.

NEET

Prahaar Major Test - 19

DURATION: 200 Minutes DATE: 24/04/2024 M.MARKS: 720

Topic Covered
Physics : Full Syllabus (XI & XII)
Chemistry : Full Syllabus (XI & XII)
Botany : Full Syllabus (XI & XII)
Zoology : Full Syllabus (XI & XII)

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four section in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-1 (Physics),
Section - II (Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each
Subject and each subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all
compulsory) and Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A (1) 20 3m (2) 40 3m
(3) 40 m (4) 20 m.
1. Thickness of a pencil measured by using a screw
gauge (least count .001 cm) comes out to be 0.802 6. When a particle is projected at some angle to the
cm. The percentage error in the measurement is horizontal, it has a range R and time of flight t1. If
(1) 0.125% (2) 2.43% the same particle is projected with the same speed
(3) 4.12% (4) 2.14% at some other angle to have the same range, its
time of flight is t2, then
2. A body is projected vertically upward with speed
2R R
10 m/s and other at same time with same speed in (1) t1 + t2 = (2) t1 − t2 =
downward direction from the top of a tower. The g g
magnitude of acceleration of first body w.r.t. 2R R
second is {take g = 10 m/s2} (3) t1t2 = (4) t1t2 =
g g
(1) Zero (2) 10 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s 2
(4) 20 m/s2.
7. A bomb of mass 1 kg initially at rest, explodes and
3. A car travelling at a speed of 30 km/h is brought to breaks into three fragments of masses in the ratio
rest in a distance of 8 m by applying brakes. If the 1 : 1 : 3. The two pieces of equal mass fly off
same car is moving at a speed of 60 km/h then it perpendicular to each other with a speed 15 m/s
each. The speed of heavier fragment is
can be brought to rest with same brakes in
(1) 64 m (2) 32 m (1) 5 m/s (2) 15 m/s
(3) 16 m (4) 4 m (3) 45 m/s (4) 5 2 m/s

4. The equation of a projectile is y = ax – bx2. Its 8. A 6 kg bomb at rest explodes into three equal
horizontal range is pieces P, Q and R. If P flies with speed 30 m/s and
a b Q with speed 40 m/s making an angle 90° with the
(1) (2) direction of P. The angle between the direction of
b a
motion of P and R is about
(3) a+b (4) b–a
(1) 143° (2) 127°
(3) 120° (4) 150°
5. Figure shows a projectile thrown with speed u = 20
m/s at an angle 30° with horizontal from the top of
9. A body of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest
a building 40 m high. Then the horizontal range of
to velocity v1 in time interval T1. The instantaneous
projectile is
power delivered to the body as a function of time t
is
mv12 mv1
(1) t (2) t
T12 T12
2
 mv1  mv12 2
(3)   t (4) t
T
 1  T1

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[2]
10. The power of a pump, which can pump 500 kg of 16. When the temperature of a gas is constant at 20°C
water to height 100 m in 10 s is and pressure is changed from
(1) 75 kW (2) 25 kW P1 = 1.01 × 105 Pa to P2 = 1.165 × 105 Pa, then the
(3) 50 kW (4) 500 kW volume changes by 10%. The Bulk modulus of the
gas is
11. An object slides down a smooth incline and (1) 1.55 × 105 Pa (2) 1.01 × 105 Pa
reaches the bottom with velocity v. If same mass is (3) 1.4 × 10 Pa5
(4) 0.115 × 105 Pa
in the form of a ring and it rolls down an inclined
plane of same height and angle of inclination, then 17. On increasing temperature of a liquid, its surface
its velocity at the bottom of inclined plane will be tension generally
v (1) Increases
(1) v (2) (2) Decreases
2 (3) Remains constant
(3) 2v (4) 2v (4) First increases and then decreases
18. The raincoats are made water proof by coating it
12. A swimmer while jumping into river from a height with a material, which
easily forms a loop in air if (1) Absorb water
(1) He pulls his arms and legs in (2) Increase surface tension of water
(2) He spreads his arms and legs (3) Increase the angle of contact
(3) He keeps himself straight (4) Decreases the density of water
(4) None of these
19. Two ends of a rod of non uniform area of cross-
13. If a satellite of mass 400 kg revolves around the section are maintained at temperature T1 and T2
earth in an orbit with speed 200 m/s then its (T1 > T2 ) as shown in the figure
potential energy is
(1) –1.2 MJ (2) –8.0 MJ
(3) –16 MJ (4) –2.4 MJ.

