Namma Kalvi

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+1 BIO - ZOOLOGY
BOOK BACK STUDY MATERIAL
S. No CHAPTER’S NAME` PAGE NO.
I. UNIT I
1. The Living World 2
2. Kingdom Animalia 4
II. UNIT II
3. Tissue Level of Organisation 9
4. Organ and Organ Systems in Animals 11
III. UNIT III
5. Digestion and Absorption 14
6. Respiration 18
7. Body Fluids and Circulation 22
8. Excretion 29
IV. UNIT IV
9. Locomotion and Movement 39
10. Neural Control and Coordination 47
11. Chemical Coordination and Integration 52
V UNIT V
Trends in Economic Zoology 58

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Prepared by

S. SELVAKUMAR.M.Sc.,B.Ed.,
PG ASST IN ZOOLOGY
JOTHI VIDHYALAYA MATRIC HR. SEC. SCHOOL
ELAMPILLAI, SALEM (DT)
Mobile No. 9500237649

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11TH –BIO-ZOOLOGY(BOOK BACK QUESTIONS&ANSWERS)

CHAPTER.1- LIVING WORLD
Evaluation
1. A living organism is differentiated from non-living structure based on
a. Reproduction b. Growth c. Metabolism d. Movement
2. A group of organisms having similar traits of a rank is
a. Species b. Taxon c. Genus d. Family
3. Every unit of classification regardless of its rank is
a. Taxon b. Variety c. Species d. Strain
4. Which of the following is not present in same rank?
a. Primata b. Orthoptera c. Diptera d. Insecta
5. What taxonomic aid gives comprehensive information about a taxon?
a. Taxonomic Key b. Herbarium c. Flora d. Monograph
6. Who coined the term biodiversity?
a. Walter Rosen b. AG Tansley c. Aristotle d.APdeCandole
7. Cladogram considers the following characters
a. Physiological and Biochemical b. Evolutionary and Phylogenetic
c. Taxonimic and systematic d. None of the above
8. Molecular taxonomic tool consists of
a. DNA and RNA b. Mitochondria and Endocplamicreticulum
c. Cell wall and Membrane proteins d. All the above
9. Differentiate between probiotics and pathogenic bacteria.
PROBIOTIC BACTERIA = They are the bacteria that are helpful/beneficial for other organisms .
They do not cause any illness . ex - Lactobacillus
PATHOGENIC BACTERIA =They are the bacteria that are harmful for living organisms and cause
diseases in their host organisms .ex- streptococcus pneumonia
10. Why mule is sterile in nature?
- hinnies and mules can't have babies of their own.
-They are sterile because they can't make sperm or eggs.
-They have trouble making sperm or eggs because their chromosomes don't match up well.
-And, to a lesser extent, because of their chromosome number.
-A mule is the offspring of a male donkey (a jack) and a female horse (a mare).
- A horse has 64 chromosomes, and a donkey has 62. The mule ends up with 63.
-Mules can be either male or female, but, because of the odd number of chromosomes,
they can'treproduce.
11. List any five salient features of the family Felidae
Wild cats (Felidae) are members of the carnivore group (Carnivora) which all share the following
characteristics:
1. Felidae is basically a cat family.
2. They are obligate carnivores. meat eaters.
3. They have sharp teeth and claws to catch and eat prey.
4. Mostly solitary, secretive and nocturnal.
5. Acute senses – hearing, smell, vision and touch.
12. What is the role of Charles Darwin in relation to concept of species?

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*In 1859 charles Darwin in his book origin of species explain the evolutionary connection of species
by the process of natural selection.
Biological Species Concept:
In the middle of 18th century, a fresh concept called biological species concept appeared. This
concept was accepted in the later half of the nineteenth century after Darwin’s “Origin of Species”
was published (in 1859). So, this is also known as Newer Species concept. K. Jordan first formulated
this concept in 1905. Later in 1940, Mayr supported this concept. As per this concept, ”a species is a
group of interbreeding natural population that is reproductively isolated from other such groups”.
Mayr described that the members of a species show the following properties:
13. Why elephants and other wild animals are entering into human living area?
-The wild is where wild animals live naturally. They were here first.
-Then humans move into the animals’ habitat and try to tame it.
-They push the wild animals out, cut down the forests, pave the grasslands, log the mountains, build
fences and railroads and farms and wondering why the elephant and hyenas haven’t figured out that
only people are supposed to live here now.
-This is how humans have managed to kill half of the wild life on this whole planet in only fifty years.
-Our arrogance, greed, ignorance, delusions of superiority, and belief in our entitlement will destroy us
all.
14. What is the difference between a Zoo and wild life sanctuary?

Arignar Anna Zoological Park ,Tamilnadu Bhadra wildlife sanctuary,Karnataka

15. Can we use recent molecular tools to identify and classify organisms?
Molecular taxonomical tools
Technological advancement has helped to evolve molecular taxonomical tools from classical tools to
molecular tools. The accuracy and authenticity is more significant in the molecular tools.
The following methods are being used for taxonomical classification.
Molecular techniques and approaches such as DNA barcoding (short genetic marker in an organism’s
DNA to identify it as belonging to a particular species),
DNA hybridization (measures the degree of genetic similarity between pools of DNA sequences),
DNA fingerprinting (to identify an individual from a sample of DNA by looking at unique patterns in
their DNA),
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms (RFLP) analysis (difference in homologous DNA sequences

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that can be detected by the presence of fragments of different lengths after digestion of the DNA
samples),
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) sequencing ( to amplify a specific gene, or portion of gene,) are used
as taxonomical tools.
Neo taxonomical tools – This is based on Electron Microscopy images to study the molecular structures
of cell organelles.
16. Explain the role of Latin and Greek names in Biology.
Greek or latin language is also referred to as the dead language, meaning that no changes can be done
in the language,it remains constant and no new words are added.
So, to maintain the uniformity of scientific names all throughout the world, latin/greek is used in biology
and other fields as well.
-Latin and Greek words commonly used in systematic names is intended to help those unfamiliar with
classical languages to understand and remember the scientific names of organisms.
-The binomial nomenclature used for animals and plants is largely derived from Latin and Greek words,
as are some of the names used for highertaxa, such as orders and above.
-At the time when biologist Carl Linnaeus (1707–1778) published the books that are now accepted as the
starting point of binomial nomenclature, Latin was used in Western Europe as the common language of
science, and scientific names were in Latin or Greek: Linnaeus continued this practice.
-Although Latin is now largely unused except by classical scholars, or for certain purposes in botany,
medicine and the Roman Catholic Church, it can still be found in scientific names.
- It is helpful to be able to understand the source of scientific names. Although the Latin names do not
always correspond to the current English common names, they are often related, and if their meanings are
understood, they are easier to recall.
-The binomial name often reflects limited knowledge or hearsay about a species at the time it was named.
CHAPTER-2 -KINGDOM ANIMALIA
Evaluation
1.The symmetry exhibited in cnidarians is
(a) Radial (b) Bilateral (c) Pentamerous radial (d) Asymmetrical
2.Sea anemone belongs to phylum
(a) Protozoa (b) Porifera (c) Coelenterata (d) Echinodermata
3.The excretory cells that are found in platyhelminthes are
(a) Protonephridia (b) Flame cells (c) Solenocytes (d) All of these
4.In which of the following organisms, self fertilization is seen.
(a) Fish (b) Round worm (c) Earthworm (d) Liver fluke
5.Nephridia of Earthworms are performing the same functions as
(a) Gills of prawn (b) Flame cells of Planaria
(c) Trachea of insects (d) Nematoblasts of Hydra

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6.Which of the following animals has a true coelom ?
(a) Ascaris (b) Pheretima (c) Sycon (d) Taeniasolium
7.Metameric segmentation is the main feature of
(a) Annelida (b) Echinodermata (c) Arthropoda (d) Coelenterata
8.In Pheretima locomotion occurs with help of
(a) circular muscles (b) longitudinal muscles and setae
(c) circular, longitudinal muscles and setae (d) parapodia
9.Which of the following have the highest number of species in nature?
(a) Insects (b) Birds (c) Angiosperms (d) Fungi
10.Which of the following is a crustacean?
(a) Prawn (b) Snail (c) Sea anemone (d) Hydra
11.The respiratory pigment in cockroach is
(a) Haemoglobin (b) Haemocyanin (c) Oxyhaemoglobin (d) Haemoerythrin
12.Exoskeleton of which phylum consists of chitinous cuticle?
(a) Annelida (b) Porifera (c) Arthropoda (d) Echinodermata
13.Lateral line sense organs occur in
(a) Salamander (b) Frog (c) Water snake (d) Fish
14.The limbless amphibian is
(a) Icthyophis (b) Hyla (c) Rana (d) Salamander
15.Four chambered heart is present in
(a) Lizard (b) Snake (c) Scorpion (d) Crocodile
16.Which of the following is not correctly paired?
(a) Humans – Ureotelic
(b) Birds – Uricotelic
(c) Lizards – Uricotelic
(d) Whale – Ammonotelic
17.Which of the following is an egg laying mammal?
(a) Delphinus (b) Macropus (c) Ornithorhynchus (d) Equus
18.Pneumatic bones are seen in
(a) Mammalia (b) Aves (c) Reptilia (d) Sponges
19.Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column – I Column – II

(p) Pila (i) Devil fish

(q) Dentalium (ii) Chiton

(r) Chaetopleura (iii) Apple snail

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 Column – I Column – II

(s) Octopus (iv) Tusk shell

 (a) p – (ii), q – (i), r – (iii), s – (iv)
 (b) p – (iii), q – (iv), r – (ii), s – (i)
 (c) p – (ii), q – (iv), r – (i), s – (iii)
 (d) p – (i), q – (ii), r – (iii), s – (iv)
20.In which of the following phyla, the adult shows radial symmetry but the larva shows bilateral
symmetry?
(a) Mollusca (b) Echinodermata (c) Arthropoda (d) Annelida
21.Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Physalia – Portugese man of war (b) Pennatula – Sea fan
(c) Adamsia – Sea pen (d) Gorgonia – Sea anemone
22.Why are spongin and spicules important to a sponge?
The body of sponges is supported by a skeleton made up of calcareous and siliceous spicules or spongin
or both.
23.What are the four characteristics common to most animals?
1. On the basis of germ layers all animals will be diploblastic (ectoderm and endoderm) or
triploblastic (outer ectoderm, middle mesoderm and inner endoderm).
2. Animals show symmetry. They may be radially symmetrical or bilaterally symmetrical. Few
animals like sponges lack symmetry.
3. Most animals posses a body cavity between the body wall and alimentary canal and is lined with
mesoderm. This is called coelom. Some animals lack coelom (acoelomate) or have false coelom
(Pseudocoelomate).
4. Reproduction is a character seen in all animals. (asexual/sexual or both).
24.List the features that all vertebrates show at some point in their development.
Vertebrates posses notochord during embryonic stage only. The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous
or bony vertebral column in the adult.
25.Compare closed and open circulatory system.
The circulatory system is of two types,
1. Open type: The blood remains filled in tissue spaces due to the absence of blood capillaries. Eg:
Arthropods, Molluscs, Echinoderms, and Urochordates
2. Closed type: The blood is circulated through blood vessels of varying diameters (arteries, veins,
and capillaries) Eg: Annelids, Cephalochordates and Vertebrates.
26.Compare Schizocoelom with enterocoelom.
1. Eucoelom or true coelom is a fluid-filled cavity that develops within the mesoderm and is lined
by mesodermal epithelium called peritoneum.
2. Such animals with a true body cavity are called eucoelomates.
3. Based on the mode of formation of coelom, the eucoelomates are classified into two types,

i. Schizocoelomate animals – In these animals the body cavity is formed by splitting of

mesoderm. Eg: Annelids, Arthropods, Molluscs.
ii. Enterocoelomate animals – In these animals the body cavity is formed from the
mesodermal pouches of archenteron. Eg: Echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates.

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27.Identify the structure that the archenteron becomes in a developing animal.

1. In the developing embryo during the process of gastrulation, the primary gut that is formed is
called the archenteronor digestive tube.
2. It develops into the endoderm and mesoderm of an animal.
28.Observe the animal below and answer the following questions.

a. Identify the animal

b. What type of symmetry does this animal exhibit?
c. Is this animal Cephalized?
d. How many germ layers does this animal have?
e. How many openings does this animal’s digestive system have?
f. Does this animal have neurons?
Answer:
a. Sea Anemone(Adamsia)
b. Bilateral symmetry(or)Radial symmetry
c. No.
d. Diploblastic – Two germ layers with outer ectoderm, inner endoderm and Jelly like mesoglea in
between the two layers.
e. The coelenteron or central vascular cavity which serves for digestion opens out by a single
opening called mouth.
f. yes
29.Choose the term that does not belong in the following group and explain why it does not belong?
Notochord, cephalisation, dorsal nerve cord and radial symmetry.
‘Radial symmetry’ is the term that does not belong to the group.
Reason: Notochord, Cephalization, dorsal nerve cord are characteristic features of Phylum chordata. This
Phylum comprises of animals with bilateral symmetry. Hence the term radial symmetry does not belong
to the group.
30.Why flatworms are called acoelomates?
1. Flatworms are called acoelomate animals. They do not possess a body cavity or coelom.
2. Since there is no body cavity in these animals their body is solid without a perivisceral cavity.
This restricts the free movement of internal organs. Eg.Flatworms.
31.What are flame cells?
Specialised cells called flame cells are seen in Phylum platyhelminthes. These cells help in
osmoregulation and excretion. They have flickering cilia or flagella for driving the absorbed excretory
products.

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32.Concept Mapping – Use the following terms to create a concept map that shows the major
characteristic features of the phylum nematode: Round worms, pseudocoelomates, digestive tract,
cuticle, parasite, sexual dimorphism.
Concept Mapping:

33.In which phyla is the larva trochopore found?

Phylum Mollusca and Phylum Annelida.
34.Which of the chordate characteristics do tunicates retain as adults?
1. The larval stage of the tunicate possesses all the features characteristic of chordates, a notochord,
a dorsal hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal slits and a post anal tail.
2. In the adult stage the notochord, nerve cord and tail disappear.
35.List the characteristic features that distinguish cartilaginous fishes with living jawless fishes.
S.No Living Jawless fishes Cartilaginous fishes

1. These belong to class cyclostomata under These belong to class Chondrichthyes. under
subphylum vertebrata, Phylum chordata. subphylum vertebrata, Phylum chordata.

2. These are Jawless fishes. Mouth is circular and Mouth is located ventrally and Jaws are very
suctorial. powerful.

3. They have true teeth. Teeth are modified placoid scales which are
backwardly directed.

4. They have pouch like gills. They have lamelliform gills without operculum.

5. Eg:Petromyzon, lamprey Eg: Trygon (stingray)

36.List three features that characterise bony fishes.

