Question 36: Rita enjoyed to be able to meet several Parliament members during her holiday.
A B C D
Question 37: Nutritionists recommend that foods from each of the four basic groups be eaten on a
A B
regularly daily basis.
C D
Question 38: Before TV, the common man seldom never had the opportunity to see and hear his
A B C
leaders express their views.
D
Question 39: All of the book were very interesting. I am surprised you didn‘t like it.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word(s) for each of the following blanks.
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produced in 1909, featured a standardized design and a streamlined method of production—the assembly
line. Its lower costs made it available to the mass market.
Cars at the 1900 show ranged in price from $1,000 to $1,500, or roughly $14,000 to $21,000 in today‘s
prices. By 1913, the Model T was selling for less than $300, and soon the price would drop even further. ―I
will build cars for the multitudes,‖ Ford said, and he kept his promise.
Question 50: The passage implies that the audience viewed the 1900 National Automobile Show primarily
as a(n)___________
A. chance to buy automobiles at low prices.
B. formal social occasion.
C. chance to invest in one of thirty-two automobile manufacturers.
D. opportunity to learn how to drive.
Question 51: According to the passage, who developed the first modern car?
A. William McKinley B. Nikolaus Otto C. Henry Ford D. Karl Benz
Question 52: Approximately how many cars were there in the United States in 1900?
A. 4,000 B. 8,000 C. An unknown number D. 10 million
Question 53: The phrase ―by happenstance ‖ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________.
A. By design B. Coincidentally C. For example D. Generally
Question 54: Approximately how many of the cars assembled in the year 1900 were gasoline powered?
A. 1,000 B. 2,000 C. 4,000 D. 32
Question 55: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ―launched‖ in paragraph 4 _____.
A. designed B. initiated C. joined D. anticipated
Question 56: The purpose of the “additive” mentioned in paragraph 4 was to___________
A. hide strong smells. B. make engines run more efficiently.
C. increase the speed of cars. D. make cars look better.
Question 57: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as steering with a tiller rather than
with a steering wheel?
A. A Gasmobile B. A Duryea C. A Franklin D. An Orient
Question 58: It is clear from the passage that the early cars___________
A. were more formal. B. involved less expensive cars.
C. involved fewer manufacturers. D.. were more spectacular.
Question 59: What was the highest price asked for a car at the 1900 National Automobile Show in the
dollars of that time?
A. $300 B. $21,000 C. $14,000 D. $1,500
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
Books which give instructions on how to do things are very popular in the United States today. Thousands of
these How-to books are useful. In fact, there are about four thousand books with titles that begin with the
words ―How to‖. One book may tell you how to earn more money. Another may tell you how to save or
spend it and another may explain how to give your money away.
Many How-to books give advice on careers. They tell you how to choose a career and how to succeed in it. If
you fail, however, you can buy the book ― How to Turn Failure into Success‖. If you would like to become
very rich, you can buy the book ―How to Make a Millionaire‖. If you never make any money at all, you may
need a book called ―How to Live on Nothing‖.
One of the most popular types of books is one that helps you with personal problems. If you want to have a
better love of life, you can read ―How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life‖. If you are tired of
books on happiness, you may prefer books which give step-by-step instructions on how to redecorate or
enlarge a house.
Why have How-to books become so popular? Probably because life has become so complex. Today people
have far more free time to use, more choices to make, and more problems to solve. How-to books help
people deal with modern life.
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WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.
Question 1: People say that Jenny lived in Texas, America for 8 years.
Jenny…………………………………………………………………
Question 2: How beautiful is your dress today!‖ said Susan to Mary
Susan paid …………………………………………………………….
Question 3: The boring documentary made her feel asleep.
The documentary film was so……………………………………………………
Question 4: ― I‘m sorry I‘m late‖, Alice said to her teacher
Alice apologized ……………………………………………………………………...
Question 5: What the politician was saying last night got no attention
No one ……………………………………………………………………………
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the free time activity you like best. (1,5 điểm)
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PRACTICE TEST 23
I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 64 ( 8 điểm)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation
in each of the following questions from 26 to 27.
Question 1: A. leaves B. brings C. looks D. plays
Question 2: A. watched B. promoted C. invited D. decided
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main
stress in each of the following questions from 28 to 30.
