BIOGURU

NEET Full-Length Test - 12

Time: 180mins Marks: 720

[1]: Haplodiploid sex-determination system is found in:

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

honey bee. Drosophila. many birds. grasshopper.

[2]: Choose the option that gives the correct number of pollen grains that will be formed after
250 microspore mother cells undergo microsporogenesis.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

250 500 1000 750

[3]: Identify the incorrectly matched pair.

Option 1: Option 2:
Statins - Monascus purpureus Citric acid - Aspergillus niger
Option 3:
Whisky - Produced by fermentation and distillation
Option 4:
Antibiotics - mean ‘against life’ (with reference to human

[4]: How many base pairs will be there in 40 nucleosomes in a DNA double helix?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

8000 40 20 4000
[5]: A person with monosomy of one sex chromosome (X-chromosome) shows:
A. Furrowed tongue
B. Rudimentary ovaries
C. Gynaecomastia
D. Lack of other secondary sexual characters
Select the correct option from the choices given below:

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

B and D only A, B and D only B and C only A and B only

[6]: In Avery, MacLeod and McCarty experiment, the transformation was affected when:

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3:

DNases were used. RNases were used. proteases were used.
Option 4:
RNase and protease both were used.

[7]: Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Option 1: Option 2:
Trichoderma - Effective biocontrol agent Glomus - Mycorrhiza
Option 3:
Rhizobium - Roots of leguminous plants
Option 4:
Nucleopolyhedrovirus - Broad spectrum insecticidal applications

[8]: Which of the following condition encourage self-pollination?

Option 1:
Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised
Option 2: Option 3:
The anther and stigma are placed at different positions Self-incompatibility
Option 4:
Production of cleistogamous flowers

[9]: How many total ATP molecules are synthesized by the electron transport chain from NADH
+ and FADH2 molecules obtained in TCA cycle from one glucose molecule?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

36 22 10 38
[10]: Select the incorrect statement w.r.t, untranslated regins (UTRs),

Option 1:
These are some additional sequences present on mRNA

Option 2:
These are required for efficient translation
Option 3:
These are present at 5'-end on mRNA after start codon
Option 4:
These are present at 3'-end on mRNA after stop codon.

[11]: Who found nuclein to be acidic in nature and named it nucleic acid?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

J.G.Mendel Friedrich Miescher Meselson and Stahl Altmann

[12]: Select the correct set of plant parts with same ploidy level.
A. Pollen grain B. Embryo sac
C. Zygote D. Endosperm
E. seed

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

A B and C only B. C and E only B, C and D only A and B only

[13]: Select the incorrect statement for bryophytes.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3:

Main plant body is haploid Sex organs are multicellular Independent sporophyte.
Option 4:
They reduce the impact of rainfall and prevent soil erosion

[14]: In ETS of light reaction of photosynthesis, the electrons transfer from PS II to cytochrome
b6f complex via

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Plastoquinone NADP+ Plastocyanin Ferredoxin
[15]: Read the following characteristics of fungi
(i) Asexual reproduction takes place by aplanospores
(ii) Spores are endogenously produced
(iii) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic by
Select the class of fungi, which have all the above characteristics.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Phycomycetes Basidiomycetes Ascomycetes Deuteromycetes

[16]: Select the correct statement from the following

Option 1: Option 2:
Dikaryophase is observed in Agaricus Deuteromycetes reproduce only by sexual spores
Option 3:
Basidiospores are endogenously produced on basidium
Option 4:
Only bracket fungi help in mineral cycling in ecosystem

[17]: Stele includes

Option 1: Option 2:
Hypodermis, pericycle and vascular bundles Endodermis, pericycle and vascular bundles
Option 3: Option 4:
Cortex, endodermis and pericycle Pericycle, vascular bundles and pith

[18]: The membrane bound cell organelles are

Option 1: Option 2:
Ribosome, nucleus and chloroplast Lysosome, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria
Option 3: Option 4:
Ribosome, lysosome and vacuole Golgi apparatus, vacuole and ribosome

[19]: Read the following statements and choose the correct option for them:
A. Terminalisation of chiasmata is an event of diakinesis stage.
B. In diplotene stage the homologous chromosomes are fully condensed and mitotic
spindle is completely assembled.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3:

Only statement A is correct Only statement B is correct Both the statements are correct
Option 4:
Both the statements are incorrect
[20]: When we move from kingdom to species, the number of common characteristic will

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Decrease Remain same Increases Gradually decrease upto the family then increase

[21]: In which of the following process NADH + is reoxidised to NAD+?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Link reaction Alcohol fermentation Krebs' cycle Glycolysis

[22]: In which bryophyte thallus is dorsiventral and closely appressed to the substratum?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Funaria Marchantia Polytrichum Sphagnum

[23]: Whorled phyllotaxy is observed in

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Alstonia Sunflower Calotropis Mustard

[24]: In which phase of the cell cycle, morphology of chromosomes is easily studied?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Prophase Anaphase Metaphase Telophase

[25]: Select the statement incorrect for a food chain.