14. An artificial satellite revolves around a planet for

which gravitational force(F) varies with distance r If I is heat current through the cross-section of
from its centre as F ∝ r 2 . If v0 its orbital speed, conductor at distance x from its left face, then the
then variation of I with x is best represented by
(1) v0 ∝ r −1/2 (2) v0 ∝ r 3/2
(3) v0 ∝ r −3/2 (4) v0 ∝ r
(1) (2)
15. For a given material, the Young’s modulus is 2.4
times its modulus of rigidity. Its Poisson’s ratio is
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4
(3) 1.2 (4) 2.4 (3) (4)

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[3]
20. Two walls of thickness d1 and d2, thermal
conductivities K1 and K2 are in contact. In the
steady state if the temperatures at the outer
surfaces are T1 and T2, the temperature at the
common wall will be
K1T1 + K 2T2
(1)
d1 + d 2
K1T1d 2 + K 2T2 d1
(2)
K1d 2 + K 2 d1 (1)

(3)
( K1d1 + K 2 d 2 ) T1T2
T1 + T2
K1d1T1 + K 2 d 2T2
(4)
K1d1 + K 2 d 2 (2)

21. The pressure and volume of a gas are changed as

shown in the P-V diagram in this figure. The
temperature of the gas will

(3)

(4)
(1) Increase as it goes from A to B
(2) Increase as it goes from B to C
(3) Remain constant during these changes
(4) Decrease as it goes from D to A. 23. An ant is moving on a plane horizontal surface.
The number of degrees of freedom of the ant will
be
22. The figure shows P-V diagram of a (1) 1 (2) 2
thermodynamic cycle. Which corresponding curve (3) 3 (4) 6
is correct?

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[4]
24. A particle is executing S.H.M.. between x = ± A.
A
The time taken to go from 0 to is T1 and to go
2
A
from to A is T2 ; then (1) Non-uniform
2
(2) Uniform
(1) T1 < T2 (2) T1 > T2
(3) Both uniform and non-uniform
(3) T1 = T2 (4) T1 = 2T2.
(4) Zero everywhere

25. A travelling wave in a string is represented by

28. Two capacitors of capacitances C1 and C2 are
π π 
=y 3sin  t − x  . The phase difference connected in parallel. If a charge q is given to the
2 4 
assembly, the charge gets shared. The ratio of the
between two particles separated by a distance 4 cm
charge on the capacitor C1 to the charge that on C2
is (Take x and y in cm and t in seconds)
is
π π
(1) rad (2) rad C1 C2
2 4 (1) (2)
C2 C1
(3) π rad (4) 0
1
26. Two charges e and 3e are placed at a distance r. (3) C1C2 (4)
C1C2
The distance of the point where the electric field
intensity will be zero is
29. Between the plates of parallel plate condenser
r
(1) from 3e charge there is 1mm thick medium shoot of dielectric
(1 + 3 ) constant 4. It is charged at 100 volt. The electric
field in volt/meter between the plates of capacitor
r
(2) from e charge is :
(1+ 3 ) (1) 100000 (2) 100
r (3) 25000 (4) 400000
(3) from 3e charge
(1 − 3 ) 30. If the distance between parallel plates of a
r capacitor is halved and dielectric constant is
(4) from e charge. doubled then the capacitance
1
1+ (1) Decreases two times
3
(2) Increases two times
27. If electric lines of force in a region are represented (3) Increases four times
as shown in the figure, then one can conclude that, (4) Remains the same.
electric field is
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[5]
31. Calculate the current shown by the ammeter A in 35. Five identical lamps each of resistance R = 1100 Ω
the circuit diagram are connected to 220 V as shown in figure. The
reading of ideal ammeter A is

1 2
(1) A (2) A
5 5
(1) 0.1 A (2) 0.2 A 3
(3) A (4) 1 A.
(3) 0.3 A (4) 0.4 A. 5
SECTION – B
32. Ratio of nuclear radii of 135Cs to 40Ca is
36. When the current flowing in a circular coil is
(1) 1.40 (2) 1.50 doubled and the number of turns of the coil in it is
(3) 2.750 (4) 3.375 halved, the magnetic field at its centre will
become:
33. The valence of the impurity atom that is to be (1) Same (2) Four times
added to germanium crystal so as to make it a N- (3) Half (4) Double
type semiconductor, is
37. A wire carrying a current i is placed in a magnetic
(1) 6 (2) 5 field in the form of the curve
(3) 4 (4) 3  πx 
=y a sin   0 ≤ x ≤ 2 L. Force acting on the
 L
34. Ends A and B are connected to positive and wire is
negative terminals of a cell of emf 12 V
respectively. The value of voltage shown by
voltmeter of negligible resistance is

iBL
(1) (2) iBLπ
(1) Zero (2) 3V π
(3) 6V (4) 12 V. (3) 2iBL (4) Zero.

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[6]
38. Surface charge density on a ring of radius a and 42. In a series RLC circuit, potential differences across
width d is σ as shown in the figure. It rotates with R, L and C are 30 V, 60 V and 100 V respectively
frequency f about its own axis. Assume that the as shown in figure. The e.m.f. of source (in volts)
charge is only on outer surface. The magnetic field is
induction at centre is (Assume that d << a).

