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Questions Practice

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to teaching, evaluation, and learner characteristics, along with their correct answers. It covers topics such as Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation, attributes of effective teachers, and methods of assessment. The questions aim to assess knowledge relevant to UGC NET exam preparation.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
5 views

Questions Practice

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to teaching, evaluation, and learner characteristics, along with their correct answers. It covers topics such as Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation, attributes of effective teachers, and methods of assessment. The questions aim to assess knowledge relevant to UGC NET exam preparation.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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1. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?

(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.

(b) It replaces marks with grades.

(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.

(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (b) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 4

2. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?

(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management

(b) Setting examples

(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test

(d) Acknowledging mistakes

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 2

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3. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple - choice type
questions?

(1) They are more objective than true-false type questions.

(2) They are less objective than essay type questions.


(3) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.

(4) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.

Answer: 1

4. What are required for good teaching?

(a) Diagnosis

(b) Remedy

(c) Direction

(d) Feedback

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (c) and (d)

Answer: 1

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5. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:

(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.

(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.

(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.

(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only


(3) (a), (b) and (c) only

(4) (a) only

Answer: 2

6. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing
students in a classroom.

(1) Avoidance of proximity

(2) Voice modulation

(3) Repetitive pause

(4) Fixed posture

Answer: 2

7. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.

(1) Use of peer command

(2) Making aggressive statements

(3) Adoption of well-established posture

(4) Being authoritarian

Answer: 3

8. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective


teaching-learning systems? Select the correct alternative from the codes given below:

(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.

(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.

(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.

(iv) Student’s language background.

(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.

(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.


Codes:

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)

(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

Answer: 2

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9. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of:

(1) attracting students’ attention in the class room.

(2) minimising indiscipline problems in the classroom.

(3) optimising learning outcomes of students.

(4) effective engagement of students in learning tasks.

Answer: 3

10. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of
teaching:

List of factors:

(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.

(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.

(c) Communication skill of the teacher.

(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.

(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.

(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.

Codes:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)


(2) (c), (d) and (f)

(3) (b), (d) and (e)

(4) (a), (c) and (f)

Answer: 4

11. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of
teaching-learning relationships? Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.

(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.

(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.

(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.

(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.

(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.

(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.

Codes:

(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

(4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

Answer: 2

12. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of

(1) Course coverage

(2) Students’ interest

(3) Learning outcomes of students

(4) Use of teaching aids in the classroom

Answer: 3
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13. In which teaching method learner’s participation is made optimal and proactive?

(1) Discussion method

(2) Buzz session method

(3) Brainstorming session method

(4) Project method

Answer: 4

14. One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching effectiveness is related to the

(1) Social system of the country

(2) Economic status of the society

(3) Prevailing political system

(4) Educational system

Answer: 4

15. Assertion (A): Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning.

Reason (R): As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly reliable.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3

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December 2019 Exam
16. Which of the following set of statements best represents the nature and objective of
teaching and learning?

(a) Teaching is like selling and learning is like buying.

(b) Teaching is a social act while learning is a personal act.

(c) Teaching implies learning whereas learning does not imply teaching.

(d) Teaching is a kind of delivery of knowledge while learning is like receiving it.

(e) Teaching is an interaction and is triadic in nature whereas learning is an active engagement in
a subject domain.

Code:

(1) (a), (d) and (e)

(2) (b), (c) and (e)

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: 2

17. From the list given below identify the learner characteristics which would facilitate
teaching learning system to become effective. Choose the correct code to indicate your
answer.

(a) Prior experience of learner

(b) Learner’s family lineage

(c) Aptitude of the learner

(d) Learner’s stage of development

(e) Learner’s food habits and hobbies

(f) Learner’s religious affiliation

Code:

(1) (a), (c) and (d)


(2) (d), (e) and (f)

(3) (a), (d) and (e)

(4) (b), (c) and (f)

Answer: 1

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18. Assertion (A): All teaching implies learning.

Reason (R): Learning to be useful must be derived from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3

19. On the basis of summative tests, a teacher is interpreting his/her students, performance
in terms of their wellness life style evident in behaviour. This will be called:

(1) Formative testing

(2) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation

(3) Norm - referenced testing

(4) Criterion - referenced testing

Answer: 4

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20. Which one of the following is a key behaviour in effective teaching?