Option 1:
Primary carnivore gets its energy from NPP,

Option 2:
GFC is the major conduit Of energy flow in aquatic ecosystem.
Option 3:
Rate of formation Of new matter by consumer is secondary productivity
Option 4:
pyramid Of biomass for grassland is upright
[26]: *India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice,"
Above statement exemplifies

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Species diversity Genetic diversity Ecological diversity Community diversity

[27]: Select the statement which is incorrect species-area relationship,

Option 1:
For small areas, the value of slope of regression lies in the range of O. 1 to 0.2
Option 2:
On logarithmic scale, the relationship becomes rectangular hyperbola
Option 3:
For a very large area the regression coefficient ranges between 0.6 to 1.2
Option 4:
Alexander von Humboldt found that species richness increased with increasing explored
area but only upto a limit

[28]: Read the statement A and B and select the correct option.
Statement A: The animal group with most diversity belongs to vertebrates.
Statement B: In plants, the diversity of mosses is more than algae.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3:

Only statement A is correct Only statement B is correct Both A and B statements are correct
Option 4:
Both A and B statements are incorrect

[29]: The effect of loss of biodiversity with the help of Rivet popper hypothesis' was given by

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

David Tilman Paul Ehrlich Robert May Edward Wilson

[30]: In the rivet popper hypothesis, the rivets of wings signifies

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Alien species Invasive species Key species Extinct species
[31]: In sewage treatment plant, the mesh like structure obtained in aeration tank during
biological treatment is the masses of

Option 1: Option 2:
Aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria Aerobic heterotrophic bacteria and fungal filaments
Option 3: Option 4:
Anaerobic heterotrophic bacteria and fungal filaments Aerobic bacteria and algal filaments

[32]: Refer the given figure w.r.t. schematic presentation of cell cycle

Which one of the following is incorrectly matched w.r.t. stage(s) of cell cycle?

Option 1: Option 2:
P – Duplication of Golgi body. X – All the chromosomes align themselves at equator
Option 3:
Y – Reappearance of ER, nucleolus in daughter cells.

Option 4:
B – Achieved by formation of furrow in plant cell.

[33]: Match the following pteridophytes with their respective classes they belong and select the
correct option

Column I Column II
(Pteridophytes) (Classes)

a. Psilotum (i) Sphenopsida

b. Selaginella (ii) Pteropsida

c. Equisetum (iii) Lycopsida

d. Dryopteris (iv) Psilopsida

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) iii
[34]: Assertion (A): A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 2' C pentose sugar.
Reason (R): A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic
linkage to form a nucleoside.

Option 1:
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
Option 2:
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
Option 3: Option 4:
Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

[35]: Assertion (A): The phenomenon in which a single gene exhibits multiple phenotypic
expressions is called polygenic inheritance.
Reason (R): Pleiotropy is mostly due to the effect of a gene on metabolic pathways which
contribute towards different phenotypes.

Option 1:
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion
(A).

Option 2:
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
Option 3: Option 4:
Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

[36]: Statement I: Inflated pod shape is the recessive trait in garden pea.
Statement II: Yellow seed colour is the dominant trait in garden pea.

Option 1: Option 2:
Statement I and Statement II both are correct. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Option 3:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Option 4:
Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect

[37]: How many additional ATP and NADPH2 molecules are required during synthesis of one
glucose molecule in sugarcane than rice plant?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

12,6 6, 0 6, 12 12, 0
[38]: Which of the given processes is not common between C3 and C4 plants?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Krebs cycle Glycolysis Calvin cycle Photorespiration

[39]: Cyclic photophosphorylation differs from non cyclic photophosphorylation as the former

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3:

Does not include PS II Involves synthesis of ATP Occurs in grana lamellae only
Option 4:
Is associated with oxygen evolution

[40]: Alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid fermentation can be differentiated on the basis of

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Number of ATP produced Release of C02 Utilisation of oxygen Usage of NADH +

[41]: Members of Kingdom Fungi are similar to those of Kingdom Animalia in all of the following
features, except.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Being heterotrophic Presence of cell wall Being eukaryotic Being achlorophyllous