Question 3: A. require B. consist C. achieve D. system
Question 4: A. intervention B. necessary C. intellectual D. productivity
Question 5: A. intensity B. accurate C. erosion D. miraculous
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction from 35 to 39.
Question 35: Men and women in the Peace Corps work with people in the developing countries to help
A B
them improving their living conditions.
C D
Question 36: Although not widely sold, that book is considered to be best book on the subject.
A B C D
Question 37: Because his sickness he didn‘t take part in the English competition held last Sunday.
A B C D
Question 38: I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end.
A B C D
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Question 39: Dreaming, like all other mental processes, it is a product of the brain and its activity.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 34 to 43 .
THE PERFORMING ARTS
In the past, British children were frequently encouraged to try out their performing skills for the benefit of
adults. They did this by reading aloud, acting or ___(40)___ a musical instrument. As they ____ (41)_____
up they were taken to public places of entertainment – the theatre, opera, circus or ballet. They looked
forward to these _____(42)_____ with great ____(43)_____ and would remember and discuss what they had
seen for many weeks afterwards. But nowadays television and computers ____(44)_____ an endless stream
of easily _____( 45)_____ entertainment, and children quickly accept these marvelous _____(46)_____ as a
very ordinary part of their everyday lives. For many children, the sense of witnessing a very special live
performance is gone forever.
But all is not lost. The ____(47)_____ of a TV set may have encouraged a very lazy response from ____(
48)_____ in their own homes, but the ____(49)____ of those with ambitions to become performing artists
themselves does not seem to have been at all diminished. And live performances in public are still relatively
popular, albeit with an older, more specialist audience.
Question 40: A. handling B. controlling C. doing D. playing
Question 41: A. developed B. brought C. advanced D. grew
Question 42: A. circumstances B. occasions C. incidents D. situations
Question 43: A. sensation B. action C. thrill D. excitement
Question 44: A. send B. supply C. stock D. store
Question 45: A. convenient B. free C. applicable D. available
Question 46: A. designs B. inventions C. exhibits D. appearances
Question 47: A. presence B. attendance C. company D. being
Question 48: A. spectators B. viewers C. onlookers D. listeners
Question 49: A. want B. appeal C. pressure D. desire
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 50 to 59.
Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of
communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known
culture. The basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts
attention, as. For example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential
for communication is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in
and of themselves. A stop sign or a barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently. Symbols are
more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the
receiver‘s cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater provides performers with an
auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural
messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage.
They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. As a
result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods are based upon
speech. Radio, television, and the telephone are only a few.
Question 50: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Gestures B. Signs and signals
C. Speech D. Communication
Question 51: What does the author say about speech?
A. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
B. It is the most advanced form of communication.
C. It is necessary for communication to occur.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 60 to 64.
In the mid – nineteenth century, the United States had tremendous natural resources that could be
exploited in order to develop heavy industry. Most of the raw materials that are valuable in the manufacture
of machinery, transportation facilities, and consumer goods lay ready to be worked into wealth. Iron, coal,
and oil – the basic ingredients of industrial growth – were plentiful and needed only the application of
technical expertise, organizational skill, and labor.
One crucial development in this movement toward industrialization was the growth of the railroads.
The railway network expanded rapidly until the railroad map of the United States looked like a spider‘s web,
with the steel filaments connecting all important sources of raw materials, their places of manufacture, and
their centers of distribution. The railroads contributed to the industrial growth not only by connecting these
major centers, but also by themselves consuming enormous amounts of fuel, iron, and coal.
Many factors influenced emerging modes of production. For example, machine tools, the tools used
to make goods, were steadily improved in the latter part of the nineteenth century – always with an eye to
speedier production and lower unit costs. The products of the factories were rapidly absorbed by the growing
cities that sheltered the workers and the distributors. The increased urban population was nourished by the
increased farm production that, in turn, was made more productive by the use of the new farm machinery.
American agricultural production kept up with the urban demand and still had surpluses for sale to the
industrial centers of Europe.
The labor that ran the factories and built the railways was recruited in part from American farm areas
where people were being displaced by farm machinery, in part from Asia, and in part from Europe. Europe
now began to send tides of immigrants from eastern and southern Europe – most of whom were originally
poor farmers but who settled in American industrial cities. The money to finance this tremendous expansion
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of the American economy still came from European financiers for the most part, but the American were
approaching the day when their expansion could be financed in their own ― money market‖.
