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NEET

Prahaar Major Test - 16

DURATION: 200 Minutes DATE: 20/04/2024 M.MARKS: 720

Topic Covered
Physics : Full Syllabus (XI & XII)
Chemistry : Full Syllabus (XI & XII)
Botany : Full Syllabus (XI & XII)
Zoology : Full Syllabus (XI & XII)

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four section in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-1 (Physics),
Section - II (Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each
Subject and each subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all
compulsory) and Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A 6. A particle of mass m strikes a wall with speed v at
an angle 30° with the wall elastically as shown in
1. Which of the following is the most precise the figure. The magnitude of impulse imparted to
measurement? the ball by the wall is
(1) 3 × 10–3 m (2) 0.0030 m
(3) 30 × 10–4 m (4) 300 × 10–5 m

2. A train starts from rest from a station with

acceleration 0.2 m/s2 on a straight track and then
comes to rest after attaining maximum speed on
another station due to retardation 0.4 m/s2. If total mv
time spent is half an hour, then distance between (1) mv (2)
2
two stations is [Neglect length of train]
(1) 216 km (2) 512 km (3) 2 mv (4) 3 mv
(3) 728 km (4) 1296 km
7. For a particle moving under the action of a
3. A body is projected vertically upward direction variable force, kinetic energy-position graph is
from the surface of earth. If upward direction is given, then
taken as positive, then acceleration of body during
its upward and downward journey are respectively
(1) Positive, negative
(2) Negative, negative
(3) Positive, positive
(1) At A particle is decelerating
(4) Negative, positive
(2) At B particle is accelerating
(3) At C particle has maximum velocity
4. A particle is projected from ground with speed 80
(4) At D particle has maximum acceleration
m/s at an angle 30° with horizontal from ground.
The magnitude of average velocity of particle in
8. A particle of mass 200 g is moving in a circle of
time interval t = 2s to t = 6s is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
radius 2 m. The particle is just ‘looping the loop’.
(1) 40 2 m/s (2) 40 m/s The speed of the particle and the tension in the
(3) Zero (4) 40 3 m/s string at highest point of the circular path are (g =
10 ms–2)
5. A stone projected from ground with certain speed (1) 4 ms–1, 5 N (2) 4.47 ms–1, zero
at an angle θ with horizontal attains maximum (3) 2.47 ms , zero
–1
(4) 1 ms–1, zero
height h1. When it is projected with same speed at
an angle θ with vertical attains height h2. The 9. The power of water pump is 4 kW. If g = 10 ms–2,
horizontal range of projectile is the amount of water it can raise in 1 minute to a
h1 + h2 height of 20 m is
(1) (2) 2h1h2 (1) 100 litre (2) 1000 litre
2
(3) 1200 litre (4) 2000 litre
(3) 4 h1h2 (4) h1 + h2

Space for Rough Work

[2]
10. A disc of mass m and radius r is free to rotate 14. The change in potential energy when a body of
about its centre as shown in the figure. A string is mass m is raised to height nR from the earth’s
wrapped over its rim and a block of mass m is surface is (R is radius of earth)
attached to the free end of the string. The system is  n 
released from rest. The speed of the block as it (1) mgR   (2) nmgR
 n −1
descends through a height h, is
 n   n2 
(3) mgR  (4) mgR  2
 n +1
  n + 1 
 

15. If an object is projected vertically upwards with

speed, half the escape speed of earth, then the
maximum height attained by it is [R is radius of
2 earth]
(1) 2gh (2) gh R
3 (1) R (2)
2
gh 1
(3) 2 (4) 3 gh R
3 2 (3) 2 R (4)
3
11. When a body is rolling without slipping on a rough
horizontal surface, the work done by friction is 16. A metallic rod of length l and cross-sectional area
(1) Always zero A is made of a material of Young’s modulus Y. If
(2) May be zero the rod is elongated by an amount y, then the work
(3) Always positive done is proportional to
(4) Always negative 1
(1) y (2)
y
12. A solid spherical ball is rolling without slipping
down an inclined plane. The fraction of its total 1
(3) y2 (4)
energy associated with rotation is y2
2 2
(1) (2) 17. If the Bulk modulus of lead is 8.0 × 109 N/m2 and
5 7 the initial density of the lead is 11.4 g/cc, then
3 3 under the pressure of 2.0 × 108 N/m2, the density of
(3) (4)
5 7 the lead is
(1) 11.3 g/cc (2) 11.5 g/cc
13. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls (3) 11.6 g/cc (4) 11.7 g/cc
down an inclined plane of height h without
slipping. The speed of its centre of mass when it 18. On putting a capillary tube in a pot filled with
reaches the bottom is water, the level of water rises upto a height of 4 cm
4 in the tube. If a tube of half the diameter is used
(1) 2gh (2) gh
3 instead, the water will rise to a height of nearly
3 4g (1) 2 cm (2) 4 cm
(3) gh (4) (3) 8 cm (4) 11 cm
4 h
Space for Rough Work

[3]
19. Soap helps in cleaning clothes, because 24. A particle is executing S.H.M. with time period T.
(1) It attracts the dirt particles Starting from mean position, time taken by it to
(2) It decreases the surface tension of water 5
complete oscillations, is
(3) It increases the cohesive force between 8
water molecules
T T
(4) It increases the angle of contact (1) (2)
12 6
20. A steel tape is calibrated at 20°C. On a cold day 5T 7T
(3) (4)
when the temperature is –15°C, percentage error in 12 12
the tape will be [αsteel = 1.2 × 10–5 °C–1]
(1) –0.035% (2) –0.042% 25. A wave isrepresented by the equation
(3) 0.012% (4) –0.018%  π
A sin 10πx + 15πt +  where x is in metre and t
 6
21. In which process P-V diagram is a straight line
in second. The expression represents
parallel to the volume axis?
(1) Isochoric (2) Isobaric (1) A wave travelling in negative x-direction
(3) Isothermal (4) Adiabatic with a velocity of 1.5 m/s
(2) A wave travelling in positive x direction
22. The P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic with a velocity of 1.5 m/s
processes are shown in the figure. The graphs 1 (3) A wave traveling in positive x-direction
and 2 should correspond respectively to with wavelength 0.2 m
(4) A wave travelling in negative x-direction
with a velocity of 150 m/s

26. A charge Q is placed at the centre of a square. If

(1) O2 and He (2) He and O2 electric field intensity due to the charge at the
(3) O2 and CO (4) N2 and O2 corners of the square is E1 and the intensity at the
mid-point of the side of square is E2, then the ratio
23. The ratio of number of collisions per second at the E
walls of containers by He and O2 gas molecules of 1 will be
E2
kept at same volume and temperature, is (assume
normal incidence on walls) 1
(1) (2) 2
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 2 2
(3) 1 : 22 (4) 22 : 1 1
(3) (4) 2
2