(1) πµ 0 f σd (2) µ 0 f σd
(1) 190 (2) 70
π2
(3) 2πµ 0 f σd (4) f σd . (3) 50 (4) 40
2µ 0
43. Which of the following represents an infra-red
39. The time period of a freely suspended magnet is 4
wavelength?
s. If it is broken in length into two equal parts and
(1) 10–4 cm (2) 10–5 cm
one part is suspended in the same way, then its
(3) 10–6 cm (4) 10–7 cm
time period will be
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s
(3) 0.5 s (4) 0.25 s. 1
44. The dimensional formula of ε 0 E 2 is
2
40. With the decrease of current in the primary coil (E = electric field)
from 2 A to zero in 0.01s, the e.m.f. generated in  MLT −1   ML2T −2 
(1) (2)
the secondary coil is 1000 V. The mutual
inductance of the two coil is (3)  ML−1T −2  (4)  ML2T −1 
(1) 1.25 H (2) 2.50 H
(3) 5.00 H (4) 10.00 H. 45. An astronomical telescope has an objective of
41. A : In Young’s double slit experiment, focal length 100 cm and an eye piece of focal
interference pattern disappears when one of the length 5 cm. The final image of a star is seen 25
slits is closed. cm from the eyepiece. The magnifying power of
R : Interference occurs due to superimposition of the telescope is
light wave from two coherent sources. (1) 20 (2) 22
(3) 24 (4) 26
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. 46. A person can see clearly only up to a distance of
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but 25 cm. He wants to read a book placed at a
Reason is not a correct explanation of the distance of 50 cm. What kind of lens does he
Assertion. require for this purpose and what must be its
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is power?
incorrect. (1) Concave, – 1.0 D (2) Convex, + 1.5 D
(4) If both the Assertion and Reason are (3) Concave, – 2.0 D (4) Convex, + 2.0 D.
incorrect

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[7]
47. A : Lenses of large aperture suffer from spherical (2) The fringe width will increase
aberration. (3) The fringe width will decrease
R : The curvature of the lens at central and (4) The optical path of the ray will increase by
peripheral regions is different. 2.5 × 10–4 cm
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. 49. Wavelength of an electron accelerated through a
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but potential difference of 1 volt is
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (1) 12.27 Å (2) 1.234 Å
Assertion. (3) 1 micron (4) 1 fermi
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
incorrect. 50. If the electron in hydrogen atom jumps from third
(4) If both the Assertion and Reason are orbit to second orbit, the wavelength of the emitted
incorrect radiation is given by
36 5R
(1) λ= (2) λ=
48. In Young’s double-slit experiment, a glass plate of 5R 36
refractive index 1.5 and thickness 5 × 10–4 cm is 5 R
kept in the path of one of the light rays. Then (3) λ= (4) λ=
(1) There will be no shift in the interference
R 6
pattern

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[8]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A 53. Correct order of boiling point for given compounds
is:
51. The major product obtained in the following
reaction is: (1) C2H5OH> C2H6 > CH3OCH3
(2) CH3OCH3 > C2H5OH > C2H6
(3) C2H6 C2H5OH > CH3OCH3
(4) C2H5OH > CH3OCH3 > C2H6
+ Br2 + NaOH

54. and are:

(1)
(1) Chain isomers
(2) Position isomers
(2) (3) Functional group isomers
(4) Metamers

55. Highest priority functional group according to

IUPAC is:
(3) (1) –CN (2) –COCI
(3) CHO (4) –NH2

(4)

56. IU PAC name of is:

52. Which of the following reaction is not correctly
representing the major product?
H + /H O
(1) 
2 →

(1) 3-Bromo-4 methylnitrobenzene

(2) 2-Bromo-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
(3) 6-bromo-4-nitrotoluene
H + /H O
(2) 
2 → (4) 2-methyl-5-nitrobromobenzene

( i )B2H6 /THF 57. Number of nodal plane present in π2px bonding

(3)  →
( ii )H 2O2 ,OH −
molecular orbital is:
( i )B2H6 /THF (1) 0 (2) 2
(4)  →
( ii )H 2O2 ,OH − (3) 1 (4) 3

Space for Rough Work

[9]
58. Consider the following reaction sequence: 61. Major product of the given reaction is:

NaBH

4→
Anhyd.AlCl3
→
∆
A

Product A is:
(1)

(1) (2)

(2)

(3) (4)

(3)

59. Which of the following compound will give

positive Iodoform test?
(1) Propanal (2) 2-Pentanone
(4)
(3) 3-Pentanol (4) Benzophenone

60. Consider the following reaction sequence:

HBr KCN H O+
62. Consider the following reactions:
→ A → B →
 3
∆
C

Compound C is:

(1) A and B respectively are:

(2) (1) R - O - N = O and R - O - N = O
(2) R - NO2 and R - O - N = O
(3) (3) R - O - N = O and R - NO2
(4) (4) R - NO2 and R - NO2

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[10]
63. Major product in the following reaction is: 68. Number of donor oxygen sites in oxalate and
ethane-1,2-diammine ligands respectively are:
∆ (1) 2, 2 (2) 2, 0
+ SOCl2  →
(3) 2, 1 (4) 1, 1

69. Which among the following can have largest C–O

(1) (2) bond length?
(1) [Ni(CO)4] (2) [Fe(CO)5]
(3) [Co(CO)4]– (4) [Cr(CO)5]2–

(3) (4) 70. The enthalpy change for the reaction;