Characteristics of bony fishes:
1. Their endoskeleton is bony.
2. They have swim bladder.
3. Gills are covered by opercula.

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 4. They are found in sea and fresh water.
37.List the functions of air bladder in fishes.
Functions of air bladder:
In fishes air bladder regulates buoyancy and helps them to float in water. If air bladders are absent, the
animals need to swim constantly to avoid sinking.
38.Write the characteristics that contributes to the success of reptiles on land.
1. They are mostly terrestrial animals and their body is covered by dry and cornified skin with
epidermal scales which checks loss of water.
2. Most reptiles lay cleidoic eggs with extra embryonic membranes like omnion, chorion, allantois,
and yolk sac, Shell around the egg checks dessication.
3. Embryonic membranes enclose the embryo and provide watery environment. Internal fertilization
method helps them to survive on land.
39.List the unique features of bird’s endoskeleton.
1. The endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony).
2. The long bones are hollow with air cavities (pneumatic bones).
40.Could the number of eggs or young ones produced by an oviparous and viviparous female be
equal? Why?
1. Animals which lay eggs are calledoviparous animals.
2. Animals which give birth to young ones are called viviparous animals.
3. In the case of oviparous animals, they produce more number of eggs since the eggs are exposed to
environmental conditions and predators. They have to pass through several developmental stages
before becoming on adult. They face less chances of survival. Hence they produce more number
of eggs to ensure continuation of race. Further the eggs are released from the parent and develop
with the help of yolk stored in the egg. Parental care is not seen.
4. In viviparous animals one or few eggs are produced by the female since the mother has to
undergo gestation period and nurture the young ones in her womb until they are born.
Reproduction cycle requires more time. But the embryo is protected from environmental
conditions and predators. Chances of survival are very high..
5. Therefore the number of eggs / young ones in a viviparous animal will be less as compared to an
oviparous animal.

CHAPTER- 3- TISSUE LEVEL OF ORGANISATION

Evaluation
1. The main function of the cuboidal epithelium is
a. Protection b. Secretion c. Absorption d. Both (b) and (c)
2. The ciliated epithelium lines the
a. Skin b. Digestive tract c. Gall bladder d. Trachea
3. What type of fibres are found in connective tissue matrix?
a. Collagen b. Areolar c. Cartilage d. Tubular
4. Prevention of substances from leaking across the tissue is provided by
a. Tight junction b. Adhering junction
c. Gap junction d. Elastic junction
5. Non-shivering thermogenesis in neonates produces heat through
a. White fat b. Brown fat c. Yellow fat d. Colourless fat

6. Some epithelia are pseudostratified. What does this mean?

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*Pseudo-stratified epithelial cells are columnar, but unequal in size.

*Although the epithelium is single layered yet it appears to be multi-layered
because the nuclei lie at different levels in different cells.
*Hence, it is also called pseudostratified epithelium and its function is
secretion and absorbtion.
7. Differentiate white adipose tissue from brown adipose tissue.
-Adipose tissues are also found in subcutaneous tissue, surrounding the kidneys, eyeball, heart, etc.
Adipose tissue is called ‘white fat’ or white adipose tissue.
-The adipose tissue which contains abundant mitochondria is called ‘Brown fat’ or Brown adipose
tissue.
-White fat stores nutrients whereas brown fat is used to heat the blood stream to warm the body. -Brown
fat produces heat by non-shivering thermogenesis in neonates.
8. Why blood is considered as a typical connective tissue?
-Blood is the fluid connective tissue containing plasma, red blood cells (RBC), white blood cells (WBC)
and platelets.
-It functions as the transport medium for the cardiovascular system, carrying nutrients, wastes, respiratory
gases throughout the body.
9. Differentiate between elastic fibres and elastic connective tissue.
*Elastic fibre is found in the skin as the leathery dermis and forms fibrous capsules of organs such as
kidneys, bones, cartilages, muscles, nerves and joints.
*Elastic connective tissue contains high proportion of elastic fibres. It allows recoil of tissues following
stretching. It maintains the pulsatile flow of blood through the arteries and the passive recoil of lungs
following Inspiration.
-It is found in the walls of large arteries; ligaments associated with vertebral column and within the
walls of the bronchial tubes.
10. Name any four important functions of epithelial tissue and provide at least one example of a
tissue that exemplifies each function.
-The functions of epithelium includes protection, absorption, filtration, excretion, secretion and
sensory reception.
1.Absorption -Simple epithelium
2.Secretion- Columnar epithelium,pseudo-stratifiedepithelium
3.Protection- Pseudo-stratified epithelium
11. Write the classification of connective tissue and their functions
-Connective tissue develops from the mesoderm and is widely distributed in the body.
-There are four main classes of connective tissues. They are connective tissue (which includes fat and the
fibrous tissue of ligaments), cartilage, bones and blood.
-Major functions of connective tissues are binding and support, protection, insulation and
transportation of substances.(Refer page no:54-56)

12. What is an epithelium? Enumerate the characteristic features of different epithelia.

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Epithelial tissue is a sheet of cells that covers the body surface or lines the body cavity. It occurs in the
body as a covering, as a lining epithelium and as glandular, epithelium.
-The functions of epithelium includes protection, absorption, filtration, excretion, secretion and
sensory reception.
-The squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
They are found in the kidney glomeruli, air sacs of lungs, lining of heart, blood vessels and lymphatic
vessels and are involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary and filtration.
-The cuboidal epithelium is made of a single layer of cube like cells. This tissue is commonly found in
the kidney tubules, ducts and secretory portions of small glands and surface of the ovary. Its main
functions are secretion and absorption.
-The columnar epithelium is composed of single layer of tall cells with round to oval nuclei at the base.
It lines the digestive tract from the stomach to the rectum.
-ciliated type propels mucus by ciliary actions and it lines the small bronchioles, fallopian tubes and
uterus.
-Pseudo-stratified epithelial cells are columnar, but unequal in size. Although the epithelium is single
layered yet it appears to be multi-layered because the nuclei lie at different levels in different cells.

CHAPTER- 4 -ORGAN AND ORGAN SYSTEMS IN ANIMALS

EVALUATION
1. The clitellum is a distinct part in the body of earthworm Lampito mauritii, it is found in?
a. Segments 13 – 14 b. Segments 14 – 17 c. Segments 12 – 13 d. Segments 14 - 16
2. Sexually, earthworms are
a. Sexes are separate b.Hermaphroditic but not self fertilizing
c. Hermaphroditic and self – fertilizing d. Parthenogenic
3. To sustain themselves, earthworms must guide their way through the soil using their powerful muscles.
They gather nutrients by ingesting organic matter and soil, absorbing what they need into their
bodies.True or False: The two ends of the earthworm can equally ingest soil.
b. False
4. The head region of Cockroach -----pairs of ------and ----shaped eyes occur.
a. One pair, sessile compound and kidney shaped
b. Two pairs, stalked compound and round shaped
c. Many pairs, sessile simple and kidney shaped
d. Many pairs, stalked compound and kidney shaped
5. The location and numbers of malpighian tubules in Periplaneta.
a. At the junction of midgut and hindgut, about 150.
b. At the junction of foregut and midgut, about 150.
c. Surrounding gizzard, eight.
d. At the junction of colon and rectum, eight.
6. The type of vision in Cockroach is
a. Three dimensional b. Two dimensional c. Mosaic d. Cockroach do not have vision
7. How many abdominal segments are present in male and female Cockroaches?
a. 10, 10 b. 9, 10 c. 8, 10 d. 9, 9
8. Which of the following have an open circulatory system?
a. Frog b. Earthworm c. Pigeon d. Cockroach
9. Buccopharyngeal respiration in frog
a. is increased when nostrils are closed b. Stops when there is pulmonary respiration
c. is increased when it is catching fly d. stops when mouth is opened.
10. Kidney of frog is
a. Archinephros b. Pronephros c. Mesonephros d. Metanephros
11. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that

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a. fishes were amphibious in the past
b. fishes involved from frog -like ancestors
c. frogs will have gills in future
d. frogs evolved from gilled ancestor
12. Choose the wrong statement among the following:
a. In earthworm, a single male genital pore is present.
b. Setae help in locomotion of earthworms.
c. Muscular layer in the body wall of earthworm is made up of only circular muscles.
d. Typhlosole is part of the intestine of earthworm.
13. Which of the following are the sense organs of Cockroach?
a. Antennae, compound eyes, maxillary palps, anal cerci
b. Antennae, compound eye, maxillary palps
c. Antennae, ommatidia, maxillary palps, sternum
d. Antennae, eyes, maxillary palps, and tarsus of walking legs
14. What characteristics are used to identify the earthworms?
-Light brown in colour, with purplish tinge at the anterior end, number of compartments called segments
or metameres,14 to 17 segments thickening clitellum.
15. What are earthworm casts?
-The undigested particles along with earth are passed out through the anus of earthworm, as worm
castings or vermicasts.
16. How do earthworms breathe?
-Respiration takes place in earthworm through the body wall.
-The outer surface of the skin is richly supplied with blood capillaries which aid in the diffusion of gases.
17. Why do you call cockroach a pest?
-Cockroach carry with them harmful germs of various bacterial diseases like cholera, diarrhoea,
tuberculosis, and typhoid and hence are known as “Vectors”..
18. Comment on the functions of alary muscles?
-The triangular muscles that are responsible for blood circulation in the cockroach are called alary
muscles (13 pairs).
19. Name the visual units of the compound eyes of cockroach.
-Cockroach consists of a pair of compound eyes at the dorsal surface of the head.
- Each eye is formed of about 2000 simple eyes called the ommatidia (singular: ommatidium).
20. How does the male frog attracts the female for mating?
-The male frog has a pair of vocal sacs and a copulatory or nuptial pad on the ventral side of the first
digit of each forelimb .
- Vocal sacs assist in amplifying the croaking sound of frog.
21. Write the types of respiration seen in frog.
-Frog respires on land and in the water by two different methods.
-In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ (cutaneous respiration).
-In land Respiration by lungs is called pulmonary respiration & In buccal respiration .
22. Differentiate between peristomium and prostomium in earthworm.
-The mouth is found in the centre of the first segment of the body, called the peristomium.
-Overhanging the mouth is a small flap called the upper lip or prostomium.
23. Give the location of clitellum and spermathecal openings in Lampito mauritii.
-14 to 17 segment with a glandular thickening of the skin called the clitellum.
-Spermathecal openings are three pairs of small ventrolateral apertures lying intersegmentally between the
grooves of the segments 6/7, 7/8 and 8/9.
24. Differentiate between tergum and a sternum.
-The abdomen in both male and female consists of 10 segments. Each segment is covered by the dorsal
tergum.
-The ventral sternum and between them a narrow membranous pleuron on each side.

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25. Head of cockroach is called hypognathous. Why?
-The head of cockroach is small, triangular lies at right angle to the longitudinal body axis. the mouth
parts are directed downwards so it is hypognathous.
26. How respiration takes place in cockroach?
-The respiratory system of cockroach is well developed.
- Branched tubes known as trachea open through 10 pairs of small holes called spiracles or stigmata,
present on the lateral side of the body.
27. What are the components of blood in frog?
-The blood consists of plasma [60%] and blood cells [40 %], red blood cells, white blood cells, and
platelets.
28. Draw a neat labeled diagram of the digestives system of frog.

29. Explain the reproductive system of frog

-The male frog has a pair of testes which are attached to the kidney and the dorsal body wall by folds of
peritonium called mesorchium.
-Vasa efferentia arise from each testis. They enter the kidneys on both side and open into the bladder
canal. Finally, it communicates with the urinogenital duct that comes out of kidneys and opens into the
cloaca.

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-Female reproductive system consists of paired ovaries, attached to the kidneys, and dorsal body wall by
folds of peritoneum called mesovarium.
-There is a pair of coiled oviducts lying on the sides of the kidney. Each oviduct opens into the
bodycavity at the anterior end by a funnel like opening called ostia.
-Unlike the male frog, the female frog has separate genital ducts distinct from ureters. Posteriorly the
oviducts dilated to form ovisacs before they open into cloaca.
-Ovisacs store the eggs temporarily before they are sent out through the cloaca. Fertilization is external.

CHAPTER ; 5 DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION

Evaluation
1.Choose the incorrect sentence from the following:
a. Bile juice emulsifies the fat.
b. Chyme is a digestive acidic food in stomach.
c. Pancreatic juice converts lipid into fatty acid and glycerol.
d. Enterokinase stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice.
2. What is chyme….?-
a. The process of conversion of fat into small droplets.
b. The process of conversion of micelles substances of glycerol into fatty droplet.
c. The process of preparation of incompletely digested acidic food through gastric juice.
d. The process of preparation of completely digested liquid food in midgut.
3. Which of the following hormones stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
a. Angiotensin and epinephrine b. Gastrin and insulin
c. Cholecysokinin and secretin d. Insulin and glucagon
4. The sphincter of Oddi guards
a. Hepatopancreatic duct b. Common bile duct
c. Pancreatic duct d. Cystic duct
5. In small intestine, active absorption occurs in case of
a. Glucose b. Amino acids
c. Na+ d. All the above
6. Which one is incorrectly matched?

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a. Pepsin – stomach
b. Renin – liver
c. Trypsin – intestine
d. Ptyalin – mouth
7. Absorption of glycerol, fatty acids and monoglycerides takes place by
a. Lymph vessels within villi b. Walls of stomach
c. Colon d. Capillaries within villi
8. First step in digestion of fat is
a. Emulsification b. Enzyme action
c. Absorption by lacteals d. Storage in adipose tissue
9. Enterokinase takes part in the conversion of
a. Pepsinogen into pepsin b. Trypsinogen into trypsin
c. Protein into polypetide d. Caseinogen into casein
10. Which of the following combinations are not matched?
Column I Column II
a. Bilirubin and (i) intestinalbiliverdin juice
b. Hydrolysis of starch (ii) Amylases
c. Digestion of fat (iii) Lipases
d. Salivary gland (iv) Parotid
11. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option
Column – I Column – II
(P) Small intestine (i) Largest factory
(Q) Pancreas (ii) Absorpstion of
glucose
(R) Liver (iii) Carrying
electrolytic solution
(S) Colon (iv) Digestion and
absorption
a. ( P-iv ) ( Q -iii ) ( R- i ) ( S – ii )
b. ( P-iii ) ( Q -ii ) ( R- i ) ( S – iv )
c. ( P-iv ) ( Q -iii ) ( R- i ) ( S – ii )
d. ( P-ii ) ( Q -iv ) ( R- iii ) ( S – i )
12. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option
Column – I Column – II
(P) Small intestine (i) 23 cm
(Q) Large intestine (ii) 4 meter
(R) Oesophagus (iii) 12.5 cm
(S) Pharynx (iv) 1.5 meter
b.(P-ii) (Q-iv) (R-i)
(S-iii)
13. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option
Column – I Column – II
(P) Lipase (i) Starch
(Q) Pepsin (ii) Cassein
(R) Renin (iii) Protein
(S) Ptyalin (iv) Lipid
c.(P-iv) (Q-iii) (R-ii)
(S-i)

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14. Which of the following is not the function of liver?
a. Production of insulin b. Detoxifi cation
c. Storage of glycogen d. Production of bile
15. Assertion : (A) Large intestine also shows the presence of villi like small intestine.
Reason: (B) Absorption of water takes place in large intestine.
a. Both A and B are true and B is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and B are true but B is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but B is false
d. A is false but B is true
16. Which of the following is not true regarding intestinal villi?
a. Th ey possess microvilli.
b. Th ey increase the surface area.
c. Th ey are supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels.
d. They only participate in digestion of fats.