[42]: First vascular plants on land are

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Bryophytes Gymnosperms Pteridophytes Angiosperms
[43]: Match the placentation types in column-I with their
examples in column-ll and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column II

a. Parietal (i) Marigold

b. Axile (ii) Primrose

c. Basal (iii) Argemone

d. Free central (iv) Lemon

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

(iii), (ii), (iv) (iii), (iv), (ii) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

[44]: How many types of gametes can be produced by a diploid organism, if it is homozygous
for two loci and heterozygous for three loci?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

3 16 4 8

[45]: Which among the following is coded by one of the RNA polymerases present in the
nucleus of eukaryotes?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Rho factor 16S rRNA 23S rRNA 28S rRNA

[46]: Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer constructed the first recombinant DNA in which year?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

1963 1972 1980 2000

[47]: The closest living relatives of crocodiles among the following group of animals is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Dinosaurs Snakes Birds Turtles
[48]: Excretory product of Periplaneta is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Urea Ammonia Uric acid Guanine

[49]: Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. members belonging to the class Osteichthyes.

Option 1:
They are mostly viviparous and development is direct.
Option 2:
They possess four pairs of gills that are covered by an operculum on each side.
Option 3: Option 4:
They are cold-blooded animals. They possess an air bladder which regulates buoyancy.

[50]:
How many birds mentioned in the box below are
flightless birds?
Pavo, Neophron, Aptenodytes, Struthio, Columba, Corvus

Select the correct option.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Two Four Three Five

[51]: The enzymes that link together two substrate molecules belong to which class of
enzymes?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

II IV VI V

[52]: Choose the odd one w.r.t. venereal diseases.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Hepatitis-B Genital herpes Genital warts Haemophilia

[53]: Select the correct set of tissues which have fibroblasts and many collagen fibres that are
present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibres in a regular pattern.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Tendons and ligaments Bone and blood Cartilage and areolar tissue Skin and adipose tissue
[54]: How many of the below given structures present in frogs is/are not unpaired?
(a) Diencephalon
(b) Cerebral hemisphere
(c) Optic lobe
(d) Olfactory lobe
(e) Cloaca
Select the correct option.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

One Two Three Four

[55]: During aestivation and hibernation, adult frogs perform

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Buccopharyngeal respiration Cutaneous respiration Pulmonary respiration Branchial respiration

[56]: Select the correct matching set w.r.t. phylum and its examples.

Option 1: Option 2:

Porifera Spongilla, Hydra, Sycon

Cnidaria Pennatula, Ctenoplana, Pleurobrachia

Option 3:

Aschelminthes Wuchereria, Ascaris, Ancylostoma

Option 4:

Mollusca Aplysia, Chaetopleura, Ophiura

[57]: Complete the analogy and select the correct option.

Pigment: Carotenoid : : Alkaloid :

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Anthocyanin Morphine Carotenoid Concanavalin A

[58]: During joint diastole in human heart under normal conditions

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3:

Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are open Active filling of ventricles occurs Semilunar valves are open
Option 4:
Ventricles pump the blood away from heart
[59]:
Match column I with column II and select the correct
option w.r.t. humans
Column I Column II

a. Eosinophils (i) Thrombocytes

Antigen 'A' on RBC

b. RBC (ii)
surface

'A' blood
c. (iii) Life span is of 120 days
group

d. Platelets (iv) Resist infections

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

(i), (ii), (iii), d(iv) (i), b(iii), (iv), d(ii) (iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

[60]: Two hormones ' ' and ' ' regulate the gene expression or chromosome function by

the interaction of hormone-receptor complex with the genome. Both ' ' and ' ' are
different in chemical nature.
Identify ' ' and ' ' respectively and select the correct option

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Tetraiodothyronine, estrogen Progesterone, PTH Glucagon, epinephrine Cortisol, adrenaline

[61]: Hashish is obtained from the extract of which plant?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Papaver somniferum Erythroxylum coca Atropa belladona Cannabis sativa

[62]: Complete the analogy and select the correct option.

Renin : JG cells : : Vasopressin :

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Adenohypophysis Hypothalamus Adrenal gland Atria of heart
[63]: How many of the given statements is/are correct w.r.t. the functions of tubules?
(a) Collecting duct plays a role in the maintenance of pH and ionic balance of blood by the
selective secretion of and .

(b) Nearly all of the essential nutrients, of electrolytes and water are
reabsorbed by PCT.
(c) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is highly permeable to water.
(d) The descending limb of loop of Henle is completely permeable to electrolytes.
Select the correct option.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Two One Three Four

[64]: At which of the following locations, Schwann cells are not present?