Question 60: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The history of railroads in the United States
B. The major United States industrial centers
C. Factors that affected industrialization in the United States
D. The role of agriculture in the nineteenth century
Question 61: The word “ themselves” in the paragraph 2 refers to _______
A. sources B. centers C. railroads D. places
Question 62: According to the passage, all of the following were true of railroads in the United States in the
nineteenth century EXCEPT that
A. they connected important industrial cities
B. they were necessary to the industrialization process
C. they were expanded in a short time
D. they used relatively small quantities of natural resources
Question 63: Which of the following in NOT true of United States farmers in the nineteenth century?
A. They lost some jobs because of mechanization
B. They were unable to produce sufficient food for urban areas
C. They raised their productivity by using new machinery
D. They sold food to European countries
Question 64: The word “ ran” in the paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________
A. operated B. hurried C. constructed D. owned
B. Write a paragraph about the most important festival in your country. You should write at least 80
words.
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PRACTICE TEST 24
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. teenage B. luggage C. manage D. damage
Question 2: A. promoted B. watched C. invited D. decided
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. accurate B. customer C. computer D. exercise
Question 4: A. activity B. biology C. geography D. scientific
Question 5: A. environment B. satisfaction C. cultivation D. distribution
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions.
Question 6: We all agree that she is _______ student of the two sisters.
A. the cleverer B. clever C. the cleverest D. most clever
Question 7: -Cindy: "Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!" -Mary: ―_______ ".
A. Thanks, Cindy. I had it done yesterday B. Why do you say that? I don‘t like it
C. Never mention it D. Thanks, but I'm afraid
Question 8: -John: ―A motorbike knocked Ted down.‖ -David: ―_______‖
A. What is it now? B. Poor Ted! C. How terrific! D. What a motor
bike!
Question 9: It is hard to get _______ him; he is such an aggressive man.
A. by B. on with C. into D. over to
Question 10: Although the exam was difficult, _______ the students passed it.
A. most of B. none of C. a few D. a lot
Question 11. I can _______ with most things but I cannot stand noisy children.
A. put up B. put on C. put aside D. put off
Question 12. Some snakes lay eggs, but _______ give birth to live offspring.
A. other B. the other C. others D. the others
Question 13. I don‘t care _______ you go or not.
A. where B. when C. why D. whether
Question 14. The librarian asked us _______ so much noise.
A. not make B. don‘t make C. not making D. not to make
Question 15. Some film stars _______ be difficult to work with.
A. say B. say to C. are said D. are said to
Question 16. _______ what I said last night, I still love you.
A. In spite B. Despite C. Even though D. Even if
Question 17. Peter is _______ John.
A. younger and more intelligent than B. more young and intelligent than
C. more intelligent and younger than D. the more intelligent and younger than
Question 18. _______ all attempts at negotiation had failed did the men decide to go on strike.
A. Not until B. No sooner C. Only by D. Only then
Question 19. You shouldn't _______ to your teacher like that. It was very rude.
A. have talked B. talk C. have be talked D. talked
Question 20. She has to pass all her exams or _______ she would have no holiday.
A. instead B. else C. therefore D. though
Question 21: __________is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants which
make a balanced environment..
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Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions .
Question 30: Men and women in the Peace Corps work with people in the developing countries to help
A B
them improving their living conditions.
C D
Question 31: Although not widely sold, that book is considered to be best book on the subject.
A B C D
Question 32: Because his sickness he didn‘t take part in the English competition held last Sunday.
A B C D
Question 33. Whether life in the countryside is better than that in cities depend on each individual‘s point of
view.
A B C D
Question 34: Dreaming, like all other mental processes, it is a product of the brain and its activity.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks:.
THE PERFORMING ARTS
In the past, British children were frequently encouraged to try out their performing skills for the benefit of
adults. They did this by reading aloud, acting or ___(35)___ a musical instrument. As they ____ (36)_____
up they were taken to public places of entertainment – the theatre, opera, circus or ballet. They looked
forward to these _____(37)_____ with great ____(38)_____ and would remember and discuss what they had
seen for many weeks afterwards. But nowadays television and computers ____(39)_____ an endless stream
of easily _____( 40)_____ entertainment, and children quickly accept these marvelous _____(41)_____ as a
very ordinary part of their everyday lives. For many children, the sense of witnessing a very special live
performance is gone forever.