Space for Rough Work

[4]
27. Point charges each of magnitude Q are placed at 31. Two batteries of different e.m.f.'s and internal
three corners of a square as shown in the diagram. resistance connected in series with each other and
What is the direction of the resultant electric field with an external load resistor. The current is 3.0 A.
at the fourth corner? When the polarity of one battery is reversed, the
current becomes 1.0 A. The ratio of the e.m.f.'s of
the two batteries is
(1) 2.5 (2) 2
(3) 1.5 (4) 1

32. In figure, the e.m.f. of the cell is 2 V and internal

resistance is negligible. The resistance of the
(1) OC (2) OE voltmeter is 80 ohm. The reading of the voltmeter
(3) OD (4) OB will be
28. If on the x-axis electric potential decreases
uniformly from 60 V to 20 V between x = –2 m to
x = +2 m, then the magnitude of electric field at the
origin
(1) Must be 10 V/m
(2) May be greater than 10 V/m
(3) is zero (1) 2 volt (2) 1.33 volt
(4) is 5 V/m (3) 1.60 volt (4) 0.80 volt

29. An infinite conducting sheet has surface charge 33. A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω gives full
density σ. The distance between two equipotential scale deflection at 10 mA current. What should be
surfaces is r. The potential difference between the value of shunt so that it can measure a current
these two surfaces is of 100 mA?
σr σr (1) 11.11 Ω (2) 1.1 Ω
(1) (2)
2ε0 ε0 (3) 9.9 Ω (4) 4.4 Ω
σ σ
(3) (4)
ε0 r 2ε0 r 34. Two long straight wires are placed along x-axis
and y-axis. They carry current I1 and I2
30. Two small spheres each carrying a charge q are respectively. The equation of locus of zero
placed, distance r apart. If one of the spheres is magnetic induction in the magnetic field produced
taken around the other in a circular path, the work by them is
done will be equal to I 
(1) Force between them × r (1) y = x (2) y = 2 x
Force between them  I1 
(2)
2πr I 
(3) y = 1 x (4) y = ( I1I 2 ) x
(3) Force between them × 2πr  I2 
(4) Zero

Space for Rough Work

[5]
35. If the planes of two identical concentric coils are 38. An inductor is connected to a direct voltage source
perpendicular and the magnetic moment of each through a switch. Now
coil is M, then the resultant magnetic moment of (1) Very large emf is induced in inductor when
switch is closed
the two coils will be
(2) Larger emf is induced when switch is
(1) M (2) 2 M opened
(3) 3M (4) 2M (3) Large emf is induced whether switch is
closed or opened
(4) No emf is induced whether switch is closed
SECTION – B
or opened

36. In a hydrogen atom, an electron of mass m and 39. A solenoid has 2000 turns wound over a length of
charge e revolves in an orbit of radius r making n 0.3 m. The area of its cross section is 1.2 × 10–3 m2.
revolutions per second. If the mass of hydrogen Around its central section a coil of 300 turns is
nucleus is M, the magnetic moment associated wound. If an initial current of 2 A is reversed in
with the orbital motion of electron is 0.25 s, the e.m.f. induced in the coil is equal to
(1) 6 × 10–4 V (2) 4.8 × 10–2 V
πner 2 m (3) 2.4 × 10 V –2
(4) 48 kV
(1) (2) πner 2
M +m
40. In series LCR circuit, the phase difference between
πner 2 πner 2 m
(3) (4) voltage across L and voltage across C is
m M (1) Zero (2) π
π
37. Assertion: The electric field induced due to (3) (4) 2π
2
changing magnetic field is non-conservative.
Reason: The line integral of the electric field 41. The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic
induced due to changing magnetic field along a wave is given by = 2 × 10–7sin(0.5 × 103x + 1.5 ×
closed loop is always zero. 1011t). This electromagnetic wave is
(1) Visible light (2) Infrared
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(3) Microwave (4) Radio-wave
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion. 42. A person can see clearly only up to a distance of
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the 25 cm. He wants to read a book placed at a
reason is not the correct explanation of the distance of 50 cm. What kind of lens does he
assertion. require for this purpose and what must be its
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is power?
(1) Concave, – 1.0 D
false.
(2) Convex, + 1.5 D
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false (3) Concave, – 2.0 D
statements. (4) Convex, + 2.0 D

Space for Rough Work

[6]
43. When a telescope is adjusted for normal vision, the 48. When 90Th228 gets converted into 83Bi212, then the
distance of the objective from the eye-piece is number of α- and β-particles emitted will
found to be 80 cm. The magnifying power of the respectively be
telescope is 19. What are the focal lengths of the (1) 4α, 7β (2) 4α, 1β
lenses? (3) 8α, 7β (4) 4α, 4β
(1) 61 cm, 19 cm (2) 40 cm, 40 cm
(3) 76 cm, 4 cm (4) 50 cm, 30 cm 49. In which of the configurations of a transistor, the
power gain is highest?
44. Double slit interference experiment is carried out (1) Common base
with monochromatic light and interference fringes (2) Common emitter
are observed. If now monochromatic light is (3) Common collector
replaced by white light; what change is expected in (4) Same in all the three
interference pattern?
(1) No change 50. Assertion: When the apparatus of YDSE is
(2) Pattern disappears brought in a liquid from air, the fringe width
(3) White and dark fringes are observed decreases.
throughout Reason: The wavelength of light decreases in the
(4) A few coloured fringes are observed on liquid.
either side of central white fringe (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
45. A photon and an electron both have wavelength assertion.
1Å. The ratio of energy of photon to that of (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
electron is reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) 1 (2) 0.012 assertion.
(3) 82.7 (4) 10–10 (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false.
46. Of the various series of the hydrogen spectrum, the (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
one which lies completely in the ultraviolet region statements.
is
(1) Lyman series (2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series (4) Brackett series

47. Which of the following transitions in a hydrogen

atom emit photons of lowest frequency?
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 4 to n = 2
(3) n = 4 to n = 3 (4) n = 3 to n = 1

Space for Rough Work

[7]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A 57. Which of the following is not a buffer?
(1) NaCN / HCN
51. At NTP, 5.6 L of a gas weigh 8 g. The vapour (2) C6H5NH2/C6H5NH3+Cl
density of gas is: (3) Na3PO4/Na2HPO4
(1) 32 (2) 40 (4) NH4OH/NaOH
(3) 16 (4) 8
58. The pOH of 10−8 M HCl is:
52. What is the maximum wavelength line in the
Lyman series of He+ ion? (1) 8
(2) 6
(3) Between 6 and 7
(1) (2) (4) Between 7 and 8

(3) (4) None of these 59. Select the correct statement.