Option 1: Option 2:
Axon of myelinated nerve fibres of ANS Axon of unmyelinated nerve fibres of ANS
Option 3: Option 4:
Axon of myelinated nerve fibres of PNS Axon terminal of myelinated nerve fibres of CNS

[65]: Which of the following is related to the part of human hindbrain that is directly connected to
the spinal cord?

Option 1:
Contains a number of centres which control body temperature, urge for eating and drinking
Option 2:
Involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour and expression of emotional reactions
Option 3:
Contains centres which control respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions
Option 4:
Possess very convoluted surface in order to provide the additional space for many more neurons

[66]: Enzymes catalyse biochemical reactions by

Option 1: Option 2:
Lowering the activation energy Increasing the activation energy
Option 3: Option 4:
Establishing stable bonds with the substrates Increasing the temperature
[67]: Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. reproductive cycle in female primates.

Option 1:
The follicular phase is followed by the menstrual phase.
Option 2:
The ovulatory phase is followed by the luteal phase.
Option 3:
The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increases gradually during the follicular phase.
Option 4:
In the luteal phase, corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for
maintenance of endometrium.

[68]: Seminal plasma does not contain

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Enzymes Sperm Fructose

[69]:
Succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by ______ which
closely resembles the substrate succinate in its
molecular structure.
Select the option to fill in the blank correctly.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Citrate Acetate Malonate Lactic acid

[70]: In 1963, two enzymes were isolated from E. coli. Which statement is correct regarding
these enzymes?

Option 1:
These two enzymes were oxidoreductases.
Option 2:
These two enzymes were transferases and polymerases respectively.
Option 3:
One of them added methyl groups to the bacterial DNA, while the other cut the viral DNA.
Option 4:
One of them was ligases and the other cut the DNA.
[71]: Given above is a diagrammatic sectional view of female gland. Identify the labelled
structures ' X ' and ' ' and select the correct option.

Option 1: Option 2:

‘X’ ‘Y’
‘X’ ‘Y’
Mammary lobe Lactiferous duct
Alveolus Mammary lobe

Option 3: Option 4:

‘X’ ‘Y’ ‘X’ ‘Y’

Ampulla Mammary lobe Fat Areola

[72]: A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to excessive cigarette smoking
is called

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Asthma Emphysema Pneumonia Occupational respiratory disorder

[73]: Complete the analogy and select the correct option.

Multicellular gland : Sebaceous gland :: Unicellular gland : …… .

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Mammary gland Goblet cells Salivary gland Sweat gland
[74]: Which of the following options is correctly matched?

Option 1: Option 2:
Hippocampus – 3-chambered heart Rana – 2-chambered heart
Option 3: Option 4:
Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart Pavo – 3-chambered heart

[75]: How many of the animals given in the box below have a segmented body, closed
circulation and bilateral symmetry?

Octopus, Locusta, Nereis, Echinus, Balanoglossus, Pheretima, Periplaneta,

Antedon

Select the correct options.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Four Seven Two Five

[76]: Transmission of HIV does not occur

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3:

By hugging the infected person By transfusion of contaminated blood By sharing infected needles
Option 4:
From infected mother to her foetus through placenta

[77]: In an adult human, under normal physiological conditions, all of the given factors lead to
dissociation of oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin, except

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

High partial pressure of Low partial pressure of High concentration High pH

[78]: A bioreactor does not contain any

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Agitator system Oxygen delivery system Foam control system Gene regulation system
[79]: Assertion (A): Insulin cannot be orally administered to diabetic patients.
Reason (R): Insulin leads to a sudden decrease in blood sugar levels if given orally.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

Option 1:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Option 2: Option 3:
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) is true, (R) is false
Option 4:

(A) is false, ( ) is true

[80]: Pre-historic men who are considered as the connecting link between men and apes and
who hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruits were

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Australopithecines Homo erectus Homo sapiens Dryopithecus

[81]: The gland named ' ' is a lobular structure located between lungs behind the sternum on

the ventral side of aorta in humans. Select the correct statement w.r.t. ' '.

Option 1:
It secretes a steroidal hormone called thymosin.
Option 2:
It gets degenerated in old individuals resulting in decreased production of thyroxine.
Option 3:
Its hormone plays a major role in the glucose homeostasis.
Option 4:
Its hormone plays a major role in differentiation of T-lymphocytes.

[82]: Which of the following is not an example of homologous structures?

Option 1: Option 2:
Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita Flippers of penguins and dolphins
Option 3: Option 4:
Forelimbs of human and cheetah Vertebrate hearts or brains
[83]: In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of homozygous
recessive genotype of eye colour is 0.09 . Calculate the percentage of individuals
homozygous for the dominant allele.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

91% 49% 64% 24%

[84]:
Read the following statements.
Statement A: MTP is considered relatively safe when body of foetus is covered with fine
hair, their eyelids separate and eyelashes are formed.
Statement B: Nearly million MTPs are performed in a year all over the

world which accounts to of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.