17. Why are villi present in the intestine and not in the stomach?

The mucosal wall of the small intestine forms millions of tiny finger-like projections known as villi.
These villi increase the surface area for more efficient food absorption.
Within these villi, there are numerous blood vessels that absorb the digested products of proteins and
carbohydrates, carrying them to the blood stream. The villi also contain lymph vessels for absorbing the
products of fat-digestion. From the blood stream, the absorbed food is finally delivered to each and every
cell of the body.
The mucosal walls of the stomach form irregular folds known as rugae. These help in increasing the
surface area to volume ratio of the expanding the stomach.
-There is no villi in stomach because absorption and assimilation takes place only in Intestine.
18. Bile juice contains no digestive enzymes, yet it is important for digestion. Why?
-Although it does not contain any digestive enzymes, it plays an important role in the digestion of fats.
Bile juice has bile pigments such as bilirubin and biliverdin. These break down large fat globules into
smaller globules so that the pancreaticenzymes can easily act on them
- The liver secrete bile. Bile helps the small intestine by breaking downs fats and making them easier to
absorb
19. List the chemical changes that starch molecule undergoes from the time it reaches the small
intestine.
First a little amount of starch is converted into MALTOSE in mouth due to the presence of salivary
amylase.

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Later it goes to the small intestine through oesophagus and stomach but without any digestion still of
starch.
In small intestine starch is converted into MALTOSE in the presence of PANCREATIC AMYLASE
which convert the rest protein into MALTOSE.
MALTOSE then later converted into glucose in the presence of maltase another enzyme secreted by small
intestine.
1.Maltose…..Maltase….> Glucose+Glucose
2.Sucrose….Sucrase….>Glucose+Fractose
3.Lactose….Lactase….>Glucose+Galactose
20. How do proteins differ from fats in their energy value and their role in the body?
- Fat has a caloric value of 9.45 Kcal and a physiological fuel value of 9 Kcal per gram.
- The caloric value and physiological fuel value of one gram of protein are 5.65 Kcal and 4 Kcal
respectively.
21. Digestive secretions are secreted only when needed. Discuss.
-The smell, sight and taste as well as the mechanical stimulation of food in the mouth, triggers a reflex
action which results in the secretion of saliva.
-The mechanical digestion starts in the mouth by grinding and chewing of food. It is called mastication.
-The saliva contain water, electrolytes (Na+, K+, Cl–, HCO3), salivary amylase (ptyalin)
-polysaccharides……ptyaline…> disaccharides.
Stomach;
-pepsinogen…..Hcl….> pepsin,
-protein….pepsin….> protease+peptones,
-casinogen….Renin….> casin
Intestine;
Pancreas
Trypsinogen….enterokinase….> Trypsin,
Chymotrypsinogen….trypsin….> chymotrypsin.
Starch….amylase….> maltose.
Glycerides….Lipase….>fatty acids+glycerols
Bile;
-Fat…..>chillomicron
22. Label the given diagram.

A.Right hepatic duct of liver

B.Common bile duct
C.Pancreatic duct (duct of wirsung)
D.Sphincter of oddi
E.Cystic duct.

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CHAPTER-6-RESPIRATION
Evaluation
1. Breathing is controlled by
a. cerebrum b. medulla oblongata c. cerebellum d. pons
2. Intercostal muscles are found between the
a. vertebral column b. sternum c. ribs d. glottis
3. The respiratory structures of insectsare
a. tracheal tubes b. gills c. green glands d. lungs
4. Asthma is caused due to
a. bleeding in pleural cavity. b. infection of nose
c. damage of diaphragm. d. infection of lungs
5. The Oxygen Dissociation Curve is
a. sigmoid b. straight line
c. curved d. rectangular hyperbola
6. The Tidal Volume of a normal person is
a. 800 mL b. 1200 mL c. 500 mL d. 1100 – 1200 Ml
7. During inspiration, the diaphragm
a. expands. b. unchanged
c. relaxes to become domed–shaped. d. contracts and flattens
8. CO2 is transported through blood to lungs as
a. carbonic acid b. oxyhaemoglobin
c. carbamino haemoglobin d. carboxy haemoglobin
9. When 1500 mL air is in the lungs, it is called
a. vital capacity b. tidal volume
c. residual volume d. inspiratory reserve volume
10. Vital capacity is
a. TV + IRV b. TV + ERV c. RV + ERV d. TV + IRV + ERV
11. After a long deep breath, we do not respire for some seconds due to
a. more CO2 in the blood b. more O2 in the blood
c. less CO2 in the blood d. less O2 in the blood
12. Which of the following substances in tobacco smoke damage the gas exchange system?
a. carbon monoxide and carcinogens b. carbon monoxide and nicotine
c. carcinogens and tar d. nicotine and tar
13. Column I represents diseases andcolumn II represents their symptoms.Choose the correctly paired
option
Column I Column II
(P) Asthma (i) Recurring ofbronchitis
(Q) Emphysema (ii) Accumulation of W.B.CS in alveolus
(R) Pneumonia (iii) Allergy
a. P = iii, Q = ii, R = I b. P = iii, Q = i, R = ii
c. P = ii, Q = iii, R = I d. P = ii, Q = i, R = iii
14. Which of the following best describes the process of gas exchange in the lungs?
a. Air moves in and out of the alveoliduring breathing.
b. Carbon dioxide diffuses fromdeoxygenated blood in capillariesinto the alveolar air.
c. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse down their concentration gradients between blood and
alveolar air.
d. Oxygen diffuses from alveolar airinto deoxygenated blood.
15. Make the correct pairs.
Column–I Column–II
(P) IC i. maximum volume of air breathes in after forced.

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(Q) EC ii. Volume of air present after expiration in lungs.
(R) VC iii. Volume of air inhaled after expiration.
(S) FRC iv. Volume of air exhaled after inspiration.
(a) P – i , Q – ii , R – iii , S – iv (b) P – ii , Q – iii , R – iv , S – i
(c) P – ii , Q – iii , R – i , S – iv (d) P – iii , Q – iv , R – i , S – ii
16. Make the correct pairs.
Columan–I Column–II
(P) Tidal volume i. 1000 to 1100 ml
(Q) Residualvolume ii. 500 ml
(R) Expiratoryreservevolume iii. 2500 to 3000 ml
(S) Inspiratory reserve volume iv. 1100 to 1200 ml
(a) P – ii , Q – iv , R – i , S – iii (b) P – iii , Q – ii , R – iv , S – i
(c) P – ii , Q – iv , R – iii , S – I (d) P – iii , Q – iv , R – i , S – ii
17.Name the respiratory organs of flatworm, earthworm, fish, prawn, cockroach and cat.
1.flatworm -Body surface by simple diffusion
2.earthworm -Moist Skin
3.fish -Gills
4.prawn -Gill chamber
5.cockroach -Tracheal tubes
6. cat -Lungs
18.Name the enzyme that catalyses the bicarbonate formation in RBCs.
Carbonic anhydrase
19.Air moving from the nose to the trachea passes through a number of structures. List in order of
the structures.
external nostrils→ nasal cavity→ the pharynx→ the larynx→ the trachea→the bronchi → bronchioles →
the lungs
20.Which structure seals the larynx when we swallow?
During swallowing a thin elastic flap called epiglottis prevents the food from entering into the larynx and
avoids choking of food.
21.Resistance in the airways is typically low. Why? Give two reasons.
1.The diameters of most airways are relatively large
2.Air has a low viscosity.
-Airway resistance is increased at low lung volumes due toreduced airway diameter and at high gas-
flow rates due to turbulent flow (e.g., during forced expiration).
- Diseases in which airway narrowing occurs, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and asthma,
increase airway resistance.
22.How the body makes long–term adjustments when living in high altitude.
-When a person travels quickly from sea level to elevations above 8000ft, where the atmospheric pressure
and partial pressure of oxygen are lowered, the individual responds with symptoms of acute mountain
sickness (AMS)–headache, shortness of breath, nausea and dizziness due to poor binding of O2 with
haemoglobin.
-When the person moves on a long–term basis to mountains from sea level is body begins to make
respiratory and haematopoietic adjustments.
-To overcome this situation kidneys accelerate production of the hormone erythropoietin, which
stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs.
23.Diffusion of gases occurs in the alveolar region only and not in any other part of the respiratory
system. Discuss.
-The primary site for the exchange of gases is the alveoli.
-The uptake of O2 and the release of CO2 occur between the blood and tissues by simple diffusion driven
by partial pressure gradient of O2 and CO2.
-Partial pressure is the pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases.

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-It is represented as pO2 for oxygen and pCO2 for carbon– dioxide.
-Due to pressure gradients, O2 from the alveoli enters into the blood and reaches the tissues.
-CO2 enters into the blood from the tissues and reaches alveoli for elimination.
-As the solubility of CO2 is 20–25 times higher than that of O2, the partial pressure of CO2 is much
higher than that of O2

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24.Sketch a flow chart to show the path way of air flow during respiration.

(or)Refer page no-130

25.Why is pneumonia considered a dangerous disease?
-Inflammation of the lungs due to infection caused by bacteria or virus is called pneumonia.
-The common symptoms are sputum production, nasal congestion, shortness of breath, sore throat, etc.
-Bacterial pneumonia is usually more serious as it causes more severe symptoms.
-However, viral pneumonia caused by the flu virus can be life-threatening as well if it triggers a
particularly severe inflammation of the lungs or is complicated by a secondary bacterial infection.
26.Explain the conditions which creates problems in oxygen transport.
When a person travels quickly from sea level to elevations above 8000ft, where the atmospheric pressure
and partial pressure of oxygen are lowered, the individual responds with symptoms of acute mountain
sickness (AMS)–headache, shortness of breath, nausea and dizziness due to poor binding of O2 with
haemoglobin.
When the person moves on a long–term basis to mountains from sea level is body begins to make
respiratory and haematopoietic adjustments.
To overcome this situation kidneys accelerate production of the hormone erythropoietin, which stimulates
the bone marrow to produce more RBCs.
When a person descends deep into the sea, the pressure in the surrounding water increases which causes
the lungs to decrease in volume.
This decrease in volume increases the partial pressure of the gases within the lungs.

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This effect can be beneficial, because it tends to drive additional oxygen into the circulation, but this
benefit also has a risk, the increased pressure can also drive nitrogen gas into the circulation.
This increase in blood nitrogen content can lead to a condition called nitrogen narcosis.
When the diver ascends to the surface too quickly a condition called ‘bends’ or decompression sickness
occurs and nitrogen comes out of solution while still in the blood forming bubbles.
Small bubbles in the blood are not harmful, but large bubbles can lodge in small capillaries, blocking
blood flow or can press on nerve endings.
Decompression sickness is associated with pain in joints and muscles and neurological problems
including stroke.
The risk of nitrogen narcosis and bends is common in scuba divers.
During carbon–dioxide poisoning, the demand for oxygen increases. As the O2 level in the blood
decreases it leads to suffocation and the skin turns bluish black.

CHAPTER-7 BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION

Evaluation
1.What is the function of lymph?
(a) Transport of O2 into brain (b) Transport of CO2 into lungs
(c) Bring interstitial fluid in blood (d) Bring RBC and WBC in lymph node
2.Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?
(a) Globulin (b) Fibrinogen (c) Albumin (d) Serum amylase
3.Which of the following WBCs are found in more numbers?
(a) Eosinophil (b) Neutrophil (c) Basophil (d) Monocyte
4.Which of the following is not involved in blood clotting?
(a) Fibrin (b) Calcium (c) Platelets (d) Bilirubin
5.Lymph is colourless because
(a) WBC are absent (b) WBC are present
(c) Haemoglobin is absent (d) RBC are absent
6.Blood group is due to the presence or absence of surface
(a) Antigens on the surface of WBC (b) Antibodies on the surface of RBC
(c) Antigens of the surface of RBC (d) Antibodies on the surface of WBC
7.A person having both antigen A and antigen B on the surface of RBCs belongs to blood group
(a) A (b) B (c) AB (d) O
8.Erythroblastosisfoetalis is due to the destruction of
(a) Foetal RBCs (b) Foetus suffers from atherosclerosis
(c) Foetal WBCs (d) Foetus suffers from minamita
9.Dub sound of heart is caused by
(a) Closure of atrio-ventricular valves (b) Opening of semi-lunar valves
(c) Closure of semi-lunar values (d) Opening of atrio-ventricular valves.
10Why is the velocity of blood flow the lowest in the capillaries?

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(a) The systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output than the
right ventricle.
(b) Capillaries are far from the heart, and blood flow slows as distance from the heart increases.
(c) The total surface area of the capillaries is larger than the total surface area of the arterioles.
(d) The capillary walls are not thin enough to allow oxygen to exchange with the cells.
(e) The diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate.
11.An unconscious patient is rushed into the emergency room and needs a fast blood transfusion. Because
there is no time to check her medical history or determine her blood type, which type of blood should you
as her doctor, give her?
(a) A– (b) AB (c) O+ (d) O–
12.Which of these functions could or could not be carried out by a red blood cell? Briefly justify your
answer.
(a) Protein synthesis (b) Cell division (c) Lipid synthesis (d) Active transport
Ans. : Reason : None of these functions can be carried out by RBC. Red Blood Cells (RBC) contain
haemoglobin pigment and play a major role in transport of respiratory gases.
13.At the venous end of the capillary bed, the osmotic pressure is
(a) Greater than the hydrostatic pressure (b) Result in net outflow of fluids
(c) Results in net absorption of fluids (d) No change occurs.
14.A patient’s chart reveals that he has a cardiac output of 7500mL per minute and a stroke volume of 50
mL. What is his pulse rate (in beats / min)?
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 150 (d) 400
15.At any given time there is more blood in the venous system than that of the arterial system. Which of
the following features of the veins allows this?
(a) Relative lack of smooth muscles (b) Presence of valves
(c) Proximity of the veins to lymphatic’s (d) Thin endothelial lining

16.Distinguish between arteries and veins.