(1) Using student ideas and contribution

(2) Structuring
(3) Instructional variety

(4) Questioning

Answer: 3

21. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of
teaching?

Indicate your answer by selecting from the code.

(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.

(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.

(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.

(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.

(e) A teacher is a senior person.

(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (e)

(3) (a), (c) and (f)

(4) (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: 3

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22. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of


teaching?

(1) Prior experience of the learner

(2) Educational status of the parents of the learner

(3) Peer groups of the learner


(4) Family size from which the learner comes.

Answer: 1

23. In the two sets given below Set - I indicates methods of teaching while Set - II provides
the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your
answer by choosing from the code:

Set - I Set - II
(Method of teaching) (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)
(i) Small step presentation with feedback provided
(a) Lecturing
(ii) Production of large number of ideas
(b) Discussion in groups
(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(c) Brainstorming
(iv) Use of teaching-aids procedure
(d) Programmed Instructional
(v) Theme based interaction among participants

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(3) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer: 3

24. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called
‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.

(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.

(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.

(d) The teacher clarifies the doubts of students in the class itself.

(e) The overall performance of a students is reported to parents at every three months interval.

(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.

Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (e)

(4) (b), (d) and (f)

Answer: 4

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25. Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R): All learning results from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3
LOGICAL REASONING
1. The next term in the series 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37,? is:

(1) 50

(2) 57

(3) 62

(4) 72

Answer: 1

2. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of 1/3 rd of students is found to
be 60. The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole group
will be:

(1) 80

(2) 76

(3) 74

(4) 72

Answer: 4

3. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in a
wrong direction. He turned and travelled 12 km towards West, turned right and travelled 8
km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is:

(1) 20 km

(2) 14 km

(3) 12 km

(4) 10 km

Answer: 4

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4. The next term in the series: B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N,? is:
(1) J56I

(2) I62Q

(3) Q62J

(4) J58Q

Answer: 4

5. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one
son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in
the party is:

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(1) 12

(2) 14

(3) 18

(4) 24
Answer: 2

6. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R
as:

(1) Son

(2) Brother

(3) Uncle

(4) Father

Answer: 3

7. Consider the argument given below:

'Pre - employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers
who are now employed had to face such a testing.'

What type of argument it is?

(1) Deductive

(2) Analogical

(3) Psychological

(4) Biological

Answer: 2

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2019 Exam

8. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they can both be
true although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions? Select the correct
code.

Propositions:

(a) Some priests are cunning.

(b) No priest is cunning.

(c) All priests are cunning.


(d) Some priests are not cunning.

Codes:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a) and (d)

Answer: 4

9. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called:

(1) An inference

(2) An argument

(3) An explanation

(4) A valid argument

Answer: 2

10. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given
below:

(A): No man is perfect.

(R): Some men are not perfect.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: 1

11. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:

(1) Lexical
(2) Precising

(3) Stipulative

(4) Persuasive

Answer: 3

12. If the proposition 'No men are honest' is taken to be false which of the following
proposition/propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?

Propositions:

(1) All men are honest

(2) Some men are honest

(3) Some men are not honest

(4) No honest person is man

Answer: 2

13. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS


will be

(1) YKCPGAYLQ

(2) BNFSJDBMR

(3) QLYAGPCKY

(4) YQKLCYPAG

Answer: 1

14. In the series 3, 11, 23, 39, 59, .......... The next term will be

(1) 63

(2) 73

(3) 83

(4) 93
Answer: 3

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15. Two railway tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 177.
Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 173. The fare for
city B from city A will be Rs.

(1) 25

(2) 27

(3) 30

(4) 33

Answer: 4

16. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left,
he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he now from his starting point?

(1) 20 m

(2) 15 m

(3) 10 m

(4) 5 m

Answer: 4

17. A is sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D.


A is related to D as

(1) Grand daughter

(2) Daughter

(3) Daughter-in-law

(4) Sister

Answer: 1

18. In the series AB, EDC, FGHI, ....?...., OPQRST, the missing term is
(1) JKLMN

(2) JMKNL

(3) NMLKJ

(4) NMKLJ

Answer: 3

19. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of
the other. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code:

Propositions:

(a) All women are equal to men

(b) Some women are equal to men

(c) Some women are not equal to men

(d) No women are equal to men

Codes:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (d)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a) and (c)

Answer: 4

20. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can
be claimed certainly to be true?