But all is not lost. The ____(42)_____ of a TV set may have encouraged a very lazy response from ____(
43)_____ in their own homes, but the ____(44)____ of those with ambitions to become performing artists
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themselves does not seem to have been at all diminished. And live performances in public are still relatively
popular, albeit with an older, more specialist audience.
Question 35: A. handling B. controlling C. doing D. playing
Question 36: A. developed B. brought C. advanced D. grew
Question 37: A. circumstances B. occasions C. incidents D. situations
Question 38: A. sensation B. action C. thrill D. excitement
Question 39: A. send B. supply C. stock D. store
Question 40: A. convenient B. free C. applicable D. available
Question 41: A. designs B. inventions C. exhibits D. appearances
Question 42: A. presence B. attendance C. company D. being
Question 43: A. spectators B. viewers C. onlookers D. listeners
Question 44: A. want B. appeal C. pressure D. desire
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
Simply being bilingual doesn‘t qualify someone to interpret. Interpreting is not only a mechanical
process of converting one sentence in language A into the same sentence in language B. Rather, its a
complex art in which thoughts and idioms that have no obvious counterparts from tongue to tongue _ or
words that have several meanings must be quickly transformed in such a way that the message is clearly and
accurately expressed to the listener.
At one international conference, an American speaker said, ―You can’t make a silk purse out of a
sow’s ear‖, which meant nothing to the Spanish audience. The interpretation was, ―A monkey in a silk dress
is still a monkey‖ _ an idiom the Spanish understood and that expressed the same idea.
There are two kinds of interpreters, simultaneous and consecutive. The former, sitting in a separated
booth, usually at a large multilingual conference, speaks to listeners wearing headphones, interpreting what a
foreign language speaker says _ actually a sentence behind. Consecutive interpreters are the ones most
international negotiations use. They are employed for smaller meetings without sound booths and
headphones. Consecutive interpretation also requires two-person teams. A foreign speaker says his piece
while the interpreter, using special shorthand, takes notes and during a pause, tells the client what was said.
Question 45. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To explain the scope of interpreting.
B. To differentiate between simultaneous and consecutive interpreters.
C. To state the qualifications of an interpreter.
D. To point out the importance of an interpreter.
Question 46. The author implies that most people have the opinion that the skill of interpreting is ________.
A. simpler than it really is B. very complex and demanding
C. highly valued and admired D. based on principles of business
Question 47. The example ―You can’t make a silk purse out of a sow’s ear‖ is used to ________.
A. show the differences in language A and language
B . stress the importance of word for word translation
C. emphasize the need for translation of the meaning of what is said
D. point out the difference in attributes of animals in English and Spanish
Question 48. A precondition of being a translator is ________.
A. being a linguist B. being bilingual
C. being able to use high-tech equipment D. working well with people
Question 49. Which of the following would a consecutive interpreter be used for?
A. A business transaction between 2 foreign speakers. B. A large meeting of many nations.
C. A translation of a foreign book. D. An interpretation of a major literary work.
Question 50. What would a simultaneous interpreter be most in need of?
A. A dictionary or phrase book. B. Advanced technical style in writing.
C. Headphones and a booth. D. Shorthand skills and a notepad.
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Question 51. What is a difference mentioned between a simultaneous interpreter and a consecutive
interpreter?
A. The money they are paid. B. The size of group with whom they work.
C. Their proficiency in the language. D. The type of dictionary they use.
Question 52. The word ―converting‖ is closest in meaning to ________.
A. understanding B. changing C. reading D. concluding
Question 53. The phrase ―the former‖ refers to ________.
A. simultaneous interpreters B. the booth C. consecutive interpreters D. the conference
Question 54. The word ―rather‖ is closest in meaning to ________.