C2 H 4 ( g ) + 3O 2 ( g ) → 2CO 2 ( g ) + 2H 2O (  )
is called:
64. Which among the following is an acidic oxide? (1) Enthalpy of formation
(1) SnO2 (2) PbO2 (2) Enthalpy of combustion
(3) PbO (4) GeO2 (3) Enthalpy of hydrogenation
(4) Enthalpy of vaporisation
65. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is
71. Maximum bond order among the following is of:
impossible for an electron?
(1) O2 (2) O2–
1 (3) O22– (4) O2+
(1) n = 1,  = 0, m = 0, s = +
2
1 72. Considering x-axis as the intermolecular axis,
(2) n = 9,  = 7, m = –6, s = − which of the following will not form sigma bond?
2
1 (1) 2s and 2s (2) 2px and 2s
(3) n = 2,  = 1, m = 0, s = + (3) 2px and 3px (4) 2py and 2py
2
1 73. In the reaction:
(4) n = 3,  = 2, m = –3, s = +
2 3Br2 + 6CO32− + 3H 2O → 5Br − + BrO3− + 6HCO3−
(1) Bromine is oxidized and carbonate is
66. The half life of a 1st order of reaction is 6.93 reduced
minutes. The time required for the completion of (2) Both bromine and carbonate are reduced
99% of this reaction will be: (3) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized
(1) 460 min (2) 230.3 min (4) Bromine is reduced as well as oxidized
(3) 23.03 min (4) 46.06 min
74. Select the correct order of atomic size among the
67. Which among the following pair of ions has equal following:
value of calculated magnetic moment? (1) Li > Be > Na (2) C > N > S
(1) Sc(III), Cu(II) (2) Ti(II), Cu(II) (3) Li > Na > Al (4) Na > Mg > Li
(3) Ti(II), Ni(II) (4) Ni(II), Cu(I)

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[11]
75. In S4O62– the oxidation numbers of four sulphur 79. If equilibrium constant has a value of 2.4 × 1047,
atoms are: then which of the following statement is true?
(1) +4, 0, 0 and +6 (2) 4, –2, –2 and + 6 (1) Reaction hardly proceeds
(3) +5, 0, 0 and + 5 (4) +5, –2, –2 and +5 (2) Both reactants and products are present at
equilibrium in appreciable amount
76. In which of the following entropy increases? (3) Reaction proceeds almost to completion
(1) A liquid crystallizes into a solid (4) Reactants are present predominantly
(2) Temperature of gas decreases from 500 K to
400 K 80. Vapour pressure of a liquid depends upon:
(3) Polymerisation of ethylene molecules (1) Temperature of liquid
(4) 2NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + (2) Volume of liquid
H2O(g) (3) Surface area of liquid
(4) All of these
77. Which of the following is most reactive towards
SN1 reaction? 81. Which one of the following will have largest
number of atoms?
(1) 0.2 g H2(g) (2) 12 g C(s)
(3) 0.4 g He(g) (4) 3.2 g O3(g)
(1) (2)
82. Van't Hoff factor of AlCl3 at 0.1 M is 2.8.
Percentage dissociation of AlCl3 is:
(1) 30 (2) 60
(3) 90 (4) 50

83. Compound which does not show geometrical

(3) (4) isomerism is:
(1) CH3-CH=CH-CH3 (2) Ph-CH=CH-Ph

(3) (4)

HCl gas
78. → Product:
 84. If molar solubility of MgF2 is "s" mol L–1 then the
value of Ksp for MgF2 will be:
(1) s2 (2) s3
(3) 4s 3
(4) s3 / 4
(1) (2)
85. In the plot of Lambda Λ m against C1/2 for strong
electrolyte, the intercept is equal to:
(3) (4) (1) к (2) Λ∞m
(3) A (4) –A

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[12]
 SECTION-B 89. Three lanthanides which show +2 oxidation state
also:
86. The given reaction is known as: (1) Sm, Tb, Gd (2) Sm, Eu, Yb
(3) La, Gd, Lu (4) Yb, Pm, Sm

90. Ionisation constant of water will be:

CO,HCl
→
Anhyd.AlCl
(1) 1.8 × 10–15 (2) 1.8 × 10–16
3
(3) 1.8 × 10 –13
(4) 1.8 × 10–14
(1) Stephen reaction
(2) Etard reaction 91. An oxalate salt gives which of the following gas in
(3) Gattermann-Koch reaction dry heating test:
(4) Kolbe's reaction (1) CO + CO2 (B) only CO2
(C) only CO (D) oxide acid vapors
87. Which of the following is aromatic?
92. Correct IUPAC name of [ Ni(en)Br2(PPh3)2] is:
(1) (2) (1) Dibromidoethyleneditriphenylnickle (II)
(2) Dibromidobis(ethylenediamine)
bis(triphenylphosphine) nickle (II)
(3) Dibromidoethylenediaminebis
(3) (4) (triphenylphosphine) nickel (II)
(4) Dibromoethylenebromidophosphinenickle
(II)

88. Consider the following reaction sequence: 93. Bond order of C-O bond in CO32– ion is:
(1) 1 (2) 2/3
(3) 4/3 (4) 3/2
NaNO + HCl Cu Cl 94. Which among the following element has highest
→
2
0−5ºC
A 
2 2→B
HCl
value of second ionization enthalpy?
Product B is: (1) Li (2) B
(3) N (4) F

95. Maximum dipole among the following is of:

(1) (2) (1) H2O (2) NH3
(3) NF3 (4) PH3

96. No. of wave made by an electron present in 2nd

excited state of hydrogen atom is:
(3) (4) (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