Select the correct option.

Option 1: Option 2:

Both statements and are correct Both statements and are incorrect

Option 3: Option 4:
Only statement B is correct Only statement A is correct

[85]: How many of the bones given in the box below are the part of axial skeleton in humans?

Frontal, Maxilla, Zygomatic, Ethmoid, Parietal, Temporal, Scapula

Select the correct option.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Six Five Three Two

[86]: Supra-oesophageal ganglion of cockroach supplies nerves to …… and ……...

Select the correct option to fill in the blanks.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3:

Antennae, compound eyes Antennae, labium Compound eyes, tegmina
Option 4:
Compound eyes, hypopharynx
[87]: Which of the following is true w.r.t. DNA fragments during gel electrophoresis?

Option 1:
Larger the DNA fragment, the farther it moves from anode
Option 2:
It is used for separation of positively charged DNA fragments
Option 3:
Negatively charged DNA fragments move towards the anode
Option 4:
Bees wax is commonly used as a matrix

[88]: Select the correct set of structures which are haploid in humans.

Option 1:
Primary spermatocyte, secondary oocyte, spermatogonia
Option 2:
Secondary oocyte, spermatid, spermatozoan
Option 3:
Second polar body, secondary spermatocyte, primary oocyte
Option 4:
First polar body, ovum, spermatogonium

[89]: Which of the following set of bones is involved in the formation of acetabulum of an adult
human?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Ileum, Ischium, Coccyx Ilium, Ischium, Pubis Ilium, Sacrum, Pubis Ileum, Ischium, Pubis
[90]: Select the incorrect match.

Option 1:

Glomerulonephritis Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney

Option 2:

Renal calculi Stone or insoluble mass of crystallised salts formed within the kidneys

Option 3:

Uremia Accumulation of urea in urine

Option 4:

Ketonuria Presence of ketone bodies in urine

[91]: A particle starts moving from position of rest under a constant acceleration. If it travels a
distance in second, what distance will it travel in next second?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[92]: A juggler throws ball into air. He throws one whenever the previous one is at its highest
point. How high do the balls rise if he throws balls each second?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[93]: The acceleration-time graph of a particle moving along -axis is shown. If the particle

starts with at , find velocity at .

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[94]: A ball rolls on the top of stair way with a horizontal velocity . If the steps are

high and wide if the ball hits the edge of the step. Then value of will
be

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[95]: An astronaut is rotated in a horizontal circle at a radius of 5 m . If the astronaut can

withstand a maximum acceleration of 7 g , then maximum numbers of permissible
revolution per second is .

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Zero
[96]: Two block of mass and connected with light spring are placed on the smooth
horizontal surface force is applied on block of mass are shown in the figure. If
acceleration of block of mass is a then the acceleration of block of mass will be

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

a

[97]: A block of mass 1 kg is released on a fixed wedge as shown in the figure. If coefficient of
friction between the wedge and block is 0.5. Then net contact force on the block will be

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[98]: The height of water fall is 50 m . Calculate the difference between temperature of water at
the top and bottom of the fall. ( joule's mechanical equivalent, specific heat
capacity)

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[99]: A bob of mass is rotating in a vertical circle. If velocity of the bob at the lower most

position is . Then angle rotated by the bob before string slack is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[100]: The Vernier scale of the travelling microscope has 50 divisions which coincide with 49
main scale divisions. If each main scale division is 0.5 mm , calculate the minimum
inaccuracy in the measurement of distance.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

0.1 mm 0.01 mm 1 mm 0.5 mm

[101]: The variation of angular position of a point on a rotating rigid body, with time is shown.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3:

The body is rotating clockwise The body is rotating anticlockwise The body is in linear motion
Option 4:
The body is at rest
[102]: A particle of mass is moving in plane with a uniform velocity with its trajectory

running parallel to the -axis and intersecting -axis at . Change in its angular
momentum about the origin as it bounces elastically from a wall at constant is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Zero

[103]: The net external torque on a system of particles about an axis is zero. Then

Option 1: Option 2:
The forces must not act radially The forces must not act on the axis of rotation
Option 3:
The forces may be acting parallel to the axis of rotation
Option 4:
The torque caused by each individual forces must be zero

[104]: Satellites orbiting the earth have finite life and sometimes debris of satellite fall to the
earth. This is because