Sl. Arteries Veins
No.

1. The wall of arteries is thick and non The wall of the vein is thin and have a larger lumen.
collapsible. They can be easily stretched.

2. Arteries carry blood away from the Veins bring blood from different parts of the body to
heart. the heart.

3. All arteries carry pure blood except the All veins carry de oxygenated blood except the
pulmonary artery. pulmonary veins.

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Sl. Arteries Veins
No.

4. Arteries have no valves. Veins have valves to prevent back flow of blood.

5. The blood flows in arteries with great The flow of blood in the veins is under low pressure.
pressure.

17.Distinguish between open and closed circulation.

Sl. Open Circulatory System Closed Circulatory System
No.

1. Blood is pumped by the heart into the blood The blood is pumped by the heart into closed
vessels that open into blood spaces (Sinuses) blood vessels.
called haemocoel.

2. Blood is in direct contact with tissue cells. Blood is not in direct contact with tissue cells.

3. Exchange of respiratory gases, nutrients and Tissue fluids helps in exchange of respiratory
waste products occurs directly between the gases, nutrients and waste products between
blood and tissues. blood and tissues.

4. Resipratory pigments are absent. Resipratory pigment (Haemoglobin) is present

in the RBC of the blood.

18.Distinguish between mitral valve and semi lunar valve.

Sl. Mitral Valve Semilunar Valve
No.

1. It guards the opening between The opening of the right and left ventricles into pulmonary
left auricle and left ventricle. artery and aorta respectively are guarded by semilunar valves.

2. It has two flaps or cusps. Each valve is made up of three half-moon shaped cusps.

19.Right ventricular wall is thinner than the left ventricular wall. Why?
1. The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary artery which carries blood to
the lungs only whereas the left ventricle pumps blood into the aorta which distributes oxygenated
blood to all parts of the body.
2. Hence the wall of the left ventricle is thicker and right ventricle has a thinner wall.
20.What might be the effect on a person whose diet has less iron content?
1. Iron is necessary for the formation of haemoglobin pigment.

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 2. A person whose diet is deficient in iron will not have sufficient haemoglobin production in his
body. Haemoglobin plays a major role in transport of oxygen in the blood.
3. Since haemoglobin is a component of RBC, production of RBC will decrease leading to anaemia.
4. An anaemic person feels tired and giddy since oxygen supply in the body will be less because of
the reduced number of RBC’s in the blood.
21.Describe the mechanism by which the human heart beat is initiated and controlled.
The heart in human is myogenic (cardiomyocytes can produce spontaneous rhythmic depolarisation that
initiates contractions). The sequence of electrical conduction of heart is shown below.

1. The cardiac cells with fastest rhythm are called the Pacemaker cells, which are located in the right
sinuatrial (SA) node/ Pacemaker.
2. On the left side of the right atrium is a node called auriculo ventricular node (AV node).
3. Two special cardiac muscle fibres originate from the auriculo ventricular node and are called
the bundle of Hiswhich runs down into the interventricular septum and the fibres spread into the
ventricles. These fibres are called the Purkinjiefibres.
4. Pacemaker cells produce excitation through depolarisation of their cell membrane. Early
depolarisation is slow and takes place by sodium influx and reduction in potassium efflux.
5. Minimum potential is required to activate voltage gated calcium (Ca+) channels that causes rapid
depolarisation which results in action potential. The pace maker cells repolarise slowly via
K+ efflux.
22.What is lymph? Write its function.
About 90% of fluid that leaks from capillaries eventually seeps back into the capillaries and the remaining
10% is collected and returned to blood system by means of a series of tubules known aslymph
vessels or lymphatics. The fluid inside the lymphatics is called lymph.
Functions of lymph :
1. The narrow passages in the lymph nodes are the sinusoids that are lined with macrophages. The
lymph nodes successfully prevent the invading microorganisms from reaching the blood stream.
2. Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in the villi of the intestinal wall.
23.What are the heart sounds? When and how are these sounds produced?
1. Rhythmic contraction and expansion of heart is called heart beat.
2. The contraction of the heart is calledsystole and the relaxation of the heart is called diastole.
3. The heart normally beats 70-72 timesper min in a human adult.

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4. During each cardiac cycle two sounds are produced that can be heard through a stethoscope.
5. The first heart sound (lub) is associated with the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
whereas second heart sound (dub) is associated with the closure of the semilunar valves. These
sounds are of clinical diagnostic significance.
24.Select the correct biological term.
Lymphocytes, red cells, leucocytes, plasma, erythrocytes, white cells, haemoglobin, phagocyte,
platelets, blood clot.
(a) Disc shaped cells which are concave on both sides.
(b) Most of these have a large, bilobed nucleus.
(c) Enable red cells to transport blood.
(d) The liquid part of the blood.
(e) Most of them move and change shape like an amoeba.
(f) Consists of water and important dissolved substances.
(g) Destroyed in the liver and spleen after circulating in the blood for four months.
(h) The substances which gives red cells their colour.
(i) Another name for red blood cells.
(j) Blood that has been changed to a jelly.
(k) A word that means cell eater.
(l) Cells without nucleus.
(m) White cells made in the lymphatic tissue.
(n) Blocks wound and prevent excessive bleeding.
(o) Fragment of cells which are made in the bone marrow.
(p) Another name for white blood cells.
(q) Slowly releases oxygen to blood cells.
(r) Their function is to help blood clot in wounds.
Answer:
(a) Erythrocyctes
(b) Leucocytes (Not specific option)
(c) Question framed wrongly
(d) Plasma
(e) Phagocyte
(f) Plasma
(g) Erythrocyte
(h) Haemoglobin
(i) Erythrocyte
(j) Blood clot
(k) Phagocyte
(l) Erythrocytes / Platelets

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(m) Lymphocytes
(n) Blood clot
(o) Red Cells
(p) Leucocytes
(q) Haemoglobin
(r) Platelets
25.Select the correct biological term.
Cardiac muscle, atria, tricuspid systole, auricles, arteries, diastole, ventricles, bicuspid valve,
pulmonary artery, cardiac cycle, semi lunar valve, veins, pulmonary vein, capillaries, vena cava,
aorta.
(a) The main artery of the blood.
(b) Valves between the left atrium and ventricle.
(c) Technical name for relaxation of the heart.
(d) Another name for atria.
(e) The main vein.
(f) Vessels which carry blood away from the heart.
(g) Two names for the upper chambers of the heart.
(h) Thick walled chambers of the heart.
(i) Carries blood from the heart to the lungs.
(j) Takes about 0.8 sec to complete.
(k) Valves situated at the point where blood flows out of the heart.
(l) Vessels which carry blood towards the heart.
(m) Carries blood from the lungs to the heart.
(n) The two lower chambers of the heart.
(o) Prevent blood from re entering the ventricles after entering the aorta.
(p) Technical name for one heart beat.
(q) Valves between right atrium and ventricles.
(r) Technical name for contraction of the heart.
(s) Very narrow blood vessels.
Answer:
(a) Aorta
(b) Bicuspid
(c) Diastole
(d) Auricle
(e) Vena cava
(f) Arteries
(g) Atria /Auricles

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(h) Ventricles
(i) Pulmonary Artery
(j) Cardiac cycle
(k) Semilunar Valves
(l) Veins
(m) Pulmonary Vein
(n) Ventricles
(o) Semilunar Valve
(p) Cardiac cycle
(q) Tricuspid Valve
(r) Systole
(s) Capillaries
26.Name and Label the given diagrams to show A, B, C, D, E, F, and G

Answer:
L.S. Human Heart
A. Aortic arch
B. Pulmonary Artery
C. Pulmonary Vein
D. Semilunar Valve
E. Left Ventricle
F. Right Ventricle
G. Inferior Vena Cava

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CHAPTER-8 EXCRETION
Evaluation
1.Arrange the following structures in the order that a drop of water entering the nephron would encounter
them.
(a) Afferent arteriole
(b) Bowman’s capsule
(c) Collecting duct
(d) Distal tubule
(e) Glomerulus
(f) Loop of Henle
(g) Proximal tubule
(h) Renal pelvis
Answer:
(a) Afferent arteriole
(e) Glomerulus
(b) Bowman’s capsule
(g) Proximal tubule
(f) Loop of Henle
(d) Distal tubule
(c) Collecting duct
(h) Renal pelvis
2.Name the three filtration barriers that solutes must come across as they move from plasma to the
lumen of Bowman’s capsule. What components of the blood are usually excluded by these layers?
a. Glomerular capillary endothelium – Prevents blood cells and negatively charged plasma proteins.
b. Basal lamina – ECM of glycoproteins, plasma proteins.
c. Epithelium of bowman’s capsule,
3.What forces promote glomerular filtration? What forces opposes them? What is meant by net
filtration pressure?
1. Glomerular pressure is the chief force that promotes glomerular filtration.
2. The two opposing forces are the plasma proteins in the capillaries contributed by the colloidal
osmotic pressure and the capsular hydrostatic pressure due to the fluids in the glomerular capsule.
Net filtration pressure
= Glomerular hydrostatic pressure – (Colloidal osmotic pressure + capsular hydrostatic pressure)
= 55 m Hg – (30mm Hg + 15mm Hg)
= 10 mm Hg
The net filtration pressure of 10mm Hg is responsible for renal filtration.
4.Identify the following structures and explain their significance in renal physiology?
a. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
b. Podocytes
c. Sphincters in the bladder

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d. Renal cortex
a. Juxtaglomerular apparatus :

1. Juxta glomerular apparatus (JGA) is a specialized tissue in the afferent arteriole of the
nephron that consists of macula densa and granular cells.
2. The macula densa cells sense distal tubular flow and affect afferent arteriole diameter,
whereas the granular cells secrete an enzyme called renin.
3. A fall in glomerular blood flow, glomerular blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate,
can activate JG cells to release renin which converts a plasma protein, angiotensinogen
(synthesized in the liver) to angiotensin I.
4. This starts off a series of events known as Renin – Angiotensin – Aldosterone system
which finally increases the glomerular blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate.
b. Podocytes:

1. In a nephron, the external parietal layer of the glomerulus is made up of simple squamous
epithelium and the visceral layer is made of epithelial cells calledpodocytes.
2. The podocytes end in foot processes which cling to the basement membrane of the
glomerulus. The openings between the foot processes are called filtration slits. This acts
as a filter to retain blood cells and large protein in plasma while permitting the passage of
fluids.
c. Sphincters in the bladder:

1. The external and internal sphincters are muscles guarding the opening of the urinary
bladder at the urethra.
2. When the urinary bladder gets filled with urine, the urinary bladder stimulates the central
nervous system via sensory neurons and brings about contraction of the bladder.
Simultaneously somatic motor neurons induce the sphincters to close.
3. Smooth muscles contract resulting in the opening of the internal sphincter passively and
relaxing the external sphincter. When the stimulatory and inhibitory controls exceed the
threshold, the sphincter opens and urine is expelled out. Thus the sphincter muscles keep
the urethral closed except during expulsion of urine.
4. Thus the sphincter muscles keep the urethra closed except during expulsion of urine.
d. Renal cortex:

1. The outer layer of the kidney is called Renal cortex.

2. In the renal tubules, proximal convoluted tubule and distal convoluted tubule of the
Nephron are situated in the cortical region of the kidney.
3. The part of cortex that extends between the medullary pyramids is the renal columns
of bertini.
5.In which segment of the nephron most of the re-absorption of substances takes place?
About 70% of the reabsorption takes place in the proximal convoluted tubules of the nephron.
6.When a molecule or ion is reabsorbed from the lumen of the nephron, where does it go? If a
solute is filtered and not reabsorbed from the tubule, where does it go?
a. When a molecular or ion is reabsorbed from the lumen of the nephron it goes out of the lumen
through the blood in the efferent arteriole.
It is reabsorbed into the efferent arteriole which leaves the Nephron, and enters the peritubular
capillaries.
b. If a solute is filtered and not reabsorbed from the tubule it will finally reach the distal convoluted
tubule of the nephron and enter the collecting duct to be sent out as waste in the form of urine.

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7.Match each of the following substances with its mode of transportation in proximal tubular
reabsorption.
(a) Na+ - Simple diffusion

(b) Glucose - Primary active transport

(c) Urea - Indirect active transport

(d) Plasma - Paracellular movement

(e) Proteins - Facilitated diffusion

(f) Water - Endocytosis

Answer:
(a) Na+ - Primary active transport

(b) Glucose - Indirect active transport

(c) Urea - Simple diffusion

(d) Plasma - Facilitated diffusion

(e) Proteins - Endocytosis

(f) Water - Paracellular movement

8.Which segment is the site of secretion and regulated reabsorption of ions and pH homeostasis?
The distal convoluted tubule of the nephron is the site of secretion and regulated reabsorption of ions and
pH homeostasis.
9.What solute is normally present in the body to estimate GFR in humans?
Creatinine. Some of it is secreted but the quantity present is very low and its clearance is a measure of
estimating glomerular filtration rate (efficiency of the kidney).
10.Which part of the autonomic nervous system is involved in micturation process?
When the urinary bladder gets filled with urine, the stretch receptors in the urinary bladder are
stimulated.
Stretching of the urinary bladder stimulates the central nervous system via the sensory neurons of the
parasympathetic nervous system and brings about contraction of the bladder.
Simultaneously somatic motor neurons induce the sphincters to close. Smooth muscles contract and
opening of the internal sphincters occurs passively and external sphincter relaxes.
When the stimulatory and inhibitory controls exceed the threshold, the sphincter opens and urine is
expelled out.

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11.Match the following terms.
(a) α-receptor - Afferent arteriole

(b) Autoregulation - Basal lamina

(c) Bowman’s capsule - Capillary blood pressure

(d) Capsule fluid pressure - Colloid osmotic Pressure

(e) Glomerulus - GFR

(f) Podocyte - JG cells

(g) Vasoconstriction - Plasma proteins Norepinepherine

Answer:
(a) α-receptor - Capillary blood pressure

(b) Autoregulation - GFR

(c) Bowman’s capsule - Afferent arteriole

(d) Capsule fluid pressure - Plasma proteins

(e) Glomerulus - Colloid osmotic pressure

(f) Podocyte - Basal lamina

(g)Vasoconstriction - JG cells

12.If the afferent arteriole of the nephron constricts, what happens to the GFR in that nephron? If
the efferent arteriole constricts what happens to the GFR in that nephron? Assume that no auto
regulation takes place.
Constriction of the afferent arteriole of the nephron causes decrease in Glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
since the quantity of blood flow through the arteriole decreases.
Constriction of the efferent arteriole of the nephron causes increase in Glomerular Filtration rate.
13.How is the process of micturition altered by toilet training?
1. The process of release of urine from the urinary bladder is called micturition. It is more than a
simple reflex. The control of micturition is learnt is infancy. It induces other sensory fibres in the
bladder which conveys the information on fullness of bladder.
2. This information reaches the centres in thalamus and cerebral cortex of the brain via the spine.
3. The brain can sense the need to pass urine and urgency of the situation.
4. The brain centres can control the micturition reflex by inhibiting the parasympathetic motor
fibres.