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97. Find the mole fraction of 20g NaOH dissolved in 99. Which radicals are precipitated by adding
90g water. aq(NH4)2CO3 to the alkaline solution of the salts:
1 1 (1) Ca2+, Ba2+, Sr2+ (2) Mg2+
(1) (2) (3) both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
11 22
1 1
(3) (4) 100. Angular momentum of electron in the third orbit of
20 19 hydrogen atom is:
2π 9h
98. Consider the following statements: (1) (2)
(a) BF3 does not have a proton but still acts as an 3h 2π
acid. 3h 3h
(3) (4)
(b) Strong acids have very strong conjugate 2π π
bases.
(c) Their is only difference of one proton
between conjugate acid-base pair.
Incorrect statement(s) is/are:
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a) and (c) only

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[14]
 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION – A 105. Assertion (A): Productivity, decomposition,
energy flow and nutrient cycling are the four
101. Which character can not be shown in floral
important functional components of an ecosystem.
formula?
Reason (R): Secondary productivity is the rate of
(1) Adhesion
assimilation of food energy by the consumers.
(2) Symmetry
(3) Ovary position on thalamus (1) A and R are correct and R is correct
(4) Placentation explanation of A.
(2) A and R are correct but R is not correct
102. Select the correct option: explanation of A.
Flower Ovary Example (3) A is correct but R is false.
A. Hypogynous Half superior Mustard, (4) Both are incorrect.
chinarose,
brinjal 106. Photosynthesis is:
B. Perigynous Half inferior Plum, rose, (1) Exothermic process
peach (2) Only physical process
C. Epigynous Inferior Guava, (3) Physico-chemical process
cucumber, (4) Catabolic process
onion
(1) Only B is correct 107. Chloroplast of a cell are aligned to the parallel of
(2) Only B and C are correct cell wall when lignt intensity is:
(3) Only A is correct (1) High (2) Low
(4) Only C is correct (3) Moderate (4) In night
103. Read the following statements and select the
correct ones: 108. Energy required for ATP synthesis in ETS comes
(i) Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of from
monocots. (1) Proton gradient (2) Electron gradient
(ii) Shoot apical meristem constitute axillary (3) Glucose reduction (4) Glucose oxidation
bud
109. PEP is primary CO2 acceptor in
(iii) Phloem fibre are abundant in primary
phloem (1) C4 plants
(iv) Apical meristem produces dermal tissue (2) C3 plants
ground tissue and vascular tissue (3) C2 plants
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii) (4) Both C3 and C4 plants
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)
110. According to R.H. Whittaker, how many
104. The cytoplasm of pollen grain is surrounded by- kingdoms belong to eukaryotes ?
(1) Exine (2) Intine (1) Four (2) One
(3) Plasma membrane (4) Generative cell (3) Two (4) Three

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111. Which of the following is a parasitic fungi on 117. Which of the following curve represents the ideal
mustard? condition when resources in the habitat are
(1) Rhizopus (2) Albuso unlimited:
(3) Agaricus (4) Neurospors
(1)
112. In bryophytes, zygote produces -
(1) Sporophyte (3) Prothallus
(2) Gametophyte (4) Spore

113. Which of the following members does not belong

to class phaeophyceae? (2)
(1) Ectocarpus and Dictyota
(2) Polysiphonia and Gelidiun
(3) Laminaria and Sargassum
(4) Fucus and kelps

114. Match the column I and II and Choose the correct

combination from the options given below :- (3)

Column-I Column-II
(Class) (Stored food material)
a Chlorophyceae i Floridean starch
b Phaeophyceae ii Starch (4)
c Rhodophyceae iii Laminarin &
Mannitol
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii (4) a-ii, b-I, c-iii
118. Assertion : In some case, the percent cover or
115. According to Robert May the global species biomass is a more meaningful measure of the
diversity is about :- population size.
(1) 7 million (2) 12 million Reason: Population density need not necessarily
(3) 50 million (4) 20 million be measured in number. If the population is huge
and counting is impossible or very time
116. Read the following statement carefully :- consuming.
"Amazon rain forest is estimated to produce, (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True \& the
through photosynthesis 20 percent of the total Reason is a correct explanation of the
oxygen in the earth's atmosphere" Assertion.
This is a aspect for conserving biodiversity (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
(1) Narrowly utilitarian Reason is not a correct
(2) Broadly utilitarian explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Economic aspect (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Ethical (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

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119. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch. Identify 121. Match the column I with column II
the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the
right option about them
Column I Column II
A Funicle I Mass of cells within ovule
with more food
B Hilum II Basal part of ovule
C Integument III One or 2 protective layers
of ovule
D Chalaza IV Region where body of
ovule fuses with funicle
E Nucellus V Stalk of ovule

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V

(2) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
A B C D (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III, E-V
(4) A-I, B-III, C-V, D-II, E-IV
(1) Synergids Central cell Antipodal Filiform
cells apparatus
(2) Antipodal Central cell Synergids Filiform 122. Which organelle out of these does not participate
cells apparatus in photorespiration?
(3) Antipodal Central cell Synergids Egg cell (1) Peroxisomes (2) Mitochondria
cells
(3) Chloroplasts (4) Golgi bodies
(4) Apical Primary Synergids Egg
cells endosperm apparatus
cell 123. Cytochrome which donates electrons to O2 is:-
(1) UQ (2) FMN