Option 1:
The solar cell and batteries in satellites run out
Option 2:
The laws of gravitation predict a trajectory spiralling inwards
Option 3:
Of the viscous forces causing the speed of satellite and hence height to gradually decrease
Option 4:
Of collision with other satellites
[105]: Two capillaries of the same length but radius are connected to the water
tank at same height. The water falling through these tubes bear rate.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[106]: A wire having mass , specific heat capacity , length and volume , Young's

modulus is extended by and released. The increase in temperature of wire will be

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[107]: Water flow through a friction less duct with a cross-section varying as shown. Pressure 'P'
at point along the axis is represented by

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[108]: For a constant hydraulic stress on an object, the fractional change in volume and its bulk
modulus are related as

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[109]: The left block in the diagram collides inelastically with the right block and sticks to it. The
amplitude of the resulting SHM is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[110]: Two pendulums at rest start swinging together. Their lengths are respectively 1.44 m and
1 m They will again start swinging in same phase together after (of longer pendulum)

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

1 Vibration 3 Vibration 4 Vibration 5 Vibration

[111]: A particle executes between and . The time taken for it to

go from 0 to is and to go from to is , then

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[112]: Two waves in the same medium are represented by curves in the figure. Find the
ratio of their average intensities.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[113]: Three transverse waves are as follows standing waves can be obtained by
(A)
(B)
(C)

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

(A) and (B) (A) and (C) (B) and (C) Any two

[114]: The amplitude of vibration of the particles of air through which a sound wave of intensity

and frequency 5 kHz is passing is , speed of sound

in air

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

6.4 nm 3.1 nm 8.1 nm 8.9 nm

[115]: The fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe is same as the first overtone frequency
of an open pipe. If the length of open pipe is 50 cm the length of closed pipe is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

25 cm 12.5 cm 100 cm 200 cm

[116]: A capacitor of capacitance is charged to a potential difference from a cell and then
disconnected from it. A charge is now given to it's plate. The potential difference
across the capacitor is now

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

, If
[117]: A parallel plate capacitor has two layers of dielectric as shown. The capacitor is
connected across a battery. The graph which shows the variation of electric field
and distance from left plate

Option 1: Option 2:

Option 3: Option 4:

[118]: A current / flows through a uniform wire of diameter when the mean electron drift

velocity is . The same current will flow through a wire of diameter made of the same
material if the mean drift velocity of the electron is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[119]: The ratio of power dissipated in and as shown in other circuit is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

9

[120]: A potentiometer wire has length 10 m and resistance . It in connected to a battery

of emf 11 V and internal resistance , then the potential gradient in the wire is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

None of these

[121]: A disc of mass , radius and carrying a charge is rotated with angular speed
about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane. Its magnetic
moment is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[122]: A wire of mass has the shape of a ring of radius . The wire is placed in plane
and it is free to rotate about a diameter which is parallel to -axis and carries a current .
A uniform magnetic field is switched on along -axis find the average speed acquired
by the ring as it rotates by .

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[123]: A thin magnetic needle is bent to form a semicircle. What will be the percentage change
in equivalent dipole moment?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[124]: A hydrogen atom is paramagnetic. A hydrogen molecule is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Diamagnetic Paramagnetic Ferromagnetic Depends on temperature

[125]: Lines passing through points of zero declination is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Isogonic lines Isoclinic lines Agonic lines Aclinic lines

[126]: rod is rotating in a uniform magnetic field as shown about point .

Potential difference between and is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Zero

[127]: A coil of inductance 0.4 mH connected to a capacitor 400 pF . To what wavelength, is this
circuit tuned?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

733.6 m 743.6 m 753.6 m 763.6 m
[128]:
An electromagnetic wave of intensity strikes a small mirror of area

, held perpendicular to the approaching wave. What is the radiation

force on the mirror?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[129]: In case of thick lens, the ray incident in the direction of optical center is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Not deviated Laterally deviated Deviated by Depends on focal length of the lens

[130]: Two coherent sources each emitting light of Intensity interfere in a medium at a point

where phase difference between them is . The resultant intensity at the point is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[131]: Monochromatic light of wavelength is incident on a surface area . If

intensity of light is . The rate at which photons strike the target is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[132]: The refractive indices of flint glass prism for red, yellow and violet colors are 1.790, 1.795
and 1.805 respectively, the dispersing power of flint glass is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

0.0189 0.0289 0.0389 0.0489
[133]: A Zener diode having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V , is used in a voltage regulator
circuit is shown. The current through the diode is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

15 mA 20 mA 25 mA 5 mA

[134]:
Find the half-life period of a radioactive material if its activity drops of of its initial

value in 40 years.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

5 years 10 years 15 years 20 years

[135]: The ratio of product of velocity and time period of electron orbiting in and
stable orbits.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[136]: Volume of O2 required at STP to react completely with 180 g of ethane is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

470.4 L 448 L 134.4 L 224 L
[137]: Match the list I with list II.

Choose the correct match.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

[138]: Consider the following two statements:

Statement I : Bohr’s theory was able to explain the splitting of spectral lines in the
presence of magnetic filed or an electric field. Statement II : Bohr’s theory could not
explain the ability of atoms to form molecules by chemical bonds. In the light of above
statements, choose the correct option.