(1) Molecularity of the reaction can be zero
53. Which of the following is an intensive property? or fractional
(1) Temperature (2) Viscosity (2) We always determine order of reaction
(3) Surface tension (4) All of these from balanced chemical equation
(3) The enthalpy of reaction remains constant
54. As per the First Law of thermodynamics, which in the presence of catalyst
of the following statement would be appropriate: (4) All collisions of reactant molecules lead
(1) Energy of the system remains constant to product formation
(2) Energy of the surroundings remains
constant 60. Oxidation number of hydrogens is –1 in:
(3) Entropy of the universe remains constant (1) NaH2PO4 (2) NaHSO4
(4) Energy of the universe remains constant (3) NaBH4 (4) H2

55. The work done in adiabatic process on ideal gas 61. For the reaction;
by a constant external pressure would be equal P4(s) + OH– ( aq ) → PH3 (g) + H 2 PO 2− (aq)
to:
The ratio of PH3 and H 2 PO 2− in a balanced
(1) Zero (2) ∆E
(3) ΔH (4) ΔG reaction is:
(1) 1:3 (2) 1:4
56. If K a for HCN is 10−5 and concentration of (3) 1:5 (4) 1:6

CN − is thrice than that of HCN . The pH of 62. An element has atomic number 37. The block
buffer is: and group of this element are respectively:
(1) 5 (2) 5.477 (1) s and 1st (2) p and 17th
(3) 4.523 (4) 6.2 (3) s and 2nd
(4) p and 13th

Space for Rough Work

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63. Which of the following represents the correct 69. Which of the following is correctly matched?
order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with (1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ Diamagnetic
negative sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl?
(2) [Ni(CN)4]2– Para magnetic
(1) Cl < F < O < S (2) O < S < F < Cl
(3) F < S < O < Cl (4) S < O < Cl < F (3) [MnCl4]2– Diamagnetic
(4) [Fe(CN)6]4– Diamagnetic
64. Which of the following molecule does not exist?
(1) PbI2 (2) VI2
(3) ClF7 (4) CuI 70. Which of the following species cannot exists?
(1) [BF6 ]3− (2) [AlF6 ]3−
65. Choose the element which show maximum
number of covalencies out of the given elements: (3) [GaF6 ]3− (4) [InF6 ]3−
(1) F (2) N
(3) C (4) Cl
71. Acidic strength of boron trihalides is in order of:
66. For the complex [Cr(C2O4)2(H2O)2]–, the (1) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3
oxidation number of Cr is ................and the (2) BI3 < BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3
coordination number of Cr is .......................:
(3) BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3 < BI3
(1) +3, 6 (2) +3, 4
(3) +2, 6 (4) +2, 4 (4) BF3 < BI3 < BCl3 < BBr3

67. Statement-1: NH2 – NH2 is not a chelating 72. The electrons present in the penultimate orbit of
ligand. coinage metal atoms are:
Statement-2: A chelating ligand must posses (1) 8 (2) 2
two or more lone pair at such a distance that it
may form suitable strain free ring at the metal (3) 18 (4) 32
ion.
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true 73. The atomic radii of the elements are almost same
and statement-2 is correct explanation for of which series:
statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true (1) Fe–Co–Ni (2) Na–K–Rb
and statement-2 is NOT the correct (3) F–Cl–Br (4) Li–Be–B
explanation for statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false. 74. The reduction of nitro compounds is most
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true. preferred in the presence of:
(1) Pd/H2 in ethanol
68. Which of the following forms with an excess of
CN¯, a complex having coordination number two? (2) Sn + HCl
(1) Cu2+ (2) Ag+ (3) finely divided Ni
(3) Ni2+ (4) Fe2+ (4) iron scrap and HCl

Space for Rough Work

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75. Assertion: Aromatic 1° amines cannot be 80. Which of the following products is formed when
prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis. benzaldehyde is treated with CH3MgBr and the
Reason: Aryl halides cannot undergo addition product so obtained is subjected to acid
nucleophilic substitution with anion formed by hydrolysis?
phthalimide. (1) 1-Phenylethan-1-ol
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; (2) 2-Phenylethan-1-ol
reason is a correct explanation for (3) Phenol
assertion. (4) Benzyl alcohol
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; 81. The difference between aldol condensation and
reason is not a correct explanation for Cannizzaro’s reaction is that:
assertion (1) The former takes place in the presence of
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect α-H-atom.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (2) The latter takes place in the presence of
α-H-atom.
76. Primary and secondary alcohols on action of
(3) The former takes place in the presence of
heated copper give:
β-H-atom.
(1) Aldehydes and ketones respectively
(2) Ketones and aldehydes respectively (4) The former is disproportionation while
(3) Only aldehydes latter is dehydration
(4) Only ketones
82. Alkenes convert into alcohols by:
77. Which alkene on ozonolysis gives CH3CH2CHO (1) hydrolysis by dil. H2SO4.
and CH 3COCH 3 ? (2) hydration by dil. H2SO4.
(1) CH3CH2CH=C(CH3)2 (3) hydrolysis by water vapours and conc.
(2) CH 3CH 2 CH = CHCH 2 CH 3 HNO3.
(3) CH3CH2CH=CHCH3 (4) hydration of alkene by aqueous KOH.
(4) CH3C(CH3)=CHCH3
83. Assertion: In Lucas test, 3º alcohols react
SnCl2 / HCl
78. C6 H 5 C ≡ N + [H]  → C6 H 5 CHO + NH 3 immediately.
The above reaction is: Reason: An equimolar mixture of anhyd. ZnCl2
(1) Mendius reaction and conc. HCl is called Lucas reagent.
(2) Sabatier Senderens reaction (1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
(3) Rosenmund's reaction reason is a correct explanation for
(4) Stephen’s reaction assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
79. Which of the following is not used in the
reason is not a correct explanation for
preparation of ketone?
assertion.
(1) Oxidation of secondary alcohols
(2) Dehydrogenation of secondary alcohol (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(3) Reaction of acyl chloride with R2Cd (4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(4) Acidic hydrolysis of alkyl cyanide

Space for Rough Work

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84. In the reaction; 89. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due
OH ONa to the presence of:
(1) free electron
+ NaOH 
→ +H2O (2) free ions
(3) atoms of sodium and chlorine
Phenol behaves as: (4) All of these
(1) Bronsted base (2) Bronsted acid
(3) Lewis acid (4) Lewis base 90. If x is specific resistance (in S–1 cm) of the
electrolyte solution and y is the molarity of the
85. Lactose is made of- solution, then Λm (in S cm2 mol–1) is given by:
(1) α-D-glucose only 1000x y
(2) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose (1) (2) 1000
y x
(3) α-D-galactose and β-D-glucose
(4) β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose 1000 xy
(3) (4)
xy 1000
SECTION-B
91. In which of the following reactions, an increase
86. Invert sugar is: in the volume of the container will favor the
(1) chemically inactive form of sugar. formation of products?
(2) equimolecular mixture of glucose and (1) 2NO2(g)  2NO(g) + O2(g)
fructose. (2) 3O2(g)  2O3(g)
(3) mixture of glucose and sucrose.
(3) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)
(4) a variety of cane sugar.
(4) 4NH (g) + 5O2(g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(l)
87. The reaction conditions leading to the best yields 92. The increasing order of basicity of the following
of C2H5Cl are: compounds is:
UV light
(1) C2H6 (excess) + Cl2  →
dark
(2) C2H6 + Cl2  →
room temperature
(a) (b)
UV light
(3) C2H6 + Cl2 (excess)  →
UV light (c) (d)
(4) C2H6 + Cl2  →
(1) (d) < (b) < (a) < (c)
88. The best method for the conversion of an alcohol (2) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol (3) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)
with: (4) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)
(1) PCl5
93. Which will give chromyl Chloride test:
(2) dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous
(1) HgCl2 (2) CaCl2
ZnCl2
(3) SnCl2 (4) PbCl2
(3) SOCl2
(4) None of these