A. on the contrary B. as a result C. in brief D. in general
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64
History books recorded that the first film with sound was The Jazz Singer in 1927. But sound films, or
talkies, did not suddenly appear after years of silent screenings. From the earliest public performances in
1896, films were accompanied by music and sound effects. These were produced by a single pianist, a small
band, or a full-scale orchestra; large movie theatres could buy sound-effect machines. Research into sound
that was reproduced at exactly at the same time as the pictures - called 'synchronized sound' – began soon
after the very first films were shown. With synchronized sound, characters on the movie screen could sing
and speak. As early as 1896, the newly invented gramophone (m y h t), which played a large disc carrying
music and dialogue, was used as a sound system. The biggest disadvantage was that the sound and pictures
could become unsynchronized if, for example, the gramophone needle jumped or if the speed of the projector
changed. This system was only effective for a single song or dialogue sequence.
In the 'sound-on-film' system, sound was recorded as a series of marks on celluloid which could be read by
an optical sensor. These signals would be placed on the film alongside the image, guaranteeing
synchronization (s ng b ho ). Short feature films were produced in this way as early as 1922. This
system eventually brought us 'talking pictures'.
Question 55. The passage is mainly about the
A. history of silent movies B. disadvantages of synchronized sound
C. development of sound with movies D. research into sound reproduction
Question 56. According to the passage, films using sound effects were screened
A. before 1896 B. as early as 1896 C. as early as 1922 D. in 1927
Question 57. The word 'screenings' in is closest in meaning to
A. projections B. revelations s phát hi n, s khám phá
C. demonstrations D. diversions [dai'və :∫n] s gi i tr , s ti u khiển
Question 58. Which of the following is not mentioned as a producer o! sound to accompany movies?
A. a jazz singer B. single pianist C. a small band D. a gramophone
Question 59. It can be inferred that
A. most movie theaters had a pianist
B. sound-effects machines were not common because they were expensive
C. orchestras couldn't synchronize sound with the pictures
D. gramophones were developed about the same time as moving pictures.
Question 60.According to the passage, gramophones were ineffective because they
A. got out of synchronization with the picture. B. were too large for most movie theaters.
C. were newly invented and still had imperfections D. changed speeds when the needle jumped.
Question 61.The word 'sequence' is closest in meaning to
A. interpretation B. progression C. distribution D. organization
Question 62.The phrase 'these signals' refers to
A. sounds . series C. marks D. sensors
Question 63.According to the passage, sound-on-film guaranteed synchronization because the recording was
A. made during the film of the picture. B. read by an optical sensor
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WRITING:
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence before it.
Question 65: It's the first time I've been to a flower show.
I haven‘t ____________________________________________________.
Question 66: The workers only called off the strike after a new pay offer.
Only after __________________________________________________.
Question 67: . If you don‘t rest yourself you really will be ill.
Unless. ____________________________________________________.
Question 68: she didn‘t come home until last night
It was not ____________________________________________________.
Question 69: As I get older , I want to travel less.
The older____________________________________________________.
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about “why do you learn English?”
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………
…………………………………………………………..………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………
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1 C 33 D
2 A 34 A
3 D 35 C
4 B 36 C
5 B 37 A
6 D 38 B
7 C 39 B
8 C 40 D
9 A 41 D
10 A 42 B
11 A 43 D
12 D 44 B
13 C 45 D
14 A 46 B
15 D 47 A
16 D 48 B
17 C 49 D
18 B 50 D
19 D 51 B
20 D 52 C
21 A 53 B
22 D 54 D
23 B 55 B
24 B 56 B
25 B 57 D
26 B 58 B
27 D 59 B
28 A 60 C
29 A 61 C
30 C 62 D
31 B 63 B
32 C 64 A
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WRITING
A. Rewriting (0,1 x 5 = 0,5 điểm)
Question 1: Jenny is said to have lived in Texas, America for 8 years.
Question 2: Susan paid Mary a compliment on her (beautiful) dress (that day).
Question 3: The documentary film was so boring that she fell asleep.
Question 4: Alice apologized (to her teacher) for coming/having coming late.
Question 5: No one listened to what the politician was saying last night.
(No one paid attention to /took notice of what the politician was saying last night).
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CÂU 66: Unless Joe changes his ways, he will end up in prison .
CÂU 67: I had the washing machine mended by Mr Dryden.
CÂU 68: Sally is the cleverest student in my class.
CÂU 69: This is Mrs. Jones, whose son won the championship last years.