Option 1: Option 2:
Both statement I and statement II are correct Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
Option 3: Option 4:
Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

[139]: A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of wavelength 6626 pm. The number of
photons emitted per second by the bulb is (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js)

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

3.33 × 1017 3.33 × 1018 3.33 × 1019 3.33 × 1020

[140]: An atom with which of the following electronic configuration has the highest ionization
enthalpy?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

1s22s22p1 1s22s2 1s22s22p3 1s22s22p4
[141]: Consider the following statements
(a) Bi and Rb are representative elements
(b) Ge and Sb are semi-metals
(c) Ti and Ce are d-block elements
The correct statements are

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

(a) and (c) only (b) and (c) only (a) and (b) only (a), (b) and (c)

[142]: Consider the following two statements

Statement I : Formal charges help in the selection of the lowest energy structure from a
number of possible Lewis structures for a given species.
Statement II : Generally the, lowest energy structure is the one with the maximum formal
charges on atoms. In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

Option 1: Option 2:
Both statement I and statement II are correct Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Option 3:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Option 4:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

[143]: Following are the two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :The resultant dipole moment of NF 3 is greater than that of NH3.
Reason (R) : Fluorine being more electronegative than hydrogen leads to greater dipole
moment of NF 3 as compared to NH3.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

Option 1:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Option 2:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Option 3: Option 4:
(A) is correct but (R) is incorrect Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

[144]: Under isothermal conditions, the correct options for an ideal gas undergoing reversible
compression is:

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3:

Option 4:
[145]: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Heat added to a system at lower temperature causes greater randomness
than when the same amount of heat is added to it at higher temperature.
Statement II: The total entropy change for system and surrounding of a spontaneous
process is greater than zero.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.

Option 1: Option 2:
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Option 3: Option 4:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct Both statement I and statement II are correct

[146]: Given below are two statements:

One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Aqueous solution of NH4Cl will be acidic.
Reason (R): Aqueous NH4Cl undergoes cationic hydrolysis.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer among the options given
below.

Option 1: Option 2:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (A) is true but (R) is false
Option 3: Option 4:
(A) is false but (R) is true Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

[147]: In which of the following solutions, PbCl2 has minimum solubility?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

0.02 M NaCl 0.02 M MgCl2 0.01 M PbSO4 0.02 M NH4Cl

[148]: The oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

+ 10 +8 +5 +6

[149]: The oxidation number of terminal Br in tribromooctaoxide is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

+4 +7 +5 +6
[150]: Number of 3-centre-2-electron bond(s) in B2H6 is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

3 2 4 1

[151]: Which among the following has highest melting point?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

B Al Ga In

[152]: Given below are the two statements:

Statement I: Fractions of crude oil in petroleum industry are separated by fractional
distillation.
Statement II: In fractional distillation, the vapours rising up in the fractionating column
become richer in less volatile component.
In light of above statements, choose the correct answer.

Option 1:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Option 2: Option 3:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct Both statement I and statement II are correct
Option 4:
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

[153]: Given below are the two statements:

Statement-I: Paper chromatography is a type of adsorption chromatography.
Statement-II: Adsorption chromatography is based on the fact that different compounds
are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees.
In light of above statements, choose the correct answer.

Option 1:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Option 2: Option 3:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct Both statement I and statement II are correct
Option 4:
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
[154]: Consider the following compounds
(i) Hexane
(ii) Heptane
(iii) 2, 2–Dimethylpropane
(iv) 2– Methylbutane
The correct order of their melting point is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

(iii) > (ii) > (i) > (iv) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (iii) (iii) > (iv) > (i) > (ii)

[155]: Consider the following reaction sequence

Major product B is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[156]: Given below are the two statements:

Statement I: The solutions which obey Raoult’s law over the entire range of
concentration are known as ideal solution.
Statement II: For ideal solution, ΔmixH = 0 and ΔmixV = 0.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer.