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 98. Which of the following conversions involves
change in both shape and hybridisation?
94. The absolute configuration of (1) BF3 → BF4– (2) H2O → H3O+
(3) CH4 → C2H6 (4) NH3 → NH4+

is: 99. 18 g glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g

(1) (2R, 3S) (2) (2S, 3R) water. The vapor pressure of water (in torr) for
(3) (2S, 3S) (4) (2R, 3R) this aqueous solution is: (100ºC)
(1) 7.6 (2) 76.0
95. A white sodium salt dissolves readily in water to (3) 752.4 (4) 759.0
give a solution which is neutral to litmus. When
silver nitrate solution is added to the 100. Consider separate solutions of 0.500 M
aforementioned solution, a white precipitate is C2H5OH(aq), 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq), 0.250 M
obtained which does not dissolve in dil. nitric KBr(aq) and 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) at 25ºC.
acid. The anion is: Which statement is true about these solutions,
(1) S2– (2) SO42– assuming all salts to be strong electrolytes?
(3) CO3 2–
(4) Cl– (1) 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) has the highest
osmotic pressure.
96. Among the oxides of nitrogen: N2O3, N2O4 and (2) 0.500 M C2H5OsH(aq) has the highest
N2O5 the molecule(s) having nitrogen-nitrogen osmotic pressure.
bond is/are: (3) They all have the same osmotic pressure.
(1) N2O3 and N2O5 (2) N2O4 and N2O5 (4) 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq) has the highest
(3) N2O3 and N2O4 (4) Only N2O5 osmotic pressure.

97. The incorrect geometry is represented by:

(1) BF3 – trigonal planar
(2) NF3 – trigonal planar
(3) AsF5 – trigonal bipyramidal
(4) H2O – bent

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 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION – A 106. Well defined Nucleus, 80S ribosome, membrane
bound organelles, Primarily terrestrial, Nuclear
101. Modern Taxonomy involves Membrane absent, kingdom with well defined
(1) External and internal structure
boundaries, Multicellular
(2) Cell structure and development process
(3) Ecological information How many characteristics are associated with the
(4) All of these kingdom Protista ?
(1) Five (2) Four
102. Plants, dicots and wheat represent (3) Three (4) Two
(1) Taxa at different levels
(2) Taxa at same level
(3) Different levels of same taxon 107. A prion is a :
(4) Same level of same taxon (1) Causative agent of mad -cow disease
(2) Proteinaceous infectious particle
103. Which of the following is incorrect for eukaryotic (3) Worm that cause Bovine spongiform
flagella?
encephalopathy
(1) Core of flagella is called axoneme
(2) Made up of three parts, Basal body, hook & (4) Both (1) & (2)
filament
(3) Covered by plasma membrane 108. Read the following statements
(4) Microtubules of axoneme is referred as a. Ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall
9 + 2 arrangement b. Leaves are well adapted to withstand
extremes of temperature, humidity & wind
104. Statement-1 The organism responsible for the
c. Independent existence of male gametophyte
production of methane from the dung of
ruminants are Halophiles d. The ovules are borne on the male cone.
Statement -2 Halophiles are a type of How many of the above statements are correct
Archaebacteria which lives in extreme habitats. regarding gymnosperms ?
(1) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct (1) One (2) Two
(2) Only statement 1 is incorrect (3) Three (4) Four
(3) Only statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Both Statements are incorrect 109. Select the incorrect from given statement
105. Statement -1 Mycoplasma are the smallest living (1) Eucalyptus is one of the tallest angiosperm
cells known and can survive without oxygen. plant species
Statement -2 Mycoplasma causes disease in (2) Primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) of
animals only angiosperms is a haploid structure
(1) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct (3) Embryo sac is a 7-celled structure
(2) Only statement 1 is incorrect (4) Double fertilization is a unique event in
(3) Only statement 2 is incorrect
angiosperms.
(4) Both Statement are incorrect
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110. Diploid sporophyte is the dominant, 113. Match the following columns
photosynthetic, independent phase of the plant in
case of: Column -A Column -B
(A) Modification of (P) Australian
(1) Bryophytes and Pteridophytes only
leaves for climbing acacia
(2) Pteridophytes, Gymnosperm and (B) Modification of (Q) Onion
angiosperm leaves for
(3) Bryophytes, Gymnosperm and Algae photosynthesis
(C) Modification of (R) Pea
(4) Angiosperm and Gymnosperm only
leaves for protection
(D) Modification of (S) Cacti
111. Match the following with respect to mango leaves for storage

Codes given below

Column -A Column- B (1) A-S; B-Q; C-P; D-S
A. Thin wall I. Mesocarp (2) A-R; B-P; C-S; D-Q
B. Fleshy wall II. Endocarp (3) A-R; B-S; C-Q; D-P
(4) A-Q; B-P; C-S; D-R
C. Stony hard wall III. Epicarp
114. Xylem in dorsiventral leaves is directed towards
(1) A-I; B-II, C-III (1) Upper epidermis
(2) Lower epidermis
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III (3) Phloem
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II (4) Secondary xylem
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I
115. In roots, lateral branches grow from
(1) Epiblema (2) cortex
112. Find out the correct option of A, B, C and D for (3) Pericycle (4) endoderm
below diagram.
116. Which of the following is not a part of epidermal
tissue system ?
(1) Trichomes
(2) Companion cells
(3) guard cells
(4) subsidiary cells

(1) A – K; B – ;C–C;D–O 117. For the study of structure of nucleus, the best cell
is
(2) A – C ; B – K; C – ;D– G
(1) Cell in the interphase
(3) A – K; B – ;C– ;D–% (2) Cell in the late prophase
(3) Cell in the Metaphase
(4) A–K;B– ;C– ;D–O (4) Cell in the late telophase