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 5. When convenient, the brain centre removes this control and permits micturition under conscious
control.
6. Further the link between spine and cerebral cortex is developed only nearing 2 years of age.
Hence toilet training is not possible in infants.
7. Therefore by training children at a young age the micturition reflex can be brought under control.
14.Concentration of urine depends upon which part of the nephron
(a) Bowman’s capsule (b) Length of Henle’s loop
(c) P.C.T. (d) Network of capillaries arising from glomerulus
15.If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which one of the following is to be
expected?
(a) There will be no urine formation
(b) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
(c) The urine will be more concentrated
(d) The urine will be more dilute
16.A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have
(a) Less amino acids in his urine
(b) Macula densa cells
(c) Less urea in his urine
(d) More sodium in his urine
17.What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed?
(a) Micturition will continue
(b) Urine will be continue to collect normally in the bladder
(c) There will be micturition
(d) Urine will not collect in the bladder
18.The end product of Ornithine cycle is
(a) carbon dioxide (b) uric acid (c) urea (d) ammonia
19.Identify the wrong match
(a) Bowman’s capsule - Glomerular filteration
(b) DCT - Absorption of glucose
(c) Henle’s loop - Concentration of urine
(d) PCT - Absorption of Na+ and K+ions
20.Podocytes are the cells present on the
(a) Outer wall of Bowman’s capsule
(b) Inner wall of Bowman’s capsule
(c) Neck of nephron
(d) Wall glomerular capillaries
21.Glomerular filtrate contains
(a) Blood without blood cells and proteins (b) Plasma without sugar

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(c) Blood with proteins but without cells (d) Blood without urea
22.Kidney stones are produced due to deposition of uric acid and
(a) Silicates (b) Minerals (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Calcium oxalate
23.Animal requiring minimum amount of water to produce urine are
(a) ureotelic (b) ammonotelic (c) uricotelic (d) chemotelic
24.Aldosterone acts at the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct resulting in the absorption of water
through
(a) Aquaporins (b) Spectrins (c) GLUT (d) Chloride channels
25.The hormone which helps in the reabsorption of water in kidney tubules is
(a) cholecystokinin (b) angiotensin II
(c) antidiuretic hormone (d) pancreozymin
26.Malpighian tubules remove excretory products from
(a) mouth (b) oesophagus (c) haemolymph (d) alimentary canal.
27.Identify the biological term.
Homeostasis, excretion, glomerulus,urea, glomerular filtration, ureters, urine, Bowman’s capsule,
urinary system, reabsorption, micturition, osmosis, glomerular capillaries via efferent arteriole,
proteins.
a. A liquid which gathers in the bladder.
b. Produced when blood is filtered in a Bowman’s capsule.
c. Temporary storage of urine.
d. A ball of inter twined capillaries.
e. A process that changes glomerular filtrate into urine.
f. Removal of unwanted substances from the body.
g. Each contains a glomerulus.
h. Carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
i. Contains urea and many useful substances.
j. Blood is filtered through its walls into the Bowman’s capsule.
k. Scientific term for urination.
l. Regulation of water and dissolved substances in blood and tissue fluid.
m. Carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
n. Consists of the kidneys, ureters and bladder.
o. Removal of useful substances from glomerular filtrate.
p. The process by which water is transported in the proximal convoluted tubule.
q. Where has the blood in the capillaries surrounding the proximal convoluted tubule come from?
r. What solute the blood contains that are not present in the glomerular filtrate?
Answer:
1. Urine
2. No suitable option (correct Ans. : Glomerular filtrate)
3. No proper option
(Correct answer : Urinary bladder)
4. Glomerulus
5. Reabsorption
6. Excretion
7. Bowman’s capsule

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 8. Ureters
9. No suitable option
(Correct Answer : Glomerular filtrate)
10. Glomerular capillaries
11. Micturition
12. Homeostasis
13. Ureters (Question ‘h’ repeated)
14. Urinary system
15. Reabsorption
16. Osmosis
17. Glomerular Capillaries via efferent arteriole
18. Proteins.
28.With regards to toxicity and the need for dilution in water, how different are ureotelic and
uricotelic excretions? Give examples of animals that use these types of excretion.
Ureotelism :
1. The process of excreting urea is calledureotelism.
2. Animals which are found in places where water availability is not abundant have this mode of
excretion.
3. They convert Ammonia produced in the body into urea in the liver and release it to the blood.
This is filtered and excreted by the kidneys, Eg: Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians and
marine fishes.
4. In terms of toxicity urea is more toxic than uric acid but it is soluble in water and is thus excreted
as urine.

Uricotelism :
The process of excreting uric acid is called uricotelism.
1. Uric acid can be removed from the body with a minimal loss of water and the excreta is in the
form of pellet or paste (semisolid).
2. Eg. : Many desert animals, Reptiles, Birds, Insects.
3. In terms of toxicity, uric acid is the least toxic nitrogenous waste. It is also insoluble in water.
29.Differentiate protonephridia from metanephridia.
S.
Protonephridia Metanephridia
No.

It consists of tubular excretory structures which They are excretory glands with a ciliated
end in specialised cells such as flame cells inside funnel like opening into the body cavity and
1.
the body and open out by means of excretory connected to a duct which opens outside the
pores. body.

2. It mainly helps in osmoregulation. It helps in excretion and osmoregulation

It is found in acoelomates and coelomates. It is found in coelomates only

3.
Eg: Flat worms Eg: Annelids, Arthropods.

4. They are primitive in nature. They are advanced than protonephridia.

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30.What is the nitrogenous waste produced by amphibian larvae and by the adult animal?
Nitrogenous waste produced by amphibian larvae is Ammonia. Since they are aquatic, ammonia diffuses
into the water.
Nitrogenous waste produced by adult amphibian is urea since they are terrestrial. Further production of
urea as excretory waste requires less water.
31.How is urea formed in the human body?
The nitrogenous waste formed as a result of breakdown of amino acids is converted to urea in the liver by

the Ornithine cycle or urea cycle.

32.Differentiate cortical from medullary nephrons.
Cortical Nephrons :
In majority of the nephrons, the loop of Henle is too short and extends very little into the medulla i.e, they
lie in the renal cortex. These are called corticalnephrons and form about 80% of total nephrons in the
kidney.
Medullary Nephrons :
In some nephrons, the loop of Henle is very long and run deep into the medulla. They are
calledMedullary nephrons.
33.What vessels carry blood to the kidneys? Is this blood arterial or venous?
Renal artery branches out from the dorsal aorta and supplies the kidney with arterial blood.
It breaks into small arterioles and an afferent arteriole enters into each nephron.
34.Which vessels drain filtered blood from the kidneys?
The efferent arteriole drains the filtered blood from the nephron. All the efferent arterioles from the
nephrons join to form the renal vein. This carries venous blood and leaves the kidney to join the inferior
vena cava.
35.What is tubular secretion? Name the substances secreted through the renal tubules.

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 1. Tubular secretion is the passage of waste material from the blood to the filtrate in the Nephron. It
is the last stage of Excretory process taking place in the Nephron.
2. Substances such as H+, K+, NH4+, creatinine and organic acids move into the filtrate from the
peritubular capillaries into the tubular fluid.
3. Most of the water is absorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule and Na+ is exchanged for water
in the loop of Henle. Hypotonic fluid enters the distal convoluted tubule and substances such as
urea and salts pass from peritubular blood into the cells of DCT.
4. The urine excreted contains both filtered and secreted substances. Once it enters the collecting
duct, water is absorbed and concentrated hypertonic urine is formed.
5. For every H+ secreted into the tubular filtrate, a Na+ is absorbed by the tubular cell. The
H+ secreted combines with HCO3–, HPO3– and NH3– and gets fixed as H2CO4+, H2PO4+ and
NH4+respectively. Since H+ gets fixed in the fluid, reabsorption of H+ is prevented.
36.How are the kidneys involved in controlling blood volume? How is the volume of blood in the
body related to arterial pressure?
Answer:

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1. Juxta glomerular apparatus (JGA) is a specialized tissue in the afferent arteriole of the nephron
that consists of macula densa and granular cells.
2. The macula densa cells sense distal tubular flow and affect afferent arteriole diameter, whereas
the granular cells secrete an enzyme called renin.
3. A fall in glomerular blood flow, glomerular blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate, can
activate JG cells to release renin which converts a plasma protein, angiotensinogen (synthesized
in the liver) to angiotensin I.
4. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACH) converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II
stimulates Na+reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule by vasoconstriction of the blood
vessels and increases the glomerular blood pressure.
5. Angiotensin II acts at different sites such as heart, kidney, brain, adrenal cortex and blood vessels.
6. It stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone that causes reabsorption of Na+, K+ excretion
and absorption of water from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.
7. This increases the glomerular blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate. This complex
mechanism is generally known as Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS).
37.Name the three main hormones that are involved in the regulation of the renal function?
Hormones involved in regulation of renal function are :
1. Vasopressin (Anti diuretic Hormone)
2. Aldosterone
3. Atrial natriuretic peptide hormone
38.What is the function of antidiuretic hormone? Where is it produced and what stimuli increases
or decreases its secretion?
1. When there is excessive loss of fluid from the body or when there is an increase in the blood
pressure, the osmoreceptors of the hypothalamus respond by stimulating the neurohypophysis to
secrete theantidiuretic hormone (ADH) orvasopressin (a positive feedback).
2. ADH facilitates reabsorption of water by increasing the number of aquaporins on the cell surface
membrane of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. This increase in aquaporins causes
the movement of water from the lumen into the interstitial cells, thereby preventing excess loss of
water by diuresis.
3. When you drink excess amounts of your favourite juice, osmoreceptors of the hypothalamus is no
longer stimulated and the release of ADH is suppressed from the neurohypophysis (negative
feedback) and the aquaporins of the collecting ducts move into the cytoplasm.
4. This makes the collecting ducts impermeable to water and the excess fluid flows down the
collecting duct without any water loss. Hence dilute urine is produced to maintain the blood
volume. Vasopressin secretion is controlled by positive and negative feedback mechanism.
5. Defects in ADH receptors or inability to secrete ADH leads to a condition called diabetes
insipidus, characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large quantities of dilute urine
resulting in dehydration and fall in blood pressure.
39.What is the effect of aldosterone on kidneys and where is it produced?
1. Excessive stretch of cardiac atrial cells cause an increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart
and release Atrial Natriuretic Peptide or factor (ANF) travels to the kidney where it increases
Na+ excretion and increases the blood flow to the glomerulus, acting on the afferent glomerular
arterioles as a vasodilator or on efferent arterioles as a vasoconstrictor.
2. It decreases aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex and also decreases release of renin,
thereby decreasing angiotensin II.
3. ANF acts antagonistically to the renin-angiotensin system, aldosterone and vasopressin.
40.What evolutionary hypothesis could explain the heart’s role in secreting a hormone that
regulates renal function? What hormone is this?

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Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a peptide hormone produced by atrial muscle cells of the heart. It
reduces an expanded extracellular fluid volume by increasing renal sodium excretion.

CHAPTER-9 LOCOMOTION AND BODY MOVEMENTS

Evaluation
1.Muscles are derived from
(a) ectoderm (b) mesoderm (c) endoderm (d) neuro ectoderm
2.Muscles are formed by
(a) myocytes (b) leucocytes (c) osteocytes (d) lymphocytes
3.The muscles attached to the bones are called
(a) skeletal muscle (b) cardiac muscle (c) involuntary muscle (d) smooth muscles
4.Skeletal muscles are attached to the bones by
(a) tendon (b) ligament (c) pectin (d) fibrin
5.The bundle of muscle fibres is called
(a) Myofibrils (b) fascicle (c) sarcomere (d) sarcoplasm
6.The pigment present in the muscle fibre to store oxygen is
(a) myoglobin (b) troponin (c) myosin (d) actin
7.The functional unit of a muscle fibre is
(a) sarcomere (b) sarcoplasm (c) myosin (d) actin
8.The protein present in the thick filament is
(a) myosin (b) actin (c) pectin (d) leucin
9.The protein present in the thin filament is
(a) myosin (b) actin (c) pectin (d) leucin
10.The region between two successive Z-discs is called a
(a) sarcomere (b) microtubule (c) myoglobin (d) actin
11.Each skeletal muscle is covered by
(a) epimysium (b) perimysium (c) endomysium (d) hypomysium
12.Knee joint is an example of
(a) saddle joint (b) hinge joint (c) pivot joint (d) gliding joint
13.Name of the joint present between the atlas and axis is
(a) synovial joint (b) pivot joint (c) saddle joint (d) hinge joint
14.ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is located in
(a) actinin (b) troponin (c) myosin (d) actin
15.Synovial fluid is found in
(a) Ventricles of the brain (b) Spinal cord
(c) Immovable joint (d) Freely movable joints.

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16.Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is called as
(a) Gout (b) Myasthenia gravis
(c) Osteoporosis (d) Osteomalacia
17.Acetabulum is located in
(a) collar bone (b) hip bone (c) shoulder bone (d) thigh bone
18.Appendicular skeleton is
(a) girdles and their limbs (b) vertebrae
(c) skull and vertebral column (d) ribs and sternum
19.The type of movement exhibits by the macrophages are
(a) flagellar (b) ciliary (c) muscular (d) amoeboid
20.The pointed portion of the elbow is
(a) acromion process (b) glenoid cavity
(c) olecranon process (d) symphysis
21.Name the different types of movement.
Types of movement :
The different types of movements that occur in the cells of our body are amoeboid, ciliary, flagellar and
muscular movement.
1. Amoeboid movement: Cells such as macrophages exhibit amoeboid movement for engulfing
pathogens by pseudopodia formed by the streaming movement of the cytoplasm.
2. Ciliary movement: This type of movement occurs in the respiratory passages and genital tracts
which are lined by ciliated epithelial cells.
3. Flagellar movement: This type of movement occurs in the cells which are having flagella or
whip-like motile organelle. The sperm cells show flagellar movement.
4. Muscular movement: The movement of hands, legs, jaws, tongue are caused by the contraction
and relaxation of the muscle which is termed as the muscular movement.
22.Name the filaments present in the sarcomere.
1. Sarcomere is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle.
2. Inside the sarcomere two types of filaments are present namely the thickand thin filaments.
23.Name the contractile proteins present in the skeletal muscle
Contraction of the muscle depends on the presence of contractile proteins such as actin and myosin in the
myofilaments.
24.When describing a skeletal muscle, what does “striated” mean?
1. Each skeletal muscle is made up of bundles of muscle fibres calledfascicle.
2. Each muscle fibre contains hundreds to thousands of rod-like structures calledmyofibrils that run
parallel to its length.
3. Along the length of each myofibril there are a repeated series of dark and light bands.
4. The dark A-bands (Anisotropic bands) and the light I-bands (Isotropic bands) are perfectly
aligned with one another.
5. This type of arrangement gives the cell a striated appearance.
25.How does an isotonic contraction take place?
1. There are two primary types of muscle contractions. They are isotonic contraction and isometric
contraction.