Propositions:

(1) Some thieves are poor.

(2) Some thieves are not poor.

(3) No thief is poor.


(4) No poor person is a thief.

Answer: 2

21. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the
argument involved in it:

To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to
assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.

(1) Astronomical

(2) Anthropological

(3) Deductive

(4) Analogical

Answer: 4

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22. Select the code which is not correct about Venn diagram:

(1) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.

(2) It can provide clear method of notation.

(3) It can be either valid or invalid.

(4) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.

Answer: 3

23. Select the code which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two
premises:

(1) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.

(2) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

(3) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true conclusion may be valid.

(4) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

Answer: 2
24. Given below are two premises and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly
or together). Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn.

Premises:

(i) All religious persons are emotional.

(ii) Ram is a religious person.

Conclusions:

(a) Ram is emotional.

(b) All emotional persons are religious.

(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.

(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.

Codes:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

Answer: 3

25. The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16,?, 36, 343, … is

(1) 30

(2) 49

(3) 125

(4) 81

Answer: 3

26. The next term in the following series YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI,? will be

(1) TLO
(2) QOL

(3) QLO

(4) GQP

Answer: 2

27. If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as O, I as A, P as N, E as M, O as E and C as S, then


the code of COMPANIES will be

(1) SPEINMOAC

(2) NCPSEIOMA

(3) SMOPIEACN

(4) SEINCPAMO

Answer: 4

28. Among the following, identify the continuous type of data:

(1) Number of languages a person speaks

(2) Number of children in a household

(3) Population of cities

(4) Weight of students in a class

Answer: 4

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Exam

29. Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays Rs. 21 to the shopkeeper. Rakesh buys
a cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays Rs. 28 to the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two
glasses, a cup and two pencil boxes and pays Rs. 35 to the shopkeeper. The cost of 10 cups
will be

(1) Rs. 40

(2) Rs. 60

(3) Rs. 80
(4) Rs. 70

Answer: 4

30. Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the fourth one is
different. Identify the odd one

(1) Lucknow

(2) Rishikesh

(3) Allahabad

(4) Patna

Answer: 1

31. Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a
characteristic which is not of deductive reasoning:

(1) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment.

(2) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises.

(3) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily.

(4) The argument may be valid or invalid.

Answer: 1

32. If two standard form categorical propositions with the same subject and predicate are
related in such a manner that if one is undetermined the other must be undetermined, what
is their relation?

(1) Contrary

(2) Subcontrary

(3) Contradictory

(4) Sub-altern

Answer: 3
33. Men and woman may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be
considered inferior or superior to the other, any more than a bird’s wings can be
considered superior or inferior to a fish’s fins. What type of argument it is?

(1) Biological

(2) Physiological

(3) Analogical

(4) Hypothetical

Answer: 3

34. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both
be true but can both be false. Select the code that states those two propositions.

Propositions:

(a) Every student is attentive.

(b) Some students are attentive.

(c) Students are never attentive.

(d) Some students are not attentive.

Codes:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (c) and (d)

Answer: 2

35. Given below are two premises ((a) and (b)). From those two premises four conclusions
(i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from
the premises (taking singly or jointly.)

Premises:

(a) Untouchability is a curse.


(b) All hot pans are untouchable.

Conclusions:

(i) All hot pans are curse.

(ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans.

(iii) All curses are untouchability.

(iv) Some curses are untouchability.

Codes:

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (iii) and (iv)

(4) (ii) and (iv)

Answer: 4

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Exam

36. If the statement ‘None but the brave wins the race’ is false which of the following
statements can be claimed to be true?

Select the correct code:

(1) All brave persons win the race.

(2) Some persons who win the race are not brave.

(3) Some persons who win the race are brave.

(4) No person who wins the race is brave.