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118. Match the following columns: 121. Read the following statements about Telophase:
(i) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle
Column -I Column -II poles
A. Lysosome I. Protein (ii) Chromosome identity is lost as discrete
synthesis
elements
B. Ribosome II. Hydrolytic
activity (iii) Nucleolus, Golgi complex & ER
C. SER III. Steroid (iv) Nuclear envelope assembles around the
synthesis chromosome clusters,
D. Centriole IV. Formation of How many of the above statement/(s) is /are
spindle incorrect ?
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (1) 1 (2) 3
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (3) All (4) None
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D – II
(4) A-III, B- IV, C -II, D -I
122. Consider the following four statements (I-IV)
119. Choose the incorrect pair: related to meiosis – I and select the correct option
(1) Golgi bodies – Densely stained reticular stating them as (T) & false (F)
structure I. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of
(2) Cisternae – Circular, fixed in number homologous pair of chromosomes during
(3) Forming face – Convex cis
Metaphase -I
(4) Maturing face – Concave trans
II. Sister chromatids separate and move
120. Match the following: towards the opposite poles during Anaphase
-I
Column -I Column -II III. Pachytene stage is relatively short – lived as
P. Telophase T. Centromeres split compared to the leptotene
and chromatids IV. Interkinesis is a short – lived stage
separate
characterized by duplication of DNA.
Q. Prophase U. Decondensation of
Option:
chromosomes
R. Metaphase V. Complete I II III IV
disintegration of (1) F F T T
nuclear membrane (2) T F F F
S. Anaphase W. Condensation of (3) T T F F
chromosome (4) T F T T
material
123. What is the recombination percentage between
(1) P-U, Q-W, R-V, S-T gene y and w in Drosophila?
(2) P-W, Q-U, R-T, S-V
(1) 1.3% (2) 98.7%
(3) P-T, Q-U, R-V, S-W
(4) P-W, Q-V, R-U, S-T (3) 62.8% (4) 37.2%

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124. Find the incorrect match (1) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(1) Gamete – Pure for a trait (2) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
(2) Co- – Flower colour in (3) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
dominance snapdragon (4) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(3) Recessive – Expressed in
gene homozygous
(4) Incomplete – Antirrhinum. sps 129. How many of the following statement is related to
dominance arithmetic growth
A. Best exemplified by root elongation at a
125. When CO2 is added to PEP, the first stable constant rate
product synthesized is
B. Equation Lt = L0 + rt
(1) Pyruvate
(2) Glyceraldehdye-3-phosphate C. A sigmoid curve is obtained graphically
(3) Phosphoglycerate when length of an organ is plotted against
(4) Oxaloacetate time
126. What are products in respiration of glucose? D. Cells in culture medium are example of this
(1) CO2, H2O, Energy (ATP) (1) One (2) Two
(2) CO2, H2O, Energy (Heat) (3) Three (4) Four
(3) CO2, H2O, Energy (Both ATP and Heat)
(4) Only CO2, H2O 130. Fill in the blanks
(I) In ___A___ growth, both the progeny cells
127. Match the following:
following mitotic cell division retain the
(i) Glucose (a) End product of
glycolysis ability to divide and continue to do so
(ii) Sucrose (b) Monosaccharide (II) In ___B___ growth, following mitotic cell
(iii) Acetyl Co-A (c) Disaccharide division, only one daughter cell continue to
(iv) Pyruvic acid (d) End product of link divide while the other differentiates and
reaction matures
(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv- d (III) Arithmetic growth is mathematically
(2) i-a, ii-c, iii- d, iv- b expressed as __C__
(3) i-c, ii- b, iii-a, iv-d
(IV) The exponential growth can be expressed as
(4) i-b, ii- c, iii-d, iv-a
___D___
128. Match the following (1) A-Arithmetic, B-Geometric, C-w1 = w0ert,
D-Lt = L0 + rt
Column -I Column-II (2) A-Arithmetic, B-Geometric, D-w1 = w0ert,
i. Complex-I a. Copper center C-Lt = L0 + rt
ii. Complex-II b. Co-enzyme
(3) B-Arithmetic, A-Geometric, C-w1 = w0 ert,
FMN
iii. Complex-III c. Cytochrome C1 D-Lt = L0 + rt
iv. Complex-IV d. Co-enzyme (4) B-Arithmetic, A-Geometric, D-w1 = w0ert,
FAD+ C-Lt = L0 + rt

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131. Which statement is correct regarding given figure. 134. The cells of the nucellus of a Hibiscus plant
contains 32 chromosomes. The number of
chromosomes that will be present in the non –
motile male gametes and endosperm cells of this
plant will be __a__ and __b__ respectively.
Choose the correct option for (a) and (b) from the
following.
(a) (b)
(1) 16 48
(1) Tip of coleoptile is the source of auxin (2) 16 32
(2) Tip of coleoptile is the site of transmittable (3) 32 96
influence that caused the bending of entire (4) 8 96
coleoptile.
(3) Both (1) and (2) 135. In Mendel’s dihybrid – cross, the probability of
(4) Tip of coleoptile is source of ethylene getting plants which are heterozygous for both
seed shape and seed colour is .......
1 2
132. Select the correct option in the given below. (1) (2)
16 9
(1) Albuminous seeds → Wheat, rice, maize,
1 3
barley, coconut, castor (3) (4)
4 4
Ex – albuminous → Beans, pea, groundnut
(2) Albuminous → Wheat, rice, maize, barley, SECTION – B
coconut
Ex- Albuminous → Beans, pea, groundnut, 136. Match the items of column -I with column -II
castor
(3) Albuminous → Pea, bean, groundnut Column -I Column -II
Ex – albuminous → Wheat, rice, maize, 1. XX-XO method (i) Female
of sex heterogametic
barley, coconut, castor
determination
(4) Albuminous → Wheat, rice, barley, ground 2. XX-XY method (ii) Grasshopper
nut, coconut of sex-
Ex-albuminous → Maize, castor, pea, bean determination
3. ZW-ZZ method (iii) Female
133. A population has more young individuals of sex- homogametic
compared to the older individuals what would be determination
the status of the population after some year?
Select the correct option from the following:
(1) It will decline (1) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i
(2) It will stabilize (2) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
(3) It will increase (3) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii
(4) It will first decline and than stabilize (4) 1-ii, 2-ii, 3-iii