Option 1: Option 2:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect Both statement I and statement II are correct
Option 3: Option 4:
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

[157]: If mass percent (w/w%) of methanol in aqueous solution is 24% then the molality of
methanol in the solution will be

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

4.25 m 9.87 m 6.71 m 7.85 m
[158]: Consider the change in oxidation state of iodine corresponding to different emf values as
shown in the diagram below:

The species which will undergo disproportionation are

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

and and and and

[159]: Given below are the two statements:

Statement I: Conductivity of iron is more than copper at 298.15 K. Statement II: CuO
acts as a semiconductor.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer.

Option 1:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Option 2: Option 3:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct Both statement I and statement II are correct
Option 4:
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

[160]: Match list-I with list-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
[161]: Consider the following statements
Statement (I): For the reaction, Product, rate
represents the collision frequency of reactants, and B.

Statement (II): represents the fraction of molecules with energies equal to or

less than activation energy .
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

Option 1:
Both statement (I) and statement (II) are correct
Option 2:
Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is incorrect
Option 3:
Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II) is correct
Option 4:
Both statement (I) and statement (II) are incorrect

[162]:
The slope of of first order reaction is . The value of of

the reaction is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[163]: Match List-I with List-II

The correct match is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3:

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Option 4:
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
[164]: Which among the following products is formed when SO2(g) reacts with Cl2 in presence
of charcoal?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

SOCl2 SO3 SO2Cl2 S2Cl2

[165]: The colour and geometry of manganate ion is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

Green and tetrahedral Orange and pyramidal Purple and tetrahedral Pink and square planar

[166]: KMnO4 on heating at 513 K gives

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

K2MnO4 and O2 only MnO2, K2MnO4 and O2 MnO2 and O2 only K2MnO4 and MnO2 only

[167]: Complex with maximum value of CFSE among the following is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

[Fe(H2O)6]3+ [Fe(CN)6]3- [FeF6]3- [Fe(CN)6]4-

[168]: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as assertion (A) and other is labelled as
reason (R).
Assertion (A) : H2N – NH2 is a chelate ligand.
Reason (R) : In H2N – NH2 both nitrogen has one lone pair each.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below.

Option 1: Option 2:
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) is true but (R) is false
Option 3: Option 4:
(A) is false but (R) is true Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
[169]: Correct order of leaving ability of groups is

Option 1: Option 2:

Option 3: Option 4:

[170]:

Major product for above reaction will be

Option 1: Option 2:

Option 3: Option 4:

[171]:

IUPAC name of compound given above is

Option 1: Option 2:
1-Chloro-2-methylcyclohexan-4-ol 2-Chloro-1-methylcyclohexan-5-ol
Option 3: Option 4:
4-Chloro-3-methylcyclohexan-1-ol 4-Chloro-5-methylcyclohexan-1-ol
[172]:

Major products formed in reaction given above are

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

[173]: Consider the following carboxylic acids

(i) Lactic acid
(ii) Tartaric acid
(iii) Adipic acid
Which of the following can be categorised as optically active dicarboxylic acid?

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

(i) and (iii) only (ii) only (ii) and (iii) only (iii) only
[174]: Consider the following compounds:
(i) Vanillin
(ii) Acrolein
(iii) Mesityl oxide
The compound(s) in which both –OH and –CHO groups are present is/are

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

(i) and (ii) only (i) only (ii) only (i), (ii) and (iii)

[175]: The product ‘P’ in the given reaction is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

N-Phenylhydroxylamine Azoxybenzene Azobenzene Hydrazobenzene

[176]: Following are the two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Acetylation of –NH2 group of aniline reduces its activating effect towards
electrophilic substitution.
Reason (R): Acetyl group on benzene has electron withdrawing nature.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

Option 1:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Option 2: Option 3:
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) is true and (R) is false
Option 4:
(A) is false and (R) is true

[177]: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Pb2+ ions react with potassium chromate to form yellow precipitate.
Statement-II: Lead chromate is insoluble in hot sodium hydroxide solution.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

Option 1:
Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
Option 2: Option 3:
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
Option 4:
Both the statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
[178]: For the detection of functional group, alcohol (R – OH) is treated with ceric ammonium
nitrate while phenol is treated with freshly prepared ferric chloride to obtain red and violet
coloured complexes respectively. Chemically these red and violet complexes respectively
are

Option 1:

and

Option 2:

and

Option 3:

and

Option 4:

and

[179]: The total number of chiral carbon atoms in α-D-(+) - Glucopyranose structure is

Option 1: Option 2: Option 3: Option 4:

2 3 4 5

[180]: Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Nucleotide contains a sugar molecule and a nitrogenous base only.
Statement-II: Nucleoside contains a sugar molecule, a nitrogenous base and a
phosphoric acid molecule.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

Option 1:
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Option 2: Option 3:
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Both the statements-I and II are correct
Option 4:
Both the statements-I and II are incorrect