Answer: 2

37. In the series 1, 6, 15, 28, 45, ............ the next term will be:

(1) 66
(2) 76

(3) 56

(4) 84

Answer: 1

38. The next term in the series ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, .......... is:

(1) NSA

(2) SBL

(3) PSK

(4) RUH

Answer: 2

39. In certain code, “COVALENT” is coded as BWPDUOFM. The code of “ELEPHANT”


will be:

(1) MFUIQRTW

(2) QMUBIADH

(3) QFMFUOBI

(4) EPHNTEAS

Answer: 3

40. Ajay is a friend of Rakesh. Pointing to an old man Ajay asked Rakesh who is he ?
Rakesh said “His son is my son’s uncle”. The old man is related to Rakesh as:

(1) Grandfather

(2) Father-in-law

(3) Father

(4) Uncle

Answer: 3
41. A postman walked 20 m straight from his office, turned right and walked 10 m. After
turning left he walked 10 m and after turning right walked 20 m. He again turned right
and walked 70 m. How far he is from his office?

(1) 50 m.

(2) 40 m.

(3) 60 m.

(4) 20 m.

Answer: 1

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Exam

42. It is Truism to say that no one was there when life first appeared on earth. Any
assertion about life’s origin, thus, should be treated as a theory. The above two statements
constitute:

(1) A historical explanation

(2) A narrative

(3) An argument

(4) A conjecture

Answer: 3

43. Given below are four statements. Among them two are related in such a way that they
can both be true but they cannot both be false. Select the code that indicates those two
statements:

Statements:

(a) Honest people never suffer.

(b) Almost all honest people do suffer.

(c) Honest people hardly suffer.

(d) Each and every honest person suffers.

Code:
(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (a) and (d)

(4) (b) and (c)

Answer: 4

44. A deductive argument is invalid if:

(1) Its premises and conclusion are all true.

(2) Its premises and conclusion are all false.

(3) Its premises are all false but its conclusion is true.

(4) Its premises are all true but its conclusion is false.

Answer: 4

45. Given below are two premises (a and b). From those two premises four conclusions (i),
(ii), (iii) and (iv) are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusion/conclusions drawn
validly (taking the premises singularly or jointly).

Premises:

(a) All bats are mammals.

(b) No birds are bats.

Conclusions:

(i) No birds are mammals.

(ii) Some birds are not mammals.

(iii) No bats are birds.

(iv) All mammals are bats.

Code:

(1) (i) only


(2) (i) and (ii) only

(3) (iii) only

(4) (iii) and (iv) only

Answer: 3

46. Just as melting ice - cubes do not cause a glass of water to overflow, melting sea - ice
does not increase oceanic volume.

What type of argument is it?

(1) Analogical

(2) Hypothetical

(3) Psychological

(4) Statistical

Answer: 1

47. The next term in the series −1, 5, 15, 29, ? , ... is:

(1) 36

(2) 47

(3) 59

(4) 63

Answer: 3

48. The next term in the series ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ? , ... is:

(1) ZKU

(2) ZCA

(3) ZKW

(4) KZU

Answer: 3
49. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be:

(1) LOQOZEH

(2) HLZEOOQ

(3) ZELHOQO

(4) LQOOFZH

Answer: 4

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Exam

50. Introducing Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son
of my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh as:

(1) Aunt

(2) Mother

(3) Sister

(4) Daughter

Answer: 3

51. Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio
becomes 1 : 2. The numbers are:

(1) 16, 40

(2) 20, 50

(3) 28, 70

(4) 32, 80

Answer: 4

52. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the
same way as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.

What type of reasoning is entailed in the above statement?


(1) Mathematical

(2) Psychological

(3) Analogical

(4) Deductive

Answer: 3

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December 2019 Exam

53. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select
the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or
jointly).

Premises:

(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.

(B) Most of the singers are dancers.

Conclusions:

(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.

(b) Most of the dancers are singers.

(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.

(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (d) and (a)

Answer: 1

54. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning?


(1) Law of identity

(2) Unchangeability in nature

(3) Harmony in nature

(4) Uniformity of nature

Answer: 4

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2019 Exam

55. If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of
the following proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true? Select the
correct Code:

Propositions:

(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.

(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.

(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.

(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) only

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (b) only

Answer: 3

56. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram
method?

(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.

(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.


(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical
syllogism.

(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.

Answer: 3

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