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137. In the ‘α’ and ‘β’ thalassemia the affected 143. Statement I = An autotrophic microbe which can
chromosomes are respectively. fix nitrogen is rhizobium.
(1) 16th, 11th (2) 11th, 16th Statement II = ethanol is obtained from
(3) 16 , 16
th th
(4) 11th, 11th saccharomyces
(1) Both I and II are correct
138. Which of the following statements are correct for (2) I correct, II incorrect
sclereids? (3) I is incorrect, II is correct
(1) They are commonly found in the fruit wall (4) Both incorrect.
of nuts
(2) They provide mechanical support 144. Parameters such as pH, mineral composition and
(3) They help to store food reserve __1__ determine to a large extent the ___2__ in
(4) Both (1) & (2) an area. In the ___3__ environment, the __4___
characteristics often determine the type of benthic
139. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one animals that can thrive there.
strand, because
(1) DNA molecule being synthesized is very A B C D
long (1) Topography Vegetation Aquatic Sediment
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses (2) Salinity Vegetation Terrestrial Sediment
polymirisation only in one direction (3) Percolation Vegetation Terrestrial Sediment
(4) Topography Vegetation Terrestrial Sediment
(5’→3’)
(3) It is a more efficient process
145. Heat loss or heat gain is a function of __1__.
(4) DNA ligase joins the short stretches of
Since __2__ have a larger __3__. If the stressful
DNA
external conditions are localised only for a short
140. Find the incorrect match duration, the organism has two other alternatives
(1) Exon – Coding sequence for survival i.e. ___4___ and __5___.
(2) Monocistronic structural gene only –
A B C D E
Bacteria (1) Surface Small Metabolism Suspend Conform
(3) Exons & introns – Split gene area animal
(4) Introns – Splicing (2) Surface Small Metabolism Suspend Regulation
area animal
141. During primary treatment, all solids that settle (3) Surface Small Surface Migrate Suspend
forms __A__ and the supernatant forms ___B___. area animal area
(1) A Primary sludge; B – effluent (4) Surface Small Metabolism Diapause Regulation
(2) A-Primary sludge; B- secondary effluent area animal
(3) A- Activated sludge; B-clarified effluent
(4) A-Activated sludge; B – effluent 146. If change in population size
Nt = N0 + (B + I) – (D0 + E)
142. The ladybird beetle and dragonflies are useful to What do I, B, D stand for ?
get rid of ____ and ___ respectively. (1) Immigration, natality, mortality
(1) Caterpillars and mosquitoes (2) Immigration, mortality, natality
(2) Mosquitoes and fruit borer (3) Emigration, natality, mortality
(3) Mosquitoes and aphids (4) Emigration, mortality, natality
(4) Aphids and mosquitoes
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147. Choose the odd pair.
1 2 3
(1) Orchid – Mango branch
(1) Dead Decomposers Higher
(2) Barnacle – whale Biomass trophic
(3) Fungi – roots of higher plants level
(2) Dead Producer Lower
(4) Clown fish – sea anemone Biomass trophic
level
(3) Detritus Decomposers Lower
148. In an ecosystem the species composition is trophic
determined by: level
(4) Producer Decomposer Higher
(a) Identification of plant species trophic
(b) Enumeration of plant species level

(c) Identification of animal species 150. Fill in the blanks:

(d) Enumeration of animal species By the process of leaching water soluble __a___
go down into the soil horizon and get ___b___ as
(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b ___c__. The humus is further degraded by some
(3) c, d (4) a, c microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occur
by the process known as ___d___.
(1) a-organic nutrients, b-precipitated, c-
149. Fill in the blanks. unavailable salt, d-mineralisation.
(2) a-inorganic nutrients, b-precipitated, c-
When any organism dies it is converted to ___1__ unavailable salt, d-mineralisation
that serves as energy source for ___2___. (3) a-organic nutrients, b-precipitated, c-
available salt, d-mineralisation
Organisms at each trophic level depend on those (4) a-inorganic nutrients, b-precipitated, c-
at the ___3__ for their energy demands. nutrients, d-mineralisation.

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 SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION – A 153. Match the description given in column I with
their examples given in column II and choose the
151. Incorrect about cardiac muscles is correct option.
(A) Non-striated Column I Column II
(B) Voluntary (Description) (Example)
(C) Muscles of hollow visceral organs A Aquatic respiratory I Skin
organ
(D) Unbranched B Organ which acts II Ureter
(1) C (2) B, C as urogenital duct
and opens into the
(3) C, D, B (4) A, B, C, D
cloaca
C A small median III Cloaca
152. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a chamber that is
certain type of connective tissue. Identify the used to pass faecal
matter, urine and
parts labelled A, B, C and D, and select the right
sperms to the
option about them. exterior
D A triangular IV Sinus venosus
structure which
joins the right
atrium and receives
blood through vena
cava

(1) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV

(2) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
(3) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV
(4) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III
Options
Part A Part B Part C Part D 154. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Long chain molecules of fatty acids are
(1) Macrophage Collagen Fibroblast Mast cell
formed by polymerization of 2 carbon
fibres
compounds
(2) Mast cell Collagen Fibroblast Macro
(2) Lipid molecules are soluble in water
fibres phage
(3) In lipid, R group may be –CH3 group, –
(3) Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen Mast cell C2H5 group of higher number of –CH2
fibres group (1 to 19 carbon)
(4) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen (4) Oils have lower melting temperature
fibres

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155. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (1) Only A (2) Only B
incorrect?
(3) Only A and B (4) All
(i) Some enzymes requires the presence of
metal ions for catalytic function.
(ii) Metal ions form coordinate bond with side 158. Match the column I with column II and choose
chain at active site of metalloenzyme and the correct answer from the option given below.
at the same time form one or more
coordinate bonds with the substrate
(iii) NAD and NADP (coenzymes) contains Column I Column II
niacin (vit. B3) A Cardiac cycle I 72/min
(iv) Coenzymes are organic compounds but
their association which the apoenzyme is B Plasma II 120/80 mmHg
only transient, usually occurring during C Systolic/Diastolic III 0.8 seconds
catalysis blood pressure
(1) All of these (2) Only (iii) and (iv)
D Haemoglobin IV 12-16 gms in every
(3) Only (iv) (4) None of these
100 ml of blood
156. Which one of the following is the correct E Heart beat V 55% of the blood
statement for respiration in humans?
(1) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking
industries may suffer from lung fibrosis (1) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV; E-V
(2) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is (2) A-III; B-V; C-II; D-IV; E-I
carried by haemoglobin as carbamino (3) A-III; B-I; C-V; D-II; E-IV
haemoglobin
(4) A-V; B-IV; C-III; D-I; E-II
(3) Cigarette smoking may lead to
inflammation of bronchi
(4) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in 159. Which of the following statements are incorrect
pons region of brain can increase the A. The electrical activity of heart can be
duration of inspiration recorded from inside the body by using
electro-cardiograph
157. How many of the following statements are
correct? B. Angina is also called ‘angina pectoris’, a
A. Human beings have a significant ability to symptom of acute chest pain when no
maintain and moderate the respiratory rhythm to enough oxygen reaches the skeletal
suit the demands of the body tissues muscles of heart
B. Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the
C. Coronary artery disease referred to as heart
functions of the respiratory rhythm centre
C. A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent murmur
to the rhythm centre which is highly D. Heart failure is known as the cardiac arrest
sensitive to CO2 and hydrogen ions (1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D
D. The role of oxygen in the regulation of
respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant (3) B and C (4) A, B, C and D