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 2. The types of contractions depend on the changes in the length and tension of the muscle fibres at
the time of its contraction.
Isotonic contraction (iso-same, ton-weight/resistance) :
In isotonic contraction the length of the muscle changes but the tension remains constant.
1. Here, the force produced is unchanged.
Eg: Lifting dumbbells and weight lifting.
26.How does an isometric contraction take place?
1. There are two primary types of muscle contractions. They are isotonic contraction and isometric
contraction.
2. The types of contractions depend on the changes in the length and tension of the muscle fibres at
the time of its contraction.
Isometric contraction ( iso-same, metric-distance):

1. In isometric contraction the length of the muscle does not change but the tension of the muscle
changes.
2. Here, the force produced is changed.
Eg: Pushing against a wall, holding a heavy bag.
27.Name the bones of the skull.
The Skull is composed of two sets of bones –Cranial bones and Facial bones.
Cranial bones:
1. It consists of 22 bones of which 8 are cranial bones and 14 are facial bones.
2. The cranial bones form the brain box. They are a paired parietal, paired
temporal and individual bones such as the frontal, sphenoid, occipital andethmoid.
Facial bones:

1. In the facial bones maxilla, zygomatic, palatine, lacrimal, nasal are paired bones whereas
mandible or lower jaw and vomer are unpaired bones. They form the front part of the skull. A
single U-shaped hyoid bone is present at the base of the buccal cavity.
2. Each middle ear contains three tiny bones- malleus, incus and stapescollectively called ear
ossicles.
3. The upper jaw is formed of the maxilla and the lower jaw is formed of the mandible.
4. The upper jaw is fused with the cranium and is immovable. The lower jaw is connected to the
cranium by muscles and is movable.
28.Which is the only jointless bone in human body?
1. A single U-shaped hyoid bone is present at the base of the buccal cavity.
2. It is the only bone without joint.
29.List the three main parts of the axial skeleton.

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30.How is tetany caused?

Rapid muscle spasms occur in the muscles due to deficiency of parathyroid hormone resulting in reduced
calcium levels in the body. This disease is called tetany and is a disorder of muscular system.
31.How is rigor mortis happened?
1. It is the state of stiffening of the body after death due to non separation of actin and myosin
filaments.
2. ATP production stops and skeletal muscles become rigid.
32.What are the different types of rib bones that form the rib cage?

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The Rib cage :
There are 12 pairs of ribs. Each rib is a thin flat bone connected dorsally to the vertebral column and
ventrally to the sternum. It has two articulation surfaces on its dorsal end, hence called bicephalic.
True ribs:
The first seven pairs of ribs are called ‘true ribs’ orvertebro–sternal ribs. Dorsally they are attached to
the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilages.
False ribs:
The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but joined with the
cartilaginous (hyaline cartilage) part of the seventh rib. These are called ‘false ribs’ or vertebro-
chondral ribs.
Floating ribs:
The last 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are not connected ventrally. Therefore, they are called as ‘floating
ribs’ or vertebral ribs.
Formation of rib cage :
1. Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum together form the ribcage.
2. Rib cage protects the lungs, heart, liver and also plays a role in breathing.
33.What are the bones that make the pelvic girdle?

Pelvic Girdle :

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 1. The pelvic girdle is a heavy structure specialized for weight bearing. It is composed of two hip
bones calledcoxal bones that secure the lower limbs to the axial skeleton. Together, with the
sacrum and coccyx, the hip bones form the basin-like bony pelvis.
2. Each coxal bone consists of three fused bones, ilium, ischium and pubis. At the point of fusion
of ilium, ischium, and pubis a deep hemispherical socket called the acetabulum is present on the
lateral surface of the pelvis.
3. It receives the head of the femur or thigh bone at the hip joint and helps in the articulation of the
femur.
4. The ilium is the superior flaring portion of the hip bone. Each ilium forms a secure joint with the
sacrum posteriorly. The ischium is a curved bar of bone. The V-shaped pubic bones articulate
anteriorly at the pubic symphysis.
The Lower limb:

1. The lower limb consists of 30 bones which carries the entire weight of the erect body.
2. The bones of the lower limbs are thicker and stronger than the upper limbs. The three segments of
each lower limb are the thigh, the leg or the shank and the foot.
3. The femur is the single bone of the thigh. It is the largest, longest and strongest bone in the body.
The head of femur articulates with the acetabulum of the pelvis to form the hip joint.
4. Two parallel bones, the tibia and fibula, form the skeleton of the shank. A thick, triangular patella
forms the knee cap, which protects the knee joint anteriorly and improves the leverage of thigh
muscles acting across the knee.
5. The foot includes the bones of ankle, the tarsus, the metatarsus and thephalanges or toe
bones. The foot supports our body weight and acts as a lever to propel the body forward, while
walking and running.
6. The tarsus is made up of seven bones called tarsals. The metatarsus consists of five bones
called metatarsals. The arrangement of the metatarsals is parallel to each other. There are 14
phalanges in the toes which are smaller than those of the fingers.
34.List the disorders of the muscular system.
Disorders of muscular system:
1. Myasthenia gravis: An autoimmune disorder affecting the action of acetylcholine at
neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles.
2. Tetany: Rapid muscle spasms occur in the muscles due to deficiency of parathyroid hormone
resulting in reduced calcium levels in the body.
3. Muscle fatigue: Muscle fatigue is the inability of a muscle to contract after repeated muscle
contractions.
4. Atrophy: A decline or cessation of muscular activity results in the condition
called atrophy which results in the reduction in the size of the muscle and makes the muscle to
become weak, which occurs with lack of usage as in chronic bedridden patients.
5. Muscle pull: Muscle pull is actually a muscle tear. A traumatic pulling of the fibres produces a
tear known as sprain. This can occur due to sudden stretching of muscle beyond the point of
elasticity.
6. Muscular dystrophy: The group of diseases collectively called themuscular dystrophy are
associated with the progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle fibres, weakening the muscles
and leading to death from lung or heart failure.
35.Explain the sliding-filament theory of muscle contraction.
Rolf Niedergerke Andrew F. Huxley (1954)proposed the sliding-filament theory to explain muscle
contraction. According to this theory overlapping actin and myosin filaments of fixed length slide past
one another is an energy requiring process resulting in muscle contraction.

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 1. Contraction is the creation of tension in the muscle and relaxation is the release of tension created
by contraction.
2. Muscle contraction is initiated by a nerve impulse sent by the central nervous system (CNS)
through a motor neuron.
3. The junction between the motor neuron and sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called
the neuromuscular junction ormotor end plate. When nerve impulse reaches this junction
acetylcholine is released.
4. An action potential is generated which initiates opening of multiple gated channels of
sarcolemma.
5. This causes the flow of large quantities of calcium ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum. The
Ca+ ions bind to the troponin of thin filaments. The active sites are exposed to the heads of
myosin to form a cross bridge and phosphate ion is released.
6. Hydrolysis of ATP occurs and energy released helps the myosin head to rotate (90° angle with
long axis of filament). In this position myosin binds to an actin and activates contraction –
relaxation cycle which is followed by a power stroke.
7. Power stroke (cross – bridge tilting) begins after rest of myosin binding sites are uncovered.
Myosin head and hinge region tilt from 90° angle to 45° angle. Cross bridges are transformed into
high – force bonds as myosin releases phosphate ions allowing myosin head to swivel.
8. At the end of power stroke, the myosin head releases actin and swivels back to bind to a new
actin molecule to start another contraction cycle. The power stroke repeats many times until a
muscle fibre contracts. The process continues as long as muscle receives stimuli and there is
steady flow of calcium ions.
9. Myosin returns back to relaxed state and releases ADP. A new ATP then binds to the head of
myosin and cross-bridge is broken. The cycle of cross-bridge formation and breakage repeatedly
causes sliding of the filaments. similar to motion of oar on a boat.
10. Relaxation

i. Motor impulses stop.

ii. Calcium ions are pumped back into sarcoplasm.
iii. Masking of active sites of actin filament.
iv. Failure of binding of myosin head with active sites of actin.
v. The thin filaments assume their normal position and muscle is released.

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36.What are the benefits of regular exercise?

a. Endurance or aerobic activities increase the breathing and heart rate. They keep the circulatory
system healthy and improve overall fitness.
b. Strength exercises make the muscles stronger. They help to stay independent and carry out
everyday activities such as climbing stairs and carrying bags.
c. Balance exercises help to prevent falls which is a common problem in older adults. Many
strengthening exercises also improves balance.
d. Flexibility exercises help to stretch body muscles for more freedom of joint movements.
Regular exercises can produce the following beneficial physiological changes:

1. The muscles used in exercise grow larger and stronger.

2. The resting heart rate goes down.
3. More enzymes are synthesized in the muscle fibre.
4. Ligaments and tendons become stronger.
5. Joints become more flexible.
6. Protection from heart attack.
7. Influences hormonal activity.
8. Improves cognitive functions.
9. Prevents Obesity. Promotes confidence, esteem.
10. Prevents depression, stress and anxiety.

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CHAPTER-10-NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION
Evaluation
Choose the followings:
1 Which structure in the ear converts pressure waves to action potentials?
a. Tympanic membrane b. Organ of Corti
c. Oval window d. Semicircular canal
2. Which of the following pairings is correct?
a. Sensory nerve – afferent
b. Motor nerve - afferent
c. Sensory nerve – ventral
d. Motor nerve – dorsal
3. During synaptic transmission of nerve impulse, neurotransmitter (P) is released from synaptic vesicles
by the action of ions (Q). Choose the correct P and Q.
a. P = Acetylcholine, Q = Ca++
b. P = Acetylcholine, Q = Na+
c. P = GABA, Q=Na+
d. P = Cholinesterase, Q = Ca++
4. Examine the diagram of the two cell types A and B given below and select the correct option.

a. Cell-A is the rod cell found evenly all over retina

b. Cell-A is the cone cell more concentrated in the fovea centralis
c. Cell-B is concerned with colour vision in bright light
d. Cell-A is sensitive to bright light intensities
5. Assertion: The imbalance in concentration of Na+, K+ andproteins generates action potential.
Reason: To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+ and K+, the neurons use electrical energy.
a. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
b. Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct
explanations of Assertion.
c. Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and Reason are false.
6. Which part of the human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?
a. Cerebellum b. Cerebrum c. Medulla oblongata d. Hypothalamus
7. The respiratory centre is present in the
a. Medulla oblongata b. Hypothalamus c. Cerebellum d. Thalamus
8. Match the following human spinal nerves in column I with their respective number in column II and
choose the correct option
column I column II
P. Cervical nerves i. 5 pairs
Q. Thoracic nerve ii. 1 pair
R. Lumbar nerve iii. 12 pair
S. Coccygeal nerve iv. 8 pair
a. ( P-iv ),( Q-iii ),( R-i ),( S-ii )
b. ( P-iii ), ( Q-i ), ( R-ii ), ( S-iv )

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c. ( P-iv ),( Q-i ),( R-ii ),( S-iii )
d. ( P-ii ), ( Q-iv ), ( R-i ), ( S-iii )
9. Which of the following cranial nerve controls the movement of eye ball ?
a. trochlear nerve b. optic nerve
c. Olfactory nerve d. vagus nerve.
10. The abundant intracellular cation is
a. H+ b. K+ c. Na+ d. Ca++
11. Which of the following statements is wrong regarding conduction of nerve impulse?
a. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to
Na+ ions.
b. Fluid outside the axon has a high concentration of Na+ ions and low concentration of K+, in a resting
neuron.
c. Ionic gradient s are maintained by Na+ K+ pumps across the resting membrane, which transport 3Na
ions outwards for 2K+ into the cell.
d. A neuron is polarized only when the outer surface of the axonal membrane possess a negative a
charge and its inner surface is positively charged.
12. All of the following are associated with the myeline sheath except
a. Faster conduction of nerve impulses
b. Nodes of Ranvier forming gaps along the axon
c. Increased energy output for nerve impulse conduction
d. Saltatory conduction of action potential
13. Several statements are given here in reference to cone cells which of the following option indicates all
correct statements for cone cells ?
Statements
(i) Cone cells are less sensitive in bright light than Rod cells
(ii) They are responsible for colour vision
(iii) Erythropsin is a photo pigment which is sensitive to red colour light
(iv) They are present in fovea of retina
a. (iii),(ii) and(i) b. (ii) ,(iii)and(iv)
c. (i), (iii)and(iv) d. (i), (ii)and(iv)
14. Which of the following statement concerning the somatic division of the peripheral neural system is
incorrect?
a. Its pathways innervate skeletal muscles
b. Its pathways are usually voluntary
c. Some of its pathways are referred to as reflex arcs
d. Its pathways always involve four neurons
15. When the potential across the axon membrane is more negative than the normal resting potential, the
neuron is said to be in a state of
a. Depolarization b. Hyperpolarization c. Repolarization d. Hypopolarization
16. Why is the blind spot called so?
The optic nerves and the retinal blood vessels enter the eye slightly below the posterior pole, which is
devoid of photo receptors; hence this region is called blind spot.
17. Sam’s optometrist tells him that his intraocular pressure is high. What is this condition called
and which fluid does it involve?
1.Aqueous humour supplies nutrients and oxygen to the lens, cornea and
some retinal cells.
2.The aqueous humor is produced and drained at the same rate, maintaining a constant intra ocular
pressure of about 16mmHg.
3.Any block in the canal of schlemm increases the infra ocular pressure of queous humor and leads to
‘Glaucoma’ where the optic nerve and the retina are compressed due to pressure.