120. Pollen grains are shed in 2-celled stage in (3) Cyto-a (4) Cyto-a3

(1) over 90% angiosperms

124. To increase sugar production in sugarcanes, they
(2) over 50% of angiosperms
are sprayed with
(3) over 60% of angiosperms
(1) IAA (2) Cytokinin
(4) over 40% of angiosperms
(3) Gibberellin (4) ABA

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125. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram of A B C
glycolysis (1) ATP ATP H2O
(2) NADH + H+ H2O ATP
(3) NADH + H+ ATP ATP
(4) H2O ATP ATP

126. I. Mycelium is branched and septate

II. No asexual spores are formed
III. Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation
is common
IV. Sexual reproduction takes place by
somatogamy
V. Karyogamy and meiosis occur in basidium
to form four haploid basidiospores
VI. Basidia are arranged in basidiocarp
The above characteristics are assigned to
(1) Sac fungi (2) Club fungi
(3) Algal fungi (4) Fungi imperfecti

127. Which of the following pyramids is not upright?

(1) pyramid of energy in a forest
(2) Pyramid of biomass in sea
(3) Pyramid of number in a grassland
(4) Pyramid of number in a lake

128. Statement-I: Among animals, insects are the

most species rich taxonomic group.
Statement-II: The number of fungi species in the
world is more than the combined total of the
species of fishes, amphibians, reptiles and
mammals.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are
correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are
incorrect.

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129. Match the column: 132. Which of the following is formed in C3 plants
Leads to during photosynthesis?
accumulation of a (1) Oxaloacetic acid
(a) Fragmentation (i) dark coloured (2) Phosphoglyceric acid
amorphous (3) Pyruvic acid
substance. (4) Malic acid
Water-soluble 133. Which of the following radioactive isotope was
inorganic employed by Calvin for tracing the path of carbon
(b) Humification (ii)
nutrients go down in photosynthesis?
into soil horizon (1) C13 (2) C14
Bacterial and (3) O18 (4) P35
fungal enzymes
degrades detritus 134. In alcoholic fermentation, the final product is
(c) Catabolism (iii) (1) Acetaldehyde (2) Ethyl alcohol
simpler organic
and inorganic (3) NADH + H+ (4) Pyruvic acid
substances. 135. ABA induces
Detritivores break (1) Seed dormancy (2) Syngamy
down detritus (3) Parthenocarpy (4) Germination
(d) Leaching (iv)
into smaller
particles SECTION – B
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 136. The fusion product of polar nuclei and male
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii gamete is
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (1) Nucellus
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (2) Primary endosperm nucleus
(3) Zygote
130. Assertion: Cuscuta is a parasite commonly found (4) Secondary nucleus
on hedge plants.
Reason: Cuscuta has lost its chlorophyll and 137. Identify the above figures and choose the option
leaves in the course of evolution. in which one figure is correctly described?
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (1) A-Aspergillus, a member of class-
Ascomycetes
131. Which of the following is chief pigment (2) B-Mucor, the bread mould
associated with photosynthesis? (3) A - Agaricus, an edible fungus
(1) Chlorophyll-a (2) Chlorophyll-b (4) B-Neurospora, Drosophila of plant
(3) Xanthophyll (4) Carotenoids kingdom

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138. Given below floral formula is related to which 144. In the following statements choose wrong options
family? (a) Lichen is an example of mutual relationship
⊕ K 2+ 2 C4 A 2+ 4 G (2) (b) Mycorrhiza is an example of ectoparasitism
(1) Solanaceae (2) Liliaceae (c) Resource partitioning avoid competition
(3) Brassicaceae (4) Fabaceae among species
(d) Competitive exclusion principle was given
139. Select the false statement from the following
by Connell
(1) Vascular bundles without cambium are
called closed vascular bundles (1) a and c (2) a, c and d
(2) Open vascular bundles are found in (3) b and d (4) b, c and d
dicotyledonous stem
(3) In conjoint type of vascular bundles, the 145. The metabolic breakdown of carbohydrates, fatty
xylem & phloem are situated at the same
acids and amino acids is connected through
radius of vascular bundles
(4) Conjoint bundles are common is roots (1) Acetyl-CoA (2) Pyruvic acid
(3) PGAL (4) a-ketoglutarate
140. In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate after
fertilization are 146. Development in plants is
(1) Synergids and primary endosperm cell
(2) Synergids and antipodals (1) Only under control of intrinsic factors
(3) Antipodals and primary endosperm cell (2) Includes plasmatic growth followed by
(4) Egg and antipodals differentiation
(3) Only governed by intercellular factors like
141. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by genetic factors
mitotic division in
(1) Microspore mother cell (4) Not influenced by environmental factors
(2) Body cell
(3) Generative cell 147. The probability of the male child of a haemophilic
(4) Vegetative cell father and normal mother becoming haemophilic
is
142. Plants capture only ................. of the
photosynthetically active radiation. (1) 25% (2) 50%
Choose correct option to fill the blank (3) 0% (4) 100%
(1) 0.2-1 percent (2) 1-5 percent
(3) 20-100 percent (4) 2-10 percent 148. Which statement is correct about the pre-mRNA
(1) pre-mRNA is longer than gene
143. In lac operon, repressor protein binds to
(1) Regulator gene (2) pre-mRNA is shorter than mRNA
(2) Operator gene (3) pre-mRNA contains introns within it
(3) Promoter gene (4) pre-mRNA contains methylated guanine
(4) Structural gene nucleotide at 3' end