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160. Which of the following hormone/enzyme is/are
correctly paired with its function?
I. Renin – Enzyme that catalyses the
formation of angiotensin I.
II. Aldosterone – Regulates only water
reabsorption at the distal convoluted tubule
III. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) – It is a
powerful vasoconstrictor that stimulates
the secretion of aldosterone
IV. Angiotensin II – Only Promotes
reabsorption of sodium at distal (1) Attachment of myosin head to actin
convoluted tubule forming cross bridges
(1) Only I (2) Only III (2) Release of phosphate. Myosin changes
(3) I, II and III (4) II, III and IV shape to push actin
(3) Attachment of new ATP to myosin head.
161. Different types of excretory structures and The cross bridge detaches
animals are given below. Match them (4) Splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi. Myosin
appropriately and mark the correct answer from cocks into high energy conformation
among those given below
163. Consider the following four statements (A-D) and
Excretory Animals select the option which includes all the correct
structure/organ ones only
A Protonephridia I Prawn A. Each organized skeletal muscle is made of
B Nephridia II Cockroach a number of muscle bundles or fasciculi
C Malpighian tubules III Earthworm
B. Each muscle fibre has many parallely
D Green gland or IV Flatworms
arranged myofibrils.
Antennal gland
C. Each myofibrils contains many serially
arranged units called sarcomere
(1) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i
(2) A-iii; B-ii; C-i; D-iv D. Each sarcomere has a central “A”–band
(3) A-ii; B-i; C-iii; D-iv and two half “I” bands
(4) A-i; B-iii; C-iv; D-ii Options
(1) Statements (B), (C) and (D)
162. The given figure represents the cross bridges (2) Statements (A) and (B)
cycle in skeletal muscle. What does the step B in (3) Statements (C) and (D)
the figure represents? (4) Statements (A), (B), (C), (D)

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164. Refer the given figure which shows the axon A. Corpus callosum – Communication
terminal and synapse with their parts marked as 1
between two cerebral hemispheres
to 7. Identify the correct parts whose constitution
forms the structure of synapse B. Cerebral aqueduct – Passes through hind
brain
C. Corpora quadrigemina – Controls
respiration
D. Hypothalamus – Controls body
temperature, urge for eating and drinking

E. Limbic system – Regulation of sexual

behaviour, emotions and motivation
(1) Only A is correct
(2) A and D are correct
(3) B, C and D are correct
(4) A, B, D and E are correct

(1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 3, 4, 5
166. The atrial wall of our heart secretes a very important
(3) 4, 5, 6 (4) 5, 6, 7
peptide hormone called ____, which ____ because it
165. Given below is a sagittal section of human brain,
identify the structures labelled as A, B, C, D and causes dilation of the blood vessels. Choose the
E with their important functions? option which correctly fills the blank.
(1) Renin, increases the blood pressure
(2) Angiotensinogen, decreases the blood
pressure
(3) Atrial natriuretic factor, increases the
blood pressure
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor, decreases the
blood pressure

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167. Study the given figure and choose the correct 168. Match the function of hormone in column I with
option regarding source of hormones their hormone in column II

Column I Column II
A Produces anti i. Prolactin
inflammatory
reactions
B Regulation of Basal ii. Aldosterone
metabolic rate
C Stimulates iii. Insulin
reabsorption of Na+
D Stimulates iv. Parathyroid
glycogenesis process hormone
E Regulates growth of v. Cortisol
the mammary gland
F Increase Ca+2 vi. Thyroxine
absorption from GI
tract

(1) A-(v), B-(vi), C-(ii), D-(iii), E-(i), F-(iv)

(2) A-(v), B-(vi), C-(iv), D-(iii), E-(i), F-(ii)
(3) A-(vi), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(i), F-(iv)
(4) A-(vi), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv), E-(ii), F-(v)

169. Which of the following feature is not correct

regarding the figure given below?
(1) 2 → Parathormone
6 → Islets of Langerhans
8 → ICSH production
3 → Thyroxine
(2) 5 → Adrenaline
1 → FSH production
8 → Testosterone
4 → Immunity
(3) 1 → Master gland
8 → ICSH production (1) It is an aquatic form
2 → Thyroxine (2) Circulatory system is of open type
5 → Adrenaline (3) It possesses parapodia for swimming
(4) 7 → LH production (4) Neural system consists of paired ganglia
8 → Testosterone connected by lateral nerves to a double
6 → Insulin ventral nerve cord
4 → Thyroxine
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170. In which one of the following, the genus name, 172. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced
its two characters and its class/phylum are by
correctly matched? (1) Differentiation of mammary glands
(2) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
Genus name Two Class/phylu (3) Release of oxytocin from pituitary
characters m (4) Fully developed foetus and placenta
(1) Ascaris (i) Body Annelida
segmented 173. Arrange the following events in order of their
(ii) Males and occurrence:
females Gestation (G), Implantation (I), Fertilization (F)
distinct and parturition (P)
(2) Salamandra (i) A tympanum Reptilia (1) FIGP (2) IFPG
represents (3) FGIP (4) IPFG
ear
(ii) Fertilization 174. Milk secreted from the cells of alveoli of
is internal mammary lobes reaches nipple through
(3) Pteropus (i) Skin Mammalia lactiferous duct(L), Mammary duct(M),
possesses Mammary tubule(T) and Mammary ampulla(A)
hairs in the following order
(ii) Viviparous (1) TMAL (2) MTLA
(4) Aurelia (i) Cnidoblasts Coelenterat (3) MTAL (4) ATML
(ii) Organ level e
of 175. Which of the following statement regarding
organization female reproductive system is (are) correct?
(i) Myometrium undergoes strong contraction
171. Which of the following characteristics is correct at the time of delivery of baby
for Reptilia? (ii) Ovary is secondary female sex organ
(1) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, which produces female gamete and steroid
scales over the body are epidermal, they do hormones
not have external ears. (iii) Ovarian stroma is divided into two zones:
(2) Body is covered with moist skin and is inner cortex and outer medulla
devoid of scales, the ear is represented by (iv) Infundibulum possess finger like
a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and projections which help in collection of
reproductive tracts open into a common ovum
cloaca (v) A functional mammary gland is the
(3) Fresh water animals with bony characteristics of all mammals (including
endoskeleton and air-bladder regulate male and female)
buoyancy (1) (i) and (iv)
(4) Marine animals with cartilaginous (2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
endoskeleton and body is covered with (3) (iii), (iv) and (v)
placoid scales (4) All the five statements

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176. i. MTPs are generally advised during first
trimester
ii. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
iii. MTPs are always surgical
iv. MTPs require the assistance of qualified
medical personnel
(1) ii and iii (2) ii and iii
Identify the A, B and C
(3) i and iv (4) ii and ii

A B C 179. Select the correct match of the techniques given

(1) GnRH LH FSH in column I with its feature given in column II
(2) GnRH FSH LH
Column I Column II
(3) Somatotrophic ICSH STH
A ICSI I Artificially introduction of
(4) Somatotrophic Androgen STH semen into the vagina or
uterus

177. Read the following 4-statements and mark the B IUI II Transfer of ovum
collected from a donor
option that has both correct statements
into the fallopian tube
A. MTP was legalized in 1971 where fertilization occur
B. Inability to conceive or produce children C IUT III Sperms is directly injected
even after 2 years of unprotected sexual into egg

cohabitation is called infertility D GIFT IV Transfer of the zygote or

early embryo (with upto 8
C. Surgical method of contraception prevents
blastomeres) into a
gamete formation fallopian
D. MTPs are relatively safe up to 12 weeks of E ZIFT V Transfer of embryo with
pregnancy more than 8 blastomeres
into the uterus
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(1) A-V; B-IV; C-I; D-III; E-IV
(3) C and D (4) A and C
(2) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV; E-V
(3) A-III; B-V; C-II; D-IV; E-I
178. Following statements are given regarding MTP.
Choose the correct options given below (4) A-III; B-I; C-V; D-II; E-IV