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18. Why are we getting running nose while crying?
That's because their bodies react to these things like they're germs.
You're crying: When you cry, tears come out of the tear glands(Lacremal glands) under your eyelids and
drain through the tear ducts that empty into yournose.
Tears mix with mucus there and your nose runs.
19. The action potential occurs in response to a threshold stimulus; but not at sub threshold stimuli.
What is the name of the principle involved?
All or None principle
20. Pleasant smell of food urged Ravi to rush into the kitchen. Name the parts of the brain involved
in the identification of food and emotional responses to odour.
*Fore Brain It comprises the following regions:Cerebrum and Diencephalon.
*Hypothalamus forms the floor of the diencephalon.
*The hypothalamus contains a pair of small rounded body called mammillary bodies that are involved in
olfactory reflexes and emotional responses to odour.
*It also contains a group of neurosecretory cells which secrete the hypothalamic
hormones.
21. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. State the reason.
The cornea is the only tissue in the body that can be transplanted from one person to another with little or
no possibility of rejection. This is because cornea does not have blood vessels.
(1) It is a non living layer
(2) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
(3) It has no blood supply
(4) It is composed of enucleated cells
22. At the end of repolarization, the nerve membrane gets hyperpolarized.Why?
*The reversal of membrane potential inside the axolemma to negative occurs due to the efflux of K+ ions.
This is called Repolarisation.
*If repolarization becomes more negative than the resting potential -70 mV to about -90 mV, it is called
Hyperpolarization.
*During this, K+ ion gates are more permeable to K+ even after reaching the threshold level as it closes
slowly; hencecalled Lazy gates.
*The membrane potential returns to its original resting state when K+ ion channels close completely.
During hyperpolarization the Na+ voltage gate remains closed.
23. Label the parts of the neuron.

A.Nucleus
B.Myelin sheath
C.Dentrites
D.Nucleus
E.Axon
F.Node of Ranvier
24. The choroid plexus secretes cerebrospinal fluid. List the function of it.
Choroid plexus is a network of blood capillaries found in the roof of the ventricles and forms cerebro
spinal fluid (CSF) from the blood.

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FUNCTIONS:
1.CSF provides buoyancy to the CNS structures;
2.CSF acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord;
3. it nourishes the brain cells by transporting constant supply of food and oxygen; 4.it carries harmful
metabolic wastes from the brain to the blood; and maintains
a constant pressure inside the cranial vessels.
25. What is the ANS controlling centre? Name the parts that are supplied by the ANS.
*The autonomic neural system is auto functioning and self governed.
*It is a part of peripheral neural system that innervates smooth muscles, glands and cardiac muscle. This
system controls and coordinates the involuntary activities of various organs.
*ANS controlling centre is in the hypothalamus.
26. Why the limbic system is called the emotional brain? Name the parts of it.
*The inner part of the cerebral hemisphere constitutes the limbic system.
*The main components of limbic system are olfactory bulbs, cingulated gyrus, mammillary body,
amygdala, hippocampus and hypothalamus.
*The limbic system is called ‘emotional brain’ because it plays a primary role in the regulation of
pleasure, pain, anger, fear, sexual feeling and affection.
*The hippocampus and amygdala also play a role in memory.
27. Classify receptors based on type of stimuli.

28. Name the first five cranial nerves,their nature and their functions.

29. The sense of taste is considered to be the most pleasurable of all senses.
Describe the structure of the receptor involved with a diagram.
*Gustatory receptor: The sense of taste is considered to be the most pleasurable of all senses. The
tongue is provided with many small projections called papillae which give the tongue an abrasive feel.
*Taste buds are located mainly on the papillae which are scattered over the entire tongue surface.
*Most taste buds are seen on the tongue few are scattered on the soft palate, inner surface of the cheeks,
pharynx and epiglottis of the larynx.

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*Taste budsare flask-shaped and consist of 50 – 100 epithelial cells of two major types.

*Gustatory epithelial cells (taste cells) and Basal epithelial cells (Repairing cells) Long microvilli
called gustatory hairs project from the tip of the gustatory cells and extends through a taste pore to the
surface of the epithelium where they are The taste bud cells are subjected to huge amounts of friction,
because of their location and are routinely burned by hot foods. These are the most dynamic cells in the
body and are replaced every seven to ten days. bathed by saliva.
*Gustatory hairs are the sensitive portion of the gustatory cells and they have sensory dendrites which
send the signal to the brain.
*The basal cells that act as stem cells, divide and differentiate into new gustatory cells
30. Describe the structures of olfactory receptors?
*The receptors for taste and smell are the chemoreceptors. The smell receptors are excited by air borne
chemicals that dissolve in fluids.
*The yellow coloured patches of olfactory epithelium form the olfactory organs that are located on
the roof of the nasal cavity. The olfactory epithelium is covered by a thin coat of mucus layer below and
olfactory glands bounded connective tissues, above.

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*It contains three types of cells: supporting cells, Basal cells and millions of pin shaped olfactory
receptor cells (which are unusual bipolar cells).
*The olfactory glands and the supporting cells secrete the mucus. The unmyelinated axons of the
olfactory receptor cells are gathered to form the filaments of olfactory nerve [cranial nerve I] which
synapse with cells of olfactory bulb.
*The impulse, through the olfactory nerves, is transmitted to the frontal lobe of the brain for identification
of smell and the limbic system for the emotional responses to odour.

CHAPTER-11 CHEMICAL CO-ORDINATION AND INTEGRATION

Evaluation
1. The maintenance of constant internal environment is referred as
a. Regulation b. homeostasis c. co-ordination d. hormonal control
2. Which of the following are exclusive endocrine glands?
a. Thymus and testis b. adrenal and ovary
c. parathyroid and adrenal d. pancreas and parathyroid
3. Which of the following hormone is not secreted under the influence of pituitary gland?
a. thyroxine b. insulin c. oestrogen d. glucocorticoids
4. Spermatogenesis in mammalian testes is controlled by
a. Luteinising hormone b. Follicle stimulating hormone
c. FSH and prolactin d. GH and prolactin
5. Serum calcium level is regulated by
a. Thyroxine b. FSH
c. Pancreas d. Thyroid and parathyroid
6. Iodised salt is essential to prevent
a. rickets b. scurvy c. goitre d. acromegaly
7. Which of the following gland is related with immunity?
a. Pineal gland b. adrenal gland c. thymus d. parathyroid gland
8. Which of the following statement about sex hormones is correct?
a. Testosterone is produced by Leydig cells under the influence of luteinizing hormone

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b. Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum and softens pelvic ligaments during child birth
c. Oestrogen is secreted by both sertoli cells and corpus luteum
d. Progesterone produced by corpus luteum is biologically different from the one produced by placenta.
9. Hypersecretion of GH in children leads to
a. Cretinism b. Gigantism c. Graves disease d. Tetany
10. A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low
intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of
a. Low secretion of growth hormone
b. Cancer of the thyroid gland
c. Over secretion of pars distalis
d. Deficiency of iodine in diet.
11. The structure which connects the hypothalamus with anterior lobe of pituitary gland is the
a. Dendrites of neuro hypophysis b. Axons of neurohypophysis
c. Bands of white fibers from cerebellar region d. Hypophysial portal system
12. Comment on homeostasis.
Homeostasis is the tendency to resist change in order to maintain a stable, relatively constant internal
environment.
Homeostasis typically involves negative feedback loops that counteract changes of various properties
from their target values, known as set points.
Humans' internal body temperature is a great example of homeostasis. When an individual is healthy, his
or her body temperature retains a temperature 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit.
The body can control temperature by making or releasingheat. ... The maintenance of healthy blood
pressure is an example of homeostasis
13. Which one of the following statement is correct
a. Calcitonin and thymosin are thyroid hormones
b. Pepsin and prolactin are secreted in stomach
c. Secretin and rhodopsin are polypeptide hormones
d. Cortisol and aldosterone are steroid hormones
14. which of the given option shows all wrong statements for thyroid gland
Statements
(i) It inhibits process of RBC formation
(ii) It helps in maintenance of water and electrolytes
(iii) Its more secretion can reduce blood pressure
(iv) It Stimulates osteoblast
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
15. Hormones are known as chemicalmessenger. Justify.

16. Write the role of oestrogen in ovulation.

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*it is secreted by ovaries.

*it operates with L.H to encourage the development of the small follicles in the ovaries.
*FSH also stimulates the production of ovarian hormone oestrogen.
*it stops production of fsh so that only one egg matures in a cycle.
* It stimulates ovulation and development of corpus luteum.
*ovulation is the release of egg from the ovary by rupture of follicular cells.
17. Comment on Acini of thyroid gland.
*The butterfly shaped thyroid gland is a bilobed gland located below the larynx on each side of upper
trachea. It is the largestendocrine gland in the body. Its two lateral lobes are connected by a median tissue
mass called isthmus.

*Each lobe is made up of many lobules .The lobules consist of follicles called acini (acinus in singular).
Each acinus is lined with glandular, cuboidal or squamous epithelial cells. Thelumen of acinus is filled
with colloid, a thick glycoprotein mixture consisting of thyroglobulin molecules.
18. Write the causes for diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus.
*Hyperglycaemia is otherwise known as Diabetes mellitus. It is caused due to reduced secretion of
insulin. As the result, blood glucose level is elevated.
*Diabetes mellitus is of two types, Type I Diabetes and Type II Diabetes.
*Type I diabetes isalso known Insulin dependent diabetes,caused by the lack of insulin secretion due to
illness or viral infections.
*Type II diabetes is also known as Non- Insulin dependent diabetes, caused due to reduced sensitivity to
insulin, often called as insulin resistance.
*Symptoms of diabetes includes, polyurea (excessive urination), polyphagia (excessive intake of food),
polydipsia (excessive consumption liquids due to thirst), ketosis (breakdown of fat into glucose results in
accumulation of ketone bodies) in blood.
*Gluconeogenesis (Conversion of non- carbohydrate form like amino acids and fat into glucose) also
occur in diabetes.
*Diabates insipidus is caused due to hyposecretion of vasopressin (ADH) from neurohypophysis.
*The symptom includes frequent urination (polyurea) and excessive consumption of liquids due to thirst
(polydipsia).
19. Specify the symptoms of acromegaly.

Acromegaly is due to excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults. Over growth of hand bones, feet
bones, jaw bones, malfunctioning of gonads, enlargement of viscera, tongue, lungs, heart, liver, spleenand
endocrine gland like thyroid, adrenal etc., are the symptoms of acromegaly.

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20. Write the symptoms of cretinism.
In infants, hypothyroidism causes cretinism. A cretin shows retarded skeletal growth, absence of sexual
maturity, retarded mental ability, thick wrinkled skin, protruded enlarged tongue, bloated face, thick and
short limbs occurs. The other symptoms are low BMR, slow pulse rate, subnormal body temperature and
elevated blood cholesterol levels.
21. Briefly explain the structure of thyroid gland.
The butterfly shaped thyroid gland is a bilobed gland located below the larynx on each side of upper
trachea. It is the largestendocrine gland in the body. Its two lateral lobes are connected by a median tissue
mass called isthmus. Each lobe is made up of many lobules .The lobules consist of follicles called acini
(acinus in singular).

Each acinus is lined with glandular, cuboidal or squamous epithelial cells. Thelumen of acinus is filled
with colloid, a thick glycoprotein mixture consisting of thyroglobulin molecules. Hormones of the thyroid
gland are often called the major metabolic hormones. The follicular cells of thyroid gland secrete two
hormones namely tri-iodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine or tetra iodothyronine(T4). The parafollicular cells
or ‘C’ cells of thyroid gland secrete a hormone called thyrocalcitonin. Iodine is essential for the normal
synthesis of thyroid hormones. Thyroid releasing hormone from the hypothalamus stimulates the
adenohypophysis to secrete TSH, which inturn stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete the thyroid
hormones. Thyroid hormones show a negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus and pituitary.
22. Name the layers of adrenal cortex and mention their secretions.

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*A pair of adrenal glands are located at the anterior end of the kidneys, hence also called suprarenal
glands.
*Anatomically the outer region is the cortex and the inner region is the medulla. Histologically the
adrenal cortex has three distinct zones, zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona reticularis.
Zona glomerulosa an outer thin layer constitutes about 15% of adrenal cortex, and secretes
mineralocorticoids.
Zona fasciculata, the middle widest layer constitutes about 75% of adrenal cortex and secretes
glucocorticoids such as cortisol, corticosterone and trace amounts of adrenal androgen and oestrogen.
Zonareticularis, an inner zone of adrenal cortex constitute about 10% of adrenal cortex and secretes the
adrenal androgen, trace amount of oestrogen and glucocorticoids.
23. Differentiate hyperglycemia from hypoglycemia.
Hypoglycaemia is due to increased secretion of insulin thereby blood glucose level decreases. In this
disorder blood glucose level lowers than normal fasting index. Increased heartbeat, weakness,
nervousness, headache, confusion, lack of co-ordination, slurred speech, serious brain defects like
epilepsy and coma occurs.
Hyperglycaemia is otherwise known as Diabetes mellitus. It is caused due to reduced secretion of
insulin. As the result, blood glucose level is elevated. Diabetes mellitus is of two types, Type I Diabetes
and Type II Diabetes. Type I diabetes is also known Insulin dependent diabetes, caused by the lack of
insulin secretion due to illness or viral infections. Type II diabetes is also known as Non- Insulin
dependent diabetes, caused due to reduced sensitivity to insulin, often called as insulin resistance.
Symptoms of diabetes includes, polyurea (excessive urination), polyphagia (excessive intake of food),
polydipsia (excessive consumption liquids due to thirst), ketosis (breakdown of fat into glucose results in
accumulation of ketone bodies) in blood. Gluconeogenesis (Conversion of non- carbohydrate form like
amino acids and fat into glucose) also occur in diabetes.
24 .Write the functions of (CCK) Cholecystokinin.
*Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by duodenum in response to the presence of fat and acid in the diet.
*It acts on the gall bladder to release bile into duodenum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic
enzymes and its discharge.
25. Growth hormone is important for normal growth. Justify the statement.
Hormones of Adenohypophysis
Growth hormone (GH): It is also known as somatotropic hormone (STH) or Somatotropin. It is a
peptide hormone.
Growth hormone promotes growth of all the tissues and metabolic process of the body. It influences the
metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and lipids and increases the rate of protein biosynthesis in the cells.
It stimulates chondrogenesis (cartilage formation), osteogenesis (bone formation) and helps in the
retention of minerals like nitrogen, potassium, phosphorus, sodium etc., in the body.
GH increases the release of fatty acid from adipose tissue and decreases the rate of glucose utilization for
energy by the cells. Thus it conserves glucose for glucose dependent tissues, such as the brain.
26. Pineal gland is an endocrine gland,write its role.
In human, the pineal gland or epiphysis cerebri or conarium is located behind the third ventricle of brain
and is formed of parenchymal cells and interstitial cells. It secretes the hormone, melatonin, which
plays a central role in the regulation of circadian rhythm of our body and maintains the normal sleep wake
cycle.
It also regulates the timing of sexual maturation of gonads. In addition melatonin also influences
metabolism, pigmentation, menstrual cycle and defence mechanism of our body.
27. Comment on the functions of adrenalin.