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149. Which type of sex determination mechanism is (2) Toddy is prepared by fermenting sap of
observed in grasshoppers? palm by microbes
(1) XO type (2) XY type (3) Microbes are also used to ferment fish and
(3) ZW type (4) ZZ type bamboo shoots to make foods
(4) Cheese are ripened by some specific
150. Mark the wrong statement. multicellular microbes only
(1) Puffed up appearance of dough is due to .
production of CO2 gas

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION – A 155. Identify the amino acids given below and select
the correct option.
151. Ciliated cells are found in:
(1) Bronchus (2) Pancreas
(3) Liver (4) Uterus
152. Unicellular glands are:
(1) Parotid (2) Goblet
(3) Sweat (4) Sebaceous (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) Glycine Serine Alanine
153. Mouth parts of cockroach is: (2) Alanine Glycine Serine
(1) Piercing and sucking type (3) Alanine Serine Glycine
(2) Biting and sucking type (4) Serine Alanine Glycine
(3) Biting and chewing type
(4) sponging type 156. Oxygen dissociation curve is:
154. Given structural formula is correctly identified (1) Sigmoid (2) Hyperbolic
along with its related function by which of the (3) Straight line (4) Parabolic
following options?
157. Pneumotaxic centre is present in:
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla oblongata (4) Pons varolii
158. ADH controls water permeability of:
(1) Collecting tube
(2) Proximal convoluted tuble
(3) Distal convoluted tuble
(4) Both (1) & (3)
159. Vertebrochondral rib in man are:
(1) Cholesterol-A component of animal cell (1) 8th, 9th & 10th rib
membrane (2) 7th, 8th, 9th rib
(2) Lecithin - A component of cell membrane (3) 9th, 10th & 11th rib
(3) Triglyceride - An energy source (4) 6th, 7th & 8th rib
(4) Adenosine - A component of nucleic acids
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160. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of 165. Correct sequence in development is:
uric acid crystals is called: (1) Fertilization → Zygote → Cleavage →
(1) Osteoporosis (2) Gout Morula →Blastocyst
(3) Arthritis (4) Tetany (2) Fertilization → Zygote → Blastula →
Morula Cleavage → Blastocyst
161. At resting stage nerve cells has: (3) Fertilization → Cleavage Morula →
(1) Low K+ outside and high Na+ inside Zygote → Blastocyst
(2) High K+ inside and high Na+ outside (4) Cleavage → Zygote → Fertilization →
(3) High K+ inside and low Na+ outside Morula → Blastocyst
(4) High K+ outside and low Na+ inside
166. Which of the following depicts the correct
162. Structure of a typical neuron is shown in the
pathway of transport of sperms?
diagram. Which of the following is not correctly
(1) Rete testis → Vasa efferentia →
identified?
Epididymis → Vas deferens
(2) Rete testis → Epididymis → Vasa
efferentia → Vas deferens
(3) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa
efferentia → Epididymis
(4) Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Vas
deferens → Epididymis

167. Govt of India legalized MTP in

(1) 1981 (2) 1971
(3) 1991 (4) 2001
(1) C-Schwann cells (2) A – Dendrites
(3) D-Myelin sheath (4) B-Nissl's granules 168. Periodic abstinence is a method in which:
(1) Barrier is created
163. Out of the following hormones, how many are (2) Contraceptives are taken orally
secreted from adenohypophysis? (3) Coitus is avoided for a particular duration
[Prolactin, ADH, GH, LH, Aldosterone, MSH, (4) Ovulation is inhibited
Melatonin, PTH, ACTH]
(1) One (2) Two 169. Darwin's Theory of Natural selection was based
(3) Three (4) Five on:
(1) Inheritance of acquired characters
164. "Spermiogenesis" is a process in which:
(2) Mutation
(1) Spermatids change into spermatozoa
(3) Enormous rate of production in organism,
(2) Spermatogonia produce a spermatid
struggle for existence and survival of the
(3) Spermatocytes give rise to spermatozoa
fittest
(4) Dormant spermatozoa become active just
before ejaculation (4) Changes due to the use and disuse of
organs

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170. What is common in between Darwin's finches (1) 1 (2) 2
and Australian marsupials? (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Both are examples of adaptive radiation
(2) Both are examples of convergent evolution 176. MALT constitutes about ________ tissue in
(3) Both are examples of analogy human body of the lymphoid tissue
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) 20% (2) 70%
(3) 10% (4) 50%
171. Identify the type of natural selection on the basis
of given diagram:
177. GEAC makes decisions regarding:
(1) The validity of GM research
(2) The safety of introducing GM organisms
for public services
(3) Study of disease
(4) More than one options are correct

178. Gene therapy first used in the treatment of:

(1) Stabilising (2) Directional (1) ADA deficiency (2) Haemophilia
(3) Disruptive (4) Artificial (3) Polio (4) Small pox

172. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to 179. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain
genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 Reaction (PCR) is:
to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele (1) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
A in the population is: (2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5 (3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.7 (4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

173. "Heroin" is obtained from 180. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for:

(1) Erythroxylon (1) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining
(2) Papaver somniferum with vectors
(3) Cannabis sativa
(2) DNA finger printing
(4) Atropa belladonna
(3) Disarming pathogen host
174. The type of immunoglobulin present in the (4) Transformation of plants cells
colostrum secreted by mammary glands is:
(1) IgA (2) IgG 181. The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:
(3) IgD (4) IgE (1) E.coli
(2) Pseudomonas
175. How many of the following diseases are not (3) Thermus aquaticus
caused by bacteria? (4) Salmonella typhimurium
[Pneumonia, Common cold, Filariasis, Typhoid,
Malaria, Plague, Diphtheria]
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182. Which of the following options correctly SECTION – B
represents the lung conditions in asthma and
186. Read the following statements and choose
emphysema, respectively?
incorrect one
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
(1) Neural signal through sympathetic nerves
respiratory surface
can increase the strength of ventricular
(2) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased
contraction
respiratory surface
(2) RBCs have a fixed life span of 120 days
(3) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation
after which they are destroyed in the liver
of bronchioles
(3) Basophils are least in number among all
(4) Decreased respiratory surface;
WBCs
Inflammation of bronchioles
(4) During a cardiac cycle each ventricle
pumps approximately 70 ml blood which is
183. Assertion : Respiratory rhythm centre can be
called stroke volume
moderated by pneumotaxic centre, located in the
medulla region of the brain 187. Consider the following steps and choose option
Reason : Pneumotaxic centre reduces the duration which have all correct statement
of inspiration (a) Formation of fibrins by the conversion of
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and inactive fibrinogens in the plasma is done
the Reason is a correct explanation of the by the enzyme thrombin
Assertion (b) Calcium ion do not play important role in
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True and clotting
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (c) Thrombocytes releases certain factors
Assertion which activates the mechanism of
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False coagulation
(4) Assertion is False but Reason is True (d) Blood exhibits coagulation or clotting in
response to an injury or trauma
184. Respiration in insects by (e) Role of calcium ions in clotting is
(1) Tracheal tubes (2) Lungs insignificant
(3) Moist kin (4) Book gills (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (e) (4) (b), (d) and (e)
185. Match the columns and find out the correct
combination 188. Match the column
Column I Column II
Column I Column II (a) Flame cell (i) Prawn
(a) Globulin (i) Clotting (b) Malpighian (ii) Cockroach
(b) Albumin (ii) Defense mechanism tubules
(c) Fibrinogen (iii) Osmotic balance (c) Nephridia (iii) Planaria
(d) Lymph (iv) Fa+ absorption (d) Green glands (iv) Earthworm
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

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189. Select the incorrect statement with respect to 193. Assertion : Sterilization is a procedure that
acquired immunity renders an individual incapable of further
(1) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of reproduction
defense present at the time of birth Reason : Vasectomy is a principle method of
(2) Primary response is produced when our sterilization in males.
body encounters a pathogen for the first (1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and
time. the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(3) Anamnestic response is elicited on Assertion
subsequent encounters with the same (2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but
pathogen Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(4) Anamnestic response is due to memory of Assertion
first encounter (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True
190. Consider the following four statements, which
one is correct with respect to AIDS
(1) The HIV can be transmitted through eating 194. Which of the following statements regarding
food together with an infected person coelenterates is/are wrong
(2) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV (a) Cnidocytes are present on the tentacles and
infection on the body.
(3) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent (b) Diploblastic with tissue level of
percent with proper care and nutrition organisation
(4) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper (c) Polyp forms are free swimming
T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers (d) Some exhibit metagenesis
(e) Polyps produce medusae sexually and
191. Amniocentesis is a technique used to medusae from polyps asexually
(1) Determine errors in amino acid metabolism (1) (b) and (d) only
in embryo (2) (c) and (e) only
(2) Pin point specific ailments in embryo (3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) Determine any hereditary genetic (4) (c) only
abnormalities in embryo
(4) All the above 195. Animal ‘A’ has some specific characteristic, like
it belongs to the largest phylum. Body is divisible
192. How is In-vitro fertilization different from natural into head, thorax and abdomen. Excretion by
fertilization in humans? Malpighian tubules. Animal ‘A’ could be
(1) In vitro fertilization involves artificial (1) Lamprey (2) Cuttlefish
injection of sperm into the uterus (3) Sepia (4) Locusta
(2) In vitro fertilization only involves one
parent 196. Which one of the following is not a poisonous
(3) In vitro fertilization happens outside the snake?
body (1) Cobra (2) Viper
(4) In vitro fertilization uses stem cells instead (3) Python (4) Krait
of eggs

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197. Which of the following epithelium is found in the 199. Which one of the given graphs shows the effect
inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles of pH on the velocity of a typical enzymatic
and fallopian tubes? reaction (V)?
(1) Squamous epithelium
(2) Ciliated epithelium (1) (2)
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) Cuboidal epithelium

198. Which of the following epithelium is found in the

tubular parts of Nephron (3) (4)
(1) Squamous epithelium
(2) Ciliated epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) Cuboidal epithelium 200. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and
essential for its activity is
(1) Holoenzyme (2) Apoenzyme
(3) Coenzyme (4) Isoenzyme

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