1 D 17 B 33 C 49 A
2 A 18 C 34 B 50 B
3 D 19 A 35 D 51 C
4 B 20 B 36 C 52 B
5 A 21 A 37 A 53 C
6 D 22 C 38 B 54 D
7 A 23 B 39 D 55 B
8 B 24 C 40 C 56 A
9 B 25 A 41 B 57 C
10 B 26 D 42 A 58 B
11 D 27 A 43 D 59 D
12 C 28 B 44 C 60 B
13 B 29 A 45 B 61 B
14 A 30 D 46 A 62 B
15 A 31 D 47 A 63 A
16 C 32 A 48 D 64 B
WRITING : 5 x 0.1 = 0.5 điểm
Part I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
Question 65. If I had listened to him, I would have succeeded.
Question 66. It is no point in calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
Question 67. I‘m like my mum, whereas my brother takes after my dad.
Question 68. The culture of the people on Jeju Island differs from those of other‘s culture.
Question 69. As a result of his illness, Paul did not attend the conference.
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STT KEY
1 C
2 B
3 B
4 D
5 A
6 D
7 B
8 D
9 A
10 D
11 C
12 A
13 C
14 C
15 B
16 D
17 A
18 D
19 D
20 C
21 C
22 C
23 D
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 D
28 A
29 B
30 A
31 D
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32 A
33 D
34 B
35 C
36 C
37 B
38 A
39 B
40 B
41 C
42 B
43 B
44 A
45 A
46 D
47 C
48 D
49 C
50 C
51 D
52 B
53 C
54 D
55 B
56 D
57 A
58 B
59 A
60 A
61 D
62 D
63 A
64 B
I (0,5 điểm)
Câu 65: You don‘t need/ have to finish the work today.
Câu 66: We didn‘t arrive early enough to see the first film.
Câu 67: He was made to study hard for the exam by his parents.
Câu 68: In don‘t know about it as much as him.
Câu 69: Is Susan hadn‘t eaten four cream cakes, she wouldn‘t have felt sick.
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PHẦN VIẾT
Rewrite the following sentences
Question 65. The speaker regrets not choosing English to study at school
Question 66.There was not enough time to hold the meeting
Question 67.Knowing about the internet, he would have invested in some computer companies
Question 68. The more popular television programmes become,the worse they seem
Question 69. She left the office when she saw how angry he was
5 B 27 C 49 C
6 D 28 B 50 A
7 C 29 D 51 C
8 B 30 D 52 D
9 A 31 A 53 A
10 B 32 A 54 D
11 D 33 B 55 C
12 A 34 B 56 A
13 C 35 C 57 C
14 B 36 A 58 B
15 B 37 C 59 A
16 C 38 B 60 B
17 C 39 C 61 D
18 D 40 B 62 B
19 B 41 C 63 A
20 A 42 A 64 D
21 A 43 C
22 C 44 C
I (0,5 điểm)
Câu 65.
It is hard to find a good job in Ho Chi Minh City
Câu 66.
He has not had his eyes tested for ten months
Câu 67. ―Would you like to come to my birthday party, Sue?‖ asked Mark.
Mark invited Sue to come to his birthday party.
Câu 68.
The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming
Câu 69.
People are not allowed to leave bicycles in the hall
.
1.C 2.B 3.C 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.B 9.C 10.A
11.D 12.B 13.D 14.D 15.B 16.A 17.A 18.C 19.D 20.A
21.D 22.A 23.B 24.A 25.C 26.C 27.A 28.D 29.C 30.B
31.C 32.D 33.C 34.C 35.B 36.C 37.B 38.D 39.D 40.A
41.D 42.B 43.C 44.C 45.B 46.D 47.D 48.D 49.C 50.B
51.B 52.A 53.B 54.C 55.D 56.A 57.A 58.C 59.D 60.B
61.A 62.C 63.A 64.D
WRITING.
Part I. Rewrite the sentences sothat they have similar meaning to the original.
65. What did you write yesterday, Ann?" asked Peter.
=> Peter asked Ann what she had written the day before.
66. She has worked for a company in Ha Noi for 10 years.
=>. She began to work/working for a company in Ha Noi 10 years ago.
67. I‘ve nevr read a story that makes me feel attracted like this one
It’s the most attractive story that I have never read.