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180. Given below are four statements (A-D) with one (1) Two (2) Three
or two blanks. Select the option which fills up the (3) Four (4) Five
blanks in two statements
Statements 183. How many statements are correct about common
A. Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and cold?
are the result of ….(i)… evolution (A) It is caused by rhino virus
B. Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3 and … (B) Infection of alveoli of the lungs
(i) …. When exposed to electric discharge (C) Symptoms are nasal congestion and
in a flask resulted in formation of … (ii) discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough,
… evidence headache and tiredness
C. Vermiform appendix is a … (i) … organ (D) Usually last for 2-3 days
an … (i) … evidence of evolution (1) One (2) Two
D. According to Darwin evolution took place (3) Three (4) Four
due to … (i) …. and …. (ii) … of the
fittest
(1) D-(i) small variations, (ii) survival, A-(i) 184. Sporozoites of the malarial parasite are found in
convergent (1) Salivary glands of freshy moulted female
(2) A-(i) convergent, B-(i) oxygen; (ii) Anopheles mosquito
nucleotides (2) Saliva of infected female Anopheles
(3) B-(i) convergent, B-(i) oxygen; (ii) mosquito
nucleotides (3) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering
(4) C-(i) vestigial (ii) anatomical, D-(i) from malaria
mutations (ii) multiplication (4) Spleen of infected humans
181. What is the correct sequence of origin of 185. Which one of the following options givens the
mamamls? correct matching of a disease with its causative
(1) Sauropsids → Pelycosaurs → Therapsids organism and mode of infection?
→ Mammals
(2) Synapsids → Pelycosaurs → Therapsida Disease Causative Mode of
→ Mammals organisms infection
(3) Sauropsids → Synapsids → Thecodonts → (1) Elephantiasis Wuchereria With
Mammals bancrofti infected
(4) Synapsids → Sauropsids → Therapsida → water and
Mammals food
(2) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male
182. How many examples in the list given below vivax Anopheles
represent homology? mosquito
A. Forelimbs of whale and bat (3) Typhoid Salmonella With
B. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of typhi inspired air
cucurbita (4) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet
C. Eyes of octopus and mammals pneumoniae infection
D. Heart of vertebrates
E. Wings of butterfly and birds
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 SECTION – B 189. Select the correct pair
(1) Adaptive radiation – Darwin’s Finches
186. A. Smack (2) Connecting Link – Founder effect
B. Diacetylmorphine (3) Genetic Drift – Peppered Moth
C. White (4) Industrial melanism – Archaeopteryx
D. Odourless
E. Bitter crystalline compound 190. ______ is a CNS stimulant as it interferes with
Above statements/informations are correct for the transport of the neuro-transmitter _____
(1) Morphine (2) Heroin (1) Cocaine, acetylcholine
(3) Coccain (4) Barbiturates (2) Barbiturate, glutamate
(3) Cocaine, dopamine
187. If we added alien DNA at site Sal 1 in pBR322 (4) Barbiturate, glycine
than
(1) Transformed colonies become sensitive for 191. In malignant tumours, the cells proliferate, grow
tetracycline rapidly and move to other parts of the body to
(2) Transformed colonies remains sensitive for form new tumours. This stage of disease is called
ampicillin (1) Metagenesis (2) Metastasis
(3) Transformed colonies remain resistant for (3) Teratogenesis (4) Mitosis
both tetracycline and ampicillin
(4) Proteins involved in the replication of the
192. Read the following statement (A – E) and answer
plasmid does not formed
the question which follows them
188. Which of the following statement are true about (a) Biotechnology is an integration of natural
Rana tigrine? science and organism, cells, parts thereof
(i) The most common species of frog found in and molecular analogues for production
India is Rana tigrina and services.
(ii) In peak summer frog take shelter in deep (b) DNA can be chemically altered by genetic
burrows to protect them from extreme engineering
heat, this is called as hibernation. (c) Recombinant DNA use DNA polymerase
(iii) In peak winter frog take shelter in deep of its host for replication.
burrows to protect them from extreme
(d) Cohen and Boyer are responsible for first
cold, this is called an aestivation.
artificial synthesis of RNA.
(iv) The frog never drinks water but absorbs it
through the skin. (e) Replication of DNA initiates at origin of
(v) Male frogs can be distinguished by the replication.
presence of vocal sacs and a copulatory How many of the above statement are correct.
pad on the first digit of the hind limbs. (1) One (2) Two
(1) (i), (iii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) (3) Three (4) Four
(3) (i), (iv), (v) (4) (i), (iv)

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193. If E.coli is grown in a medium with a (3) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
recombinant DNA with ampicillin resistant gene, incorrect
then the term transformants will be applilcable to (4) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
those E.coli which have correct
(1) Not uptaken the ampicillin resistant gene
but are capable of surviving in ampicillin 197. Assertion: There are an estimated 200,000
containing medium varieties of rice in India.
(2) Not uptaken the ampicillin resistant gene Reason: Basmati rice is distinct for its unique
and are not capable of surviving in aroma and flavor and 27 documented varieties of
ampicillin containing medium Basmati are grown in India.
(3) Uptaken the ampicillin resistant gene and (1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and
are capable of surviving in ampicillin the Reason is a correct explanation of the
containing medium Assertion.
(4) Uptaken the ampicillin resistant gene but (2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but
are not capable of surviving in ampicilline Reason is not a correct explanation of the
containing medium Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
194. Taq polymerase enzyme is a (4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True
(1) DNA polymerase obtained from a
bacterium 198. Assertion: Enzymes lower down the activation
(2) DNA polymerase obtained from f fungi energy of the reactant molecule to make its
(3) RNA polymerase obtained from a transition into product easier.
bacterium Reason: Enzymes are highly substrate specific
(4) RNA polymerase obtained from a fungi catalysts.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and
195. Which of the following tools of recombinant the Reason is a correct explanation of the
DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its Assertion.
use? (2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but
(1) Tumour inducing - Ti plasmid Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2) Ribonuclease - Removes RNA Assertion
(3) PCR - DNA staining (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Agarose - Sea weeds (4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True
199. Which of the following are not secondary
196. Statement-I: ELISA is based on the principle of metabolites in plants?
antigen body interaction. (1) Amino acids, glucose
Statement-II: Infection by pathogen can be (2) Vinblastin, curcumin
detected by detecting antibodies synthesized (3) Rubber, gums
against the pathogen. (4) Morphine, codeine
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct 200. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (1) Glutamic acid (2) Lysine
incorrect (3) Valine (4) Tyrosine

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