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28. Predict the effects of removal of pancreas from the human body.
The pancreas is a gland that secretes hormones that a person needs to survive, including insulin. Decades
ago, serious problems with the pancreas were almost always fatal. Now, it is possible for people to live
without a pancreas.
Surgery to remove the pancreas is called pancreatectomy. The surgery can be partial, removing only the
diseased portion of the pancreas, or a surgeon may remove the entire pancreas.
A complete pancreatectomy that removes the entire pancreas also requires the removal of parts of the
stomach, a portion of the small intestine called the duodenum, and the end of the bile duct. The
gallbladder and the spleen may be removed as well.
This extensive surgery can be dangerous and life-changing. After a pancreatectomy, a person will
develop diabetes. They need to change their diet and lifestyle and will have to take insulin for the rest of
their lives.
People who cannot produce enough insulin develop diabetes, which is why removing the pancreas
automatically triggers the condition.
Removing the pancreas can also reduce the body's ability to absorb nutrients from food. Without artificial
insulin injections and digestive enzymes, a person without a pancreas cannot survive.
One 2016 study found that about three-quarters of people without cancer survived at least 7 years
following pancreas removal. Among those with cancer, 7-year survival rates ranged from 30-64 percent,
depending on the type of cancer they had and the degree to which it had spread.
29. Enumerate the role of kidney as an endocrine gland.
*Some tissues of the heart, kidney and gastro intestinal tract acts as partial endocrine glands. In kidneys,
hormones such as renin, erythropoietin and calcitriol are secreted. Renin is secreted by juxta glomerular
cells
*(JGA), which increases blood pressure when angiotensin is formed in blood. Erythropoietin is also
secreted by the JGA cells of the kidney and stimulates erythropoiesis (formation of RBC) in bone
marrow.

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*Calcitriol is sercreted by proximal tubules of nephron. It is an active form of vitamin D3 which
promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption from intestine and accelerates bone formation.
30. Write a detailed account of gastro intestinal tract hormones.
Gastro intestinal tract hormones
Group of specialized endocrine cells present in gastro-intestinal tract secretes hormones such as gastrin,
cholecystokinin (CCK), secretin and gastric inhibitory peptides (GIP). Gastrin acts on the gastric
glands and stimulates the secretion of HCl and pepsinogen.
Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by duodenum in response to the presence of fat and acid in the diet.
It acts on the gall bladder to release bile into duodenum and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic
enzymes and its discharge.
Secretin acts on acini cells of pancreas to secrete bicarbonate ions and water to neutralize the acidity.
Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) inhibits gastric secretion and motility.

CHAPTER-12 TRENDS IN ECONOMIC ZOOLOGY

Evaluation
1. Which one of the following is not related to vermiculture?
a. Maintains soil fertility
b. Breakdown of inorganic matter
c. Gives porosity, aeration and moister holding capacity
d. Degradation of non biodegradable solid waste
a. a and b is correct
b. c and d is correct
c. b and d is not correct
d. a and c is not correct
2. Which one of the following is not an endemic species of earthworm?
a. Perionyx a. Lampito b. Eudrillus c. Octochaetona
3. Match the following
1. Bombyx mori - a) Champa - I) Muga
2. Antheraea assamensis - b) Mulberry - II) Eri
3. Antheraea mylitta - c) Arjun - III)Tassar
4. Attacus ricini - d) Castor - IV) Mulberry
Select the correct one.
A) 1 – b – IV B) 2 – a – I C) 3 - c - III D) 4 - d - II
4. Silk is obtained from ….
a. Laccifer lacca
b. Nosema bombycis
c. Attacus ricini
d. Attacus mylitta
5. Assertion: Nuptial flight is a unique flight taken the queen bee followed by several drones.
Reason: The queen bee produces a chemical substance called pheromone.
The drones in that area are attracted to the pheromone and then mating takes place.
a. Assertion and reason is correct but not related
b. Assertion and reason is incorrect but related
c. Assertion and reason is correct but related
d. Assertion and reason is incorrect but not related
6. Rearing of honey bee is called
a. Sericulture b. Lac culture c. Vermiculture d. Apiculture
7. Which of the statement regarding Lac insect is TRUE?
a. A microscopic, resinous crawling scale insect
b. Inserts its proboscis into plant tissue suck juices and grows

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c. Secretes lac from the hind end of body.
d. The male lac insect is responsible for large scale production of lac.
8. Aquaponics is a technique which is
a. A combination of aquaculture and fish culture
b. A combination of aquaculture and hydroponics
c. A combination of vermiculture and hydroponics
d. A combination of aquaculture and prawn culture.
9. Prawn belongs to the class
a. crustacean b. Annelida c. Coelenterata d. Echinodermata
10. Pearl oyster belongs to the Class
a. Gastropoda b. Cephalopoda c. Scaphapoda d. Pelecypoda
11. Inland fisheries are
a. deep sea fishing b. capturing fishes from sea coast
c. Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water d. oil extraction from fish
12. Induced breeding technique is used in
a. Marine fishery b. Capture fishery c. Culture fishery d. Inland fishery
13. Isinglass is used in
a. Preparation b. Clearing of wines
c. Distillation of wines d. Preservation of wines
14. Animal husbandry is the science of rearing, feeding and caring, breeding and disease control of
animals. It ensures supply of proper nutrition to our growing population through activities like
increased production and improvement of animal products like milk, eggs, meat, honey, etc.
a. Poultry production depends upon the photoperiod.Discuss
*Light is an important aspect of an animals environment. Avian species as well as mammalian species
respond to light energy in a variety of ways, including growth and reproductive performance.
*The value of regulating the photoperiod of poultry and livestock to stimulate reproduction has been
recognized for many years and is used regularly by commercial poultry and livestock farmers.
*For chickens there are three major functions of light:
1. to facilitate sight,
2. to stimulate internal cycles due to day-length changes, and
3. to initiate hormone release.
Research has shown that the color of light can have many different effects on behavior, growth and
reproduction in poultry.
Birds sense light through their eyes (retinal photoreceptors) and through photosensitive cells in the brain
(extra-retinal photoreceptors).
Since long wavelengths of light (towards red end of the spectrum) penetrate the skin and skull more
efficiently than short wavelengths, it has been observed that growth and behavior are linked to retinal
photoreception (and shorter wavelengths) whereas the reproduction has been linked to extra-retinal
photoreceptors.
From these observations it has been reported that blue light has a calming effect on birds,
however, red has been used to reduce cannibalism and feather picking.
It has also been shown that blue-green light stimulates growth in chickens while orange-red stimulates
reproduction
b. Polyculture of fishes is of great importance.
Composite fish farming
*Few selected fishes belonging to different species are stocked together in proper
proportion in a pond.
*This mixed farming is termed composite fish farming or polyculture. The advantages include,
1. All available niches are fully utilized.
2. Compatible species do not harm each other.
3. No competition among different species is found.

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4. Catla catla, Labeo rohita and Cirrhinus mrigala (surface feeder) are the commonly used fish species
for composite fish farming.
15. Assertion: The best quality of pearl is known as lingha pearl and obtained from marine oysters.
Reason: Nacre is secreted continuously by the epithelial layer of the mantle and deposited around the
foreign particle
a. Assertion is true, Reason is false
b. Assertion and Reason are false
c. Assertion is false But Reason is true
d. Assertion and Reason are true
16. Choose the correctly matched pair
1. Egg layers – Brahma
2. Broiler types - Leghorn
3. Dual purpose – White Plymouth rock
4. Ornamental breeds – Silkie
17. Write the advantages of vermicomposting.
Advantages of Vermicomposting: 1.Environment friendly 2.No imported inputs required 3.Labor
extensive 4.Highly profitable
Benefits of vermicompost/casting on the soil
1.Increase moisture and nutrient retention of the soil.
2.Improves aeration and root penetration.
3.Reduces crusting of soil surface.
4.Micronutrients are added.
5.Increases the number of beneficial soil microorganisms.
18. Name the three castes in a honey bee colony

A well developed honey bee colony consists of the Queen, Drones and Workers. All the three types
depend on each other for their existence.
There is normally one queen,10,000 to 30,000 workers and few hundred drones (male bees) in a colony.
19. Name the following
i. The largest bee in the colony
Queen Bee
ii. The kind of flight which the newvirgin queen takes along with the drones out of the hive
Nuptial flight
20. What are the main duties of a worker bee?
*Among the honey bees, workers are sterile females and smallest but yet function as the main spring of
the complicated machinery in the colony.
*Worker bee lives in a chamber called ‘Worker Cell’ and it takes about 21 days to develop from the egg
to adult and its lifespan is about six weeks.
*Each worker has to perform different types of work in her life time.
*During the first half of her life, she becomes a nurse bee attending to indoor duties such as secretion of
royal jelly, prepares bee-bread to feed the larvae,feeds the queen, takes care of the queen and drones,
secretes bees wax, builds combs, cleans and fans the bee hive.

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*Then she becomes a soldier and guards the bee hive. In the second half her life lasting for three weeks,
she searches and gathers the pollen, nectar, propolis and water.
21. What happens to the drones after mating flight?
* The drones die after mating flight.
*The sole duty of the drone is to fertilize the virgin queen hence called “King of the colony”. During
swarming (the process of leaving the colony by the queen with a large group of worker bees to form a
new colony) the drones follows the queen, copulates and dies after copulation.
22. Give the economic importance of Silkworm
1. Silk fibers are utilized in preparing silk clothes. Silk fibers are now combined with other natural or
synthetic fibers to manufacture clothes like Teri-Silk, Cot-Silk etc. Silk is dyed and printed to prepare
ornamented fabrics. They are generally made from Eri-silk or spun silk.
2. Silk is used in industries and for military purposes.
3. It is used in the manufacture of fishing fibers, parachutes, cartridge bags, insulation coils for telephone,
wireless receivers, tyres of racing cars, filter fibres, in medical dressings and as suture materials.
23. What are the Nutritive values of fishes?
*Fishes frrm a rich source of protein food and provide a good staple food to tide over the nutritional needs
of man.
* Fish species such as sardines, mackerel, tuna, herrings have high amino acids concentrations
particularly histidine which is responsible for the meaty flavor of the flesh. It is rich in fat such as omega
3 fatty acids.
*Minerals such as calcium, magnesium, phosphorus,potassium, iron, manganese, iodine and copper.
24. Give the economic importance of prawn fishery
The prawns are one of the most economically important fishery organism of India.
It helps to earn a sizeable amount of foreign exchange.
The prawns are the most esteemed food among the marine food organisms. ... Apart from being a
delicacy, prawns are a rich source of protein and vitamins (A and D)
Economic importance of prawn:
1. It is a tasty protein food.
2. Economic development can be achieved through prawn culture.
3. Prawn takes part in earning foreign currency.
4. It is much profitable to cultivate prawn in fresh water at a comparatively lower cost. well.
So, it is very profitable to cultivate prawn in a planned scientific manner.
25. Give the economic importance of lac insect
Economic importance of Lac
a. Lac is largely used as a sealing wax and adhesive for optical instruments.It is used in electric industry,
as it is a good insulator.
b. It is used in preparations of shoe and leather polishes and as a protective coating of wood.
c. It is used in laminating paper board, photographs, engraved materials and plastic moulded articles.
d. Used as a filling material for gold ornaments
26. List any three common uses of shellac.
Shellac is a resin secreted by the female lac bug, on trees in the forests of India and Thailand.
It is processed and sold as dry flakes (pictured) and dissolved in alcohol to make liquid shellac, which is
used as a brush-on colorant, food glaze and woodfinish.
27. Name any two trees on which lac insect grows.
Karanagalli (Acacia catechu),
Karuvelai (Acacia nilotica) and
Kumbadiri(Schleichera oleosa).
28. What is seed lac?

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The lac present on the twig is scraped and collected. Aftergrinding, the unnecessary materials like dusts
and fine particles are removed. The resultant lac is called ‘seed lac’. The seed lac is sun dried and then
melted to produce ‘shellac’.
29. Define cross breeding.
Cross breeding: Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed.
The cross bred progeny has superior traits ( hybrid vigour or heterosis.)
30. What are the advantages of artificial insemination?
Advantages of artificial insemination
i. It increases the rate of conception
ii. It avoids genital diseases
iii. Semen can be collected from injured bulls which have desirable traits.
iv. Superior animals located apart can be bred successfully.
31. Discuss the various techniques adopted in cattle breeding?
Methods of Animal breeding:
There are two methods of animal breeding, namely inbreeding and outbreeding
1. Inbreeding:
Breeding between animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations is called inbreeding. Inbreeding
increases homozygosity and exposes the harmful recessive genes. Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility
and even productivity, resulting in “inbreeding depression”. This can be avoided by breeding selected
animals of the breeding population and they should be mated with superior animals of the same breed but
unrelated to the breeding population. It helps to restore fertility and yield.
2. Outbreeding:
The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding. Individuals produced do not havecommon
ancestors for 4-6 generations. Outbreeding helps to produce new and favourable traits, to produce hybrids
with superior qualities and helps to create new breeds. New and favourable genes can be introduced into a
population through outbreeding.
i. Out crossing:
It is the breeding between unrelated animals of the same breed but having no common ancestry. The
offspring of such a cross is called outcross. This method is suitable for breeding animals below average in
productivity.
ii. Cross breeding:
Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed. The cross bred
progeny has superior traits ( hybrid vigour or heterosis.)
iii. Interspecific hybridization:
In this method of breeding mating is between male and female of two different species. The progeny
obtained from such crosses are different from their parents, and may possess the desirable traits of the
parents. Have you heard about Mule? It was produced by the process of interspecific hybridization
between a male donkey and a female horse.
32. Mention the advantages of MOET.
*It is another method of propagation of animals with desirable traits.
*This method is applied when the success rate of crossing is low even after artificial insemination.
*For another round of ovulation, the same genetic mother is utilized.
*This technology can be applied to cattle, sheep and buffaloes. Advantage of this technology is to
produce high milk yielding females and high-quality meat yielding bulls in a short time.
33. Write the peculiar characters of duck.
Peculiarity of ducks:
The body is fully covered with oily feathers.
They have a layer of fat under their skin which prevents it from getting wet.
They lay eggs at night or in the morning.
The ducks feed on rice bran, kitchen wastes, waste fish and snails.
ALL THE BEST

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