68. In spite of having a lot of progress in our study, we still need to try harder
Although we have a lot of progress in our study, we still need to try harder
69. I tried as hard as I could , but I just couldnt get the money.
No matter how hard I tried, I couldn’t get the money.
6 D 28 C 50 B
7 C 29 B 51 C
8 C 30 B 52 D
9 D 31 A 53 C
10 C 32 C 54 A
11 C 33 B 55 D
12 C 34 D 56 A
13 A 35 D 57 D
14 C 36 A 58 C
15 D 37 A 59 B
16 B 38 C 60 D
17 B 39 B 61 B
18 C 40 B 62 C
19 B 41 C 63 C
20 D 42 D 64 B
21 A 43 A
22 A 44 B
17 D 39 C 61 A
18 B 40 D 62 C
19 B 41 B 63 B
20 D 42 C 64 D
21 A 43 A
22 A 44 A
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---------------THE END-----------------
14 C 36 B 58 D
15 A 37 B 59 C
16 D 38 C 60 C
17 D 39 A 61 B
18 B 40 D 62 D
19 C 41 B 63 A
20 C 42 B 64 B
21 B 43 C
22 B 44 B
writing
I. (0,5 điểm)
Câu 65: John‘s project will have been finished when we arrive next month.
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5 B 27 B 49 A
6 C 28 D 50 D
7 B 29 D 51 A
8 D 30 B 52 B
9 B 31 C 53 B
10 A 32 B 54 B
11 C 33 B 55 D
12 D 34 C 56 B
13 B 35 B 57 C
14 B 36 C 58 B
15 A 37 A 59 C
16 B 38 A 60 D
17 D 39 A 61 A
18 C 40 D 62 B
19 A 41 A 63 A
20 D 42 B 64 D
21 D 43 B
22 C 44 D
PHẦN VIẾT (2điểm) I(0,5điểm)
Câu 65: My sister finds geology fascinating.
Câu 66: If I had had an umbrella with me, I wouldn‘t have got wet.
Câu 67: Bicycles mustn‘t be left in the hall.
Câu 68: Because of the warm and damp weather, rice grows very well here.
Câu 69: It was not until 1915 that cinema became an industry.
7 B 29 B 51 D
8 A 30 D 52 A
9 B 31 C 53 B
10 B 32 C 54 D
11 B 33 C 55 B
12 C 34 C 56 A
13 C 35 B 57 C
14 D 36 C 58 D
15 C 37 B 59 A
16 C 38 B 60 A
17 A 39 D 61 A
18 B 40 D 62 C
19 D 41 C 63 C
20 B 42 C 64 D
21 B 43 A
22 A 44 A
PHẦN VIẾT
Câu 65: You'd better put your money in the bank.
Câu 66: Unless you study harder, you will surely fail the next exam.
Câu 67: Tom promised to give Janet the answer by the end of this week.
Câu 68: Maria wishes she had been put in a higher class.
Câu 69: Motorists are not careful and there are many accidents.
1 A 33 A
2 D 34 D
3 D 35 D
4 B 36 B
5 A 37 B
6 A 38 D
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7 B 39 A
8 A 40 A
9 A 41 A
10 D 42 B
11 B 43 C
12 A 44 D
13 B 45 A
14 B 46 C
15 C 47 D
16 C 48 C
17 B 49 B
18 D 50 C
19 D 51 A
20 D 52 B
21 B 53 D
22 A 54 B
23 C 55 D
24 A 56 C
25 D 57 A
26 D 58 C
27 C 59 D
28 D 60 B
29 C 61 C
30 C 62 B
31 B 63 C
32 A 64 D
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Phần II (2 điểm)
65. But for your assistance, we could not have, got achievement.
66. It is too wonderful an opportunity for us to miss
67. Ho Chi Minh city is bigger than Hanoi city
68. Linda has not been seen since the day of the party
69: If only I had booked the seats in advance.
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Số câu:5; Số iểm:
0.5
Tỉ lệ %: 5
WRITING 2
Số câu:1; Số
iểm:1.5
Tỉ lệ %: 15
Tổng số cấu: 70 Số câu: 28 Số câu: 20
Tổng số iểm: 10 Số iểm:3.5 Số iểm: 2.5
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